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| 1. The act of moving audio from several different sections of two or more tracks and re-assembling on a single track is normally referred to as. |
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Term
| 2. The act of moving audio within the multi-track by means of a secondary storage space is normally referred to as. |
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| 3. The act of moving audio within the multi-track is normally referred to as. |
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| 4. What is the approximate 1/16-note delay time for a song that is in 4/4 time at 110 BPM? |
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| 5. What is the approximate 1/8-note delay time for a song that is in 4/4 time at 95 BPM? |
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Term
| 6. Which of the following statements best describes the difference between an audio subgroup and a fader (VCA) group? |
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Definition
| Does not change signal flow. Busses signal through master fader, VCA no audio passes through. (D) |
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Term
| 7. The signal flow for Re-amping is typically, starting with point of origin: |
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Definition
| MTR>mic line>mic panel>ReAmp box>Amp-mic>mic panel-console>back to MTR (B) |
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Term
| 8. Which of the following patch points would not be a good place to return an outboard mic pre? |
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Definition
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Term
| 9. Which is the better reason to take a D.I. from every possible instrument during a recording session? |
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Definition
| For re-amping and effects processing later (D) |
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Term
| 10. Which of the following choices is probably the way a mix engineer would make the bass track appear more pronounced precisely when the kick drum hits? |
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Definition
| Gate bass using kick as trigger (A) |
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Term
| 11. On many consoles, a function known as channel output is available, typically used during a mixing session. What specific changes occur in the console’s signal flow when the channel output function is engaged? |
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Definition
| Signal travels through the large fader to the small fader. Or from small fader to the large (C) |
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Term
| 12. During a mix on the Amek 9098i, the engineer asks you to make a patch that will allow the signal coming from track 17 to show up in the channel path of both module 17 and module 18. Which patch scenario below would most likely be the best choice? |
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Definition
| Off tape 17>Line amp in 18 (D) |
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Term
| 13. Your client has rented a Neve 1073 preamp and a Summit TLA-100 Compressor. These are to be used to record the vocals directly to tape, completely bypassing the console. What patch would you make? |
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Definition
| Mic Line>Neve 1073 pre in (preamp)>SummitTLA (compressor)>MTR send (D) |
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Term
| 14. Buss 16 is dead. How can you route signals to track 16? |
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Definition
| Unused bus MTR send 16 (A) |
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Term
| 15. On the Amek 9098i, the preamp on I/O 44 is dead. However, a microphone is plugged into 44 on the mic panel. You need to cross-patch the mic to another channel and use that preamp. 24 is available. What patch would you make? |
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Definition
| Mic line 44>Mic amp 24 (C) |
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Term
| 16. The primary purpose of a Reamp box is to change ____ level signal to ______ level signal. |
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Definition
| Balanced line level to unbalanced mic |
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Term
| 17. Engineers typically place the aux and cue sends after the multi-track recorder in signal flow. |
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Definition
| Both Live and Playback in cue (A) |
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Term
| 18. Which of the following is NOT part of the process of setting up an audio subgroup during a mixing session? |
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Definition
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Term
| 19. Dynamic processors acting as a limiter of a single specific selected frequency is accomplished by implementing devices known as. |
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Definition
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Term
| 20. Which of the following would be the best description of a Direct Insertion (D.I.) box? |
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Definition
| Changes unbalanced mic level signal to balanced line level signal (B) |
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Term
| 21. Using the SSL 9000/J, what patch would be best using Channel Output function and an outboard time-based processor? |
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Definition
| From group output into processor input (C) |
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Term
| 22. During a recording session on the SSL 9000/J-Series console, you have microphone signal entering the console on I/O 39 and bussed to Track 19. Typically, you would monitor the signal on. |
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Definition
| Track 19 on the Large fader (A) |
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Term
| 23. Gating the bass track using the kick drum as a trigger would probably result in. |
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Definition
| Bass appearing more pronounce (A) |
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Term
| 24. Which of the following is the proper routing for a mix engineer to “throw” a vocal on I/O 17 to an effects processor, given that the “throw” is set up on I/O 24. |
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Definition
| Route from I/O 17 to I/O 24 in. Routing matrix. Unmute throw channel (C) |
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Term
| 25. The version of the Final mix that includes all tracks except the lead vocal is referred to as the _____ mix. |
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Definition
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Term
| 26. The version of the Final mix that includes all tracks except the vocals is referred to as the ______ mix. |
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Definition
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Term
| 27. When setting up an audio subgroup on the SSL 9000/J in Mix Mode, and returning the subgroup to the large faders _____ and ______ on the Subgroup I/O’s must be engaged. |
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Definition
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Term
| 28. Which monitoring volume is the most accurate level to check relative balance of your mix? |
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Definition
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Term
| 29. Mixing in an environment that is bass heavy, which is the more likely result? |
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Definition
| Mixes will translate light in bass (B) |
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Term
| 30. The Yamaha NS-10’s display a dramatic 7 dB increase in frequency response at approximately ______, otherwise they are virtually flat. |
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Definition
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Term
| 31. By ______, we can better identify elements of the mix that may have phase and imaging issues that were previously hidden. |
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Definition
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Term
| 32. The recognized industry standard near-field reference monitors used for mixing are the. |
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Definition
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Term
| 33. Independent dynamic limiting of selected frequency ranges is accomplished by implementing devices known as. |
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Definition
| Multi-band compressor (D) |
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Term
| 34. One of the most common formats to archive and deliver digital masters to the replication house is a modified ¾ Beta video machine called the. |
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Definition
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Term
| 35. What does the RIAA Curve do during recording? |
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Definition
| Adds 17dB at 15 kHz and cuts 17dB at 50Hz (B) |
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Term
| 36. Generally speaking, the tapes (including other multi-track media) on which the artist records are owned by: |
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Term
| 37. Support companies that provide goods and service to the studio and operate on an invoice system are known as: |
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Term
| 38. The primary responsibility of the studio manager is to. |
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Term
| 39. A document generated by the A&R Administration department to ensure payment is made from the proper accounts with an artist’s budget is called a ______. |
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Term
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Definition
| Equipment in the room & Assistant Engineer (A) |
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Term
| 41. Markets known for significant amounts of production, but typically lack elements including publishing and distribution headquarters, vendors, along with most other major support industries are known as. |
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Definition
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Term
| 42. Would wiring all of your gear in a Project Studio to a patchbay be a good idea? |
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Definition
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Term
| 43. What is the main reason for having a console in a Project Studio? |
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Definition
| • All of the above (will be the answer) (D) (Eliminates any latency issue which recording to a computer. |
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Term
| 44. Which form of Multitrack recorder would be more cost effective in a Project Studio? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is a cost-effective way to reduce reflections within a Project Studio? |
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Definition
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Term
| 46. Which of the following should be secured first before recording? |
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Definition
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Term
| 47. Which of the following is the most typical example of a “spec” deal? |
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Definition
| Using studio for free with agreements to pay if the album profits. (A) |
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Term
| 48. Select the proper identification for the image below. |
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Definition
| Dbx 902 de-esser or compressor (A) |
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Term
| 49. Select the proper identification for the image below. |
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Definition
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Term
| 50. Select the proper identification for the image below. |
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Definition
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Term
| 51. Select the proper identification for the image below. |
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Term
| 52. Select the proper identification for the image below. |
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Definition
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Term
| 53. Select the proper identification for the image below. |
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Definition
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Term
| 54. According to the SRD Lab Handout, “Automated Mixing Techniques”, a _____ is recording an initiatl automated mix in order to establish null points for any automatable features. |
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Definition
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Term
| 55. According to the SRD Lab Handout, “Project Editing”, the global page within Pro Tools that determines track inputs and outputs is the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 56. According to the SRD Lab Handout, “Project Mastering” and Lecture information presented, importing audio from the region bin, or selecting _____, are the most effective ways to import the final mix into the new mastering session. |
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Definition
| Import audio to track (B) |
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Term
| 57. According to the SRD Lab Handout, “Project Mastering” and Lecture information presented, when recording the final mastered mix to the HHB CDR-830, the ______ should always be monitored. |
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Definition
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Term
| 58. You plan to decode an M-S array to tape on the Amek 9098i. In order to create the duplicate of the Side microphone, the best scenario would probably be to _____. |
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Definition
| Insert Send – Line Amp and flip out of phase (B) |
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Term
| 59. The _____ technique employs a pair of directional mic’s with the capsules angled towards each other aiming at the left and right sides of the sound source. |
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Definition
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Term
| Which mic technique would allow for making a room or space sound much wider than it really is? |
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Definition
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Term
| 61. What is the most important thing to check when using multiple mics on an instrument? |
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Definition
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Term
| 62. When recording a standard drum kit, which of the following should be checked? |
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Definition
| All of the above (E) (Phase, Phantom Power, Pads, Vibration) |
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Term
| 63. The engineer asks you to set up a M-S Stereo microphone array using a pair of the same microphones. Given the choices below, which pair would you choose? |
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Definition
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Term
| 64. Which of the following microphones has multiple pickup patterns? |
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Definition
| Only B & C (E) (Band C AKG 414 & U87) |
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Term
| 65. Why do we typically store analog tapes “Tails Out”? |
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Definition
| To insure print thru after original sound source (C) |
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Term
| 66. What is the function called that allows you to rewind or fast wind a tape at half-speed, allowing for a better pack of the tape for storage? |
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Definition
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Term
| 67. Which component of a tape machine spins at the same speed tape is passing, converting this information into tach pulses for the comparitor circuit to read? |
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Definition
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Term
| 68. A trapezoidal pattern appearing on the tape head typically indicates an alignment problem with the head’s _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 69. To adjust for a +9 operating level with a 250 nWb/m MRL tape during repro calibration, the MTR’s meters should read______. |
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Definition
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Term
| 70. To adjust for a +6 operating level during record calibration, the MTR’s meters should read _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 71. The tones commonly used to adjust for record azimuth are _____ and _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 72. The most accurate method of adjusting repro azimuth is the _____ method. |
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Definition
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Term
| 73. The Lexicon 960L can store registers on a _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 74. On the Lexicon 480L and 960L, a ____ refers to a user-defined set of parameters. |
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Definition
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Term
| 75. To check or change the configuration on the Lexicon 480L, you must press _____ button. |
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Definition
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Term
| 76. The configuration on the Lexicon 480L that feeds the output of Machine A into the inputs of Machine B is called _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 77. Which of the following best describes the Pre-echo parameter of a 480L reverb program? |
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Definition
| The initial reflection of a surface (B) |
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Term
| 78. Which of the following best describes the Pre-delay parameter of a 480L Reverb program? |
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Definition
| Time difference between the initial sound & when you hear the effect (A) |
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Term
| 79. The phenomenon of cancellation and/or reinforcement at different frequencies and is dependant on the amount of phase shift is known as _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 80. What is the approximate ¼ note delay time for a song that is in 4/4 time at 96 BPM? |
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Definition
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Term
| 81. What is the approximate 1/8-note triplet delay time for a song that is in 4/4 time at 125 BPM? |
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Definition
| 160 Msec (B) 60,000/125=1/4 (480) 480/3=160Msec (B) |
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Term
| 82. Which of the following processors lowers the noise floor? |
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Definition
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Term
| 83. There are four vocal tracks coming in on four separate I/O’s on the console. You only have one high-end tube compressor, a Tube-Tech CL-1B. Which of the following patching scenarios would be the most likely choice for you to accomplish compressing all four tracks with that compressor? |
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Definition
| Group Out – Comp – Line In (C) |
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Term
| 84. A compressor with a very fast attack time, medium to fast release time, a high ratio and high threshold is said to be acting as a ______. |
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Definition
| Peak Limiter (A) (or leveling amplifier) |
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Term
| 85. A compressor with a medium attack time, medium to slow release time, a high ratio and a low threshold is said to be acting as a ____. |
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Definition
| Leveling Amp (B) or Peak Limiter (A) |
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Term
| 86. The level of the incoming signal at which the compressor amplifier changes from a unity gain amplifier into a compressor reducing gain is said to be the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 87. The amount of attenuation when a gate is closed is said to be the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 88. The SSL AWS 900 has ____ dedicated aux sends. |
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Definition
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Term
| 89. The SSL AWS 900 has ____ assignable dynamic processors. |
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Definition
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Term
| 90. On the SSL AWS 900, how many busses are there? |
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Definition
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Term
| 91. On the SSL AWS 900, how many Stereo FX Returns are there? |
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Definition
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Term
| 92. How do you Solo Isolate a channel on the SSL AWS 900? |
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Definition
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Term
| 93. In AWSomation, when you trim a fader on the SSL AWS 900, what happens to the previous data? |
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Definition
| An offset is added or subtracted (B) |
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Term
| 94. On the SSL AWS 900, which button temporarily suspends automation? |
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Definition
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Term
| 95. Which type of code does the SSL AWS 900 use for positional reference? |
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Definition
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Term
| 96. Recall data and Automation data on the SSL AWS 900 are stored as ______ data. |
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Definition
| Sysex Data or MIDI Data (A) |
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Term
| 97. What are the three Automation Protection Modes on the SSL AWS console? |
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Definition
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Term
| 98. On the SSL AWS 900, accessing the ______ page while on the SSL page allows you to change the fader’s glide time? |
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Definition
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Term
| 99. The SSL AWS 900 refers to Fader Groups as _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 100. The _____ technique employs a pair of directional mic’s with the capsules angled away from each other aiming at the left and right sides of the sound source. |
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Definition
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