Term
1. What is the primary goal of humidity therapy?
a. decrease airway reactivity to cold
b. maintain normal physiologic conditions
c. deliver drugs to the airway
d. reduce upper airway inflammation |
|
Definition
| b. maintain normal physiologic conditions |
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Term
2. Indications for warming inspired gases include all of the following except:
a. treating a patient whose airways are reactive to cold
b. providing humidification when the upper airway is bypassed
c. treating a patient with a low body temperature (hypothermia)
d. reducing upper airway inflammation or swelling |
|
Definition
| d. reducing upper airway inflammation or swelling |
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Term
3. Administration of dry gases at flows exceeding 4 L/min can cause which of the following?
I. structural damage
II. heat loss
III. water loss
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I, II, and III |
|
Definition
d. I, II, and III
I. structural damage
II. heat loss
III. water loss |
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Term
4. Inhalation of dry gases can do which of the following?
I. increase viscosity of secretions
II. impair mucociliary motility
III. increase airway irritability
a. I and II
b. III
c. I and III
d. I, II, and III |
|
Definition
d. I, II, and III
I. increase viscosity of secretions
II. impair mucociliary motility
III. increase airway irritability |
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Term
5. What device adds molecular water to gas?
a. agitator
b. humidifier
c. nebulizer
d. atomizer |
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Definition
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Term
6. The greater the temperature of the gas, the:
a. more water vapor it can hold
b. less water vapor it can hold
c. less efficient the humidifier is
d. more water vapor is lost |
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Definition
| a. more water vapor it can hold |
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Term
7. Which of the following types of humidifiers are used in clinical practice?
I. heat-moisture exchanger
II. passover humidifier
III. bubble humidifier
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I, II, and III |
|
Definition
d. I, II, and III
I. heat-moisture exchanger
II. passover humidifier
III. bubble humidifier |
|
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Term
8. Increasing the flow through an unheated bubble humidifier has which of the following effects?
a. decreasing the water vapor content
b. decreasing the relative humidity
c. increasing the water vapor content
d. increasing the relative humidity |
|
Definition
| a. decreasing the water vapor content |
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Term
9. Which type of humidifier “traps” the patient’s body heat and expired water vapor to raise the humidity of inspired gas?
a. membrane
b. bubble
c. heat-moisture exchanger
d. passover |
|
Definition
| c. heat-moisture exchanger |
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Term
10. All of the following are true of heat-moisture exchangers (HMEs) except:
a. Moisture output falls at high volumes and rates of breathing.
b. High inspiratory flows and high FIO2 values can decrease HME efficiency.
c. In-use HMEs have little effect on flow resistance to breathing.
d. HMEs reduce bacterial colonization of ventilator circuits. |
|
Definition
| c. In-use HMEs have little effect on flow resistance to breathing. |
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Term
11. Which of the following is/are considered therapeutic gases?
I. O2
II. O2–NO mixture
III. O2–He mixture
IV. N2O
a. I and II
b. II and IV
c. III and IV
d. I, II, and III |
|
Definition
d. I, II, and III
I. O2
II. O2–NO mixture
III. O2–He mixture |
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Term
12. Which of the following statements regarding O2 is false?
a. It is only slightly soluble in water.
b. It is odorless and transparent.
c. It is flammable.
d. It is heavier than air. |
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Definition
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Term
13. By what means is air for medical use in a hospital most commonly produced?
a. chemical decomposition
b. electrolysis
c. fractional distillation
d. physical separation |
|
Definition
| c. fractional distillation |
|
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Term
14. What is the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) purity standard for O2?
a. 21%
b. 90%
c. 95%
d. 99% |
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Definition
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Term
15. Air for medical use in a hospital should be which of the following?
I. particle-free
II. oil-free
III. dry
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I, II, and III |
|
Definition
d. I, II, and III
I. particle-free
II. oil-free
III. dr |
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Term
16. Which of the following statements about He is false?
a. It is an inert gas.
b. It is odorless.
c. It is nonflammable.
d. It is heavier than air. |
|
Definition
| d. It is heavier than air. |
|
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Term
17. During inspection of the shoulder of a compressed gas cylinder, you note a plus sign (+) next to the test date. This
indicates what about the cylinder?
a. It is made of spun aluminum, not steel.
b. It only requires a 10-year DOT inspection.
c. It can be filled to 10% above its service pressure.
d. It has a high coefficient of elastic expansion. |
|
Definition
| c. It can be filled to 10% above its service pressure. |
|
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Term
18. According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology of the U.S. Department of Commerce, a gas cylinder
that is color-coded brown and green should contain which of the following?
a. O2–N2 mixture
b. O2–CO2 mixture
c. CO2
d. O2–He mixture |
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Definition
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Term
19. What is the usual method of monitoring the remaining contents in a gas-filled cylinder?
a. Weigh the cylinder.
b. Read the pressure gauge.
c. Compute the gas density.
d. Read the cylinder label. |
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Definition
| b. Read the pressure gauge. |
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Term
20. If you have to deliver medical gas to a patient from a compressed gas cylinder, which of the following devices would
you select to control gas flow?
a. regulator
b. oxygen blender
c. reducing valve
d. flowmeter |
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Definition
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Term
21. Specific clinical objectives of oxygen (O2) therapy include which of the following?
I. decrease the symptoms caused by chronic hypoxemia
II. decrease the workload hypoxemia imposes on the heart and lungs
III. correct documented arterial hypoxemia
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I, II, and III |
|
Definition
d. I, II, and III
I. decrease the symptoms caused by chronic hypoxemia
II. decrease the workload hypoxemia imposes on the heart and lungs
III. correct documented arterial hypoxemia |
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Term
22. What can properly applied O2 therapy decrease?
I. ventilatory demand
II. work of breathing
III. cardiac output
a. II and III
b. I and II
c. I, II, and III
d. I and III |
|
Definition
c. I, II, and III
I. ventilatory demand
II. work of breathing
III. cardiac output |
|
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Term
23. Which of the following signs and symptoms are associated with the presence of hypoxemia?
I. tachypnea
II. tachycardia
III. cyanosis
IV. bradycardia
a. II and III
b. I and II
c. I, II, and III
d. I and IV |
|
Definition
c. I, II, and III
I. tachypnea
II. tachycardia
III. cyanosis |
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Term
24. A patient with chronic hypercapnia placed on an FIO2 of 0.6 starts hypoventilating. What is the probable cause of this
phenomenon?
a. decreased cardiac output
b. O2 toxicity
c. O2-induced hypoventilation
d. absorption atelectasis |
|
Definition
| c. O2-induced hypoventilation |
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Term
25. Which of the following factors should be used in properly selecting an O2 delivery device?
I. knowledge of general performance of the device
II. physician’s preference
III. individual capabilities of the equipment
a. II and III
b. I and II
c. I, II, and III
d. I and III |
|
Definition
d. I and III
I. knowledge of general performance of the device
III. individual capabilities of the equipment |
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Term
26. To ensure a stable FIO2 under varying patient demands, what must an O2 delivery system do?
a. have a reservoir system at least equal to the VT
b. provide all the gas needed by the patient during inspiration
c. maintain flows that are at least equal to the patient’s peak flows
d. be able to deliver any O concentration from 21% to 100% |
|
Definition
| b. provide all the gas needed by the patient during inspiration |
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Term
27. A cooperative and alert postoperative patient taking food orally requires a small increment in FIO2, to be provided
continuously. Precise FIO2 concentrations are not needed. Which of the following devices would best achieve this end?
a. simple O2 mask
b. air-entrainment mask
c. nasal cannula
d. nonrebreathing mask |
|
Definition
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Term
28. Which of the following are advantages of the nasal cannula as a low-flow O2 delivery system?
I. stability
II. low cost
III. easy application
IV. disposability
a. II and IV
b. I, II, and IV
c. II, III, and IV
d. I, II, III, and IV |
|
Definition
c. II, III, and IV
II. low cost
III. easy application
IV. disposability |
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Term
29. Which of the following factors will decrease the FIO2 delivered by a low-flow O2 system?
I. short inspiratory time
II. fast rate of breathing
III. lower O2 input
IV. large minute ventilation
a. II and IV
b. I, II, and III
c. III and IV
d. I, II, III, and IV |
|
Definition
d. I, II, III, and IV
I. short inspiratory time
II. fast rate of breathing
III. lower O2 input
IV. large minute ventilation |
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Term
30. What are some key patient considerations in selecting O2 therapy equipment?
I. type of airway (natural or artificial)
II. severity and cause of the hypoxemia
III. age group (infant, child, adult)
IV. stability of the minute ventilation
a. II and IV
b. I, II, and III
c. III and IV
d. I, II, III, and IV |
|
Definition
d. I, II, III, and IV
I. type of airway (natural or artificial)
II. severity and cause of the hypoxemia
III. age group (infant, child, adult)
IV. stability of the minute ventilation |
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Term
31. Persistent breathing at small tidal volumes can result in which of the following?
a. reabsorption atelectasis
b. spontaneous pneumothorax
c. passive atelectasis
d. respiratory alkalosis |
|
Definition
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Term
32. Which of the following patient categories are at high risk for developing atelectasis?
I. those who are heavily sedated
II. those with abdominal or thoracic pain
III. those with neuromuscular disorders
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I, II, and III |
|
Definition
d. I, II, and III
I. those who are heavily sedated
II. those with abdominal or thoracic pain
III. those with neuromuscular disorders |
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Term
33. Which of the following clinical findings indicate the development of atelectasis?
I. opacified areas on the chest x-ray film
II. inspiratory and expiratory wheezing
III. tachypnea
IV. diminished or bronchial breath sounds
a. I, III, and IV
b. I, II, III, and V
c. I and IV
d. II, III, and IV |
|
Definition
a. I, III, and IV
I. opacified areas on the chest x-ray film
III. tachypnea
IV. diminished or bronchial breath sounds |
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Term
34. Which of the following modes of lung expansion therapy is physiologically most normal?
a. continuous positive airway pressure
b. incentive spirometry
c. positive end-expiratory pressure
d. intermittent positive-pressure breathing therapy |
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Definition
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Term
35. An alert and cooperative 28-year-old woman with no prior history of lung disease underwent cesarean section 16 hours
earlier. Her x-ray film currently is clear. Which of the following approaches to preventing atelectasis would you
recommend for this patient?
a. incentive spirometry
b. PEEP therapy
c. deep breathing exercises
d. intermittent positive-pressure breathing therapy |
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Definition
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Term
36. Which of the following are potential indications for incentive spirometry?
I. a restrictive disorder such as quadriplegia
II. abdominal surgery in a COPD patient
III. presence of pulmonary atelectasis
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I, II, and III |
|
Definition
d. I, II, and III
I. a restrictive disorder such as quadriplegia
II. abdominal surgery in a COPD patient
III. presence of pulmonary atelectasis |
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Term
37. Which of the following situations is a contraindication for incentive spirometry?
I. a patient whose vital capacity is less than 10 ml/kg
II. a patient who cannot cooperate or follow instructions
III. an unconscious patient
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I, II, and III |
|
Definition
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Term
38. A postoperative patient using incentive spirometry complains of dizziness and numbness around the mouth after
therapy sessions. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
a. gastric insufflation
b. hyperventilation
c. pulmonary barotrauma
d. respiratory acidosis |
|
Definition
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Term
39. Which of the following is false about intermittent positive-pressure breathing?
a. During inspiration, pressure in the alveoli decreases.
b. The pressure gradients of normal breathing are reversed.
c. During inspiration, alveolar pressure may exceed pleural pressure.
d. Energy stored during inspiration causes a passive exhalation. |
|
Definition
| a. During inspiration, pressure in the alveoli decreases. |
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Term
40. Intermittent positive-pressure breathing is associated with a passive exhalation.
a. true
b. false |
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Definition
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Term
41. A normal cough reflex includes which of the following phases?
I. irritation
II. inspiration
III. compression
IV. expulsion
a. I, II, III
b. I and IV
c. I, II, III, and IV
d. II and III |
|
Definition
c. I, II, III, and IV
I. irritation
II. inspiration
III. compression
IV. expulsion |
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Term
42. Which of the following can provoke a cough?
I. anesthesia
II. foreign bodies
III. infection
IV. irritating gases
a. II and IV
b. I, II, and III
c. III and IV
d. II, III, and IV |
|
Definition
d. II, III, and IV
II. foreign bodies
III. infection
IV. irritating gases |
|
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Term
43. Retention of secretions can result in full or partial airway obstruction. Mucus plugging can result in which of the
following?
I. hypoxemia
II. atelectasis
III. shunting
a. I, II, and III
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. II and III |
|
Definition
a. I, II, and III
I. hypoxemia
II. atelectasis
III. shunting |
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Term
44. All of the following drug categories can impair mucociliary clearance in intubated patients except:
a. general anesthetics
b. bronchodilators
c. opiates
d. narcotics |
|
Definition
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Term
45. Conditions that can affect airway patency and cause abnormal clearance of secretions include which of the following?
I. foreign bodies
II. tumors
III. inflammation
IV. bronchospasm
a. I, II, and III
b. II and IV
c. II, III, and IV
d. I, II, III, and IV |
|
Definition
d. I, II, III, and IV
I. foreign bodies
II. tumors
III. inflammation
IV. bronchospasm |
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Term
46. Which of the following conditions alter normal mucociliary clearance?
I. bronchospasm
II. cystic fibrosis (CF)
III. ciliary dyskinesia
a. I, II, and III
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. II and III |
|
Definition
d. II and III
II. cystic fibrosis (CF)
III. ciliary dyskinesia |
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Term
47. All of the following are goals of bronchial hygiene therapy except:
a. Reverse the underlying disease process.
b. Help mobilize retained secretion.
c. Improve pulmonary gas exchange.
d. Reduce the work of breathing. |
|
Definition
| a. Reverse the underlying disease process. |
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Term
48. Which of the following clinical signs indicate that a patient is having a problem with retained secretions?
I. lack of sputum production
II. labored breathing
III. development of a fever
IV. increased inspiratory and expiratory crackles
a. II and IV
b. I, II, and III
c. III and IV
d. I, II, III, and IV |
|
Definition
d. I, II, III, and IV
I. lack of sputum production
II. labored breathing
III. development of a fever
IV. increased inspiratory and expiratory crackles |
|
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Term
49. The application of gravity to achieve specific clinical objectives in respiratory care best describes which of the
following?
a. breathing exercises
b. postural drainage therapy
c. hyperinflation therapy
d. directed coughing |
|
Definition
| b. postural drainage therapy |
|
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Term
50. When turning a critically ill patient, one should be on guard for which of the following “plumbing” problems?
I. aspiration of circuit condensate
II. disconnection of vascular lines
III. ventilator disconnection
IV. accidental extubation
a. II and IV
b. I, II, III, and IV
c. I and III
d. II and III |
|
Definition
c. I and III
I. aspiration of circuit condensate
III. ventilator disconnection |
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