Shared Flashcard Set

Details

Step 1:micro, some blood
DIT U-W
235
Medical
Graduate
03/20/2015

Additional Medical Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
A 50 yr old obese male with HTN comes to your clinic to recieve care for his chronic fatigue. A CBC is performed and an elevated H&H is discovered. Whta is the most likely cause of elevated hemoglobin level?
Definition
Sleep apnea induced erythrocytosis
Term
What are the acute phase cytokines?
Definition

IL-1

IL-6

TNF-alpha

Term
Which class of bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer?
Definition

Gram positive

 

[image]

[image]

Term
Name all the gram negative bacteria
Definition
[image]
Term
Name all the gram positive bacteria
Definition
[image]
Term

Where are beta lactamases found on the bacteria?

How are they significant?

Definition

Int he periplasm

they are responsible for drug resistance to penicillins

Term
What are the Encapsulated Bacteria?
Definition

Some Killers Have Nice Sexy Capsule Bodies

 

Step. pneumonia

Klebsiella pneumonia

Haemophilus influenza B

Neisseria Meningitidis

Salmonella

Cryptococcus neoformans

Group B Strep

Term
How would you test to see if a bacteria is encapsulated?
Definition

Quelling for a Shelling

 

Quelling reaction where antibodies bind to the capsule (shell)

Term
Which vaccines are made from capsular antigens?
Definition
  • H. influenzae type B vaccine
  • meningococcal vaccines
  • S. pneumoniae vaccine (pneumovax)
Term
Patients with C5-9 complement deficiency have an increased susceptibility to which bacterial species?
Definition

Neisseria

gram- cocci

[image]

Term
A 32 year-old African American man with a past medical history of sickle cell anemia presents to his primary care physician for a routine check-up. He has no complaints. His physician notes that he likely has an increased susceptibility to infections with certain organisms. Which of complement deficiency has a similar pattern of increased susceptibility?
Definition
C3 complement deficiency
Term

Which bacteria lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall and has cholesterol in its cell membrane?

What agar is it cultured on?

Definition

Mycoplasma

non-gram staining

Eaton's Agar

 

responsible for "walking/atypical pneumonia"

[image]

Term

A 26-year-old female goes to her primary care physician complaining of severe vaginal itching with a malodorous yellow-green discharge. Her past medical history is unremarkable, and she does not take any medications. She is sexually active with one male partner and uses condoms inconsistently. Urinalysis is positive for white blood cells. Wet mount results are shown below.

[image]

 

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for her partner

Definition
Metronidazole
Term

The lung of a 45-year-old Caucasian male who died from Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection reveals the following at autopsy. Of the steps leading to the formation of this structure, which occurs first?

[image]

Definition
Bacterium-mediated inhibition of phagosome-lysosome fusion
Term
A 30-year-old man is diagnosed with multi-drug resistant tuberculosis after a recent trip to Eastern Europe. After drug susceptibility testing is completed, he is given a regimen of antibiotics as treatment. He returns two weeks later complaining of decreased visual acuity and color-blindness. Which drug of the following is the mechanism of action of the drug that is most likely to cause this side effect?
Definition

Pt is taking Ethambutol

Toxic side-effects include retrobulbar neuritis that results in color-blindness, decreased visual acuity, and central scotoma. Ethambutol is a bacteriostatic agent that works by obstructing the formation of the tubercular cell wall through its inhibition of arabinogalactan synthesis.

[image]

Term
A 44-year-old Caucasian male presents with a fever, recent weight loss, and a cough productive of bloody sputum. A chest X-ray and CT scan were performed, revealing cavities near the apex of his lungs. The patient is started on rifampin, isoniazid, ethambutol and pyrazinamide. Formation of the cavities in the patient's lungs is mainly mediated by what cells?
Definition
The immune response against M. tuberculosis primarily is marked by granuloma formation and is mediated by TH1 cells. Granulomas eventually contain caseous necrosis at their center and can cavitate.
Term
37-year-old man previously treated with monotherapy for latent tuberculosis develops new-onset cough, night sweats and fever. He produces a sputum sample that is positive for acid-fast bacilli. Resistance testing of his isolated bacteria finds a mutation in the DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. To which of the TB antibiotics might this patient's infection be resistant?
Definition

The patient's infection would most likely be resistant to rifampin, which works by inhibiting bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

[image]

Term
Primary tuberculosis usually develops in which part of the lung?
Definition

Primary tuberculosis is characterized by a fibrocavitary disease of the middle or lower lobes of the lung with/without involvement of hilar/mediastinal nodes. Together, these findings are termed a Ghon complex when visible on chest radiograph.

[image]

Term
What does the Giemsa stain identify?
Definition

Borriela

Plasmodium

Trypanosomes

Chlamydia

 

Term
What does the PAS stain for
Definition
  • glycogen
  • mucopolysaccharides
  • used to diagnose Whipple's disease (Tropheryma whippelii)

"PAS the sugar before I whip you"

Term
What does Ziehl-Neelson stain for?
Definition

Acid fast organisms

  • Mycobacterium
  • Nocardia (partially acid fast)
  • Cryptosporidum oocysts
Term
What is India Ink used to stain for?
Definition
  • Cryptococcus neoformans
    • stain is not taken up by polysaccharide capsule, creating a transparent halo
    • mucicarmine can also be used to stain capsule red
    [image][image]
Term
What are silver stains used to identify?
Definition
Pneunmocystis, Legionella and Fungi
Term
What bacterial structure mediates adherence of bacteria to the surface of th cell?
Definition

Fimbria or Pili

 

Term
What bacterial structure is th space between the inner and outer cellular membranes in Gram- bacteria?
Definition

Periplasm

reason for a lot of penicillin resistance

Term
Which bacterial strucutre mediates motility?
Definition
Flagella
Term
Which bacterial form provides resistance to dehydration, heat and chemicals?
Definition

spores

[image]

Term
Which bcteria do not stain well?
Definition

Gram -

"These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color"

 

Tryponema

Rickettsia

Mycoplasma

Mycobacterium

Legionella

Chlamydia

Term
What is DIC?
Definition
  • A systemic coagulation disorder with
    • pathologic hypercoagulation with formation of microthrombi
    • become hypocoagulable as coagulation factors are consumed
  • May occur secondary to
    • sepsis
      • most commonly E. coli, N. meningitidis
        • endotoxins released damage vessels walls and stimulate coagulation
        • N. meningitidis may lead to Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome 
    • neoplasms
      • acute promyelocytic leukemia
        • caused by release of Auer rods/primary granules
      • adenocarcinomas
        • caused by release of procoagulant mucin
    • trauma/crush injuries
      •  caused by release thromboplastin which activates extrinsic cascade
    • rattlesnake bite
      • venom is procoagulant
    • obstetric complications
      • abruptio placentae
Term
What are the known toxins sexreted by Staph aureus, and what are their actions?
Definition

α-toxinhemolysis

β-toxinsphingomyelinase

 

γ-toxin Proteins A, B, and C→ A+B=hemolysin,

B+C= leukocidin

Hemolysin→hemolysis

Leukocidin→destroys leukocytes

 

Enterotoxins A-Efood poisoning→vomiting & diarrhae


TSST-1→release of cytokinesToxic Shock Syndrome

 

Epidermolytic/Exfoliative→epithelial lysis→scalded skin syndrome

 

[image]

 

 

Term
What known toxins are secreted by Streptococcus pyogenes?
Definition

(Group A Strep)

 

Streptolysin O→ hemolysis (oxygen labile-*ASO titers* )

 

Streptolysin S→ hemolysis (oxygen stabile)

 

Erythrogenic/pyrogenic→ skin rash and fever (Scarlet fever)

[image]

 

Term

What is the causative agent causing the pseudomembrane?

[image]

Definition

Cornyebacterium Diptheria

Elongation Factor-2 is the exotoxin that causes pseudomembranous pharyngitis

 

do not scrape! can cause toxin to get into circulation and can be lethal to the heart and neurons

[image]

Term

What does the guy with the accordion represent?

[image]

Definition

This image is Pseudomonas

the guy represent the exotoxin A that inhibits EF-2

(like diptheria)


 

 

Term
Which exotoxin inhibits ACh release causing flaccid paralysis?
Definition

Clostridium botulinum

botulinum toxin

[image]

Term
Which exotoxin is a lecinthinase that causes gas gangrene?
Definition

alpha toxin

Clostridium perfiringens

 

[image]

 

Term
Which exotoxin stimulates adenylate cyclase causing a release of Cl- and water into the gut and watery diarrhea?
Definition
Cholera toxin and heat labile E.Coli toxin
Term
Which exotoxin blocks the release of the inhibitory neurotransmitter glycine?
Definition

Tetanospasmin

[image]

Term
What five bacteria secrete enterotoxins?
Definition

Enterotoxin: exotoxin that causes water and electrolyte imbalances and diarrhea

 

Vibrio Cholera

E.Coli

Salmonella

Shigella

Staph. Aureus

Term
What organisms are most commonly implicated in subacute endocarditis?
Definition

Viridans Strep

Enterococci

Coagulase negative Staph (S.epidermidus)

Term

A woman is breast feeding and develops redness and swelling of her right breast over a period of 24 hours.

Exam reveals a warm fluctuant mass. What is the diagnosis?

Definition
Staph aureus mastitis
Term
What infections are caused by Strep pyogenes?
Definition

Pyogenic:

Pharyngitis

Endocarditis

Skin infections

Necrotizing fascitis

Bacteremia

 

Toxin-mediated:

Scarlet Fever

Toxic Shock Syndrome

 

Autoimmune mediated:

Acute Glomerulonephritis

Rheumatic Fever

 

 

Term
What drugs and endogenous hormones regulate the secretion of gastric acid?
Definition

HORMONES:

Stimulatory:

Histamine and Gastrin

 

Inhibitory:

Prostaglandins

Somatostatins

Secretin

GIP

 

________________________

 

DRUGS

PPIs

H2 blockers

Antimuscarinics (atropine)

Term
What is the mechanism of action of N-acetylcysteine given as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose?
Definition
regenerates glutathione
Term
How do you treat Corynebacterium Diptheria?
Definition

Penicillin or Erythromycin + anti-toxin

-immunize the patient

 

Term
Which organisms can form spores?
Definition

Clostridium species (C.perferingins, tetani, botulinum)

Bacillus species (B. anthracis, cereus)

Coxiella Burnetti (Rickettsial species)

Term
How often do you give a tetanus booster?
Definition
every 10 years
Term
What are the obligate anaerobes? Why are they anaerobes and how do you treat them?
Definition

Can't Breath Air

 

Clostridium

Bacteroides

Actinomyces

 

lack the enzymes to neutralize oxygen

 

Metronidazole and Clindamycin

[image]

Term
What are the obligate aerobes?
Definition

Nocardia

Bacillus Anthracis

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

Pseudomonas

 

Term
Which bacteria are common causes of neonatal infections?
Definition

Group B strep

Listeria Monocytogenes

E.Coli

Term
What is the major biochemical cause of penicillin resistance?
Definition
beta lactamase reduction
Term
What is the mechanism of action of penicillin drugs?
Definition

BACTERIOCIDAL:

cell wall inhibitor that binds PBP

blockd transpeptidase cross linking of cell wall

activates autolytic enzymes

 

gram + bacteria

strep

spirochetes (syphillis) Penicillin G

 

Toxicity: HSR

[image]

Term
How do Aminopenicllins work? What are the clinical uses for ampicillin and amoxicillin?
Definition

same as penicillins but a wider spectrum

they are not resistant to enzymes like penicillinase, beta lactamase

 

Gram+ bacteria

Gram- rods

 

UTIs, Neonatal Infections

 

HEELPSS

H.Influenza

E.Coli

Enterococci

Listeria

Proteus Mirabilis

Salmonella

Shigella

 

Amoxicillin: Oral

Ampicillin: IV

 

Toxicity:

HSR like penicillin

Rash with/after mononucleosis infection

Pseudomembranous colitis

 

 

Term
What are the penicillase resistant penicillins?
Definition

Methicillin

Nafcillin

Dicloxacillin

 

same mechanism as penicillan but have resistance

 

uses: Staph Aureus infections except MRSA

 

Toxicity: HSR

INnterstitial nephritis

 

Term
Which penicillins are anti-pseudomonal?
Definition

Ticarcillin

Carbenicillin

Pipercillin

 

not resistant to penicillinase

 

used for pseudomonal infections

Term
What are the beta lactamase inhibitors?
Definition

Sulbactam

 

Clavulanic Acid

 

used combined with a penicillin

Term
Which penicillin would you use for syphillis infection?
Definition
Penicillin G (IV)
Term
Which penicillin would you use to treat a UTI?
Definition
Extended spectrum Aminopenicillin: Amoxocillin or Ampicillin
Term
Which penicillin would you use to treat a pseudomonas infection?
Definition
Ticarcillin, Carbenicillin, Piperacillin
Term
What penicillin would you use to treat a neonatal infection?
Definition
Ampicillin with Gentomicin
Term
What are the bacteriostatic antibiotics and what do they do (generally)?
Definition
[image]
Term
Understand this image!
Definition
[image]
Term

What are the first generation Cephalosporins?

Clinical use?

Definition

bacteriocidal antibiotics

Cephazolin

Cephalexin

 

Gram positive cocci and PEK

Proteus

E.Coli

Klebsiella

 

Uses:

-UTIs

-URIs

-prophylaxis against skin infections and S.viridans endocarditis from dental procedures

 

Term

What are the 2nd generation Cephalosporins?

 

Definition

Cefoxitin

Cefaclor

Cefuroxime

 

 

gram positive cocci and HENS PEcK and Anaerobes

Haemophilus influenzae

Enterobacter aerogenes

Neisseria

Serratia

 

Proteus

E.Coli

Klebsiella

 

Uses

Term

What are the 3rd generation cephalosporins?

clinical uses?

Definition

Remeber -Triaxone is a tri generation. Triax, Tax, Taz, dinir


Ceftriaxone (Meningitis, CAP, Gonorrhea)

Cefotaxime

Ceftazidime (Pseudomonas)

Cefdinir

 

as a whole:

 more serious Gram negative infections

more resistant to beta lactamases

 

Term
What is the 4th generation cephalosporine and its clinical use?
Definition

Cefepime

 

very broad

strong gram positive, gram negative and pseudmonas

Term
Which bacterial infections CANNOT be covered by Cephalosporins alone?
Definition

LAME

 

Listeria

Atypicals (Mycoplasma and Chlamydia)

MRSA

Enterococci

 

 

Term
Which Cephalosporin has the longest half life?
Definition
Ceftriaxone
Term
What is the toxicity of Cephalosporins?
Definition
  • HSR

 

  • Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin)+Cephalosporins= Nephrotoxicity

[image]

 

  • Ethanol + some Cephalosporins= Disulfuram like reaction

inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase

 

  • severe allergy to penicillin may also have reaction to Cephalosporins

 

 

Term
What drugs can have a disulfuram-like reaction if taken with alcohol?
Definition

Metronidazole

[image]

some obscure cephalosporins..

Cefotetan

Cefamandole

Cefoperazone

Procarbazine

1st gen sulfonylureas (Tolbutamide)

Term
Which generation of cephalosporin would you chose to use for UTI prevention?
Definition

1st or 2nd

 

Cephazolin

Cephalexin

 

Cefoxitin

Cefaclor

Cefuroxime

 

Term
Which eneration of cephalosporin would you use for Serraitia UTI?
Definition

2nd generation

 

Cefoxitime

Cefaclor

Cefuroxime

Term
Which generation cephalosporin would you use for N.Meningitides?
Definition

3rd generation

 

Cetriaxone

Cefotazidime

Cefotaxime

Cefdinir

Term
Which generation of cephalosporin would you use to treat pseudomonas?
Definition

3rd or 4th

Tax, Taz Triaxone

Cefipime

Term
Which generation of cephalosporin would you use to treatotitis media due to nontypable H.flu?
Definition

2nd generation

 

Cefoxitin

Cefaclor

Cefuroxime

Term
What side effect would you be concerned about if a patient is recieving both ceftriazone and gentamycin?
Definition
Nephrotoxcity
Term
Which drug is a monobactam, resistant to beta lactamase, and can only be used against gram negative rods by inhibiting cell wall synthesis and binding to PBP-3?
Definition
Aztreonam
Term
How is Aztreonam similar to Aminoglycosides?
Definition

different mechanism of action but the spectrum of coverage is similar

 

Aztreonam covers gram negative rods only and aerobes

 

good to use in pts allergic to penicillin, bad kidneys and gram- infection

 

 

Term
When is Aztreonam most often used clinically?
Definition
  • pts with penicillin allergy
  • pts with renal insufficiency (can't tolerate aminoglycosides)
  • in combination with an antibiotic with gram + coverage (vancomycin+aztreonam)

synergistic with aminoglycosides

Term
A 21-year-old sexually active male complains of fever, pain during urination, and inflammation and pain in the right knee. A culture of the joint fluid shows a bacteria that does not ferment maltose and has no polysaccharide capsule. The physician orders antibiotic therapy for the patient and symptoms subside within 2 days. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Definition

Pt has disseminate N. Gonococcal infection which can be treated with a 3rd generation cephalosporin like ceftriaxone.

Cefrtiaxone blocks cell wall synthesis

Term
Which antibiotic is a flouroquinolone that inhibits DNA gyrase?
Definition
Cirpofloxacin
Term
Which antibiotic is a cyclic polypeptide that interferes with cell wall synthesis?
Definition
Bacitracin
Term
Which aminoglycoside antibiotic inhibits the 30S ribosome?
Definition

Gentamycin

 

"My 30 yo Genta-men"

Term
Which antibiotic is a glycopeptide that interferes with cell wall synthesis and can be used to treat MRSA, S. epidermidis, and C.diff infections?
Definition

Vancomycin

 

[image]

Term
What drug is always administered with imipinem? Why?
Definition

Cilistatin

 

Cilistatin inhibits renal dehydropeptidase l which inactivated imipiniem in the renal tubules

Term
What organisms are Imipinime/Cilistatin and Meropenem effective against?
Definition

empiric treatment of life threatening infections

ICU pts

 

very broad range: gram +, gram-, anaerobes

*BUT DOES NOT COVER MRSA or mycoplasma*

 

usually combined with vancomycin to cover MRSA

Term
What are the toxicities related to Carbapenems?
Definition

Impipenin/Cilistatin and Meropenem

 

seizures (meropenem reduced risk)

nausea

vomiting

[image]

GI upset

[image]

Skin rash

[image]

Allergy

[image]

Term
What are the clinical uses of Vancomycin and the toxic side effects?
Definition

Gram +

MRSA

Enterococcus (except VRE obviously)

C.diff (oral form)

Staph epidermidus (coag- staph)

 

Toxicity: NOT

Nephrotoxicty

Ototoxicty

Thrombophlebitis

 

Red man syndrome

itchy, redness, flushing

what to do: pretreat with antihistamine and slow infusion of Vancomycin

[image]

 

Term
What cell wall inhibitor can cause Red Man Syndrome?
Definition
Vancomycin
Term
What cell wall inhibitor is the next step in treatment of otitis media if resistant to amoxicillin?
Definition

Augmentin

 

(Amoxicillin + Calvulinic Acid)

Term
What cell wall inhibitor is used as prophylaxis against bacterial endocarditis?
Definition

Penicillin V

Aminopenicillin

Cephalexin

 

Term
Which cell wall inhibitor increases the nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides?
Definition
Cephalosporins
Term
Which cell wall inhibitor is an aminoglycoside "pretender"?
Definition
Aztreonam
Term
Which cell wall inhibitor would is used as inpatient treatment for MRSA?
Definition
Vancomycin
Term
Which cell wall inhibitor is sufficient for the treatment of syphillis?
Definition
Penicillin G
Term
Which cell wall inhibitor is used as a single dose treatment for gonorrhea?
Definition
Ceftriaxone
Term
Which cell wall inhibitor is used as treatment for C. diff colitis?
Definition

Oral vancomycin

 

*metronidazole is first line, but is not a cell wall inhibitor*

Term
Which cell wall inhibitor would you use in the case of appendicitis desiring a broad spectrum coverage?
Definition
Carbapenem: Imipinem+Cilistatin or Meropenem
Term
Which cell wall inhibitors are effective against pseudomonas?
Definition

Cefepime

Aztreonam

Carboxypenicillins

Term
How does an organism obtain resistance to Vancomycin?
Definition

amino acid change from

D-ala D-ala D-ala D-lac

[image]

Term

What genetic syndrome fits the following treatment

 

Rx: no nutrasweet, increased dietary tyrosine

Definition
PKU
Term

What genetic syndrome fits the following treatment

Rx: Decreased methionine, increased cysteine + B6

Definition

Homocystinuria

 

[image]

Term

What genetic syndrome fits the following treatment?

 

Rx. Acetazolamide to alkaline urine

Definition
Cystinuria
Term

What genetic syndrome fits the treatment?

 

Rx: decreased fructose and sucrose intake

 

Definition

Fructose Intolerance

 

(aldolase B deficiency)

[image]

Term

Which genetic syndrome fits the treatment?

 

Rx: increased intake of ketogenic nutrients (fats)

Definition

Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency

 

[image]

Term

Which genetic syndrome fits the treatment?

 

Rx:exclude galactose and lactose from the diet

Definition
Galactosemia
Term
What is Pott's disease?
Definition

extrapulmonary tuberculosis that impacts the spine, Pott's disease has an effect that is sometimes described as being a sort of arthritis for the vertebrae that make up the spinal column. More properly known as tuberculosis spondylitis

[image]

Term

What is the distinction between a Ghon Complex and a Ghon Focus?

 

Definition

Ghon focus: calcified lung scar

 

Ghon complex: hilar lymphadenopathy and a calcified lung scar

 

seen in primary TB

Term

Which Mycobacterium species fits the following:

  • Causes leprosy
  • Causes pulmonary TB-like symptoms in COPD pts
  • Causes cervical lymphadenitis in children
  • Causes disseminated disease in AIDS patients
  • Causes hand infection in aquarium workers

 

Definition

 

  • Causes leprosy=Mycobacterium leprae

 

  • Causes pulmonary TB-like symptoms in COPD pts= Mycobacterium kansasii

 

  • Causes cervical lymphadenitis in children= Mycobacterium scrofulaceum

 

  • Causes disseminated disease in AIDS patients= MAI /MAC
  • Causes hand infection in aquarium workers= Mycobacterium marinum

 

Term
What does a positive PPD skin test indicate?
Definition

-past exposure

-past BCG vaccine

-infection

Term
What does a negative PPD skin test indicate?
Definition

-immunocompromised

-steroids

-sarcoidosis

-malnourishment

-no infection

Term
Rifampin is used to treat what disease prophylactically?
Definition
Meningiococcal Meningitis
Term
What is the only agent used as solo prophylaxis in TB?
Definition
Isoniazid
Term
What drug cocktail is used in the treatment of tubercolosis?
Definition

RIPE

 

Rifampin

Isoniazid

Pyrazinamide

Ethambutol

 

Term

What antibiotic is used for prevention of MAI in AIDS patients? (Mycobacterium Avium Intracellulare)

 

When?

Definition

Azithromycin

CD4 count<50

Term
How do you treat MAI?
Definition

Azithromycin

Rifampin

Ethambutol

Streptomycin

Term
How do you treat Mycobacterium Leporae?
Definition

Dapsone

Rifampin

Clofazamine

 

Term

What is the mechanism of Isoniazid?

Toxicity?

Definition

decreases synthesis of mycolic acids


toxicity: neurotoxicity and hepatotoxicity, drug induced lupus (anti-histone ABs)

[image][image]


Pyrodoxine (B6) helps prevent toxic side effects

 

Term
What drugs are known for causing drug induced lupus?
Definition

Isoniazid

Procainamide

Hydralazine

Term
What are the Rs of Rifampin?
Definition

RNA polymerase inhibitor

Revs up microsomal cytochrome p450

Red/orange body fluids

Rapid resistance develops if used alone

[image]

Term
What infections is Rifampin used for? Toxicity?
Definition

TB

Leprosy

Meningococcal prophylaxis (close contacts)

H.influenzae type B prophylaxis (close contacts)

 

Toxicity: hepatotoxicity

[image]

 

Term
What is an important side effect of ethambutol?
Definition

decreases carbohydrate polymerization of the mycobacterium cell wall by blocking arabinocyltransferase

 

Toxicity: Optic neuropathy

red/green colorblindness (reversible)

 

[image]

Term
The mother of a patient recently hospitalized for Haemophilus meningits calls the clinic becasue she notices blood in her urine. What is the likely cause of her symptoms?
Definition
She was most likely treated prophylactically with Rifampin which causes body fluids to turn red/orange
Term
A patient is attempting to recall for you what medications he is taking and there is one medication that he is taking to "keep his lungs healthy" that he also says can "hurt his nerves" unless he takes his B vitamin. What med is he referring to?
Definition
Isoniazid
Term
What drugs are famous for inducing cytochrome p450?
Definition

BCG PQRS

 

Barbituates

Carbamazepine

Griseofulvin

Phenytoin

Quinidine

Rifampin

St.John's Wart

Term
What drugs are famous for inhibiting cytochrome p450?
Definition

PICK EGGS

 

Protease Inhibitors

Isoniazid

Cimetidine

Ketoconazole

 

Erythromycin

Grapefruit Juice

Sulfonamides

Term
What is the classic presenting symptom in a patient with Lyme disease?
Definition

erythema chronica migrans (bulls eye rash)

[image]

Term
What diseases might have Bell's Palsy as a complication?
Definition

Lovely Belle Had An STD

 

Lyme Disease

Herpes Zoster

AIDS

Sarcoidosis

Tumors

Diabetes

Term
What pupillary sign might point you to a diagnosis of syphillis?
Definition

Argyll Robertson Pupil

Small and irregular bilaterally

-not reactive to light

constricts with accomodation

[image]

 

[image]

 

[image]

Term

What organism is associated with the floowing clue?

 

-Pet prairie dog

-Ixodes tick

-Dog bite

-Lymphadenopathy and a new kitten

-Rabbit hunter

Definition

Pet prairie dog:Yersinia pestis

 

Ixodes tick: Borrelia burgdorferi

 

Dog bite: Pasturella multocida

 

Lymphadenopathy and a new kitten:

Bartonella (Cat sctratch)

 

Rabbit hunter: Francisella tularensis

Term
What is the Rickettsial triad of symptoms?
Definition

Headache

Fever

Rash

Term
Cold agglutinins or cryoagglutinins are typically what kind of Immunoglobulin?
Definition
IgM
Term
Which antibiotic should be used to treat mycoplasma pneumonia?
Definition

Tetracyclines or Macrolides

[image]

Term
Which antibiotic do you use for early Lyme disease?
Definition
Doxycycline
Term
Which antibiotic do you use for late Lyme disease?
Definition
Ceftriaxone
Term
How do you culture Haemophilus Influenzae?
Definition

Chocolate Agar with Factor V (nicotinamide)

and Factor X (hematin)

 

[image]

 

 

 

Term
What are the toxins Bordatella pertussis uses to infect?
Definition

Pertussis toxin: ribosylates Gi-->increases cAMP and cuases leukocytosis

 

Adenylate Cylcase toxin:increases cAMP (similar to edema factor of B.anthracis)

 

Tracheal toxin: damages cilia of the trachea

[image]

Term
What are the gram negative bacilli that infect the respiratory tract?
Definition

 

Bordatella Pertussis, H. Influenzae, Legionella

[image][image]

[image]

 

Term
What are three major spirochetes?
Definition

Borrelia (lyme disease)

Leptospirosis

Treponema Pallidum (syphillis)

[image]

[image]

[image]

Term
Who is at risk for Rickettsia Prowazekii infections?
Definition

Epidemic Typhus

Army recruits, prisoners, refugee camps

close quarters

 

rash starts at trunk and spreads out

rash spares hands, feet and head

pneumonia

myalgia

encephalitis and even coma if serious

 

spread via louse-->defecates-->scratch-->in blood stream

 

Tx: Doxycycline[image]

 

 

 

Term
Which rickettsial rash begins at extremities and is transmitted by the dermacentor tick?
Definition

Rickettsia Rickettsii

[image]

Term
A patient presents with difficulty breathing after adopting a new kitten. What cell plays a role in late activation of this disease process?
Definition

 

eosinophils play a role in late activation

mast cells: early activation

resolution: macrophages

remodeling: epithelial cells

sensitization: dendritic and TH2 cells

Term
Which drug would you use to challenge/diagnose a patient with asthma?
Definition
Methacholine is a muscarinic cholinergic agonist which is used along with pulmonary function testing to measure bronchiolar hyperactivity. With a positive test result, set at a decrease in FEV1 of greater than or equal to 20% when prior pulmonary function tests (PFTs) were normal, the sensitivity of this test for asthma diagnosis is 90%. When PFTs show a baseline decrease in FEV1, bronchodilator response of greater than 12% is suggestive of asthma over other obstructive lung diseases, though bronchodilator response can be seen in other obstructive lung diseases as well.
Term

What is ITP?

labs, tx,..?

Definition

 

Quantitative primary hemostasis disorder:

thrombocytopenia→petechiae

ITP: antibodies against Gp2b/3a;platelets are consumed by splenic macrophages; most common cause of thrombocytopenia in children(acute) and adults(chronic)

associated with SLE (secondary) IgG can cross placenta and cause short lived thrombocytopenia in newborns

Labs:

↓platelet count

normal PT/PTT

↑MEGAkaryocytes on bone marrow bx

Tx: corticosteroids (children)

IVIG (short lived defense: idea is spleen will eat up these IG instead of the platelet bound ones)

Splenectomy (site of antibody production and destruction)

 

 

 

__________________________________________

 

Qualitative:

 

Term
What are the Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia?
Definition

Characterisitics of BOTH:

Quantitative platelet disorder and  Primary hemostasis disorder and hemolytic anemia

pathologic formation of platelet microthrombi in small vessels seen in TTP and HUS

RBC shearing→schistocytes→hemolytic anemia

Skin and mucosal bleeding

Fever

Renal Insufficiency

CNS abnormalities

Thrombocytopenia

↑BT

Normal PT/PTT

Anemia with schistocytes

↑megakaryocytes on bone marrow biopsy


_____________________________________

 

TTP: ADAMSTS13 deficiency, metalloprotease needed to chop up vWF into monomers due to autoimmune  against it

vWF accumulates→abn. platelet adhesion→microthrombi→RBC shearing→hemolysis and thrombocytopenia

 

commonly seen in adult females

Tx: Plasmapherisis and corticosteroids

___________________________________________

 

HUS: endothelial damage by drugs or infection E.Coli O157.H7 (undercooked beef) verotoxin damages endothelial cells causing platelet microthrombi→RBCs sheared→schistocytes→hemolysis and trombocytopenia

↑uremia

Term
Where does vWF come from?
Definition

alpha granule of platelet

 

Weibel Palade bodies of the endothelial cells

Term

What are the Qualitative primary hemostasis disorders?

What other things can case them>

Definition

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

Genetic Gp1b deficiency

mild thrombocytopenia and enlarged platelets

 

______________________________________

Glanzmann's Thrombasthenia

Genetic GpIIb/IIIa deficiency imparing platelet aggregation with other platelets via fibrinogen

_________________________________________

 

Aspirin

blocks COX2 ingibiting production of TXA2 which impairs platelet aggregation (signaling of platelets from the platelet)

_________________________________________

Uremia

poor kidney function causes a build up of nitrogenous waste products which impairs both adhesion and aggregation

 

 

 

 

Term
What are the key clinical features of Secondary hemostasis disorders?
Definition

deep tissue bleeding into muscles and joints

rebleeding after surgical procedures (wisdom teeth ex.)

Term

What is the deficiency in Hemophilia A?

Labs?

 

Definition

Factor VIII (8) deficiency

deep tissue joint and post surgical bleeding

 

↑PTT

normalPT

↓Factor VIII

normal platelet count and bleeding time

 

remember

 

[image]

Term
What is the deficincy in Hemophilia B?
Definition

Factor IX deficiency

 

↑PTT

↓Factor IX

normal PT

 

 

 

Term
How do you determine if a patient has a coagulation factor deficiency or inhibitor?
Definition

Mixing study

 

PTT does not correct upon mixing normal plasma with patients plasma if inhibitor is present

 

Term

What is the most common inherited coagulation disorder?

Tx?

Definition

vWF disorder

 

AD: decreased vWF→poor adhesion→mild mucosal and skin bleeding

 

increased bleeding time

↑PTT

(vWF stabalizes Factor 8 but no clinical problems)

normal PT

Abnormal ristocetin test

 

Tx: Desmopressin : increases the release of vWF from Weibel-Palade bodies of endothelial cells

Term
How does Vitamin K deficienct cause bleeding disorder?
Definition

disrupts the function of multiple factors:

 

Vitamin K is activated by epoxide reductase in the liver and the Vitamin K is needed for gammacarboxylation of Factors 10, 9, 7, 2, C and S

 

Pharm reminder:

(Warfarin/coumadin blocks epoxide reductase)

Term

What causes Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia?

How do you correct it and what are the complications?

Definition

Heparin can form complexes with platelet factor 4 which causes an IgG response causing the destruction of platelets by the spleen

 

Fragments of destroyed platelts can stay in blood stream and activate remaining platelets leading to thrombosis

 

Tx, stop heparin

treat with another anticoagulant (not coumadin bc of risk for skin necrosis)

[image]

Term
What is DIC?
Definition

Pathologic activation of coagulation cascade→widespread micothrombi→ischemia and infarction and overtime thrombocytopenia resulting in bleeding

 

Bleed from IV sites

mucosal surfaces

↓platelet count

↑PT/PTT

↓Fibrinogen

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

elevated fibrin split products (D-dimer)

best screening test

Tx: address underlying cause and perhaps transfuse blood

Term
What does tPA do?
Definition

converts plasminogen to plasmin so fibrin and fibrinogen can be cleaved to reduce fibrinolysis

 

breaks down clots

prevents clots from forming

prevents platelet aggregation

 

MORE INFO: a protein involved in the breakdown of blood clots. It is a serine protease found on endothelial cells,lining blood vessels. As an enzyme, it catalyzes the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, the major enzyme responsible for clot breakdown. Because it works on the clotting system, tPA is used in clinical medicine to treat embolic or thrombotic stroke. Use is contraindicated in hemorrhagic stroke and head trauma. The antidote for tPA in case of toxicity is aminocaproic acid.

Term
Increased fibrinogen split products without D-dimers is characteristic of what?
Definition

Disorder of Fibrinolysis

 

(NOT DIC bc you see D-dimers with DIC)

Term
How can you distinguish between a thrombus from a postmortem clot?
Definition

Lines of Zahn and attachment to vessel wall

[image]

Term
What does a healthy, undamaged endothelium secrete to prevent pathologic thrombus formation?
Definition

PGI2

HLM

(Heparin Like molecules->activates antithrombin III)

NO

(Nitric Oxide)

tPA

(converts plasminogen to plasmin which has many functions)

Thrombomudulin

(modulates thrombin activity to activate Protein C which is an inhibitor to the coagulation cascade)

Term
What canc ause endothelial damage and increase the risk for thrombosis?
Definition

atherosclerosis

vasculitis

high levels of serous homocysteine

(Vitamin B12 or Folate deficiency which inhibits the conversion of homocysteine to methionine

Deficiency in CBS causing homocystinuria)

Term
Would you give a pt with suspected Protein C or S deficiency warfarin?
Definition

NO! They are at an increased risk for skin necrosis

 

When you give warfarin, the new factors will be degraded (2,7,9,10,C,and S) but Protein C and S will degrade first (and these pts are already deficient) and there will be 2,7,9,10 that will still be active for a period of time and they will be at an increased risk for hypercoaguable state and thrombosis in the skin

 

warfarin skin necrosis

Term
What is the most common inherited cause of hypercoaguable state?
Definition

Factor V Leiden

 

mutated Factor V that isn't shut off by Proteins C and S causing a hypercoaguable state

Term
How do you monitor heparin?
Definition
PTT
Term
Why are oral contraceptives associates with hypercoaguable states?
Definition
estrogen induces increased production of coagulation factors and inceases risk of thrombosis
Term
Where do fat embolus usually lodge?
Definition

vessels of the lung

patient may presen with dyspnea and petechia onthe chest

 

[image][image]

Term
What causes a gas embolus?
Definition

when you dive, the increased pressure causes nitrogen to dissolve into the blood

 

If you ascend to quickly the nitrogen can precipitate out of blood as gas bubbles and these bubbles get lodged in places

 

bends: joint and muscle pain

chokes: respiratory symptoms

Chronic: Caisson's disease: multifolcal ischemic necrosis of bone

[image]

Term
Embolus characterized by squamous cells and keratin debris
Definition

Amniotic emblous

 

 very serious bc often go to the lungs and can cause SOB-->Neurologic symptoms-->DIC and death

 

the cells in the emboli from he fetus can cause DIC

 

 

Term
What is the most common source of DVT?
Definition
Femoral, iliac or popliteal veins
Term
What imaging would show a vascular filling defect in the case of PE?
Definition

Spiral CT

 

also...

Lower extremeity doppler to image DVT

D-dimer elevation

Term
Why do you see a wedge shaped infarction in the setting of pulmonary infarction?
Definition
[image]
Term
What is the most common souce of a systemic embolism?
Definition
thromboembolism fromt the left heart
Term
What is the normal WBC?
Definition
5-10K
Term
What can you give a patient that is being treated with chemotherapy and expereincing neturopenia as a result?
Definition

GM-CSF

G-CSF

 

Term
What can cause neutrophilic leukocytosis?
Definition

Bacterial infection

Tissue necrosis

will see a less shift, with immature neutrophils lacking an Fc receptor (decreased CD16)

 

High cortisol state

causes marginated pool of neutrophils to drop into circulation this is why pts on cortisol a\have an increased WBC

Term
When would you see eosinophilia?
Definition

Allergic reactions

Parastitic infection

Hodgkin lymphoma (mediated by IL-5)

Term
In what cancer state will you classicially see Basophilia?
Definition

CML

 

Philadelphia cream cheese with Basol

Term
What infection classically causes lymphocytic leukocytosis?
Definition

Bordetella pertussis (lymphocytosis promoting factor)

&

Viral infections

 

Term

Infectious mononucleosis

 

Definition

pharynx, liver, spleen

LAD-paracortex hyperplasia

increased CD8 T cells

high white count of atypical lymphocytes (CD8 T cells)

splenomegaly (PALS --risk for rupture:no contact sports for a year)

 

screening: monospot test detecting IgM heterophile antibodies

sheep/horse agglutination

 

negative test: think CMV

 

confirm: EBV capsid antigen

 

Rash if exposed to penicillin

 

Term
What is the definition of acute leukemia?
Definition
an acumulation of >20%blasts in the bone marrow
Term
What is the marker to distinguish ALL?
Definition
tDt+ (DNA polymerase)
Term
What is the marker to distinguish AML?
Definition

MPO+/ Auer rods

(myeloperoxidase)

 

Term
What is the most common type of ALL?
Definition

B-ALL

lymphoblasts express:

CD10, CD19, CD20

 

associated with Trisomy 21 (after age of 5)

 

t(12;21)

excellent repsonse to chemo

common in kids

requires prophylaxis to scrotum and CSF

chemo has to be directly injected there

_______________________________

 

t(9;22)

poor prognosis

more commonly seen in adults

(Ph+ALL)

Term
For T-ALL, what do th cells express?
Definition

CD2-CD8

presents as mediastinal mass

seen in teenagers

Term
How can we subclassify AML?
Definition

Based on:

cytogenic abnormalities

lineage of myeloblasts

surface markers

 

classic type t(15;17) disrupts retinoic acid receptor RAR

promyelocytes accumulate with numerous Auer rods-->increased risk for DIC

 

Tx: ATRA

binds RAR causing promyelobasts to mature

 

 

Term
Which leukemia characteristically infiltrates the gums?
Definition

Acute Monocytic Leukemia

lack MPO

 

Term
Acute megakaryoblastic Leukemia
Definition

AML assoc. with Downs Syndrome (before the age of 5)

 

REMEMBER!:

ALL (after the age of 5)

Term
What are myelodysplastic syndromes?
Definition

Cytopenias with hypercellular bone marrow and abnormal maturation with increased blasts

 

most pts die from infection or bleeding

may progress to acute leukemia

Term
what cell is CD34+
Definition

Hematopoietic stem cell

 

Term
What do neoplastic cells of CLL express?
Definition

naive B cells that co-express CD5 and CD20

 

also see smudge cells on histology

 

Term
What are the complication s of CLL?
Definition

Hypogammaglobulinemia

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

transformation to diffuse large B cell lymphoma

Term
What is hairy cell leukemia?
Definition

neoplastic proliferation of mature B cells

hairy cytoplasmic processes

positive for TRAP

 

dry TAP with bone marrow aspiration

NO LYMPADENOPATHY

 

Tx: 2-CDA

Adenosine deaminase inhibitor

 

[image]

Term
Which leukemia is commonly seen in Japan and Carribean?
Definition

ATLL

associated with HTLV-1

neoplastic proliferation of mature CD4 T cells

 

Rash (Pautrier microabscesses)

Generalized LAD

Hepatosplenomegaly

Seazry syndrome if spread to the blood (cerebriform nuclei)

Lytic bone lesions with hypercalcemia

 

don't automatically think multiple myeloma if you see lytic bone lesions, read and look for rash and other stuff..

Term
Polycythemia vera is associated with what mutation?
Definition

JAK2 kinase mutation

 

symptoms of hyperviscosity

blurry vision and headache

Bud-Chiari:thrombosis in hepatic vein causing infarction

flushed face due to congestion

itching after bathing

 

decreased EPO

normal SaO2

 

tx- phlebotomy and hydroxyuea

Term
Myelofibrosis, Essential Thrombocytopenia, Polycythemia Vera
Definition
JAK2 kinase mutation
Term
What causes follicular lymphoma?
Definition

t(14,18)

BCL2 on 18 translocates to Ig heavy chain locus on 14

 

results in overexpression of bcl2 which inhibits apoptosis

 

Tx-cxt or rituximab

Term
Which interleukin is associated with multiple myeloma progression?
Definition

IL-6

IL-6 is not only a growth factor, but also a survival factor in MM, inhibiting apoptosis in myeloma cells. IL-6 interacts with several factors which are involved in the pathogenesis of MM, such as adhesion molecules, tumour suppressor genes and oncogenes. Considering the essential role of IL-6, it could serve as a target for new therapeutic interventions. Neutralizing the effect of IL-6 may result in a regression of tumour progression.

 

Term
What is stable angina?
Definition

reversible ischemic heart disease due to >70%stenosis due to atherosclerosis that causes ischemia during exertion or emotional stress

 

hallmark: cellular swelling

 

presents: chest pain

for less than 20 minues that radiates to left arm or jaw

diaphoresis

shortness of breath

 

EKG: ST-segment depresion(subendocardial ischemia)

relived by rest or nitroglycerin (vasodilates arteries and veins)

 

[image]

 

Term
What is stable angina?
Definition

chest pain that occurs at rest

due to ruptures atheosclerotic plaque with thrombosis and incomplete occlusion of coronary artery

 

reversible injury to myocytes (cellular swelling)

ST-segment depression

relieved by nitroglycerin

 

High risk of progression to MI

[image]

Term
What is prinzmetal angina?
Definition

reversible chest pain due to coronary artery spasm

episodic chest pain unrelated to exertion

 

reversible injury (cellular swelling)

 

EKG shows ST-segment elevation due to transmural ischemia

Relieved by Nitroglycerin or calcium channel blockers

[image]

Term
What is myocardial infarction?
Definition

necrosis of cardiac myocytes due to rupture of atherosclerotic plaque with thrombosis and complete occlusion of the coronary artery

 

other causes are coronary artery vasospasm, emboli and vasculitis (Kawasakis)

 

presents: sever crushing chest pain that radiates to left arm or jaw for greater than 20 min.

diaphoresidyspnea

symptoms are NOT RELIVED BY NITROGLYCERIN

 

Left anterior descinding is most commonly involved (infarction of anterior left ventricle and anterior portion of septum)

 

Right coronary artery is second most common site

(Posterior left ventricle and posterior ventricular septum)

 

Left circumflex is the third most common artery

 

First phase:

first subendocardial infarction (<50% of the wall) (EK:ST DEPRESSION)

_________________________________

2nd phase:

THEN transmural infarction (EKG: ST ELEVATION)

EKG:

 

test for cardiac enzymes:

Troponin I (most sensitive and specific)

CK-MB (useful for detecting reinfarction days after MI)

Rises 4-6 HRS after infarction

PEAKS AT 24

Returns to normal by 72 hours

 

Tx:

ASA/heparin

supplemental O2

Nitrates

Beta blocker

ACE inhibitor

 

also: fibrinolysis or angioplasty

 

can cause

contraction band necrosis

repurfusion injury (O2 causes free readicals which further damage tissue)

Term

What happens to a heart within the first month after an MI?

 

complications?

Definition

 ---coagulative necrosis----

 

1 day

 

---(day 1-3) inflammation (neutrophils)

fibrinous pericarditis *chest pain w/ friction rub(only with transmural infarction)*---


 ---(day 4-7) more inflammation ( macrophages)

rupture of ventricular wall which causes tamponade

rupture of IV septum which leads to shunt  rupture of papillary muscle which causes mitral insufficiency---


1 week


-----Granulation tissue: red border emerging from infarct, plump foibroblas, collagen and blood vessels--

 

1 month


---scar (dense type I collagen)-----aneurysm, mural thrombus or Dressler syndrome

Term
What is sudden cardiac death?
Definition

unexpected death due to cardiac disease

occurs without symptoms or within les than an hour of symptoms

usually due to a fatal ventricular arrhythmia usually

 

>90% preexisiting atherosclerosis

other causes:

mitral valve prolapse

cardiomyopathy

cocaine abuse (vasospasm)

 

Term
What are the causes of left sided heart failure?
Definition

ischemia

hypertension (hypertrophy)

dilated cardiomyopathy

myocardial infarction

restrictive cardiomyopathy

 

Term
What are heart failure cells?
Definition
hemosiderin laden macrophages as a consequence of capillaries that ruptured due to increased pressure from pulmonary congestion. The macrophages eat up the blood and the iron accumulates within them.
Term
Why is one of the mainsay of CHF treatment and ACE inhibitor?
Definition

because a failing heart will not pump blood out effectively, the RAAS will percieve the low blood pressure and release renin to activate angiotensin and eventually aldosterone

collectively this system will increase vascular resistance and increase blood volume further excacerbating the CHF

Term

What is the most common cause of right sided heart failure?

clinical features?

Definition

Left heart failure

 

others:

left to right shunt

chronic lung disease (cor pulmonale)

 

clinincal features:

JVD

Painful hepatosplenomegaly (nutmeg liver)

cardiac cirrhosis

dependent pitting edema

Term
Wha are the signs of left sided heart failure?
Definition

DOE(dyspnea on exertion)

Cardiac dilation

Pulmonary congestion (crackles heard)

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea

Orthopnea

Term
What medications are used to treat acute heart failure?
Definition

L,M,N,O,P

 

Lasix

Morphine

Nitrates

Oxygen

Positioning/pressors

 

Term
What medications are used to treat chronic heart failure?
Definition

ACE Inhibitors

Digoxin

Beta blockers

Diuretics

 

Term
What is the mechanism of action of the cardiac glycosides (digoxin, digftoxin)?
Definition

inhibit the Na/K ATPase

decrease extracellular Na which increased untracellular calcium which increases contractility

Term
Which Rickettsial species has properties unique from the other Rickettsial organisms.
What are those unique properties?
Definition

No vector

No rash

causes interstiital pneumonia

negative weil-felix

aerosol transmission

endospore

Term
What is the classic presentation of congenital pyloric stenosis?
Definition

palpable olve

infant doesnt feed well

hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis

nonbilious projectile vomiting

2 weeks of age

 

[image]

Term
What layer is the regenerative layer of the endometrium (stem cells)?
Definition

Basalis

 

loss of basalis is called Asherman Syndrome

due to overagressive dilation and curettage(D&C)

Term
What is the characteristic cell indicative of chronic endometritis?
Definition
Plasma cell
Term
What is an endometrial side effect of Tamoxifen?
Definition

Endometrial polyp

 

antiestrogenic in breast

weakly proestrogenic in the uterus

Term
what is endometriosis
Definition

endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterin endometrial lining

 

presents with dysmenorrhea and pelvic pain

may cause infertility

 

can see involvement in many places

ovary:chocolate cyst

fallopian tube: scarring

myometrium: adenomyosis

etc..

 

cause:

retrograde menstruation theory

metaplastic theory

lymphatic dissemination theory

 

Term
gunpowder lesions
Definition

endometrial tissue outside of the endometrium excluding the ovary (ovary is the chocolate cyst)

 

increased risk of carcinoma at these locations especially the ovary

Term

psammoma bodies can arise in mesothelioma and cystadenocarcinoma of the uterus

 

meningiomas

cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary

 

medullary (papillary) thryroid cancer

 

Definition
know it
Term
white whirly regular multiple masses in the uterus
Definition

leiyomyoma

 asymptomatic usually (can cause bleeding, infertility and pelvic mass if presents)

usually pre-menopausal women

Term
single lesion with necrosis and hemorrhage arising de novo in the uterus
Definition

leiomyosarcoma

 

(post menopausal women)

Term
ovarian cancer with urothelial tissue
Definition
Brenner tumor
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