The nurse should never give aspirin to a patient who is taking:

A: Streptokinase

B: Warfarin (Coumadin)

C: Low molecular weight heparins

D: Heparin

Which of the following clump and adhere to the wall of an injured blood vessel to begin the process of hemostasis?

A: Platelets

B: Red Blood Cells

C: White Blood Cells

D: Antibodies

The solid, insoluble part of a blood clot is called:

A: Fibrin

B: Thrombin

C: Prothrombin

D: Plasmin

Normal blood clotting occurs in about _______ minute(s):

A: 1

B: 3

C: 6

D: 10

Which organ is responsible for making many of the factors necessary for blood clotting?

A: Kidney

B: Liver

C: Brain

D: Skin

The process of clot removal is called:

A: Embolysis

B: Thrombolysis

C: Plasminolysis

D: Fibrinolysis

The specific class of drugs that promotes the formation of clots is called?

A: Antifibrinolytics

B: Thrombolytics

C: Fibrinolytics

D: Plaminogen activators

The nurse should assess which lab test during therapy with heparin?

A: Bleeding time

B: PT

C: INR

D: APTT

Antigoagulants are drugs that:

A: Dissolve thrombi that have been recently formed

B: Shorten PT time

C: Prevent thrombi from forming or growing larger

D: Cause platelets to become less sticky

What is the primary advantage of using low molecular weight heparins (LMWHs) over heparin?

A: LMWHs possess greater antigoagulant activity

B: LMWHs may be given by the oral route

C: LMWHs produce a more stable effect on coagulation; thus, fewer lab tests are needed

D: LMWHs have a prolonged duration of action

What is the most serious adverse effect of anticoagulant therapy?

A: Severe headache

B: Abnormal hemorrhage

C: Electrolyte depletion

D: Cardiac arrhythmia

If serious hemorrhage occurs during heparin therapy, the nurse should administer.

A: Protamine sulfate

B: Vitamin K

C: Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

D: Desmopressin (DDAVP)

Unlike heparin, the anticoagulatn activity of warfarin can take several ____ to reach its maximum effect.

A: Minutes

B: Hours

C: Days

D: Weeks

Vitamin K is an antidote for an overdose with:

A: Aspirin

B: Heparin and LMWH

C: Aminocaproic acid (Amicar)

D: Warfarin (Coumadin)

On discontinuation of therapy, the pharmacological activity of warfarin can take up to ____ to diminish.

A: 10 minutes

B: 10 hours

C: 48 hours

D: 10 days

Aspirin causes its anticoagulant effect by inhibiting:

A: Plasminogen

B: Prothrombin

C: Thromboxane A2

D: Glycoprotien IIb/IIIz

Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors act by blocking the final step in:

A: Hemostasis

B: Platelet aggregation

C: The activation of plasminogen

D: the formation of vitamin K

The primary action of streptokinase is to convert plasminogen to:

A: Plasminogen activator

B: Plasmin

C: Fibrin

D: Fibrinogen

The primary use of antifibrinolytics is to:

A: Dissolve thrombi

B: Prevent thrombi

C: Reverse the effects of anticoagulants

D: Prevent excessive bleeding following surgery

Which of the following is a hemostatic that is also used to control excessive or nocturnal urination?

A: Desmopressin (DDAVP)

B: Abciximab (ReoPro)

C: Aminocaproic acid (Amicar)

D: Tranexamic acid (Cyclokapron)

Which of the following is NOT an indication for thrombolytic therapy?

A: Acute myocardial infaction (MI)

B: Postoperative bleeding

C: Pulmonary embolism

D: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

A patient is receiving warfarin, which is 98% bound to plasma proteins. The antidepressant parosetine (Paxil), which is 95% bound, is added to the patient's daily medications. IF the paroxetine displaces warfarin from its binding sites, which of the following will most likely occur?

A: Toxicity to warfarin

B: Toxicity to paroxetine

C: Diminished effect from warfarin

D: Diminished effect from Paroxetine

The antidepressant imipramine (Trofranil) is metabolized to its active form, disapramine, in the liver. How should the dose of imipramine be adjusted for patients with liver cirrhosis?

A: The dose should be increased above average.

B: The dose should be decreased below average.

C: An average dose should be used.

D: These patients should not receive imipramine.

Which of the following is a widely used class of antipsychotic medications?

A: Phenothiazines

B: Benzodiazepines

C: MAO inhibitors

D: Anticholinergics

The primary goal of the nurse for pain management:

A: Administer the least amount of pain medication possible

B: Administer analgesics only when pain becomes intolerable

C: Ensure that dependence does not develop

D: Alleviate the pain

Of the following four drugs, which is NOT related to the other three?

A: Phenytoin (Dilantin)

B: Phenobarbital (Luminal)

C: Sumatriptan (Imatrex)

D: Ethosuximide (Zarontin)

Which of the following lowers blood pressure primarily by increasing the renal excretion of sodium and water?

A: Doxazosin (Cardura)

B: Furosemide (Lasix)

C: Verapamil (Calan)

D: Quinapril (Accupril)

Which of the following is a cardioselective beta1-blocker?

A: Propranolol (Inderal)

B: Doxazosin (Cardura)

C: Ipratropium (Atrovent)

D: Atenolol (Tenormin)

A blood pressure of 138/83 mm Hg in a patient over 80 years old with no compelling indications would be considered:

A: A reason to begin diuretic therapy

B: A reason to begin aggressive therapy with furosemide (Lasix)

C: Normal

D: A reason to begin therapy with sympatholytics

Which of the following is NOT a primary factor responsible for blood pressure?

A: Venous pressure

B: Cardiac output

C: Resistance of the small arteries

D: Blood volume

As it relates to antihypertensive therapy, stepped care is:

A: Two or more drugs from the same class

B: Two or more drugs from different classes

C: One drug during weeks 1-3, then a new drug starting week 4

D: 1 week of drug therapy alternating with 1 week of no drug administration

Which drug class is NOT commonly used to treat hypertension?

A: Calcium channel blockers

B: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors

C: Direct-acting vasodilators

D: Sodium channel blockers

Which drug class contains first-choice drugs for treating mild to moderate hypertension because they act on the kidney tubule to block reabsorption of sodium?

A: Diuretics

B: Calcium channel blockers

C: Direct vasodilators

D: Alpha blockers

When asessing laboratory tests, the nurse should know that hyperkalemia is a common side effect of therapy with:

A: Diuretics

B: Calcium channel blockers

C: Direct vasodilators

D: Alpha blockers

Calcium channel blockers used for hypertension act by blocking calcium ion channels in:

A: Skeletal muscle

B: Vascular smooth muscle

C: The CNS

D: The Kidney

Which drug class stimulates the secretion of aldosterone?

A: Diuretics

B: Calcium channnel blockers

C: ACE inhibitors

D: Alpha blockers

Which of the following drug classes are used for hypertension?

A: Sympathomimetics

B: Selective beta1-blockers

C: Selective beta2-blockers

D: Parasympathomimetics

When assessing the patient, the nurse should know that bradycardia is a common side effect with:

A: Selective beta1-blockers

B: Calcium channel blockers

C: ACE inhibitors

D: Alpha blockers

Which of the following would be used to lower extremely high blood pressure within minutes?

A: Hydralazine (Apresoline)

B: Nitroprusside (Nitropress)

C: Doxazosin (Cardura)

D: Prazosin (Minipress)

In response to falling blood pressure, the kidney releases:

A: Renin

B: Aldosterone

C: Angiotensin

D: Potassium

The nurse should use caustion when administering which class of antihypertensives to asthmatic patients, due to possible bronchoconstriction?

A: Alpha blockers

B: Calcium channel blockers

C: ACE inhibitors

D: Beta blockers

Which drug or drug class is NOT given to prevent thrombi formation?

A: Thrombolytics

B: Aspirin

C: Heparin

D: Warfarin

Which of the following routes for hydromorphone would the nurse use to achieve the most rapid onset of action?

A: PO 8 mg

B: Sbucutaneous 1.5 mg

C: IV 0.80 mg

D: Rectal 3 mg

For hypertension, an average daily dose is 5 mg for analapril and 10 mg for fosinopril. From this information, you may correctly conclude:

A: Analapril is twice as effective as fosinopril

B: Analapril will likely produce fewer side effects than fosinopril

C: Enalapril is more potent than fosinopril

D: The onset of action for fosinopril will be longer than that of enalapril

Atropine is a prototype for which drug class?

A: Sympathomimetics

B: Beta-adrenergic blockers

C: Parasympathomimetics

D: Cholinergic-blockers

Which of the following drugs is often combined in cartridges with local anesthetics?

A: Epinephrine

B: Atropine
C: Heparin

D: Acetaminophen

The primary action of digoxin (Lanoxin) that makes it effective at treating heart failure is its ability to:

A: Dilate the coronary arteries

B: Increase impulse conduction across the myocardium

C: Decrease blood pressure

D: Increase cardiac contractility/output

It is critical for the nurse to evaluate blood electrolyte levels during digoxin therapy. Which of the following will significantly reduce the effectiveness of digoxin?

A: Hypokalemia

B: Hyperkalemia

C: Hypocalcemia

D: Hypercalcemia

Heart failure is best defined as:

A: Enlargement of the heart

B: Inability of the heart to beat in a coordinated manner

C: Inability of the ventricles to pump sufficient blood

D: Congestion in the lungs caused by damage to the myocardium

The amount of blood pumped per minute by each ventricle is the:

A: Preload

B: Afterload

C: Stroke volume

D: Cardiac output

Preload is defined as the:

A: Amount of blood pumped per minute by each ventricle

B: Degree to which the heart fibers are stretched just prior to contraction

C: Pressure in the aorta that must be overcome for blood to be ejected from the heart

D: Ability to increase the stength of cotraction

Which of the following drug classes was first derived from the common plant known as the purple foxglove?

A: Cardiac glycosides

B: ACE inhibitors

C: Phosphodiexterase inhibitors

D: Beta-adrenergic blockers

Cardiac glycosides help the heart beat more forcefully:

A: With a faster heart rate

B: With a slower heart rate

C: With no effect on cardiac output

D: With a diminished cardiac output

Digoxin (Lanoxin) acts by:

A: Blocking beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart

B: Stimulating beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart

 C: Inhibiting Na+-K+ ATPase

D: Stimulating Na+-K+ ATPase

Which of the following is NOT a beneficial action of digoxin in a patient with HF?

A: Increased heart rate

B: Increased cardiac output

C: Increased urine production

D: Decreased peripheral edema

During digoxin therapy, the nurse must monitor for which serious adverse effect?

A: Permanent visual disturbances

B: Hyperkalemia

C: Hypotension

D: Dysrhythmias

Which drug class has replaced the cardiac glycosides as first-choice drugs in the therapy of heart failure?

A: Direct vasodilators

B: ACE inhibitors

C: Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

D: Beta-adrenergic blockers

The primary action of the ACE inhibitors that benefits a patient with HF is a decrease in:

A: Peripheral resistance/blood pressure

B: Cardiac output

C: Heart rate

D: Urine output

By what mechanism does isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil) benefit patients with HF?

A: Lowering arterial blood pressure

B: Increasing urine output

C: Reducing venous return, causing a reduction in cardiac workload

D: Slowing the heart rate, causeing a reduction in cardiac workload

In addition to heart failure, hydralazine (Apresoline) is also prescribed for:

A: Coagulation disorders

B: Hypertension

C: Stroke

D: Glaucoma

In addition to heart failure, diuretics are also commonly prescribed for:

A: Minor depression

B: Coagulation disorders

C: Hypertension

D: Dysrhythmias

By what mechanism do diuretics, such as furosemide (Lasix), improve the symptoms of patients with heart failure?

A: Blockading beta-adrenergic receptors

B: Causing the heat to beat with more strength

C: Reducing fluid/plasma volume

D: Slowing heart rate, thus reducing cardiac workload

During furosemide therapy, the nurse must monitor for which serious side effect?

A: Electrolyte imbalances

B: Dysrhythmias

C: Reflex tachycardia

D: Hypertension

The primary use of the phosphodiesterase inhibitors in HF patients is to:

A: Cause a rapid reduction in fluid/plasma volume

B: Cause the heart to beat faster

C: Rapidly lower blood pressure

D: Increase the force of contraction and increase cardiac output

D: Increase the force of contraction and increase cardiac output

Beta-adrenergic blockers, such as carvedilol (Coreg), may improve HF by:

A: Increasing the heart rate

B: Decreasing the heart rate

C: Causing the heart to contract with more force

D: Lowering blood pressure and reducing cardiac workload

Which of the following classes of drugs is NOT prescribed for hypertension?

A: Sodium channel blockers

B: ACE inhibitors

C: Beta-blockers

D: Diuretics

Patients are often advised to eat plenty of bananas during drug therapy with the thiazide diuretics in order to get a sufficient supply of:

A: Selenium

B: Calcium
C: Potassium

D: Chloride

A typical dose of carvedilol is 6.25 mg bid. The term bid means:

A: Twice a week

B: Twice a day

C: Before bedtime

D: Before breakfast

Which of the following is NOT a drug class that is significant potential for abuse by patients?
A: Barbiturates

B: Benzodiazepines

C: Opioids

D: Triptans

Which class is used to dry secretions, treat asthma, and prevent motion sickness?

A: Anticholinergics

B: Cholinergics

C: Parasympathomimetics

D: Alpha blockers

Dysrhythmias are best described as:

A: Abnormalities of electrical conduction in the heart

B: Diminished cardiac output

C: Narrowing of the coronary arteries

D: High blood pressure

Which of the following is NOT a type of dysrhythmia?

A: Atrial tachycardia

B: Ventricular flutter

C: Sinus bradycardia

D: Premature subventricular contraction

Electrical impulses in the heart generally begin in the:

A: Atrioventricular bundle

B: Atrioventricular (AV) node

C: Sinoatrial (SA) node

D: Purkinje fibers

In most myocardial ceslls and in neurons, an action potential begins when channels located in the plasma membrane open and ____ rushes into the cell, producing a rapid depolarization.

A: Calcium

B: Phosphate

C: Potassium

D: Sodium

Which of the following is NOT a class of antidysrhythmic drugs?

A: Sodium channel blockers

B: Alpha-adrenergic blockers

C: Potassium channel blockers

D: Calcium channel blockers

The basic pharmacological mechanism by which nearly all antidysrhythmic drugs act to terminate or prevent abnormal rhythms is to:

A: Increase heart rate until the rhythm returns to normal

B: Dilate the coronary arteries, so that more blood gets to the mydocardium

C: Slow the impulse conduction velocity until the rhythm returns to normal

D: Decrease blood pressure, so that the heart has less workload

A blockade of sodium channels in myocardial cells will:

A: Slow the spread of impulse conduction

B: Speed up the spread of impulse conduction

C: Stop the spread of impulse conduction

D: Worsen a dysrhythmia

Lidocaine is given ________ to terminate _________ dysrhythmias.

A: PO, ventricular

B: PO, atria

C: IV, atrial

D: IV, ventricular

Which antidysrhythmic drug acts by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart?

A: Verapamil (Calan)

B: Digoxin (Lanoxin)

C: Amiodarone (Cordarone)

D: Propranolol (Inderal)

Which of the following is the sodium channel blocker that is the oldest antidysrhythmic drug?

A: Propranolol (Inderal)

B: Amiodarone (Cordarone)

C: Quinidine sulfate (Quinidex)

D: Verapamil (Calan)

During quinidine therapy, the nurse should monitor for common side effects related to which body system?

A: CNS

B: Gastrointestinal

C: Cardiovascular

D: Pulmonary

Beta-adrenergic blockers are used to treat a large number of cardiovasular diseases. Which of the following is NOT one of the uses of beta blockers?

A: Anticoagulant

B: Hypertension

C: Heart failure

D: Dysrhythmias

The way that beta-adrenergic blockers prevent dysrhythmias is to:

A: Speed up impulse conduction across the myocardium

B: Slow impulse conduction across the myocardium

C: Blockade calcium channels

D: Blockade sodium channels

Propranolol (Inderal) is classified as a:

A: Nonselective alpha and beta blocker

D: Nonselective beta blocker

C: Selective beta1-blocker

D: Selective beta2-blocker

Which of the following is NOT an expected adverse effect in a patient taking propranolol (Inderal)?

A: Diminished sex drive

B: Hypotension

C: Bradycardia

D: Tachycardia

Potassium channel blockers prevent dysrhythmias by:

A: Blocking beta-adrenergic receptors int he myocardium

B: Reducing blood pressure

C: Interfering with calcium ion channels

D: Prolonging the refractory period of the heart

Which potassium channel blocker has become a drug of choice for the treatment of atrial dysrhythmias in patients wiht heart failure?

A Bretylium (Bretylol)

B: Defetilide (Tikosyn)

C: Amiodarone (Cardarone)

D: Sotalol (Betapace)

During amiodarone (Cordarone) therapy, the nurse should monitor for serious adverse effects related to which body system?

A: CNS

B: Pulmonary

C: Cardiovascular

D: Gastrointestinal

Blocking calcium ion channels has a number of effects ont he heart and vascular system. These effects are most similar to those of:

A: Sodium channel blockers

B: Potassium channel blockers

C: Beta-adrenergic blockers

D: Cardiac glycosides

Which of the following antidysrhythmics would the nurse administer intravenously to rapidly terminate serious atrail dysrhythmias?

A: Adenosine (Adenocard)

B: Amiodarone (Cordarone)

C: Propranolol (Inderal)

D: Verapamil (Calan)

The primary indication for phosphodiesterase inhibitors is:

A: Hypertension

B: Coagulation disorders

C: Heart failure

D: Shock

In addition ot its use in treating dysrhythmias, lidocaine is widely used as a(n):

A: Local anesthetic

B: Antihypertensive

C: Antimigraine agent
D: General anesthetic

Which of the following is the most widely used drug class for the treatment of depression?

A: Barbiturates

B: Na+-K+ ATPase inhibitors

C: Benzodiazepines

D: Selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitors

A patient taking sumatriptan (Imitrex) likely suffers from:

A: Sleep disorders

B: Seizures

C: Migraines

D: Schizophrenia

GABA is a:

A: Surgical procedure used to help pshychotic patients

B: Neurotransmitter

C: Drug used to treat bipolar disorder

D: Widely abused hallucinogen

Which of the following drug classes is widely used in the parmacotherapy of angina pectoris?

A: Calcium channel blockers

B: ACE inhibitors

C: HMG CoA reductase inhibitors

D: Cardiac glycosides

Which of the following best explains the mechanism by which organic nitrates terminate acute anginal attacks?

A: Direct vasodilation of coronary arteries

B: Slowing heart rate

C: Stronger force of myocardical contraction

D: Dilation of peripheral veins, reducing preload

The condition of having a reduced blood supply to myocardial cells is called:

A: Myocardial infaction

B: Angina pectoris

C: Myocardial ischemia

D: Stroke

Angina is most often preceded by:

A: An aura

B: Physical exertion or emotional excitement

C: A sensation that the heart has skipped a beat

D: Severe pain down the left arm

The pharmacological goals for the treatment of angina are usually achieved by:

A: Reducing cardiac workload

B: Increasing the heart rate

C: Increasing the force of myocardial contraction

D: Increasing the amount of blood entering the heart

The vasodilation effect of organic nitrate agents is a result of the conversion of nitrate to the active form:

A: Nitric Oxide (NO)

B: Nitrous oxide (N2O)

C: Nitroglycerin

D: Hydrogen dioxide

By causing venodilation, nitrates reduce the amount of blood returning to the heart, thus decreasing:

A: Heart rate

B: Conduction velocity

C: Blood pressure

D: Cardiac output

In addition to causing venodilation, organic nitrates also have the ability to:

A: Inhibit alpha1-adrenergic receptors in arterioles

B: Dilate the coronary arteries

C: Terminate dysrhythmias

D: Remove plaque from coronary arteries

Organic nitrates are classified based on whether they are:

A: Parenteral or oral

B: High or low potency

C: Short- or long-acting

D: Sedating or nonsedating

The nurse should administer which drug sublingually to terminate anginal pain?

A: Atenolol (Tenormin)

B: Diltiazem (Cardizem)

C: Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid)

D: Aspirin

The nurse should assess for which common side effect of nytroglycerin therapy?

A: Headache

B: Drowsiness

C: Nausea/vomiting

D: Hypotension

The primary mechanism by which beta-adrenergic blockers decrease the frequency of angina attacks is:

A: Dilating the coronary arteries

B: Increasing the heart rate

C: Increasing the strength of contraction of the myocardium

D: Reducing the cardiac workload

Which of the following is true regarding the effect of atenolol (Tenormin) on the heart?

A: It selectively blocks beta1-receptors.

B: It nonselectively blocks beta1 and beta2 receptors

C: It selectively blocks beta2-receptors

D: It has no effect on beta receptors.

The primary mechanism by which calcium channel blockers decrease the frequency of angina attacks is:

A: Slowing conduction through the SA node

B: Increasing the heart rate

C: Increasing the strength of contraction of the myocardium

D: Reducing cardiac worklaod

Calcium channel blockers are effective in treating variant angina because they:

A: Lower blood pressure

B: Slow the heart rate

C: Slow conduction across the myocardium

D: Relax arterial smooth muscle in the coronary arteries

Which of the following agents has the ability to inhibit the transport of calcium ions into myocardial cells and relaxes both coronary and peripheral blood vessels?

A: Atenolol (Tenormin)

B: Diltiazem (Cardizem)

C: Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid)

D: Reteplase (Retavase)

Which of the following is NOT a goal for the pharmacotherapy of acute MI?

A: Restore blood supply to the damaged myocardium as quickly as possible

B: Increase myocardial oxygen demand with oganic nitrates or beta blockers

C: Prevent associated dysrhythmias with antidysrhythmics

D: Reduce post-MI mortality with aspirin and ACE inhibitors

In treating MI, the function of thrombolytic therapy is to:

A: Restore blood supply to the damaged myocardium

B: Decrease myocardial oxygen demand

C: Control Dysrhythmias

D: Reduce acute pain associated with MI

The primary risk during thrombolytic therapy is:

A: Hypertension

B: Prolonged prothrombin time

C: Excessive bleeding

D: Dysrhythmia

Reteplase (Retavase) is most effective if administered not later than _____ after the onset of MI symptoms.

A: 30 minutes

B: 1 hour

C: 6 hours

D: 12 hours

Following an acute MI, metoprolol (Lopressor) is infused slowly until:

A: The clot is dissolved

B: Blood pressure falls to 100/70 mm Hg

C: A target heart rate of 60-90 beats per minures is reached

D: The pain is relieved

Unless contraindicated, the nurse should administer 160 to 324 mg of aspirin as soon as possible following a suspected MI in order to:

A: Restore blood supply to the damaged myocardium

B: Decrease myocardial oxygen demand

C: Reduce post-MI mortality

D: Reduce acute pain associated with MI

Captopril (Capoten) and lisinopril (Prinivil) are sometimes administered to MI patients to:

A: Restore blood supply to the damaged myocardium

B: Increase myocardial oxygen demand

C: Reduce post-MI mortality

D: Reduce acute pain associated with MI

Opioids, such as morphine sulfate, are sometimes administered to MI patients to:

A: Restore blood supply to the damaged myocardium

B: Decrease myocardial oxygen demand

C: Reduce post-MI mortality

D: Reduce acute pain associated with MI

Patients at high risk for stroke are often treated with:

A: Antidysrhythmics

B: Antihypertensives

C: Opioids

D: Cardiac glycosides

In addition to angina, organic nitrates are indicated for:

A: Dysrhythmias

B: Coagulation disorders

C: Hypertension

D: Heart failure

Nitrous oxide is classified as a(n):

A: IV anesthetic

B: Gas

C: Volatile agent

D: Local anesthetic

The nurse would administer protamine sulfate to treat excessive bleeding due to:

A: Hemophilia

B: Heparin overdose

C: Warfarin overdose

D: Deficiency of vitamin K

The antidysrhythmic action of lidocaine (Xylocaine) is due to the blockade of:

A: Sodium channels

B: Calcium channels

C: Beta-adrenergic receptors

D: Potassium channels

A drug that blocks impulses from the parasympathetic nervous system is known as a:

A: Sympathomimetic

B: Beta-adrenergic blocker

C: Cholinergic blocker

D: Calcium channel blocker

If a patient receives a susptected overdose of epinephrine, the nurse must immediately assess for:

A: Hypoclycemia

B: Hypertension

C: Bronchospasm

D: Diarrhea

Shock is a condition characterized by:

A: Extremely high blood pressure

B: Abnormal cardiac rhythm

C: Vital tissues not receiving enough blood to function properly

D: The heart not pumping sufficient contractility

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom of shock?

A Weakness, without any specific symptoms

B: Restlessness, anxiety, confusion, and lack of intrest

C: Thirst

D: Hypertension

A weak or unresponsive patient with obvious trauma or bleeding to a limb might be experiencing _____ shock.

A: Hypovolemic

B: Neurogenic

C: Cardiogenic

D: Anaphylactic

In many types of shock, the nurse must recognize that the most serious medical challenge facing the patient is:

A: Heart failure

B: Brain damage

C: Hypotension

D: MI

The nurse administers vasoconstrictors to patients with shock in order to:

A: Prevent dysrhythmias

B: Stabilize blood pressure

C: Prevent postshock mortality

D: Prevent blood pressure from rising to harmful levels

Most of the agents used to raise blood pressure in patients with shock:

A: Are CNS stimulants

B: Are CNS depressants

C: Activate the parasympathetic nervous system

D: Activate the sympathetic nervous system

Norepinephrine (Levarterenol) activates ______   -adrenergic receptors

A: Alpha

B: Beta1

C: Both alpha and beta1

D: Neither alpha or beta1

In addition to its use in shock, norepinephrine is indicated for:

A: Cardiac arrest

B: Hypertension

C: Dysrhythmias

D: Strokes

The primary use of cardiotonic drugs in the treatment of shock is to increase:

A: Blood pressure

B: The force of myocardial contraction

C: Heart rate

D: Conduction velocity across the myocardium

Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is a ______ that has value in the treatment of certain types of shock, due to its ability to cause the heart to beat more forcefully, without causing major effects on heart rate:

A : Selective beta1-blocker

B: Cholinergic blocker

C: Cardiac glycoside

D: Beta1-adrenergic agent

Dopamine (Intropin) is the immediate metabolic precursor to:

A: Acetylcholine

B: Norepinephrine

C: GABA

D: Serotonin

During anaphylaxis, the body responds quickly by releasing massive amounts of:

A: Prostaglandin

B: Acetylcholinesterase

C: Histamine

D: Antihistamine

Which of the following would the nurse LEAST likely give to a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?

A: Morphine sulfate

B: Oxygen

C: Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

D: Albuterol (Proventil)

Epinephrine (Adrenalin) activates _____________ -adrenergic receptors.

A: Alpha

B: Beta

C: Both alpha and beta

D: Neither alpha nor beta

Within minutes after the nurse administers epinephrine (Adrenalin), activation of beta2-adrenergic receptors will:
A: Increase blood pressure

B: Open the bronchi and relieve the patient's shortness of breath

C: Stimulate the heart to beat more forcefully

D: Relieve symptoms of hives and itching

A widespread imflammatory response to bacterial, fungal, or parasitic infection can result in which type of shock?

A: Cardiogenic

B: Hypovolemic

C: Neurogenic

D: Septic

After administering a beta-adrenergic blocker, the nurse should monitor the patient for which expected effect?

A: Increased heart rate

B: Lowered blood pressure

C: Dilation of bronchial smooth muscle

D: Increased myocardial contractility

Which of the following is a cholinergic blocker?

A: Metoprolol (Lopressor)

B: Succinylcholine (Anectine)

C: Neostigmine (Prostigmin)

D: Atropine sulfate

Which of the following is NOT classified as an NSAID?
A: Acetaminophen

B: Aspirin

C: Celecoxib (Celebrex)

D: Ibuprofen

Antiplatelet agents are primarily prescribed to:

A: Lower blood cholesterol

B: Dissolve thrombi

C: Prevent thromboembolic disease

D: Prevent Migraines

Most barbiturate use in children is limmited to:

A: Sleep disorders

B: Seizure disorders

C: Depression

D: Anxiety

Antihyperlipidemic agents are prescribed to reduce the likelihood of:

A: Dysrhythmias

B: Colon cancer

C: Coronary artery disease

D: Obesity

LDL transports cholesterol from the liver to the tissues and organs, where it is used to:

A: Provide energy for cells

B: Build plasma membranes or synthesize steroids

C: Make Bile

D: Make HDL

LDL is ofter called ______ cholesterol, since this lipoprotien contributes significantly to plaque deposits.

A: Good

B: Bad

C: High

D: Low

The cholesterol component of HDL is transported to the liver, where it is:

A: Used to make LDL

B: Used to build plasma membranes

C: Used as an energy source

D: Broken down to become part of bile

The goal in maintaining normal blood cholesterol levels is to:

A: Minimize both HDL and LDL

B: Maximize both HDL and LDL

C: Maximize HDL and minimize LDL

D: Maximize LDL and minimize HDL

Which of the following is NOT a lifestyle change that should be considered by patients with high blood lipid levels?

A: Maintain weight at an optimum level

B: Implement a medically supervised exercise plan

C: Reduce sources of stress

D: Limit soluble fiber in the diet to 2 or fewer grams per day

Which drugs are considered agents of first choice for reducing blood lipid levels?

A: HMG CoA reductase inhibitors

B: Fibric acid agents

C: Niacin

D: Bile acid resins

Statins can produce a _______ reduction of LDL cholesterol levels.

A: 5-10%

B: 20-40%

C: 50-60%

D: 70-80%

HMG CoA reductase serves as the primary regulartory enzyme for the biosynthesis of:

A: Cholesterol

B: Steroid hormones

C: Tryglycerides

D: HDL

The statins act by:

A: Binding bile acids

B: REducing bile synthesis in the liver

C: Inhibiting HMG CoA reductase

D: Decreasing the absorption of dietary cholesterol

Maximum effects from atorvastatin (Lipitor) take __________ to achieve.

A: 4 to 8 hours

B: 2 weeks

C: 4 to 8 weeks

D: 3 to 4 months

Which of the following should be monitored carefully during the first few months of therapy with the statins?

A: Blood pressure

B: Sleep patterns

C: Cardiac function

D: Liver function

Bile acid resins produce their therapeutic effects by:

A: Inhibiting HMG CoA reductase

B: Increasing excretion of cholesterol in the feces

C: Decreasing production of HDL

D: Decreasing absorption of dietary lipids

Which of the following is NOT true regarding cholestyramine (Questran)?

A: It is not absorbed or metabolized once it enters the intestine.

B: It acts by inhibiting cholesterol biosynthesis

C: Its most frequent side effects are constipation, bloating, gas, and nausea

D: It should not be taken at the same time as other medications

Which of the following is a B-complex vitamin?

A: Nicotinic acid

B: Gemfibrozil (Lopid)

C: Lovastatin (Mevacor)

D: Colestipol (Colestid)

Which of the following best describes the use of nicotinic acid in treating hyperlipidemias?
A: It should not be used in patients with hypercholesterolemia

B: It should not be used in patients with a history of heart failure

C: It should not be used with other antihyperlipidemics, since there effects may cancel out each other

D: It is most often used in lower doses in combination with a statin

Which of the following best describes the use of the fibric acid agents in treating hyperlipidemias?

A: They should always be given at least 2 hours before or after other medications

B: They should not be used in patients with a history of liver failure

C: They should not be used with other antihyperlipidemics, since their effects may cancel out each other

D: They are most often used in lower doses in combination with a statin

Which of the following should be taken separately from other medications, since it may interfere with drug absorption?

A: Nicotinic acid

B: Gemfibrozil (Lopid)

C: Cholestyramine (Questran)

D Nonnarcotic analgesic

Whic of the following best describes propranolol (Inderal)?

A: Central-acting antihypertensive

B: Beta-adrenergic blocker

C: Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor

D: Reduction of inflammation

Which of the following is NOT a therapeutic effect of aspirin?

A: Increased PT time

B: Prevention of heart attack

C: Relief of severe pain

D: Reduction of inflammation

A combination drug containing both pentazocine and naloxone would most likely be used to treat:

A: Moderate to severe pain

B: Seizures

C: Symptoms of the common cold

D: Hypertension

Which of the following is true regarding category D drugs?

A: They may be safely used in pregnant patients

B: Animal studies indicate some risk, but the drug appears to be safe for humans

C: They should be used in pregnant patients only if the potential benefit justifies the potential risk to the fetus

D: They should not be used in pregnant patients under any circumstances

Which of the following is used to treat seizures?

A: Thiopental sodium (Pentothal)

B: Fluoxetine (Prozac)

C: Valproic acid (Depakote)

D: Haloperidol (Haldol)

The nurse should not administer hydrocortisone to a patient experiencing:

A: An active infection associated with inflammation

B: Pain associated with inflammation

C: Nasal Congestion

D: Hypertension

Histamine is a potent:

A: Vasodilator

B: Vasoconstrictor

C: Sympathomimetic

D: Cardiotonic agent

Rapid release of histamine on a massive scale throughout the body is responsible for:

A: Irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase

B: Allergic rhinitis

C: Immunosuppression

D: Anaphylaxis

H2 receptors are found in the:

A: Broncial tree

B: Stomach

C: Reproductive tract

D: Smooth muscle of the vasuclar system

Foreign agents that elicit a specific immune response are called:

A: Immunoglobulins

B: Cytokines

C: Antigens

D: Antibodies

The primary function of plasma cells is to secrete:

A: Complement

B: Histamine

C: Antibodies

D: Cytokines

Memory B cells remember the initial antigen interaction and secrete high levels of antibodies in approximately:

A: 2-3 hours

B: 2-3 days

C: 2-3 weeks

D: 2-3 months

There are two basic classifications of H1-receptor blockers. The two classes are based on the degree to which the drugs:

A: Block stomach acid secretion

B: Affect blood coagulation

C: Cause xerostomia

D: Cause drowsiness

For the treatment of allergies, the newer antihistamiens are an improvement over the older, more traditional antihistamines because they:

A: Are less sedating

B: Are more effective

C: Are more potent

D: Cause less GI irrition

Symptoms of motion sickness are often treated with:

A: H1-receptor blockers

B: H1-receptor blockers

C: Immunosuppressants

D: Intranasal glucocorticoids

Which of the following drugs is often combined with analgesics and decongestants in OTC cold medications?

A: Fluticasone (Flonase)

B: Fexofenadine (Allegra)

C: Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

D: Prednisone (Meticorten)

Which of the following is Not an indication of diphenhydramine?

A: Parkinson's disease

B: Peptic ulcer

C: Motion sickness

D: Insomnia

The nurse should advise his/her patient that the most common adverse effect of diphenhydramine therapy is:

A: Urinary retention

B: Dysrhythmia

C: Drowsiness

D: Bradycardia

Gluccocorticoids have joined antihistamines as first-choice drugs in the treatment of allergic rhinitis. For this disorder, glucocorticoids are administered via which route?

A: Oral

B: Topical

C: IM

D: Intranasal

The nurse should teach patients that the most frequently reported side effect of intranasal glucocorticoids is:

A: Sinus congestion

B: Tachycardia

C: Burning sensation in the nose

D: Dry mouth

Which of the following autonomic classes are commonly used to dry the nasal mucosa for patients with colds and allergies?

A: Sympathomimetics

B: Anticholinergics

C: Cholinergics

D: Beta-adrenergic blockers

Intranasal drugs, such as ocymetazoline (Afrin), Produce an effective response in:

A: Less than 5 minutes

B: 20 minutes

C: 1 to 2 hours

D: 2 to 3 days

Rebound congestion is most common with which class of medications?

A: Antihistamines

B: Intranasal sympathomimetics

C: Intranasal glucocorticoids

D: NSAIDs

Oxymetazoline acts by stimulating ________ receptors in the autonomic nervous system.

A: Alpha-adrenergic

B: Beta1-adrenergic

C: Beta2-adrenergic

D: Cholinergic

Which of the following drugs does NOT possess anti-inflammatory action?

A: Aspirin

B: Ibuprofen

C: Acetaminophen

D: COX-2 inhibitors

Aspirin acts by causing the irreversible inhibition of:

A: Prostaglandin synthase

B: Mast Cells

C: HMG CoA reductase

D: Cyclooxygenase

The nurse should teach patients that the most common adverse effects from high-dose aspirin therapy relate to which body system?

A: GI

B: Cardiovascular

C: Endocrine

D: Nervous

The primary advantage of the selective COX-2 inhibitors over aspirin is that they:

A: Are less expensive

B: Are more effective

C: Have fewer adverse effects on the digestive system

D: Have greater anticoagulant ability

Compared with aspirin, naproxen (Naprosyn) has _______ ability to relieve pain and reduce fever.

A: Greater

B: Less

C: The same

D: No

Which class of drugs has the potential to suppress the normal functions of the adrenal gland, if given for long periods?

A: NSAIDs

B: H2-receptor blockers

C: Immunosuppressants

D: Intranasal Glucocorticoids

Alternate-day therapy is common with which class of medications?

A: Systemic glucocorticoids

B: H2-receptor blocers

C: Immunosuppressants

D: Intranasal glucocorticoids

Which of the following drug classes is most effective at relieving severe inflammation?

A: NSAIDs

B: Systemic glucocorticoids

C: H2-receptor blockers

D: COX-2 inhibitors

Which of the following drug classes would the nurse administer to avoid transplant rejection?

A: COX-2 inhibitors

B: H2-receptor blockers

C: Immunosuppressants

D: Systemic glucocorticoids

Which of the following drugs produces its therapeutic effects by inhibiting T cells?

A: Cyclosporine (Sandimmune)

B: Prednisone

C: Aspirin

D: Celecoxib (Celebrex)

The nurse should teach patients that the primary adverse effects from cyclosporine occur in the:

A: Immune system

B: Lung

C: GI tract

D: Kidney

Which of the following is NOT a type of vaccine suspension?

A: Live microbes

B: Killed microbes

C: Microbes that are alive but attenuated

D: Bacterial toxins

The nurse should teach patients that the purpose of a vaccine is to:

A: Treat active infections

B: Prevent inflammation, should an infection occur

C: Prevent infections from occuring

D: Suppress the immune system so that hypersensitivity to antigens does not occur

A toxoid is best classified as a(n):

A: Vaccine

B: Immunosuppressant

C: Anti-inflammatory agent

D: Antigen

Two common ingredients in OTC cold and allergy medications are:

A: Triprolidine and pseudoephedrine

B: Chlorphenaramine and pseudoephedrine

C: Cholopheniramine and ephedrine

D: Brompheniramine and ephedrine

An antibiotic with a broad spectrum is one that:

A: Produces a large number of side effects

B: Is effective against a small number of organisms

C: Is effective against a large number of organisms

D: Has a high potency

Bacteriocidal drugs are those that:

A: Have a high potency

B: Have a high effectiveness

C: Kill the infectious agent

D: Slow the growth of the infectious agent

What advantage does amoxicillin (Amoxil) have over penicillin G?

A: It is less expensive

B: It has greater absorption

C: It has fewer side effects

D: It has panicillinase resistance

Which antibiotic class is usually reserved for serious urinary tract infections because of the potential for ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity?

A: Erythromycins

B: Aminoglycosides

C: Tetracyclines

D: Sulfonamides

Which antibiotic is known as the "last chance" drug for those with resistant infections?

A: Clarithromycin (Biaxin)

B: Dicloxacillin (Dynapen)

C: Vancomycin (Vancocin)

D: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxozole (Septra)

Which of the following would most likely be used for a patient allergic to penicillin?

A: Clindamycin (Cleocin)

B: Amoxicillin (Amoxil)

C: Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin)

D: Erythromycin (E-mycin)

A drug that is effective against a large number of different species of bacteria is said to:
A: Be bacteriocidal

B: Be bacteriostatic

C: Have a wide spectrum of activity

D: Have a narrow spectrum of activity

The nurse should teach patients that photosensitivity and teeth discoloration are potential adverse effects of:

A: Aminoglycosides

B: Metronidazole (Flagyl)

C: Cephalosporins

D: Tetracyclines