Term
| What zoonotic agents can be transmitted via aerosol route? |
|
Definition
Chlamydophila psittaci
Francisella tularensis
Q fever
Brucella sp.
+/- influenza |
|
|
Term
| What zoonotic agents can be transmitted via fecal-oral route? |
|
Definition
| Salmonella, Campylobacter, E. Coli, Yersinia enterocolitica, Cryptosporidiosis, Giardia, Leptospirosis |
|
|
Term
| What zoonotic agents can be transmitted via direct contact? |
|
Definition
| Dermatophytosis, Mycobacterium marinum, Contagious ecythma (ORF), Anthrax |
|
|
Term
| What infectious agents are typically responsible for bite wound infections from animals? |
|
Definition
Pasteurella multocida, Staph aureus, Bacteroides, Strep spp.
*** Rabies is also an important zoonotic disease that is transmitted via bite wounds |
|
|
Term
| Which zoonotic diseases are most likely to be encountered in Minn/Wisc? |
|
Definition
| Cryptosporidium, Salmonella, Dermatophytosis, Rabies, Arboviruses, Leptospirosis, E. coli 0157 |
|
|
Term
| What are some risk factors that increase an individual's likelyhood of contracting a zoonotic disease? |
|
Definition
| Age (very young and very old), Gender, Physiologic status/pre-existing illness, Ethnicity, Diet, Hygeine, Occupation (vet, tech, people working with animals), socio-economica factors (poverty + close contact with animals) |
|
|
Term
| What are some control measures for minimizing transmission of common zoonotic diseases? |
|
Definition
Reservoir neutralization: Remove infected animals via test and cull program AND/OR reduce shedding of infectious organisms via mass medication (ie. Chemoprophlaxis)
Reducing contact potential: Isolate and treat all confirmed cases, quarantine potentially exposed animals, population control (ex. minimizing feral dog populations helps to minimize rabies transmission), vector control
Increase host resistance: Chemoprophlaxis following potential exposure, Vaccination |
|
|
Term
In Minnesota, practitioners have legal
disease reporting responsibilities to Which two state agencies? |
|
Definition
Minnesota board of animal health
Minnesota department of health |
|
|
Term
| What zoonotic agents are reportable diseases in Minnesota? |
|
Definition
| Anthrax, Brucellosis, Rabies, Tularemia, Campylobacter, Cryptospordium, E. Coli 0157, Salmonellosis, Tuberculosis, Yernsiniosis, Chlamydiosis |
|
|
Term
| What are some recommendations for pet selection, and general precautions, for people who are immunocompromised? |
|
Definition
Choose healthy pets that are not immunosuppressed themselves. Avoid exotic/wild animals (esp. rodents, reptiles, birds, and monkeys)
General recommendations: hand hygiene, change litterbox daily, minimize animals scavenging/eating feces, do not feed raw meats, control fleas, minimize contact with pet urine/feces |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common zoonotic diseases of concern for immunocompromised people? |
|
Definition
| toxoplasmosis, crptosporidiosis, salmonellosis |
|
|
Term
| What are some characteristics that make an animal a suitable choice for therapy at nursing homes and hospitals? |
|
Definition
good health, current immunization, routine screening for enteric parasites, free of ectoparasites, no dermatologic lesions, bathing animals a day or two prior to visiting can help minimize patient allergies
Visits should be supervised, generally dogs are the best choice |
|
|
Term
| How do people acquire ascarid/hookworm/echinococcus infections? |
|
Definition
Ascarid: ingestion of eggs from the environment (require 2-4 weeks to larvate and become infective so transmission directly from dogs or cats is unlikely)
Hookworm: direct skin contact --> cutaneous larval migrans
Echinococcus: fecal-oral, ingestion of eggs shed by definitive host (ie. dogs) |
|
|
Term
| How and when do unembryonated toxocara eggs become infective? |
|
Definition
| require 2-4 weeks in the environment to larvate and become infective. |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical manifestations in people of ascarid and hookworm infections: |
|
Definition
ascarid: can cause visceral or ocular larval migrans, baylisascaris (racoons) can cause severe neurologic disease and death
hookworms: Most cases are asymptomatic, can cause cutaneous larval migrans (very pruritic condition!) |
|
|
Term
| When should puppies and kittens be treated for ascarid/hookworm infections? |
|
Definition
Puppies: hookworms and ascarids can be transmitted to puppies via transplacental and transmammary route. Prepatent period for hookworms is 15-26 days, treatment should begin at 2 weeks, and be repeated at 4, 6, and 8 weeks of age. Begin treating for ascarids at 3 weeks of age. Nursery dams should also be treated.
Kittens: Prenatal ascarid infection does not occur so treatment can be done a little later than in puppies. Recommend treating at 5, 7, and 9 weeks of age. |
|
|
Term
| What are the definitive hosts of Echinococcus sp.? |
|
Definition
| Canines are the definitive host for Echinococcus sp. |
|
|
Term
| Can fecal exams identify Echinococcus sp.? |
|
Definition
| No, although dogs (definitive hosts) can shed eggs in their feces, they cannot be differentiated from other species (ex. Taenia) |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of alveolar hydatid disease? |
|
Definition
| Symtpoms depend on location of tissue cysts, which develop predominately in the liver, but occasionally in the lungs, spleen, nervous tissue or bone |
|
|
Term
| What are some methods for protecting family members from intestinal parasites? |
|
Definition
| Routinely test and treat pets for intestinal parasites, good personal hygiene, wear shoes (hookworms), supervise children in potentially contaminated areas (no chemical treatment is effective for killing eggs in the soil) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common source of human trichinosis infections in the US? |
|
Definition
ingestion of undercooked bear meat
*** pork is also a potential source of trichinosis however biosecurity and food inspection measures have minimized this potential source in the US |
|
|
Term
| What are the phases and clinical signs associated with human trichinosis infection? |
|
Definition
Phases: intestinal (gastric acid and pepcin dissolve ingested cyst --> larva mature in the intestine and will mate and produce eggs within 1-2 days) --> larval migration (larvae hatch out of eggs in the intestine and travel through arteries into skeletal muscle tissue) --> Muscular (larvae encyst within skeletal muscle tissue, will remain viable for a several years)
Most human infections are subclinical, with increased clinical disease associated with increasing parasite burden (eyelid edema, diarrhea (during intestinal phase- 1st week of infection), myalgia, fever --> severe infection can present with encephalitis, myocarditis, and/or respiratory distress) |
|
|
Term
| Why has there been a decline of trichinosis in swine and humans? |
|
Definition
| Improved biosecurity, required cooking of garbage fed to swine, inspection and condemnation of infected carcasses, improved screening and diagnostic tests (microscopic evaluation of pooled diaphragm, or serologic tests) |
|
|
Term
| What precautions should hunters take to minimize the risk of trichinosis? |
|
Definition
Thoroughly cook all wild game
Freezing, curing, drying, smoking, or microwaving are NOT effective at killing tissue cysts |
|
|
Term
| What role do humans play in the life cycle of meat borne tapeworms T. saginata (beef), and T. solium (pork)? |
|
Definition
Humans are the definitive hosts for these species. Transmission occurs from human ingestion of raw or undercooked beef or pork containing tissue cysts --> humans shed eggs in their feces which are infective to cattle and swine
*** no person to person transmission |
|
|
Term
| What tissues should be examined on post-mortem to identify T. saginata or solium infection in beef or pork? |
|
Definition
T. saginita (beef): muscles of mastication, diaphragm, heart
T. solium (pork): easier detection because normally present as heavy infestation, same location
*** Public health authorities should be noted if an infected carcass is identified |
|
|
Term
| What are some prevention and control measure that can be used to minimize transmission of meat tapeworms (T. saginata and solium)? |
|
Definition
| Identify and eliminate human infections, do not allow infected people to handle or prepare food, do not use untreated sewage sludge on farm pastures, cook meat adequately (min 140 degrees internal temp), inspection and condemnation of affected beef or pork carcasses |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common agents likely to cause an infection after an animal bite? |
|
Definition
Pasteurella multocida, Staph aureus, Strep spp., Corynebacterium
*** infections usually involve multiple organisms |
|
|
Term
| What are three clinical characteristics that indicated a bite wound is infected? |
|
Definition
| Intense inflammation, pain, and swelling within 24 - 48 hours |
|
|
Term
| When are antibiotics indicated after an animal bite? |
|
Definition
Moderate to severe bites
cat bites
deep puncture wounds
anyone who's immunocompromised or diabetic
bites to the face, hands, or over a major joint |
|
|
Term
| How is Bartonella henselae transmitted to humans? To cats? |
|
Definition
Human transmission via scratch or bite from a cat/kitten (likely transmitted via saliva)
Cat transmission via flea vector
*** potentially humans can be infected by infective cat fleas as well, not a common mode of transmission |
|
|
Term
| When are cats more likely to transmit Bartonella henselae? |
|
Definition
| Usually in the first year of life, most cases in people are diagnosed between the months of September and January |
|
|
Term
| What are some measures that can be used to prevent dog bites? |
|
Definition
| Spay/neuter, properly socialize, dogs with history of aggression problems are not appropriate in households with children, owner and public education about dog body language and non-confrontational ways to interact or avoid interaction with dogs, community animal control |
|
|
Term
| What are the wildlife reservoir species for Rabies in the upper midwest? |
|
Definition
Skunks are the terrestrial reservoir
Bats also are a reservoir |
|
|
Term
| If a person is bitten by a cat, dog, or ferret and the owner of the animal is unwilling to have it tested for rabies, how long must the offending animal be quarantined? |
|
Definition
10 days (regardless of vaccine status)
*** normally onset of clinical signs is concurrent with viral shedding, but some animals may shed virus 3-4 days before clinical Rabies is evident, the 10 day window provides ample time to observe the offending animal for development of Rabies |
|
|
Term
| If a vaccinated cat or dog is bitten by a suspect rabid animal, what is the recommended quarantine period and post-exposure protocol? |
|
Definition
Report incident to the board of animal health
Revaccinate the dog or cat and quarantine for 40 days |
|
|
Term
| What is the post-exposure protocol for an unvaccinated dog, cat, or ferret that is bitten by a suspect rabid animal? |
|
Definition
Report incident to the board of animal health
Recommend euthanasia, if owner is unwilling vaccinate (a series of three total on day 0, 7, 14) and quarantine for 6 months |
|
|
Term
| Which animals are not considered likely to transmit rabies? |
|
Definition
| Rabbits, chipmunks, squirrels, pet rats/hamsters/gerbils or other small rodents |
|
|
Term
| In the US, which animal has accounted for most of the human rabies cases in the last 20 years? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What factors affect the incubation period of rabies? |
|
Definition
Location of the bite (facial bites have shorter incubation period than extremities due to proximity to CNS)
Areas of greater innervation
Severity of the wound
Age of bitten animal (shorter incubation period if younger)
Strain/virus variant |
|
|
Term
| When symptoms of Rabies are first noticed in a dog, cat, or ferret, generally how long will these animals live? |
|
Definition
| Generally will die within 10 days following onset of clinical signs |
|
|
Term
| How many days before the onest of clinical signs, can a dog, cat, or ferret shed rabies virus in their saliva? |
|
Definition
| generally viral shedding occurs concurrently with onset of clinical signs; however, animals may shed virus up to 3-4 days before the onset of clinical signs |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common foodborne pathogens? Which are zoonotic? |
|
Definition
Zoonotic: Salmonella, Campylobacter, Cryptospordium, E. coli 0157
Non-zoonotic: norovirus |
|
|
Term
| What are two tools that can be used to detect foodborne outbreaks of disease? |
|
Definition
molecular fingerprinting of etiologic agents to identify multiple cases due to the same organism
traceback studies to identify a common source of the disease |
|
|
Term
| What are some ways to control zoonotic foodborne pathogens? |
|
Definition
Don't use contaminated irrigation water sources on farms
Don't grow produce adjacent to dairy farms or other animal facilities
Good hygiene for individuals that handle food |
|
|
Term
| What are the common reservoirs for Campylobacter? Salmonella? |
|
Definition
Campylobacter: sheep and poultry
Salmonella: reptiles, poultry, swine, cattle |
|
|
Term
| How are salmonella and campylobacter transmitted to humans? |
|
Definition
Salmonella: ingestion of uncooked food (dairy, poultry, meat, eggs), fecal contamination, cross contamination in a kitchen or by an infected food handler, direct contact with animals
Campylobacter: Poultry, raw milk, water *** most cases are sporatic |
|
|
Term
| What are some recommendations to prevent transmission of salmonella from reptiles to humans? Which individuals should not keep reptiles as pets? |
|
Definition
Prevention of the transmission of salmonella from reptiles to humans can be maximized through education of pet owners about the risk of transmission, washing hands after handling the animal or cleaning its cage, keep the animals contained (ie. no free roaming reptiles!) and away from areas where food is prepared or people eat
Reptiles are not an appropriate pet for pregnant women, children under 5 years of age, or anyone who is immunocompromised. |
|
|
Term
| Which individuals are at greatest risk for severe illness from foodborne diseases? |
|
Definition
| individuals who consume raw or undercooked food, do not refrigerate perishable items, practice poor personal and kitchen hygiene, recent history of antacid/antibiotic use (changes populations of commensal gut flora) |
|
|
Term
| What food product is associated with Salmonella enteritidis? |
|
Definition
| Eggs (transovarial transmission from infected hens) |
|
|
Term
| What are some risks associated with feeding your pet dog or cat a raw food diet? |
|
Definition
| raw meat diets can harbor pathogens like salmonella which can contaminate the environment where the raw diet is fed, and can also result in an apparently healthy pet that is shedding salmonella in it's feces |
|
|
Term
| What are the human clinical manifestations of E. coli 0157? Listeria? |
|
Definition
E. coli 0157: bloody diarrhea, can progress to hemolytic uremic syndrome (esp. in children)
Listeria: bacteremia, meningitis, abscesses, fever, still births, death *** Listeria can grow at refrigerator temps |
|
|
Term
| What are common reservoirs for E. coli 0157 and Listeria monocytogens? |
|
Definition
Ruminants
*** Listeria is also ubiquitous in the environment and present in the GI tract of many mammals including humans |
|
|
Term
| What age group(s) are at greatest risk of infection from E. coli 0157 and Listeria monocytogens? |
|
Definition
E. coli: children
Listeria: infants, pregnant women, elderly, immunocompromised |
|
|
Term
| How can you minimize the risk of contracting foodborne illness associated with E. coli 0157 and Listeria? |
|
Definition
| cook raw foods, wash vegetables, don't consume raw milk, avoid cross contamination in the kitchen |
|
|
Term
| identify three major factors that influenced the development of the original meat inspection requirements |
|
Definition
• Evolution of Meat Sales- Consumers did not have control over sanitation and could no longer view their meat being processed
•Embalmed Meats: Canned foods (soldiers reported product contained gristle, pieces of rope and maggots, most of the cans spoiled)
• The Jungle: A book aimed at deplorable sociioeconomical conditions existing in Chicago and the
filthy conditions of the meat packing industry |
|
|
Term
| Identify the critical event that initiated the movement away from traditional inspection to HACCP based inspection |
|
Definition
| Jack in the box E. coli outbreak in 1900's: consumers demanded a change in the inspection to address "unseen hazards", resulted in a shift in responsibility away from individual inspectors and to the processing plant |
|
|
Term
| Understand the role of veterinarians in meat inspection and how this role has changed over the years |
|
Definition
| Changed from inspecting carcasses for gross lesions to addressing food safety, animal welfare, and microbiological issues |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between State and Federal meat inspection? |
|
Definition
State: can only sell within the state
Federal: can sell across state lines |
|
|
Term
| What are two types of food processing exempt from meat inspection requirements? |
|
Definition
Poultry (more exceptions to allow people to process small amounts of poultry on their farm and sell it to the public)
Curtis amendment allows the owner of the animal to process themselves; however, meat must be stamped not for sale |
|
|
Term
| Identify three major ways dairy regulatory issues impact veterinarians |
|
Definition
Labeling requirements for perscription drugs (must include meat and milk withdrawal times on drug label)
Drug residue issues
Drug storage issues: Non-lactating separate from lactating drugs, other chemicals/drugs not in the milkhouse |
|
|
Term
| What are the regulatory consequences of having a milk or meat residue? |
|
Definition
USDA warning letter AND must review the "milk, dairy, and beef residue prevention manual" AND a visit from an inspector to review and identify the cause of the violation
violation will be cleared from the record after 12 months, if a farm has 3 or more violations in a 12 month period they are taken off the market for 2-4 days |
|
|
Term
| What are the legal limits for bacteria and somatic cell count in cow milk for grade A and grade B milk? |
|
Definition
Grade A: 100,000 bacteria, 750,000 somatic cell count
Grade B: 500,000 bacteria, 750,000 somatic cell count |
|
|
Term
| What are the two dairy inspection standards for farms and manufacturers? |
|
Definition
Grade A: required for fluid milk and yogurt, must adhere to pasteurized milk ordinance, 2x yearly farm inspection and 4x yearly plant inspection
Grade B: USDA guidelines for milk for manufacturing purposes, annual farm inspection, 2x yearly plant inspection, much more lenient program but farmers get paid much less for their milk and have fewer marketing options |
|
|
Term
| Describe the impact of pasteurization of milk? |
|
Definition
The processes of heating a beverage or other food such as milk or beer to a specific temperature for a specific period of time in order to kill microbes that could cause disease, spoilage or undesired fermentation
Milk is heated to 161 F for 15 seconds --> kills highly infectious bacteria causing Brucellosis, Bovine TB, Q fever, Campy, Crypto, E.coli |
|
|
Term
| Identify four acceptable methods of stunning animals? |
|
Definition
Chemical- carbon dioxide, difficult to use consistently but can be used for sheep, calves, and swine
Mechanical-
Captive bolt: very effective, must be cleaned regularly
Gun: important to use different calliber shells depending on the species, human safety issues
Electrical- very effective with a well trained operator |
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of surgical anesthesia as it relates to humane slaughter? |
|
Definition
State at which the animal feels no pain, stunning must be used to induce this state prior to slaughter
Different methods of stunning (Co2, captive bolt, gunshot, electric) work more effectively for different animals |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between humane handling and humane slaughter? |
|
Definition
Humane handling: Humane methods of moving animals, and an appropriate environment (good footing, ramps etc.) allows the animals to move through the slaughter plant humanely, this minimizes carcass blemishes like bruising or hide damage
Humane slaughter: animals must be stunned and in a state of surgical anesthesia prior to being shackled, hoisted thrown, cast or cut |
|
|
Term
| What are the requirements for humane handling of food animals at the slaughter plant? |
|
Definition
| Animals must have access to water at all times, if animals are being held over 24 hours they must have room to lie down, minimal use of electric prods to move animals, good footing and good design to allow animals to move through the plant with stress minimized |
|
|
Term
| Describe how ritual slaughter is different from conventional slaughter. |
|
Definition
| Ritual slaughter (ie. kosher or halal) utilizes simultaneous and instantaneous severance of the carotid arteries to achieve loss of consciousness (ie. stunning). Must use a very sharp instrument and special permission is required |
|
|
Term
| What types of materials are considered animal by-products? |
|
Definition
visceral organs (lungs and udders cannot be used for human consumption)
carcasses passed for cooking, ground bone, meat, blood, vessels, fat, and trimmings
Sources can be from fresh boned out meat and poultry, meat from animals that may have died from ways other than slaughter (Dead, diseased, dying disabled) |
|
|
Term
| provide a general description of the rendering process |
|
Definition
| Animal by products are cooked at very high temperatures for long periods of time, fat is separated from the protein meal |
|
|
Term
| What animal by products are prohibited from use in ruminant feed? |
|
Definition
ruminant protein cannot be used in ruminant feed as a strategy to minimize the risk of BSE
exemptions: blood products, milk, porcine/equine protein, cooked human food waste, non-mammalian proteins (ex. fish) |
|
|
Term
| What are the five label requirements for pet food? |
|
Definition
product name
guaranteed analysis (crude protein, fat, fiber, and moisture)
nutritional adequacy statement (complete and balanced, formulated to meet standards OR animal feeding trial as per AFCO regulations)
feeding directions
net quantity |
|
|
Term
| How are health claims on animal food regulated? |
|
Definition
Anything with a health claim is considered a drug and as such must be approved through an animal drug application with data to substantiate the health claims.
No pre-approval of labels is required
so one cannot assume that because a label says something that it is OKd by the FDA. Compliance is achieved by finding labels out of compliance and then correcting them |
|
|
Term
| What are the five major steps in poultry processing? |
|
Definition
Antemortem inspection: performed on a lot basis, dead birds are condemned
Online inspection of each bird: EVERY bird is examined for disease conditions that may make it unfit for human food, extraneous material or fecal contamination, bruising or other tissue defects
Verification of food safety systems (Off line inspection , HACCP/SSOP)
Microbial sampling (carcass washes and equipment)
Other Economical verification |
|
|
Term
| What are some types of poultry slaughter interventions that can be used for preventing or reducing Salmonella or Campylobcater. |
|
Definition
Removal of feces and other contaminants from carcasses BEFORE they enter the chill tank
Plant must maintain HACCP and sanitation standard operating procedures (SSOPS) |
|
|
Term
| What conditions would require condemnation of an entire poultry carcass? |
|
Definition
| Septicemia, avian tuberculosis, extensive bruising (mild bruising can be trimmed) |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between egg quality and egg safety? |
|
Definition
quality: Grading is based on interior qualities (albumin thickness, size of air cell) and the weight of the eggs
safety: must have safe handling instructions on the box, must be maintained at 45 degrees or less, and be transported under refrigeration |
|
|
Term
| Identify some steps that can be taken during the handling and processing of eggs that are intended to improve safety? |
|
Definition
Clean the exterior of eggs (esp. fecal material) to prevent the translocation of microorganisms through pores in the egg shell.
***Eggs should NOT be immersed in water, wet cleaning systems use a continuous wash cycle |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary food safety issue associated with eggs? |
|
Definition
Salmonella enteriditis
*** eggs are infected via transovarian transmission so cleaning and sanitation cannot prevent contamination. Additionally carrier hens may appear clinically healthy. Assess for risk by taking environmental samples. |
|
|
Term
| Why is antemortem inspection of animals performed? |
|
Definition
Some diseases (esp. neurologic) cannot be identified based on post-mortem lesions
minimize environmental contamination on the slaughter floor
Cooperation with animal disease control authorities for regulatory disease programs |
|
|
Term
| What are specific criteria that would warrant condemnation of an animal on antemortem inspection? |
|
Definition
| non-ambulatory (cattle only, not swine), dead or moribund |
|
|
Term
| What important disease conditions can be best appreciated by antemortem exam? |
|
Definition
neurologic disease, lameness, depression,
coughing/respiratory distress |
|
|
Term
| What is a downer animal, how would you identify one of these animals on antemortem inspection? |
|
Definition
Unable to rise from recumbent position
Potential causes: Grass tetany, milk fever, metabolic imbalances, systemic disease, heat exhaustion, transport tetany, Stress, CO poisoning, musculoskeletal disease
All bovine animals that are down are condemned on AM inspection, regardless of reason why they are down |
|
|
Term
| What questions should be considered when making a decision regarding carcass disposition? |
|
Definition
| Is the meat fit to eat? Must answer this question based on gross lesions (acute vs. chronic, localized vs. generalized) in association with antemortem inspection findings |
|
|
Term
| When are felines most likely to shed toxoplasma oocysts? For how long? |
|
Definition
Most feral cats and domestic “outdoor”
cats become infected during their first 12 months of life after weaning
Cats shed up to 20 million oocysts/day for up to 15 days, repetitive episodes of shedding is an uncommon occurrence |
|
|
Term
| How long must toxoplasma oocysts mature in the environment before they sporulate? Why is this important to know? |
|
Definition
| sporulation occurs 1-5 days following excretion <-- so if you change the litterbox daily you can remove oocysts before they sporulate and become infective |
|
|
Term
| Which individuals are at greatest risk of developing serious infection associated with toxoplasmosis? How does this disease manifest clinically in humans? |
|
Definition
Pregnant women and immunocompromised (HIV), those who eat raw or uncooked meat (beef, lamb, oysters, clams, mussels), working with meat, drinking unpasteurized goats milk, those with 3+ kittens in the house
Age : 30-39 years old more common than 20-29 yrs old
Congenital infection or immunocompromised people toxoplasmosis anifests as CNS, occular, or systemic disease
Immunocompetent people are generally asymptomatic, or non-specific flu like illness with lymphadenopathy |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common means of transmission of toxoplasmosis to people? |
|
Definition
Raw or undercooked meat (ingestion of
bradyzoites) |
|
|
Term
| What are some precautions to recommend to clients that can help minimize the risk posed by toxoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
| Thorough cooking of meat to at least 161F internal temp, freezing meat for at least 24 hours, throughly wash or peel fruits and vegetables, clean all cooking surfaces and utensils after contact with raw meat or produce, wear gloves while gardening, thoroughly wash hands after contact with soil or sand, cats should be kept inside, use commercial cat food, avoid feeding raw or undercooked meat to cats, cat litter should be changed daily by someone who is not pregnant (or if pregnant gloves should be worn and hands thoroughly washed afterward) |
|
|
Term
| What common transmissible spongiform encephalopathies affect animal species? |
|
Definition
Scrapie (sheep)
TME (mink)
CWD (cervids)
BSE (cattle) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
feeding cattle a protein source contaminated with the prion (nervous tissue and bone marrow are highest risk tissues)
****Suspected agent came from either scrapie-affected sheep or cattle or cattle with a previously unidentified TSE |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical presentation of scrapie or BSE? |
|
Definition
| older animals (prolonged incubation period of 2-8 years) with gradual onset of ataxia, other changes in locomotion, mentation, and sensation |
|
|
Term
| What measures have been implemented to prevent BSE transmission in the US? |
|
Definition
| Prohibition of feeding mammalian tissue to ruminants, active serveillance, downer cows are condemned and not allowed into the food system, strengthening the scrapie eradication program |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between classic CJD and "variant" CJD? |
|
Definition
Classic: 90% of cases occur spontaneously, 10% appear heritable or are iatrogenic (assocaited with tissue transplants, esp. cornea), affects older people
Variant: transmitted via ingestion of contaminated bovine meat/nervous tissue, affects young people |
|
|
Term
| What are some recommendations for hunters to reduce the risk of CWD exposure? |
|
Definition
Wear gloves when field dressing, don't consume high risk tissue (bone marrow and nervous tissue), don't harvest sick animals
*** no current evidence of transmission of CWD from cervids to people |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common zoonotic pathogens transmitted via water? |
|
Definition
Bacterial: campylobacter, salmonella, E. coli 0157
Protozoal: cryptosporidium, giardia
Viral: norovirus |
|
|
Term
| Which zoonotic pathogens are resistant to chlorination? |
|
Definition
| crypto, giardia, toxoplasma |
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Term
| What are the main reservoirs for human cryptosporidia infections? |
|
Definition
ruminants (esp. calves --> lots of environmental contamination)
*** dogs and cats have species specific strains of crypto that generally only cause disease in immunocompromised humans |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical manifestation of cryptosporidiosis in both humans and animals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the risk factors for human illness associated with cryptosporidiosis? |
|
Definition
| immunosuppression, swimming in public pools, drinking well water, exposure to calves |
|
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Term
| What recommendations would you provide to prevent cryptosporidiosis infections in your clients and in their animals? |
|
Definition
| good hand hygiene, oocyst shedding can continue up to 2 weeks post resolution of clinical signs so keep kids out of the pool during this period of time |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common routes of infection by giardia in people? |
|
Definition
| food borne, water, and person to person transmisssion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
It could be, but there is limited evidence of direct transmission from animals to humans.
*** it's more likely that animals act as a source of environmental contamination |
|
|
Term
| What are the three most important tick borne diseases present in Minnesota and Wisconsin? |
|
Definition
| Lyme disease, human anaplasmosis, babesiosis |
|
|
Term
| What important factors affect transmission of tickborne disease? |
|
Definition
| Transovarial transmissino occurs and ticks can maintain infection thoughout their different life stages. Disease transmission occurs only after 24-48 hours of feeding so prompt tick removal is an effective form of prevention |
|
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Term
| What are the clinical syndromes associated with Lyme disease in people? |
|
Definition
early localized: 80% develop characteristic erythema migrans (EM) rash (dogs don't get this)
early disseminated: joint pain, AV block, aseptic menengitis, usually no EM rash
late disseminated- occurs in 60% of untreated patients, typically arthritis and neuro disease |
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Term
| What geographic regions of the US would you expect to see EEE, WEE, and WNV? |
|
Definition
EEE: eastern and gulf coasts
WEE: west of the Mississippi
WNV: Pretty much across the US but shifting to the west |
|
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Term
| Which arboviruses are associated with high mortality rates in humans and animals? |
|
Definition
EEE: highly fatal in children, 80% or survivors have persistent neurologic disease
WNV: acute flacid paralysis, older people are especially susceptible |
|
|
Term
| What differential should you always consider when you have a horse with neurologic disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does it mean to be a dead end host (in regards to arboviral infections)? |
|
Definition
low to undetectable levels of viremia insufficient to develop clinical signs or transmit the disease
ie. dogs and cats are generally refractory to infection by WNV but will be seropositive if exposed |
|
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Term
| What are some strategies for prevention of arboviral infections? |
|
Definition
| late summer and early fall are highest risk times, stay indoors at dawn and dusk, wear long sleeve shirts and pants, use insect repellent, vaccines are available for horses |
|
|
Term
| How can plague be transmitted to humans? |
|
Definition
| via bite of an infective flea, direct contact with infective tissues, inhalation (results in pneumonic form, this is relatively uncommon) |
|
|
Term
| What are the three forms of plague, and what clinical signs associated with each form? |
|
Definition
Bubonic: most common, swollen and extremely tender lymph nodes (submandibular are most commonly affected in cats), extremely febrile
Septicemic: hypotension with eventual gangrene of extremities (may be primary, or a sequela to untreated bubonic form)
Pneumonic: pneumonia and hemoptysis, most fatal form (may be primary, or sequelea to other forms) |
|
|
Term
| Where in the US is plague endemic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How should you manage an animal that you suspect has plague? |
|
Definition
| flea treatment, droplet protection + mask if working within 6 feet of the animal, treat with gentamicin or enrofloxacin, don't send the cat home until it has received treatment for 48-72 hours, prophylactic treatment for any potentially exposed people or animals |
|
|
Term
| What are possible routes of transmission for Tularemia? |
|
Definition
pretty much anything can be infected and can transmit this disease.
Vectors include ticks, biting flies and potentially mosquitos and fleas.
Direct contact with infected animals or carcasses (usually rabbits, voles, beavers, and cats but other domestic species can also be affected)
Contaminated food, water, or soil (ubiquitous in the environment)
Aerosol (agricultural dust, lawn clippings, lab accidents) |
|
|
Term
| What types of activities increase an individual's risk of contracting tularemia? |
|
Definition
| lab workers, farmers, vets, sheep shearers, hunter/trapper, cook/meat handler |
|
|
Term
| What disease syndromes are associated with human cases of tularemia? |
|
Definition
ulceroglandular (most common form, ulcer at site of inoculation with regional lymphadenopathy)
glandular (just lymphadenopathy)
oculoglandular (lymphadenopathy + inflamed palpebral conjunctiva)
oropharyngeal (associated with eating an infected carcass)
typhoidal (septicemia)
Pneumonic (most severe form, usually lethal, associated with aerosol exposure) |
|
|
Term
| What clinical signs are consistent with tularemia infection in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
cats: fever, lymphadenopathy, ulcers, pneumonia
dogs: generally assymptomatic, if they do develop clinically appreciable disease signs are non-specific |
|
|
Term
| What preventative practices can be implemented to reduce the risk of contracting tularemia? |
|
Definition
minimize vector exposure: avoid tick infested areas, wear protective clothing and use insect repellents
cook wild game thoroughly and wear gloves when handling carcasses
In suspect cases wear gloves, masks, and protective eyewear |
|
|
Term
| How is anthrax transmitted to people? |
|
Definition
wounds, scratches or skin abrasions
ingestion of insufficiently cooked meat
inhalation of aerosolized spores |
|
|
Term
| What are the potential clinical manifestations of anthrax in people, which is most common? |
|
Definition
cutaneous is most common, presents as a blackened escar lesion at site of inoculation
GI form: vomiting, bloody diarrhea, septicemia, and death (high case fatality rate)
pulmonary (flu-like symptoms and fever followed by septicemia and death, high mortality but survival is possible with early Dx and Tx |
|
|
Term
| What are the potential clinical manifestations of anthrax in animals and which species present with which form? |
|
Definition
peracute (ruminants)
acute (horses)
subacute/chronic (dogs and cats) |
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose anthrax? |
|
Definition
sample of whole blood collected from the jugular vein or an ear clipping
*** call the diagnostic lab before submitting so that personnel can take appropriate precautions |
|
|
Term
| If you suspect a case of anthrax who do you call and how do you dispose of the carcass? |
|
Definition
report to the board of animal health
DO NOT open the carcass (this ensures that organisms remain in their vegetative form), burn the carcass and any dirt exposed to secretions from affected animals on the farm |
|
|
Term
| How can you prevent/treat anthrax? |
|
Definition
place animals on a different pasture
vaccinate all healthy animals, booster 2-4 weeks after initial injection, annual booster for 5 years post outbreak
treat sick (febrile) animals with penicillin
affected farms should be quarantined for a minimum of 2 weeks (30 days in MN) |
|
|
Term
| Which species of Brucella infect humans? what are their relative pathogenicity? |
|
Definition
Listed in order from most to least pathogenic to humans
B. melitensis- most pathogenic for humans, primarily foodborne transmission (raw goat milk and cheese)
B. suis (swine)- occupational exposure
B. abortis (cattle)- occupational exposure (esp. with aborted fetus, placenta and vaginal secretions)
B. canis |
|
|
Term
| What are the major risk factors for acquiring brucellosis? What is the most common route of transmission in the US? |
|
Definition
individuals with greatest risk of transmission: Occupations dealing with host animals, laboratory workers, feral swine hunters, travelers
Transmission via: contact with infected animals or tissues (especially fetuses, fetal membranes and vaginal discharges)
****most common***** Ingestion of raw milk and unpasteurized dairy products
Airborne infection has occurred in
laboratory settings |
|
|
Term
| What are some methods for preventing and controling B. canis in kennels? |
|
Definition
Control: eliminate infected animals from kennels, avoid contact with infected animals or use protective gloves, disinfect kennels (quaternary ammonia compounds,organic iodine compounds and chlorine solution), no immunizing agent is available and antibiotic treatment does not eliminate infections
Quarantine with continued testing until at least 3 consecutive monthly tests fail to identify infected animals. Thereafter, quarterly or biannual testing |
|
|
Term
| What are some methods that can be used to control and prevent human brucellosis infections? |
|
Definition
Pasteurization of all milk and dairy products
Avoid contact with known infected tissues and dispose of infected materials properly
Provide adequate ventilation and reduce aerosol production in slaughter and rendering plants
Use protective clothing when assisting animals during parturition or when disposing of contaminated bedding and products of abortion |
|
|
Term
| What is the current status of the eradication programs for bovine (B. abortis) and porcine (B. suis) brucellosis? |
|
Definition
Market Cattle Testing: 95% of cows and bulls are required to be tested for brucellosis at slaughter
Milk Ring Test: Required biannually in commercial dairies in states free of brucellosis, required 4x per year in states with Brucellosis status A (infection rate <0.25%), B (0.25-1.5%), or C (>1.5%)
Vaccine for cattle: Strain RB51 (false positives on serology with strain 19 vaccine) |
|
|
Term
| What are the major clinical signs associated with human cases of leptospirosis? |
|
Definition
| wide range of clinical presentations from asymptomatic to mild flu-like symptoms, to severe (immune phase can be associated with aseptic meningitis, liver failure, acute renal failure, hemorrhagic pneumonitis, cardiac arrhythmias) |
|
|
Term
| What are some methods that can be used to prevent human infections of leptospirosis? |
|
Definition
| Education, personal hygiene, protective clothing for high-risk occupations (vet and things where people are outside a lot- farming, mining etc.), identify contaminated water and soil – drain if possible, control rodents, control infection in domestic animals, avoid swimming in contaminated waters |
|
|
Term
| What are the public health hazards associated with canine leptospiral infection? |
|
Definition
The organisms cannot replicate outside the host but can persist in the environment (esp. water) depending upon external conditions, important to use caution when handling urine, however after initiating treatment animals will no longer be shedding organisms.
Wear protective gear when cleaning kennels, contaminated surfaces should be washed with detergents (sodium hypochlorite, iodine based disinfectant) |
|
|
Term
| What are the benefits and problems associated with canine vaccination against leptospirosis? |
|
Definition
Lepto vaccine for dogs is a bacterin vaccine that contain 4 serovars: canicola, icterohaemorrhagiae, grippotyphosa, and pomona
Vaccines are not cross-protective against other serovars, may reduce shedding and prevent overt presentations of disease, but subclinical infections are still possible and human infection has been reported in association with dogs that are up to date with their lepto vaccine protocol
*** vaccine is recommended for dogs in highly endemic regions |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical signs associated with psittacosis in birds? In people? |
|
Definition
birds: most are assymptomatic, sometimes mild self limiting flu like illness, occasionally pneumonia + reactive arthritis
humans:flu-like illness, fever, slow pulse |
|
|
Term
| How is C. psittaci transmitted? |
|
Definition
inhalation of respiratory secretions or dried/aerosolized droppings, handling feathers or infected tissues, mouth to beak contact
*** organisms shed in feces or respiratory secretions can remain viable in the environment for months |
|
|
Term
| What is the drug of choice for treating psittacosis? |
|
Definition
doxcycycline
+ supportive therapy, esp. with severe pneumonia |
|
|
Term
| What are some tactics for controlling psittacosis in a aviary? |
|
Definition
limit stress (will instigate shedding in chronic carriers), isolate newly-acquired birds for 30-45 days, and
test or treat before mixing them with resident birds, use disinfectant that is effective against C. psittaci (1% Lysol or bleach solution, Roccal®,
Zephiran®, 70% isopropyl alcohol), Do NOT vacuum- spray floor with water or
disinfectant, then sweep, treat all symptomatic and exposed birds for 45 days (with doxy). |
|
|
Term
| T/F Psittacosis is a reportable disease |
|
Definition
TRUE
*** report to board of animal health and state health department |
|
|
Term
| What are the reservoirs and modes of transmission for Q fever? |
|
Definition
reservoirs: domestic ruminants, cats, wild birds, ticks
transmission: airborn, direct contact (esp. placenta), fomites, ingestion of raw milk |
|
|
Term
| What are some unique characteristics that make Q fever a potential bioterrorism agent? |
|
Definition
| very low infectious dose is required, organism can persist in the environment, airborne particles can spread across wide stretches of land |
|
|
Term
| What are some risk factors for infection with Q fever? |
|
Definition
| mixed/food animal vets, lived on a farm, work with reservoir species (esp. research with sheep) |
|
|
Term
| What chronic disease is commonly associated with Q-fever infections in humans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some preventative measures that can be used against Q fever? |
|
Definition
Avoid contact with infected animals if possible, reduce environmental contamination (incinerate infected birth products), treat lambing areas with effective disinfectants (0.05% hypochlorite, 1% lysol or 5% hydrogen
peroxide), limit sheep research in medical facilities to male or nonpregnant female animals, vaccine is only available in Australia |
|
|
Term
| Which fungal diseases are reportable to the board of animal health? |
|
Definition
| Blastomycosis, Histoplasmosis, Cryptococcidiosis, Coccidiomycoses |
|
|
Term
| How are influenza viruses transmitted to people? |
|
Definition
| aerosolized droplets, closed environments and close contact +/- direct contact (virus may survive on fomites up to 24 hours) |
|
|
Term
| What are the occupational risks associated with influenza? |
|
Definition
| intensive poultry, waterfowl, or swine exposure |
|
|
Term
| What is the current status of H5N1? |
|
Definition
| millions of birds have been culled, primarily occurs in Africa and Asia, the number of human cases and fatalities associated with H5N1 are decreasing |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of AMDUCA? |
|
Definition
| defines extra label drug use, established conditions necessary for extra label drug use including the requirement for a valid vet-client-patient relationship |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| treat sick animals while medicating others in the group to prevent disease (ex. feedlot calves) |
|
|
Term
| What are some ways that drug resistant organisms can be spread? |
|
Definition
| travel, migrating wildlife, trade of breeding animals and food products, manure and/or human waste, mixed farming systems |
|
|
Term
| What two multidrug resistant pathogens are of greatest concern for human health? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which antimicrobials are especially important in human medicine? |
|
Definition
fluroquinolones
third generation cephalosporins
vancomycin + impenem |
|
|
Term
| How are antimicrobials used in veterinary medicine? |
|
Definition
| Disease treatment, control and prevention, and growth promotion |
|
|
Term
| How can we minimize inappropriate antimicrobial usage? |
|
Definition
| improve biosecurity, use vaccines, genetic selection for disease resistance, non-antimicrobial feed components that promote health and growth (ex. zinc oxide probiotics, organic acids, oligosaccarides) |
|
|
Term
| What is the medical significance of MRSA/VRE in humans? |
|
Definition
| leading cause of pneumonia, surgical wound infections, and bacteriemia in hospitalized patients |
|
|
Term
| What are three of the most common nosocomial agents? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What circumstances are more commonly associated with acquisition of a nosocomial infection? |
|
Definition
| IV or urinary catheterization, TPN, feeding tubes, respiratory and GI infections are also common |
|
|
Term
| When should you wear gloves? |
|
Definition
| any time you come in contact with ANY body fluids |
|
|
Term
| Which species of mycobacterium infect humans? |
|
Definition
| M. tuberculosis and M. bovis |
|
|
Term
| What modes of transmission are involved in cases of human tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
Consumption of unpasteurized milk and dairy products from infected cattle
Inhalation of aerosols by farm workers, veterinarians, and slaughter plant workers
gastrointestinal transmission via infected meat is theoretically |
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