# Shared Flashcard Set

## Details

Private pilot written exam
Private pilot written exam
245
Aviation
06/29/2008

Term
 (Refer to figure 14.) If the terrain elevation is 1,295 feet MSL, what is the height above ground level of the base of the ceiling?
Definition
 A) 505 feet AGL.
Term
 Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
Definition
 C) In colder than standard air temperature.
Term
 (Refer to figure 23.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1). The wind is from 340° at 10 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots.
Definition
 C) 327°.
Term
 (Refer to figure 23, area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are
Definition
 C) 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.
Term

(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) Calculate the weight and balance and determine if the CG and the weight of the airplane are within limits.

 Front seat occupants 350 lb Rear seat occupants 325 lb Baggage 27 lb Fuel 35 gal
Definition
 The correct answer was: B) CG 83.4, within limits.
Term
 Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to
Definition
 decrease engine performance.
Term
 What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?
Definition
 B) Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation
Term
 (Refer to figure 14.) The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are
Definition
 C) 080° at 21 knots and -7 °C.
Term
 (Refer to figure 23.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1)? The wind is from 300° at 14 knots and the true airspeed is 90 knots. Add 3 minutes for climb-out.
Definition
 C) 43 minutes.
Term
 (Refer to figure 36.) What fuel flow should a pilot expect at 11,000 feet on a standard day with 65 percent maximum continuous power?
Definition
 A) 11.2 gallons per hour.
Term
 An ATC clearance provides
Definition
 B) authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace. The definition of nighttime is
Term
 The definition of nighttime is
Definition
 A) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
Term
 In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
Definition
 C) Class A
Term
 The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will
Definition
 A) remain the same regardless of gross weight.
Term
 If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?
Definition
 C) Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower
Term
 Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow
Definition
 C) across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.
Term
 For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the
Definition
 C) lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.
Term
 SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?
Definition
 B) All aircraft.
Term
 (Refer to figure 20.) What weather is forecast for the Florida area just ahead of the stationary front during the first 12 hours?
Definition
 B) Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles with continuous precipitation
Term
 Refer to figure 25.) Determine the magnetic course from Airpark East Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). Magnetic variation is 6°30'E.
Definition
 C) 075°.
Term
 (Refer to figure 19, area B.) What is the top for precipitation of the radar return?
Definition
 B) 24,000 feet MSL
Term
 (Refer to figure 23.) Determine the estimated time en route for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3). The wind is from 030 at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out.
Definition
 B) 31 minutes.
Term
 (Refer to figure 24.) What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 320° radial of Savannah VORTAC (area 3) and the 184° radial of Allendale VOR (area 1)?
Definition
 A) Town of Springfield
Term
 (Refer to figure 23, area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are
Definition
 C) 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.
Term
 What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?
Definition
 C) Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.
Term
 (Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum structural cruising speed?
Definition
 C) 165 MPH.
Term
 Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
Definition
 A) The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.
Term
 The suffix "nimbus,'' used in naming clouds, means
Definition
 B) a rain cloud
Term
 When may hazardous wind shear be expected?
Definition
 C) In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.
Term
 (Refer to figure 14.) The intensity and type of icing reported by a pilot is
Definition
 B) light to moderate rime.
Term
 (Refer to figure 19, area D.) What is the direction and speed of movement of the cell?
Definition
 A) North at 17 knots.
Term
 If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may
Definition
 B) deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.
Term
 Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?
Definition
 B) Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds
Term
 (Refer to figure 15.) During the time period from 0600Z to 0800Z, what visibility is forecast for KOKC?
Definition
 B) Greater than 6 statute miles.
Term
 To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing, including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight, a pilot should monitor a
Definition
 C) Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) on an NDB or a VOR facility
Term
 What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET?
Definition
 C) Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter
Term
 When the term 'light and variable' is used in reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast, the coded group and windspeed is
Definition
 B) 9900 and less than 5 knots.
Term
 (Refer to figure 24, area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?
Definition
 B) 1,300 feet MSL
Term

(Refer to figure 35.) Determine the aircraft loaded moment and the aircraft category.

 WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 380 --- Fuel, 48 gal 288 --- Oil, 8 qt ---
Definition
 A) 79.2, normal category.
Term
 Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate
Definition
 B) over a densely populated area or in a congested airway
Term
 Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to
Definition
 A) produce stratus type clouds.
Term
 If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?
Definition
 A) Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence
Term
 A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?
Definition
 C) Poor surface visibility.
Term
 (Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?
Definition
 B) 1545Z.
Term
 (Refer to figure 22.) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?
Definition
 C) Minot Intl. (area 1) and Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3).
Term
 Refer to figure 26, area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a
Definition
 B) VOR/DME
Term
 During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
Definition
 B) The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
Term
 A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of
Definition
 A) 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider
Term
 When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during
Definition
 C) that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes
Term
 (Refer to figure 14.) The base and tops of the overcast layer reported by a pilot are
Definition
 C) 7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL.
Term
 (Refer to figure 31, illustration 8.) If the magnetic bearing TO the station is 135°, the magnetic heading is
Definition
 C) 360°.
Term
 The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to Your answer:
Definition
 A) look to the side of the object and scan slowly.
Term
 What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
Definition
 C) All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance
Term
 Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
Definition
 At standard temperature.
Term
 The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
Definition
 A) friction between the wind and the surface.
Term
 Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?
Definition
 A) An abbreviated briefing.
Term
 What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling?
Definition
 A) Scud running.
Term
 If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
Definition
 C) loss of RPM.
Term
 If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to
Definition
 B) lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed
Term
 (Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude with an indicated altitude of 1,380 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 28.22 at standard temperature
Definition
 B) 2,991 feet MSL
Term
 (Refer to figure 18.) What is the status of the front that extends from Nebraska through the upper peninsula of Michigan?
Definition
 A) Cold.
Term
 (Refer to figure 18.) What weather phenomenon is causing IFR conditions in central Oklahoma?
Definition
 A) Low ceilings and visibility.
Term
 The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is
Definition
 A) "ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED.''
Term
 With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
Definition
 A) Normal, utility, acrobatic
Term
 When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?
Definition
 B) When 50 percent of their useful life expires.
Term
 In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when
Definition
 B) the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading
Term
 (Refer to figure 26, area 3.) If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
Definition
 B) 120.3 MHz.
Term
 (Refer to figures 33 and 34.) Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits. Front seat occupants..................415 lb Rear seat occupants...................110 lb Fuel, main tanks..........................44 gal Fuel, aux. tanks..........................19 gal Baggage....................................32 lb
Definition
 C) Weight within limits, CG out of limits.
Term
 What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?
Definition
 C) Air Traffic Control Tower.
Term
 Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
Definition
 C) An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
Term
 The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the
Definition
 B) difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet
Term
 Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are
Definition
 C) squall line thunderstorms.
Term
 (Refer to figure 29, illustration 1.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?
Definition
 C) South
Term
 The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on
Definition
 C) the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
Term
 What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?
Definition
 B) Annual condition and 100-hour inspections
Term
 What is a characteristic of stable air?
Definition
 A) Stratiform clouds
Term
 (Refer to figure 12.) Which of the reporting stations have VFR weather?
Definition
 C) KINK, KBOI, and KLAX
Term
 To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states, the pilot should refer to
Definition
 A) Aviation Area Forecasts
Term
 If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
Definition
 C) The elevation of the departure area.
Term
 What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?
Definition
 B) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
Term
 Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
Definition
 B) 1 mile.
Term
 If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?
Definition
 C) Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
Term
 What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?
Definition
 A) Advection fog and upslope fog.
Term
 (Refer to figure 25.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VORTAC (area 2)?
Definition
 C) 101°
Term
 (Refer to figure 52.) What information should be entered in block 9 for a VFR day flight?
Definition
 B) The name of destination airport if no stopover for more than 1 hour is anticipated
Term
 Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 1,386 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.97.
Definition
 A) 1,341 feet MSL.
Term
 What clouds have the greatest turbulence?
Definition
 A) Cumulonimbus
Term
 When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read
Definition
 A) 0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT
Term

(Refer to figure 39.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.

 Pressure altitude 3,750 ft Headwind 12 kts Temperature Std
Definition
 B) 816 feet.
Term
 From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?
Definition
 B) Ground control, on initial contact.
Term
 During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?
Definition
 C) Dissipating
Term
 (Refer to figure 20.) The enclosed shaded area associated with the low pressure system over northern Utah is forecast to have
Definition
 A) continuous snow.
Term
 (Refer to figure 25.) What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 245° radial of Sulphur Springs VOR-DME (area 5) and the 140° radial of Bonham VORTAC (area 3)?
Definition
 B) Glenmar Airport.
Term
 How should contact be established with an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station, and what service would be expected
Definition
 A) Call Flight Watch on 122.0 for information regarding actual weather and thunderstorm activity along proposed route.
Term

(Refer to figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land.

 OAT 32 °F Pressure altitude 8,000 ft Weight 2,600 lb Headwind component 20 kts Obstacle 50 ft
Definition
 A) 1,400 feet.
Term
 With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?
Definition
 A) Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea
Term
 A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is
Definition
 B) at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
Term
 (Refer to figure 19, area E.) The top of the precipitation of the cell is
Definition
 B) 16,000 feet MSL
Term
 (Refer to figure 50.) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing.
Definition
 A) Right-hand traffic and Runway 18
Term
 (Refer to figure 52.) What information should be entered in block 12 for a VFR day flight?
Definition
 B) The amount of usable fuel on board expressed in time.
Term
 In which class of airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited?
Definition
 A) Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL
Term
 (Refer to figure 15.) Between 1000Z and 1200Z the visibility at KMEM is forecast to be?
Definition
 A) 3 statute miles.
Term
 (Refer to figure 29, illustration 8.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What radial is the aircraft crossing?
Definition
 B) 030°.
Term
 (Refer to figure 24, area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?
Definition
 C) 1,549 feet MSL.
Term

(Refer to figure 41.) Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle.

 OAT Std Pressure altitude 4,000 ft Takeoff weight 2,800 lb Headwind component Calm
Definition
Term
 (Refer to figure 53.) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are
Definition
 C) to the left on Runway 17L and Runway 35L; to the right on Runway 17R and Runway 35R.
Term
 FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?
Definition
 C) 60
Term
 Refer to figure 20.) How are Significant Weather Prognostic Charts best used by a pilot?
Definition
 C) For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence).
Term
 (Refer to figure 20.) What weather is forecast for the Florida area just ahead of the stationary front during the first 12 hours?
Definition
 A) Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles with continuous precipitation
Term
 (Refer to figure 23.) What is the estimated time en route from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4)? The wind is from 215° at 25 knots, and the true airspeed is 125 knots
Definition
 B) 34 minutes
Term
 Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from
Definition
 A) 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL
Term
 What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
Definition
 B) Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements
Term
 One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the
Definition
 A) wind direction
Term
 (Refer to figure 14.) The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specific altitude is
Definition
 A) light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet.
Term
 (Refer to figure 26, area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is
Definition
 B) 4,000 feet MSL.
Term

(Refer to figure 36.) What is the expected fuel consumption for a 1,000-nautical mile flight under the following conditions?

 Pressure altitude 8,000 ft Temperature 22 °C Manifold pressure 20.8" Hg Wind Calm
Definition
 B) 70.1 gallons
Term
 If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
Definition
 A) August 31, 2 years later
Term
 What is meant by the term 'dewpoint'
Definition
 A) The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated
Term
 Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when
Definition
 A) water vapor condenses.
Term
 Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
Definition
 C) mature stage.
Term
 (Refer to figure 27.) Determine the magnetic course from Breckheimer (Pvt) Airport (area 1) to Jamestown Airport (area 4).
Definition
 A) 180°.
Term
 The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
Definition
 B) 5 miles
Term
 (Refer to figure 16.) What sky condition and type obstructions to vision are forecast for upper Michigan in the western portions from 0200Z until 0500Z?
Definition
 B) Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 statute miles in mist.
Term
 (Refer to figure 36.) Determine the approximate manifold pressure setting with 2,450 RPM to achieve 65 percent maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with a temperature of 36 °F higher than standard.
Definition
 B) 21.0 inches Hg.
Term
 Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on
Definition
 C) 122.0 MHz.
Term
 Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate
Definition
 C) location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation.
Term
 (Refer to figure 49.) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?
Definition
 A) Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B
Term
 When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?
Definition
 B) Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
Term
 One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is
Definition
 C) a change in temperature
Term
 What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks?
Definition
 A) Checklists.
Term
 With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
Definition
 A) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
Term
 What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?
Definition
 B) 14 CFR Part 43.7.
Term
 When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
Definition
 A) 200 knots.
Term
 When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
Definition
 C) 200 knots.
Term
 Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 1993. The next inspection will be due no later than
Definition
 B) September 30, 1995.
Term
 How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?
Definition
 B) Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
Term
 An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be
Definition
 A) difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition
Term
 Clouds are divided into four families according to their
Definition
 C) height range.
Term
 Individual forecasts for specific routes of flight can be obtained from which weather source?
Definition
Term
 (Refer to figure 18.) The marginal weather in central Kentucky is due to low
Definition
 A) ceiling
Term
 (Refer to figure 26.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Denton Muni (area 1) to Addison (area 2)? The wind is from 200° at 20 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east
Definition
 C) 13 minutes
Term
 (Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1515 MST for a 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport?
Definition
 B) 1645 PST
Term
 (Refer to figure 27, area 4.) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is
Definition
 B) 123.0 MHz
Term
 (Refer to figure 21, area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a
Definition
 C) visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.
Term

(Refer to figure 35.) Calculate the moment of the airplane and determine which category is applicable.

 WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 310 --- Rear passengers 96 --- Fuel, 38 gal --- --- Oil, 8 qt --- -0.2
Definition
 B) 80.8, utility category.
Term
 FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by
Definition
 C) ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.
Term
 An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is
Definition
 B) a green light signal.
Term
 All operations within Class C airspace must be in
Definition
 B) an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability.
Term
 Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area
Definition
 A) With the controlling agency's authorization.
Term
 (Refer to figure 51.) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the
Definition
 A) southeast of the airport.
Term
 If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified
Definition
 A) immediately.
Term
 (Refer to figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60° banked turn while maintaining altitude?
Definition
 A) 4,600 pounds.
Term
 (Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum flaps-extended speed?
Definition
 B) 100 MPH.
Term
 (Refer to figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature decrease and a pressure altitude increase on the density altitude from 90 °F and 1,250 feet pressure altitude to 55 °F and 1,750 feet pressure altitude?
Definition
 B) 1,700-foot decrease.
Term
 Why is frost considered hazardous to flight
Definition
 A) Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability
Term
 In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
Definition
 A) An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter
Term
 (Refer to figure 23.) What is the magnetic heading for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3)? The wind is from 030° at 12 knots, and the true airspeed is 95 knots
Definition
 B) 118°.
Term
 (Refer to figure 30, illustration 2.) What magnetic bearing should the pilot use to fly TO the station?
Definition
 B) 190°.
Term
 (Refer to figure 27, area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport
Definition
 B) Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz.
Term
 (Refer to figure 27, area 6.) What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?
Definition
 A) 122.8 MHz
Term
 (Refer to figure 23, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are
Definition
 B) 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
Term
 (Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is
Definition
 A) 126.0 MHz
Term
 (Refer to figure 26, area 8.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area south of NAS Dallas
Definition
 A) 3,449 feet MSL.
Term
 (Refer to figure 53.) When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with
Definition
 B) Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.
Term
 Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as
Definition
 B) altitude increases.
Term
 What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
Definition
 C) 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
Term
 Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?
Definition
 ) Flight over a densely populated area.
Term
 The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?
Definition
 10
Term
 The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by
Definition
 C) terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
Term
 The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there
Definition
 C) is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude
Term
 One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is
Definition
 A) visible moisture.
Term
 (Refer to figure 14.) The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specific altitude is
Definition
 B) light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet.
Term
 From which primary source should information be obtained regarding expected weather at the estimated time of arrival if your destination has no Terminal Forecast?
Definition
 C) Area Forecast.
Term
 To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states, the pilot should refer to
Definition
 C) Aviation Area Forecasts.
Term
 Refer to figure 16.) What sky conditon and visibility are forecast for upper Michigan in the eastern portions after 2300Z?
Definition
 C) Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility.
Term
 (Refer to figure 23.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4). The wind is from 215° at 25 knots, and the true airspeed is 125 knots.
Definition
 C) 169°.
Term
 (Refer to figure 27, areas 4 and 3; and figure 29.) The VOR is tuned to Jamestown VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Cooperstown Airport . Which VOR indication is correct?
Definition
 C) 6.
Term
 (Refer to figure 22, area 2.) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is
Definition
 A) 122.9 MHz.
Term
 (Refer to figure 21, area 5.) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft
Definition
 ) Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet MSL.
Term

(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) Which action can adjust the airplane's weight to maximum gross weight and the CG within limits for takeoff?

 Front seat occupants 425 lb Rear seat occupants 300 lb Fuel, main tanks 44 gal
Definition
 A) Drain 9 gallons of fuel.
Term
 Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning
Definition
 A) noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas
Term
 (Refer to figure 53.) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation? Your answer:
Definition
 A) Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.
Term
 FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number?
Definition
 B) 90.
Term
 How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
Definition
 A) No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
Term
 Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
Definition
 C) 1 mile.
Term
 The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?
Definition
 A) 10.
Term
 The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the
Definition
 C) speed of the airplane.
Term
 What is density altitude?
Definition
 B) The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature
Term
 (Refer to figure 4.) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?
Definition
 C) 60 to 100 MPH.
Term
 If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
Definition
 B) lower than the actual altitude above sea level
Term
 Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude
Definition
 C) Air temperature warmer than standard.
Term
 A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least
Definition
 C) 25 knots.
Term
 (Refer to figure 18.) According to the Weather Depiction Chart, the weather for a flight from southern Michigan to north Indiana is ceilings
Definition
 B) greater than 3,000 feet and visibility greater than 5 miles
Term
 (Refer to figure 21, area 3; and figure 29.) The VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Shawboro. Which VOR indication is correct?
Definition
 B) 2.
Term
 (Refer to figure 23.) What is the magnetic heading for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3)? The wind is from 030° at 12 knots, and the true airspeed is 95 knots.
Definition
 A) 118°.
Term
 Refer to figure 23.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1). The wind is from 340° at 10 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots.
Definition
 A) 327°.
Term
 (Refer to figure 26.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Denton Muni (area 1) to Addison (area 2)? The wind is from 200° at 20 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east.
Definition
 B) 13 minutes.
Term
 (Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0845 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?
Definition
 A) 1645Z.
Term
 Refer to figure 22, area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644
Definition
 B) IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots
Term

(Refer to figure 38.) Determine the approximate total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.

 OAT 90 °F Pressure altitude 4,000 ft Weight 2,800 lb Headwind component 10 kts
Definition
 A) 1,775 feet.
Term
 During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
Definition
 C) The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
Term
 The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
Definition
 C) 4,000 feet AGL
Term
 For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on
Definition
 B) the circulation of lubricating oil.
Term
 In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if
Definition
 A) a right turn is entered from a north heading.
Term
 Refer to figure 21.) Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2).
Definition
 C) 331°.
Term
 (Refer to figure 22.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 100 knots, and the magnetic variation is 10° east.
Definition
 C) 352°.
Term
 (Refer to figure 24.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Allendale County Airport (area 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2). The wind is from 090° at 16 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots.
Definition
 C) 208°.
Term
 (Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0930 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what time?
Definition
 A) 1030 MST.
Term
 (Refer to figure 21 area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?
Definition
 ) Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.
Term
 (Refer to figure 27, area 1.) Identify the airspace over Lowe Airport.
Definition
 A) Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
Term
 With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?
Definition
 C) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
Term
 In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to
Definition
 C) determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.
Term
 The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
Definition
 A) 5 miles.
Term
 (Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 3,563 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.96.
Definition
 A) 3,527 feet MSL.
Term
 Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
Definition
 A) When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
Term
 What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?
Definition
 C) Evaporation and sublimation
Term
 What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?
Definition
 C) Actual lapse rate.
Term
 What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
Definition
 B) A stable layer of air.
Term
 (Refer to figure 22, area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47° 39 minutes 30 seconds N latitude and 100° 53 minutes 00 seconds W longitude?
Definition
 B) Crooked Lake.
Term
 Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?
Definition
 2230Z
Term
 (Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The floor of Class B airspace at Addison Airport is
Definition
 B) 3,000 feet MSL.
Term
 Refer to figure 21, area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?
Definition
 C) Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.
Term
 What service should a pilot normally expect from an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station
Definition
 A) Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route.
Term
 (Refer to figure 23, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are
Definition
 C) 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud
Term
 (Refer to figure 24, area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?
Definition
 A) 1,300 feet MSL.
Term
 (Refer to figure 21, area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a
Definition
 B) visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.
Term
 The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is
Definition
 C) 20 nautical miles.
Term
 (Refer to figure 52.) What information should be entered in block 9 for a VFR day flight? Your answer:
Definition
 A) The name of destination airport if no stopover for more than 1 hour is anticipated.
Term
 How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
Definition
 C) No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
Term
 To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months
Definition
 A) at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot
Term
 In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to
Definition
 B) determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.
Term
 (Refer to figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 30 to 50 °F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL? Your answer:
Definition
 A) 1,300-foot increase.
Term
 Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude? Your answer:
Definition
 A) Air temperature warmer than standard.
Term
 (Refer to figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 9,000 feet?
Definition
 C) 230° true at 32 knots
Term
 (Refer to figure 19, area E.) The top of the precipitation of the cell is
Definition
 B) 16,000 feet MSL.
Term
 (Refer to figure 20.) At what altitude is the freezing level over the middle of Florida on the12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?
Definition
 B) 12,000 feet.
Term
 (Refer to figure 21.) Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2).
Definition
 C) 331°.
Term
 (Refer to figure 23.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1). The wind is from 340° at 10 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots.
Definition
 A) 327°.
Term
 (Refer to figure 25.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Majors Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). The wind is from 340° at 12 knots, the true airspeed is 36 knots, and the magnetic variation is 6°30'E.
Definition
 C) 078°.
Term
 Refer to figure 26.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Fort Worth Meacham (area 4) to Denton Muni (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east.
Definition
 C) 003°.
Term
 (Refer to figure 26, area 5.) The VOR is tuned to the Dallas/Fort Worth VORTAC. The omnibearing selector (OBS) is set on 253°, with a TO indication, and a right course deviation indicator (CDI) deflection. What is the aircraft's position from the VORTAC?
Definition
 A) East-northeast.
Term
 (Refer to figure 23, area 2; and figure 32.) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
Definition
 A) 122.8 MHz.
Term
 (Refer to figure 26.) At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?
Definition
 A) Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field.
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