Term
| The act of moving audio from several different sections of two or more tracks and re-assembling on a single track is normally referred to as ________ |
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Definition
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Term
| The act of moving audio within the multi-track by means of a secondary storage space is normally referred to as ________ |
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Definition
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Term
| The act of moving audio within the multi-track is normally referred to as __________ |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the approximate 1/16th note delay time for a song that is 4/4 time at 110 BPM? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the approximate 1/8th note delay time for a song 4/4 time at 95 BPM? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the following statements best describes the difference between an audio subgroup and a fader (VCA) group? |
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Definition
| Routes the signal through a master I/O, offers level control only, and doesn't change signal flow |
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Term
| The signal flow for Re-amping is typically, starting with point of origin: |
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Definition
| • MTR > Mic Line > Mic Panel > Reamp Box > Amplifier > Mic > Mic Panel > Console > MTR |
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Term
| Which of the following patch points would NOT be a good place to return outboard mic pre? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which is the best reason to take a DI from every possible instrument during a recording session? |
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Definition
| for re-amping and FX processing later |
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Term
| Which of the following choices is probably the way a mix engineer would make the bass track appear more pronounced precisely when the kick hits? |
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Definition
| • Gate bass track, using kick drum as a trigger |
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Term
| On many consoles, a function known as channel output is available, typically used during a mixing session. What specific changes occur in the consoles signal flow when the channel output function is engaged? |
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Definition
| • Small Fader receives a copy of the signal from Large Fader |
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Term
| During a mix on the Amek 9098i, the engineer asks you to make a patch that will allow the signal coming from track 17 to show up in the channel path of both module 17 and 18. Which patch scenario below would most likely be the best choice? |
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Definition
| off tape 17 into line amp 18 |
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Term
| Your client has rented a Neve 1073 preamp and a Summit TLA-100 Compressor. These are to be used to record the vocals directly to tape, completely bypassing the console. What patch would you make? |
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Definition
| • Mic Line > 1073 > Summit > MTR Send |
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Term
| Buss 16 is dead. How can you route signals to track 16? |
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Definition
| • Insert send of I/O > MTR Send 16 |
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Term
| On the Amek 9098i, the preamp on I/O 44 is dead. However, a microphone is plugged into 44 on the mic panel. You need to cross-patch the mic to another channel and use the preamp. 24 is available. What patch would you make? |
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Definition
| • Mic Line 44 > Mic Amp 24 |
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Term
| The primary purpose of a Reamp box is to change ___________ level signal to … level signal. |
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Definition
| • Balance line level to unbalance mic |
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Term
| The primary purpose of a Reamp box is to change __________ level signal to … level signal. |
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Definition
| • Balance line level to unbalance mic |
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Term
| Engineers typically want to place the aux and cue sends after the multi-track recorder in signal flow _______ |
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Definition
| • So FX are not printed to tape |
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Term
| Which of the following is NOT part of the process of setting up an audio subgroup during a mixing session? |
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Definition
| • Choose path on Routing Matrix, press “mon to 48tk” and press “buss” on new I/O |
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Term
| Dynamic Processors acting as a limiter of a single specific selected frequency is accomplished by implementing devices known as _________ |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the following would be the best description of a Direct Insertion (DI) box? |
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Definition
| • Changes unbalanced mic level signal to balanced line level signal |
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Term
| Using SSL 9000J, what patch would be best using Channel Output function and an outboard time-based processor? |
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Definition
| • Patch out of Group Output > Processor input |
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Term
| During a recording session on the SSL 9000J, you have a microphone signal entering the console on I/O 39 and bussed to Track 19. Typically, you would monitor the signal on ___________ |
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Definition
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Term
| Gating the bass track using the kick drum as a trigger would probably result in ___________ |
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Definition
| • A punchier bass, more pronounced |
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Term
| Which of the following is the proper routing for a mix engineer to “throw’ a vocal on I/O 17 to an effects processor, given that the “throw” is set up on I/O 24? |
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Definition
| • Route signal from I/O 17 to I/O 24 in Routing Matrix and unmute channel when effects is needed |
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Term
| The version of the Final mix that includes all tracks EXCEPT the lead vocals is referred to as the _________ mix. |
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Definition
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Term
| The version of the Final mix that includes all tracks EXCEPT the vocals is referred to as the ___________ |
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Definition
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Term
| When setting up an audio subgroup on the SSL 9000J in MIX mode, and returning the subgroup to the large faders _______ and __________ on the Subgroup I/Os must be engaged. |
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Definition
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Term
| Which monitoring volume is the most accurate level to check relative balance of your mix? |
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Definition
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Term
| Mixing in an environment that is bass heavy, which is more likely result? |
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Definition
| • Mixes will translate light in the mix |
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Term
| The Yamaha NS-10’s display a dramatic 7 db increase in frequency response at approximately ______, otherwise they are virtually flat. |
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Definition
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Term
| By ______________, we can better identify elements of the mix that may have phase and imaging issues that were previously hidden. |
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Definition
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Term
| The recognized industry standard near-field reference monitors used for mixing are the |
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Definition
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Term
| Independent dynamic limiting of selected frequency ranges is accomplished by implementing devices known as |
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Definition
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Term
| One of the most common formats to archive and deliver digital masters to the replication house is a modified ¾ Beta video machine called the |
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Definition
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Term
| What does RIAA Curve do during recording? |
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Definition
| • Adds 17dB at 15kHz and cuts 17dB at 50Hz |
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Term
| Generally speaking, the tapes (including other multi-track media) on which the artist records are owned by: |
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Definition
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Term
| Support companies that provide goods and service to the studio and operate on an invoice system are know as ___________ |
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Definition
| • Vendors/out of house rental companies |
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Term
| The primary responsibility of the studio manager is to __________ |
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Definition
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Term
| A document generated by the A&R Administration department to ensure payment is made from the proper accounts with an artist’s budget is called a __________ |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| • Equipment in room and assistant |
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Term
| Markets known for significant amounts of production, but typically lack elements including publishing and distribution headquarters, vendors, along with most other major support industries are known as _________ |
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Definition
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Term
| Would wiring all of your gear in a Project Studio to a patchbay be a good idea? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the main reason for having a console in a Project Studio? |
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Definition
| • A mixer w/ CPU capabilities will eliminate any latency issues |
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Term
| Which form of Multi-track recorder would be more cost effective in a Project Studio? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is a cost-effective way to reduce reflections within a Project Studio? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the following should be secured first before recording? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the following is the most typical example of a “spec” deal? |
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Definition
| • Using the studio for free with the agreement to pay for the time if the project profits |
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Term
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Definition
• DBX 902 DeEsser
• DBX 903 Compressor
• Lexicon 960L
• Eventide DSP 4000
• Yamaha SPX 2000 Multi Effects Processor
• Drawmer BS 201 Noise Gate |
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Term
| ___________ is recording an initial automated mix in order to establish null points for any automatable features. |
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Definition
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Term
| The global page for within Pro Tools that determines track inputs and outputs is the _________ |
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Definition
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Term
| Importing audio from the region bin, or selecting _________, are the most effective ways to import the final mix into the new mastering session. |
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Definition
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Term
| When recording the final mastered mix to the HHB CDR-830, the ___________, should always be monitored. |
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Definition
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Term
| You plan to decode an M-S array to tape on the Amek 9098i. in order to create the duplicate of the Side microphone, the best scenario would probably be _____________ |
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Definition
| • Patch insert send of the original line signal to line of open I/O and flip it out of phase |
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Term
| The _________ technique employs a pair of directional mic’s with the capsules angled towards each other aiming at the left and right sides of the sound source. |
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Definition
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Term
| Which mic technique would allow for making a room or space sound much wider than it? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the most important thing to check when using multiple mics on an instrument? |
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Definition
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Term
| When recording a standard drum kit, which of the following should be checked? |
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Definition
• Condenser mics, phantom power, power supply, phase, vibrations
• (all of the above) |
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Term
| The engineer asks you to set up a M-S Stereo microphone array using a pair of the same microphones. Given the choices below, which pair would you choose? |
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Definition
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Term
| Why do we typically store analog tapes “Tails Out”? |
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Definition
| • To ensure print through occurs after original sound source |
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Term
| What is the function called that allows you to rewind or fast wind a tape at half-speed, allowing for a better pack of the tape for storage? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which component of a tape machine spins at the same speed tape is passing, converting this information into tack pulses for the comparator circuit to read? |
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Definition
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Term
| A trapezoid pattern appearing on the tape head typically indicates an alignment problem with the head’s |
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Definition
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Term
| To adjust for a +9 operating level with a 250 nWb/m MRL tape during repro calibration, the MTR’s meter should read ______ |
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Definition
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Term
| To adjust for a +6 operating level during record calibration, the MTR’s meters should read ________ |
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Definition
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Term
| The tones commonly used to adjust for record azimuth are _________ and _________ |
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Definition
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Term
| The Most accurate method of adjusting repro azimuth is the ___________ method. |
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Definition
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Term
| The Lexicon 960L can store registers on a __________ |
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Definition
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Term
| On the Lexicon 480L and 960L, a _________ refers to a user defined set of parameters. |
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Definition
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Term
| To check or change the configuration on the Lexicon 480L, you must press the __________ |
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Definition
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Term
| The configuration on the Lexicon 480L that feeds the output of Machine A into the inputs of Machine B is called __________ |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the following best describes the Pre-Echo parameter of a 480L reverb program? |
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Definition
| • Initial reflection of a surface near the sound |
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Term
| Which of the following best describes the Pre-Delay parameter of a 480L reverb program? |
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Definition
| • The time difference between initial sound and when you hear the effect |
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Term
| The phenomenon of cancellation and/or reinforcement at different frequencies and is dependant on the amount of phase shift is know as ____________ |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the approximate ¼ note delay time for a song that is in 4/4 time at 96 BPM? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the approximate 1/8 note delay time for a song that is in 4/4 time at 125 BPM? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| which of the following processors lowers the noise floor? |
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Definition
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Term
| There are 4 vocal tracks coming in on 4 separate I/O’s on the console. You only have one high-end tube compressor, a Tube-Tech CL-1B. Which of the following patching scenarios would be most likely choice for you to accomplish compressing all 4 tracks with that compressor? |
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Definition
| • Group out > compressor in > from compressor out > a new I/O channel line in |
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Term
| A Compressor with a very fast attack time, medium to fast release time, a high ratio and a high threshold is said to be acting as a _______ |
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Definition
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Term
| A Compressor with a medium attack time, medium to slow release time, a high ratio and a low threshold is said to be acting as a _________ |
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Definition
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Term
| The level of the incoming signal at which the compressor amplifier changes from a unity gain amplifier into a compressor reducing gain is said to be the ________ |
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Definition
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Term
| The amount of attenuation when a gate is closed is said to be the ________ |
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Definition
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Term
| The SSL AWS 900 has ____________ dedicated aux sends |
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Definition
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Term
| The SSL AWS 900 has _______ assignable dynamic processors |
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Definition
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Term
| On the SSL AWS 900, how many busses are there? |
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Definition
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Term
| On the SSL AWS 900, how many Stereo FX Returns are there? |
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Definition
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Term
| How do you Solo Isolate a channel on the SSL 900? |
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Definition
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Term
| In AWS automation, when you trim a fader on the SSL AWS 900, what happens to the previous automation data? |
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Definition
| • An offset is added or subtracted from previous moves |
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Term
| On the SSL AWS 900, which button temporarily suspends automation? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which type of code does the SSL AWS 900 use for positional reference? |
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Definition
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Term
| Recall data and Automation data on the SSL AWS 900 are stored as _______ |
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Definition
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Term
| What are 3 Automation Protection Modes on the SSL AWS 900 console? |
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Definition
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Term
| On the SSL AWS 900, accessing the _______ page while on the SSL page allows you to change the faders glide time? |
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Definition
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Term
| The SSL AWS 900 refers to Fader Group as _________ |
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Definition
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Term
| The _______ technique employs a pair of directional mic’s with the capsules angled away from each other aiming at the left and right sides of the sound source. |
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Definition
| • Near Coincident ( ORTF & NOS) |
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