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Private pilot written exam
Private pilot written exam
245
Aviation
06/29/2008

Additional Aviation Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
(Refer to figure 14.) If the terrain elevation is 1,295 feet MSL, what is the height above ground level of the base of the ceiling?
Definition
A) 505 feet AGL.
Term
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
Definition
C) In colder than standard air temperature.
Term

(Refer to figure 23.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1). The wind is from 340° at 10 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots.

Definition
C) 327°.
Term

(Refer to figure 23, area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are

Definition
C) 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.
Term

(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) Calculate the weight and balance and determine if the CG and the weight of the airplane are within limits.

Front seat occupants

350 lb

Rear seat occupants

325 lb

Baggage

27 lb

Fuel

35 gal

Definition

The correct answer was:
B) CG 83.4, within limits.

Term

Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to

Definition
decrease engine performance.
Term
What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?
Definition
B) Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation
Term

(Refer to figure 14.) The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are

Definition

C) 080° at 21 knots and -7 °C.

Term
(Refer to figure 23.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1)? The wind is from 300° at 14 knots and the true airspeed is 90 knots. Add 3 minutes for climb-out.
Definition
C) 43 minutes.
Term

(Refer to figure 36.) What fuel flow should a pilot expect at 11,000 feet on a standard day with 65 percent maximum continuous power?

Definition

A) 11.2 gallons per hour.

Term
An ATC clearance provides
Definition

B) authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

The definition of nighttime is

Term

The definition of nighttime is

Definition

A) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

Term

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

Definition
C) Class A
Term

The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will

Definition
A) remain the same regardless of gross weight.
Term

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?

Definition
C) Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower
Term
Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow
Definition
C) across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.
Term
For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the

Definition

C) lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.

Term
SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?

Definition

B) All aircraft.

Term
(Refer to figure 20.) What weather is forecast for the Florida area just ahead of the stationary front during the first 12 hours?

Definition
B) Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles with continuous precipitation
Term

Refer to figure 25.) Determine the magnetic course from Airpark East Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). Magnetic variation is 6°30'E.

Definition

C) 075°.

Term

(Refer to figure 19, area B.) What is the top for precipitation of the radar return?

Definition
B) 24,000 feet MSL
Term

(Refer to figure 23.) Determine the estimated time en route for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3). The wind is from 030 at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out.

Definition

B) 31 minutes.

Term
(Refer to figure 24.) What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 320° radial of Savannah VORTAC (area 3) and the 184° radial of Allendale VOR (area 1)?
Definition
A) Town of Springfield
Term

(Refer to figure 23, area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are

Definition

C) 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.

Term
What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?

Definition

C) Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.

Term

(Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum structural cruising speed?

Definition

C) 165 MPH.

Term

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

Definition

A) The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.

Term
The suffix "nimbus,'' used in naming clouds, means
Definition
B) a rain cloud
Term

When may hazardous wind shear be expected?

Definition

C) In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.

Term

(Refer to figure 14.) The intensity and type of icing reported by a pilot is

Definition

B) light to moderate rime.

Term

(Refer to figure 19, area D.) What is the direction and speed of movement of the cell?

Definition

A) North at 17 knots.

Term
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may
Definition
B) deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.
Term

Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?

Definition
B) Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds
Term
(Refer to figure 15.) During the time period from 0600Z to 0800Z, what visibility is forecast for KOKC?
Definition
B) Greater than 6 statute miles.
Term
To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing, including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight, a pilot should monitor a
Definition
C) Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) on an NDB or a VOR facility
Term
What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET?

Definition
C) Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter
Term
When the term 'light and variable' is used in reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast, the coded group and windspeed is
Definition

B) 9900 and less than 5 knots.

Term

(Refer to figure 24, area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?

Definition
B) 1,300 feet MSL
Term

(Refer to figure 35.) Determine the aircraft loaded moment and the aircraft category.

 

WEIGHT (LB)

MOM/1000

Empty weight

1,350

51.5

Pilot and front passenger

380

---

Fuel, 48 gal

288

---

Oil, 8 qt

---

 

Definition

A) 79.2, normal category.

Term
Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate

Definition
B) over a densely populated area or in a congested airway
Term

Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to

Definition

A) produce stratus type clouds.

Term
If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?

Definition
A) Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence
Term

A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?

Definition

C) Poor surface visibility.

Term
(Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

Definition
B) 1545Z.
Term
(Refer to figure 22.) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?
Definition

C) Minot Intl. (area 1) and Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3).

Term
Refer to figure 26, area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a

Definition
B) VOR/DME
Term

During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

Definition
B) The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
Term
A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of
Definition
A) 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider
Term

When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during

Definition
C) that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes
Term

(Refer to figure 14.) The base and tops of the overcast layer reported by a pilot are

Definition

C) 7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL.

Term

(Refer to figure 31, illustration 8.) If the magnetic bearing TO the station is 135°, the magnetic heading is

Definition

C) 360°.

Term
The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to
Your answer:

Definition

A) look to the side of the object and scan slowly.

Term
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

Definition
C) All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance
Term
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
Definition
At standard temperature.
Term
The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
Definition
A) friction between the wind and the surface.
Term

Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?

Definition
A) An abbreviated briefing.
Term
What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling?
Definition

A) Scud running.

Term
Definition
Term

If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be

Definition

C) loss of RPM.

Term

If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to

Definition
B) lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed
Term
(Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude with an indicated altitude of 1,380 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 28.22 at standard temperature
Definition
B) 2,991 feet MSL
Term

(Refer to figure 18.) What is the status of the front that extends from Nebraska through the upper peninsula of Michigan?

Definition

A) Cold.

Term

(Refer to figure 18.) What weather phenomenon is causing IFR conditions in central Oklahoma?

Definition
A) Low ceilings and visibility.
Term

The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is

Definition

A) "ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED.''

Term

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

Definition
A) Normal, utility, acrobatic
Term

When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?

Definition

B) When 50 percent of their useful life expires.

Term
In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when
Definition
B) the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading
Term

(Refer to figure 26, area 3.) If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

Definition
B) 120.3 MHz.
Term

(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits.
Front seat occupants..................415 lb
Rear seat occupants...................110 lb
Fuel, main tanks..........................44 gal
Fuel, aux. tanks..........................19 gal
Baggage....................................32 lb

Definition

C) Weight within limits, CG out of limits.

Term

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?

Definition

C) Air Traffic Control Tower.

Term

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

Definition

C) An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

Term

The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the

Definition
B) difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet
Term

Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are

Definition

C) squall line thunderstorms.

Term

(Refer to figure 29, illustration 1.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?

Definition
C) South
Term
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on
Definition
C) the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
Term
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?

Definition
B) Annual condition and 100-hour inspections
Term

What is a characteristic of stable air?

Definition
A) Stratiform clouds
Term
(Refer to figure 12.) Which of the reporting stations have VFR weather?
Definition
C) KINK, KBOI, and KLAX
Term

To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states, the pilot should refer to

Definition
A) Aviation Area Forecasts
Term
If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?

Definition
C) The elevation of the departure area.
Term

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?

Definition

B) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

Term

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is

Definition

B) 1 mile.

Term

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?

Definition

C) Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.

Term
What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?

Definition

A) Advection fog and upslope fog.

Term

(Refer to figure 25.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VORTAC (area 2)?

Definition
C) 101°
Term
(Refer to figure 52.) What information should be entered in block 9 for a VFR day flight?

Definition
B) The name of destination airport if no stopover for more than 1 hour is anticipated
Term

Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 1,386 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.97.

Definition

A) 1,341 feet MSL.

Term

What clouds have the greatest turbulence?

Definition
A) Cumulonimbus
Term

When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read

Definition
A) 0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT
Term

(Refer to figure 39.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.

Pressure altitude

3,750 ft

Headwind

12 kts

Temperature

Std

Definition

B) 816 feet.

Term
From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?
Definition
B) Ground control, on initial contact.
Term

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

Definition
C) Dissipating
Term
(Refer to figure 20.) The enclosed shaded area associated with the low pressure system over northern Utah is forecast to have
Definition

A) continuous snow.

Term
(Refer to figure 25.) What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 245° radial of Sulphur Springs VOR-DME (area 5) and the 140° radial of Bonham VORTAC (area 3)?
Definition

B) Glenmar Airport.

Term

How should contact be established with an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station, and what service would be expected

Definition

A) Call Flight Watch on 122.0 for information regarding actual weather and thunderstorm activity along proposed route.

Term

(Refer to figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land.

OAT

32 °F

Pressure altitude

8,000 ft

Weight

2,600 lb

Headwind component

20 kts

Obstacle

50 ft

Definition
A) 1,400 feet.
Term

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?

Definition
A) Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea
Term
A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is

Definition
B) at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
Term

(Refer to figure 19, area E.) The top of the precipitation of the cell is

Definition
B) 16,000 feet MSL
Term

(Refer to figure 50.) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing.

Definition
A) Right-hand traffic and Runway 18
Term
(Refer to figure 52.) What information should be entered in block 12 for a VFR day flight?

Definition
B) The amount of usable fuel on board expressed in time.
Term
In which class of airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited?

Definition
A) Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL
Term

(Refer to figure 15.) Between 1000Z and 1200Z the visibility at KMEM is forecast to be?

Definition

A) 3 statute miles.

Term
(Refer to figure 29, illustration 8.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What radial is the aircraft crossing?
Definition

B) 030°.

Term
(Refer to figure 24, area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?

Definition

C) 1,549 feet MSL.

Term

(Refer to figure 41.) Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle.

OAT

Std

Pressure altitude

4,000 ft

Takeoff weight

2,800 lb

Headwind component

Calm

Definition
Your answer:
B) 1,750 feet
Term

(Refer to figure 53.) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are

Definition

C) to the left on Runway 17L and Runway 35L; to the right on Runway 17R and Runway 35R.

Term

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?

Definition
C) 60
Term
Refer to figure 20.) How are Significant Weather Prognostic Charts best used by a pilot?
Definition
C) For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence).
Term
(Refer to figure 20.) What weather is forecast for the Florida area just ahead of the stationary front during the first 12 hours?

Definition
A) Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles with continuous precipitation
Term
(Refer to figure 23.) What is the estimated time en route from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4)? The wind is from 215° at 25 knots, and the true airspeed is 125 knots
Definition
B) 34 minutes
Term
Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from
Definition
A) 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL
Term

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

Definition
B) Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements
Term
One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the

Definition
A) wind direction
Term
(Refer to figure 14.) The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specific altitude is
Definition

A) light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet.

Term
(Refer to figure 26, area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is
Definition

B) 4,000 feet MSL.

Term

(Refer to figure 36.) What is the expected fuel consumption for a 1,000-nautical mile flight under the following conditions?

Pressure altitude

8,000 ft

Temperature

22 °C

Manifold pressure

20.8" Hg

Wind

Calm

Definition
B) 70.1 gallons
Term
If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
Definition
A) August 31, 2 years later
Term
What is meant by the term 'dewpoint'
Definition
A) The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated
Term
Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when
Definition
A) water vapor condenses.
Term
Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
Definition
C) mature stage.
Term

(Refer to figure 27.) Determine the magnetic course from Breckheimer (Pvt) Airport (area 1) to Jamestown Airport (area 4).

Definition

A) 180°.

Term

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is

Definition
B) 5 miles
Term
(Refer to figure 16.) What sky condition and type obstructions to vision are forecast for upper Michigan in the western portions from 0200Z until 0500Z?

Definition
B) Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 statute miles in mist.
Term
(Refer to figure 36.) Determine the approximate manifold pressure setting with 2,450 RPM to achieve 65 percent maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with a temperature of 36 °F higher than standard.
Definition
B) 21.0 inches Hg.
Term

Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on

Definition

C) 122.0 MHz.

Term

Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate

Definition

C) location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation.

Term
(Refer to figure 49.) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?
Definition
A) Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B
Term
When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?

Definition

B) Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.

Term
One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is
Definition
C) a change in temperature
Term
What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks?

Definition
A) Checklists.
Term
Definition
Term

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?

Definition

A) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.

Term

What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?

Definition

B) 14 CFR Part 43.7.

Term
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
Definition

A) 200 knots.

Term
When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

Definition
C) 200 knots.
Term

Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 1993. The next inspection will be due no later than

Definition

B) September 30, 1995.

Term

How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

Definition

B) Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

Term
An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be
Definition
A) difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition
Term
Clouds are divided into four families according to their
Definition
C) height range.
Term
Individual forecasts for specific routes of flight can be obtained from which weather source?
Definition

A) Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEBs).

Term
(Refer to figure 18.) The marginal weather in central Kentucky is due to low

Definition
A) ceiling
Term
(Refer to figure 26.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Denton Muni (area 1) to Addison (area 2)? The wind is from 200° at 20 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east
Definition
C) 13 minutes
Term
(Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1515 MST for a 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport?
Definition
B) 1645 PST
Term
(Refer to figure 27, area 4.) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is

Definition
B) 123.0 MHz
Term
(Refer to figure 21, area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a
Definition

C) visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.

Term

(Refer to figure 35.) Calculate the moment of the airplane and determine which category is applicable.

 

WEIGHT (LB)

MOM/1000

Empty weight

1,350

51.5

Pilot and front passenger

310

---

Rear passengers

96

---

Fuel, 38 gal

---

---

Oil, 8 qt

---

-0.2

Definition

B) 80.8, utility category.

Term
FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by

Definition

C) ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.

Term
An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is

Definition
B) a green light signal.
Term

All operations within Class C airspace must be in

Definition

B) an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability.

Term
Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area
Definition
A) With the controlling agency's authorization.
Term
(Refer to figure 51.) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the

Definition
A) southeast of the airport.
Term

If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified

Definition

A) immediately.

Term
(Refer to figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60° banked turn while maintaining altitude?
Definition
A) 4,600 pounds.
Term
(Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum flaps-extended speed?
Definition

B) 100 MPH.

Term

(Refer to figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature decrease and a pressure altitude increase on the density altitude from 90 °F and 1,250 feet pressure altitude to 55 °F and 1,750 feet pressure altitude?

Definition

B) 1,700-foot decrease.

Term
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight
Definition
A) Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability
Term

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?

Definition
A) An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter
Term
(Refer to figure 23.) What is the magnetic heading for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3)? The wind is from 030° at 12 knots, and the true airspeed is 95 knots
Definition

B) 118°.

Term
(Refer to figure 30, illustration 2.) What magnetic bearing should the pilot use to fly TO the station?

Definition
B) 190°.
Term
(Refer to figure 27, area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport
Definition

B) Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz.

Term
(Refer to figure 27, area 6.) What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?

Definition
A) 122.8 MHz
Term

(Refer to figure 23, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are

Definition

B) 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

Term
(Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is

Definition
A) 126.0 MHz
Term
(Refer to figure 26, area 8.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area south of NAS Dallas
Definition

A) 3,449 feet MSL.

Term
(Refer to figure 53.) When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with
Definition

B) Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.

Term
Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as

Definition
B) altitude increases.
Term

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

Definition

C) 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.

Term

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?

Definition

) Flight over a densely populated area.

Term

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?

Definition
10
Term

The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

Definition

C) terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.

Term
The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there
Definition
C) is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude
Term

One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is

Definition

A) visible moisture.

Term

(Refer to figure 14.) The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specific altitude is

Definition

B) light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet.

Term
From which primary source should information be obtained regarding expected weather at the estimated time of arrival if your destination has no Terminal Forecast?
Definition
C) Area Forecast.
Term

To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states, the pilot should refer to

Definition

C) Aviation Area Forecasts.

Term

Refer to figure 16.) What sky conditon and visibility are forecast for upper Michigan in the eastern portions after 2300Z?

Definition

C) Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility.

Term

(Refer to figure 23.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4). The wind is from 215° at 25 knots, and the true airspeed is 125 knots.

Definition

C) 169°.

Term
(Refer to figure 27, areas 4 and 3; and figure 29.) The VOR is tuned to Jamestown VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Cooperstown Airport . Which VOR indication is correct?
Definition
C) 6.
Term

(Refer to figure 22, area 2.) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is

Definition

A) 122.9 MHz.

Term
(Refer to figure 21, area 5.) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft
Definition

) Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet MSL.

Term

(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) Which action can adjust the airplane's weight to maximum gross weight and the CG within limits for takeoff?

Front seat occupants

425 lb

Rear seat occupants

300 lb

Fuel, main tanks

44 gal

Definition

A) Drain 9 gallons of fuel.

Term
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning
Definition
A) noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas
Term

(Refer to figure 53.) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?
Your answer:

Definition

A) Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.

Term

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number?

Definition

B) 90.

Term

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

Definition

A) No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

Term
Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is

Definition
C) 1 mile.
Term
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?
Definition
A) 10.
Term
The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the

Definition

C) speed of the airplane.

Term
What is density altitude?

Definition
B) The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature
Term
(Refer to figure 4.) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?
Definition

C) 60 to 100 MPH.

Term
If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
Definition
B) lower than the actual altitude above sea level
Term
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude
Definition

C) Air temperature warmer than standard.

Term
A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least
Definition
C) 25 knots.
Term

(Refer to figure 18.) According to the Weather Depiction Chart, the weather for a flight from southern Michigan to north Indiana is ceilings

Definition
B) greater than 3,000 feet and visibility greater than 5 miles
Term
(Refer to figure 21, area 3; and figure 29.) The VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Shawboro. Which VOR indication is correct?

Definition
B) 2.
Term

(Refer to figure 23.) What is the magnetic heading for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3)? The wind is from 030° at 12 knots, and the true airspeed is 95 knots.

Definition

A) 118°.

Term
Refer to figure 23.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1). The wind is from 340° at 10 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots.
Definition
A) 327°.
Term

(Refer to figure 26.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Denton Muni (area 1) to Addison (area 2)? The wind is from 200° at 20 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east.

Definition

B) 13 minutes.

Term
(Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0845 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?
Definition
A) 1645Z.
Term
Refer to figure 22, area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644
Definition
B) IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots
Term

(Refer to figure 38.) Determine the approximate total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.

OAT

90 °F

Pressure altitude

4,000 ft

Weight

2,800 lb

Headwind component

10 kts

Definition
A) 1,775 feet.
Term

During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

Definition

C) The other aircraft is crossing to the left.

Term
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
Definition
C) 4,000 feet AGL
Term

For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on

Definition

B) the circulation of lubricating oil.

Term

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if

Definition

A) a right turn is entered from a north heading.

Term

Refer to figure 21.) Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2).

Definition

C) 331°.

Term

(Refer to figure 22.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 100 knots, and the magnetic variation is 10° east.

Definition

C) 352°.

Term
(Refer to figure 24.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Allendale County Airport (area 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2). The wind is from 090° at 16 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots.
Definition

C) 208°.

Term

(Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0930 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what time?

Definition

A) 1030 MST.

Term
(Refer to figure 21 area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?
Definition

) Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.

Term

(Refer to figure 27, area 1.) Identify the airspace over Lowe Airport.

Definition

A) Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.

Term

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?

Definition

C) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.

Term
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to
Definition

C) determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

Term

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is

Definition

A) 5 miles.

Term

(Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 3,563 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.96.

Definition

A) 3,527 feet MSL.

Term
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

Definition

A) When standard atmospheric conditions exist.

Term
What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?
Definition
C) Evaporation and sublimation
Term

What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?

Definition

C) Actual lapse rate.

Term
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
Definition
B) A stable layer of air.
Term

(Refer to figure 22, area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47° 39 minutes 30 seconds N latitude and 100° 53 minutes 00 seconds W longitude?

Definition

B) Crooked Lake.

Term
Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?
Definition
2230Z
Term
(Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The floor of Class B airspace at Addison Airport is
Definition
B) 3,000 feet MSL.
Term
Refer to figure 21, area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?

Definition
C) Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.
Term
What service should a pilot normally expect from an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station
Definition

A) Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route.

Term
(Refer to figure 23, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are
Definition
C) 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud
Term
(Refer to figure 24, area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?
Definition
A) 1,300 feet MSL.
Term
(Refer to figure 21, area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a

Definition

B) visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.

Term
The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is
Definition
C) 20 nautical miles.
Term

(Refer to figure 52.) What information should be entered in block 9 for a VFR day flight?
Your answer:

Definition

A) The name of destination airport if no stopover for more than 1 hour is anticipated.

Term

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

Definition

C) No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

Term
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months
Definition
A) at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot
Term
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to
Definition

B) determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

Term

(Refer to figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 30 to 50 °F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL?
Your answer:

Definition

A) 1,300-foot increase.

Term

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
Your answer:

Definition

A) Air temperature warmer than standard.

Term
(Refer to figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 9,000 feet?
Definition
C) 230° true at 32 knots
Term

(Refer to figure 19, area E.) The top of the precipitation of the cell is

Definition

B) 16,000 feet MSL.

Term
(Refer to figure 20.) At what altitude is the freezing level over the middle of Florida on the12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?
Definition
B) 12,000 feet.
Term

(Refer to figure 21.) Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2).

Definition

C) 331°.

Term
(Refer to figure 23.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1). The wind is from 340° at 10 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots.
Definition
A) 327°.
Term

(Refer to figure 25.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Majors Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). The wind is from 340° at 12 knots, the true airspeed is 36 knots, and the magnetic variation is 6°30'E.

Definition

C) 078°.

Term

Refer to figure 26.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Fort Worth Meacham (area 4) to Denton Muni (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east.

Definition

C) 003°.

Term
(Refer to figure 26, area 5.) The VOR is tuned to the Dallas/Fort Worth VORTAC. The omnibearing selector (OBS) is set on 253°, with a TO indication, and a right course deviation indicator (CDI) deflection. What is the aircraft's position from the VORTAC?
Definition
A) East-northeast.
Term
(Refer to figure 23, area 2; and figure 32.) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
Definition
A) 122.8 MHz.
Term
(Refer to figure 26.) At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?

Definition

A) Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field.