Term
A common side effects of
INF treatment is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Antimicrobial prophylaxis
for a history of recurrent
UTIs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Antimicrobial prophylaxis
for Gonorrhea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Antimicrobial prophylaxis
for Meningococcal
infection |
|
Definition
Rifampin (DOC),
minocycline |
|
|
Term
Antimicrobial prophylaxis
for PCP |
|
Definition
TMP-SMZ (DOC),
aerosolized pentamidine |
|
|
Term
Antimicrobial prophylaxis
for Syphilis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are Aminoglycosides
Teratogenic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are Ampicillin and
Amoxicillin penicillinase
resistant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are Carbenicillin,
Piperacillin, and Ticarcillin
penicillinase resistant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are Cephalosporins
resistant to penicillinase? |
|
Definition
No, but they are less
susceptible than the other
Beta lactams |
|
|
Term
Are Methicillin, Nafcillin,
and Dicloxacillin
penicillinase resistant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Clinical use of Isoniazid
(INH)? |
|
Definition
Mycobacterium
tuberculosis, the only
agent used as solo
prophylaxis against TB |
|
|
Term
Common side effects
associated with
Clindamycin include? |
|
Definition
Pseudomembranous colitis
(C. difficile), fever,
diarrhea |
|
|
Term
Common toxicities
associated with
Fluoroquinolones? |
|
Definition
GI upset, Superinfections,
Skin rashes, Headache,
Dizziness |
|
|
Term
Common toxicities
associated with
Griseofulvin are…...? |
|
Definition
Teratogenic, Carcinogenic,
Confusion, Headaches |
|
|
Term
Describe the MOA of
Interferons (INF) |
|
Definition
Glycoproteins from
leukocytes that block
various stages of viral RNA
and DNA synthesis |
|
|
Term
Do Tetracyclines penetrate
the CNS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does Ampicillin or
Amoxicillin have a greater
oral bioavailability? |
|
Definition
AmOxicillin has greater
Oral bioavailability |
|
|
Term
Does Amprotericin B cross
the BBB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does Foscarnet require
activation by a viral
kinase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ganciclovir associated
toxicities? |
|
Definition
Leukopenia, Neutropenia,
Thrombocytopenia, Renal
toxicity |
|
|
Term
How are INFs used
clinically? |
|
Definition
Chronic Hepatitis A and B,
Kaposi's Sarcoma |
|
|
Term
How are Sulfonamides
employed clinically? |
|
Definition
Gram +, Gram -,
Norcardia, Chlamydia |
|
|
Term
How are the HIV drugs
used clinically? |
|
Definition
Triple Therapy' 2
Nucleoside RT Inhibitors
with a Protease Inhibitor |
|
|
Term
How are the Latent
Hypnozoite (Liver) forms
of Malaria (P. vivax,
P.ovale) treated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How can Isoniazid (INH)-
induced neurotoxicity be
prevented? |
|
Definition
Pyridoxine (B6)
administration |
|
|
Term
How can the t1/2 of INH
be altered? |
|
Definition
| Fast vs. Slow Acetylators |
|
|
Term
How can the toxic effects
fo TMP be ameliorated? |
|
Definition
With supplemental Folic
Acid |
|
|
Term
How can Vancomycininduced
'Red Man
Syndrome' be prevented? |
|
Definition
Pretreat with
antihistamines and a slow
infusion rate |
|
|
Term
How do Sulfonamides act
on bacteria? |
|
Definition
As PABA antimetabolites
that inhibit
Dihydropteroate Synthase,
Bacteriostatic |
|
|
Term
How do the Protease
Inhibitors work? |
|
Definition
Inhibt Assembly of new
virus by Blocking Protease
Enzyme |
|
|
Term
How does Ganciclovir's
toxicity relate to that of
Acyclovir? |
|
Definition
Ganciclovir is more toxic
to host enzymes |
|
|
Term
How does resistance to
Vancomycin occur? |
|
Definition
With an amino acid change
of D-ala D-ala to D-ala Dlac |
|
|
Term
How is Acyclovir used
clinically? |
|
Definition
HSV, VZV, EBV,
Mucocutaneous and
Genital Herpes Lesions,
Prophylaxis in
Immunocompromised pts |
|
|
Term
How is Amantadine used
clinically? |
|
Definition
Prophylaxis for Influenza
A, Rubella ; Parkinson's
disease |
|
|
Term
How is Amphotericin B
administered for fungal
meningitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is Amphotericin B
used clinically? |
|
Definition
Wide spectrum of systemic
mycoses: Cryptococcus,
Blastomyces, Coccidioides,
Aspergillus, Histoplasma,
Candida, Mucor |
|
|
Term
How is Chloramphenical
used clinically? |
|
Definition
Meningitis (H. influenza,
N. meningitidis, S.
pneumoniae), Conserative
treatment due to toxicities |
|
|
Term
How is Foscarnet used
clinically? |
|
Definition
CMV Retinitis in IC pts
when Ganciclovir fails |
|
|
Term
How is Ganciclovir
activated? |
|
Definition
Phosphorylation by a Viral
Kinase |
|
|
Term
How is Ganciclovir used
clinically? |
|
Definition
CMV, esp in
Immunocompromised
patients |
|
|
Term
How is Griseofulvin used
clinically? |
|
Definition
Oral treatment of
superficial infections |
|
|
Term
How is Leishmaniasis
treated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is Ribavirin used
clinically? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is Rifampin used
clinically? |
|
Definition
1. Mycobacterium
tuberculosis 2. Delays
resistance to Dapsone
when used of Leprosy 3.
Used in combination with
other drugs |
|
|
Term
How is Trimethoprim used
clinically? |
|
Definition
Used in combination
therapy with SMZ to
sequentially block folate
synthesis |
|
|
Term
How is Vancomycin used
clinically? |
|
Definition
For serious, Gram +
multidrug-resistant
organisms |
|
|
Term
How would you treat
African Trypanosomiasis
(sleeping sickness)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In what population does
Gray Baby Syndrome
occur? Why? |
|
Definition
Premature infants, because
they lack UDP-glucuronyl
transferase |
|
|
Term
Is Aztreonam crossallergenic
with penicillins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is Aztreonam resistant to
penicillinase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is Aztreonam usually
toxic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is Imipenem resistant to
penicillinase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is Penicillin penicillinase
resistant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Foscarnet = pyroFosphate
analog |
|
|
Term
MOA for Penicillin (3
answers)? |
|
Definition
1)Binds penicillin-binding
proteins 2) Blocks
transpeptidase crosslinking
of cell wall 3)
Activates autolytic
enzymes |
|
|
Term
MOA: Bactericidal
antibiotics |
|
Definition
Penicillin, Cephalosporins,
Vancomycin,
Aminoglycosides,
Fluoroquinolones,
Metronidazole |
|
|
Term
MOA: Block cell wall
synthesis by inhib.
Peptidoglycan crosslinking
(7) |
|
Definition
Penicillin, Ampicillin,
Ticarcillin, Pipercillin,
Imipenem, Aztreonam,
Cephalosporins |
|
|
Term
MOA: Block DNA
topoisomerases |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
MOA: Block nucleotide
synthesis |
|
Definition
Sulfonamides,
Trimethoprim |
|
|
Term
MOA: Block peptidoglycan
synthesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
MOA: Block protein
synthesis at 30s subunit |
|
Definition
Aminoglycosides,
Tetracyclines |
|
|
Term
MOA: Block protein
synthesis at 50s subunit |
|
Definition
Chloramphenicol,
Erythromycin/macrolides,
Lincomycin, Clindamycin,
Streptogramins
(quinupristin, dalfopristin) |
|
|
Term
MOA: Disrupt bacterial/
fungal cell membranes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
MOA:Disrupt fungal cell
membranes |
|
Definition
Amphotericin B, Nystatin,
Fluconazole/azoles |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name several common
Macrolides (3) |
|
Definition
Erythromycin,
Azithromycin,
Clarithromycin |
|
|
Term
Name some common
Sulfonamides (4) |
|
Definition
Sulfamethoxazole (SMZ),
Sulfisoxazole, Triple
sulfas, Sulfadiazine |
|
|
Term
Name some common
Tetracyclines (4) |
|
Definition
Tetracycline, Doxycycline,
Demeclocycline,
Minocycline |
|
|
Term
Name the common
Aminoglycosides (5) |
|
Definition
Gentamicin, Neomycin,
Amikacin, Tobramycin,
Streptomycin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Fluconazole,
Ketoconazole,
Clotrimazole, Miconazole,
Itraconazole |
|
|
Term
Name the common
Fluoroquinolones (6) |
|
Definition
Ciprofloxacin, Norfloxacin,
Ofloxacin, Grepafloxacin,
Enoxacin, Nalidixic acid |
|
|
Term
Name the common Non-
Nucleoside Reverse
Transcriptase Inhibitors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the common
Nucleoside Reverse
Transcriptase Inhibitors |
|
Definition
Zidovudine (AZT),
Didanosine (ddI),
Zalcitabine (ddC),
Stavudine (d4T),
Lamivudine (3TC) |
|
|
Term
Name the Protease
Inhibitors (4) |
|
Definition
Saquinavir, Ritonavir,
Indinavir, Nelfinavir |
|
|
Term
Name two classes of drugs
for HIV therapy |
|
Definition
Protease Inhibitors and
Reverse Transcriptase
Inhibitors |
|
|
Term
Name two organisms
Vancomycin is commonly
used for? |
|
Definition
Staphlococcus aureus and
Clostridium difficile
(pseudomembranous
colitis) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Resistance mechanisms for
Aminoglycosides |
|
Definition
Modification via
Acetylation, Adenylation,
or Phosphorylation |
|
|
Term
Resistance mechanisms for
Cephalosporins/Penicillins |
|
Definition
Beta-lactamase cleavage
of Beta-lactam ring |
|
|
Term
Resistance mechanisms for
Chloramphenicol |
|
Definition
Modification via
Acetylation |
|
|
Term
Resistance mechanisms for
Macrolides |
|
Definition
Methylation of rRNA near
Erythromycin's ribosome
binding site |
|
|
Term
Resistance mechanisms for
Sulfonamides |
|
Definition
Altered bacterial
Dihydropteroate
Synthetase, Decreased
uptake, or Increased PABA
synthesis |
|
|
Term
Resistance mechanisms for
Tetracycline |
|
Definition
Decreased uptake or
Increased transport out of
cell |
|
|
Term
Resistance mechanisms for
Vancomycin |
|
Definition
Terminal D-ala of cell wall
replaced with D-lac;
Decreased affinity |
|
|
Term
Side effects of Isoniazid
(INH)? |
|
Definition
Hemolysis (if G6PD
deficient), Neurotoxicity,
Hepatotoxicity, SLE-like
syndrome |
|
|
Term
Specifically, how does
Foscarnet inhibit viral DNA
pol? |
|
Definition
Binds to the
Pyrophosphate Binding
Site of the enzyme |
|
|
Term
The MOA for
Chloramphenicol is …â
€¦â€¦â€¦â€¦..? |
|
Definition
Inhibition of 50S peptidyl
transferase, Bacteriostatic |
|
|
Term
Toxic effects of TMP
include………? |
|
Definition
Megaloblastic anemia,
Leukopenia,
Granulocytopenia |
|
|
Term
Toxic side effects of the
Azoles? |
|
Definition
Hormone synthesis
inhibition (Gynecomastia),
Liver dysfunction (Inhibits
CYP450), Fever, Chills |
|
|
Term
Toxicities associated with
Acyclovir? |
|
Definition
Delirium, Tremor,
Nephrotoxicity |
|
|
Term
What additional side
effects exist for Ampicillin? |
|
Definition
Rash, Pseudomembranous
colitis |
|
|
Term
What antimicrobial class is
Aztreonam syngergestic
with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are Amantadineassociated
side effects? |
|
Definition
Ataxia, Dizziness, Slurred
speech |
|
|
Term
What are Aminoglycosides
synergistic with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are Aminoglycosides
used for clinically? |
|
Definition
Severe Gram - rod
infections. |
|
|
Term
What are common serious
side effects of
Aminoglycosides and what
are these associated with? |
|
Definition
Nephrotoxicity (esp. with
Cephalosporins),
Ototoxicity (esp. with Loop
Diuretics) |
|
|
Term
What are common side
effects of Amphotericin B? |
|
Definition
Fever/Chills, Hypotension,
Nephrotoxicity,
Arrhythmias |
|
|
Term
What are common side
effects of Protease
Inhibitors? |
|
Definition
GI intolerance (nausea,
diarrhea), Hyperglycemia,
Lipid abnormalities,
Thrombocytopenia
(Indinavir) |
|
|
Term
What are common side
effects of RT Inhibitors? |
|
Definition
BM suppression
(neutropenia, anemia),
Peripheral neuropathy |
|
|
Term
What are common toxic
side effects of
Sulfonamides? (5) |
|
Definition
-Hypersensitivity reactions
-Hemolysis -
Nephrotoxicity
(tubulointerstitial nephritis)
-Kernicterus in infants
Displace other drugs from
albumin (e.g., warfarin) |
|
|
Term
What are common
toxicities associated with
Macrolides? (4) |
|
Definition
GI discomfort, Acute
cholestatic hepatitis,
Eosinophilia, Skin rashes |
|
|
Term
What are common
toxicities associated with
Tetracyclines? |
|
Definition
GI distress, Tooth
discoloration and
Inhibition of bone growth
in children, Fanconi's
syndrome, Photosensitivity |
|
|
Term
What are common
toxicities related to
Vancomycin therapy? |
|
Definition
Well tolerated in general
but occasionally,
Nephrotoxicity,
Ototoxicity,
Thrombophlebitis, diffuse
flushing='Red Man
Syndrome' |
|
|
Term
What are Fluoroquinolones
indicated for? (3) |
|
Definition
1.Gram - rods of the
Urinary and GI tracts
(including Pseudomonas)
2.Neisseria 3. Some Gram
+ organisms |
|
|
Term
What are major side
effects of Methicillin,
Nafcillin, and Dicloxacillin? |
|
Definition
| Hypersensitivity reactions |
|
|
Term
What are Methicillin,
Nafcillin, and Dicloxacillin
used for clinically? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are Polymyxins used
for? |
|
Definition
Resistant Gram -
infections |
|
|
Term
What are the Anti-TB
drugs? |
|
Definition
Rifampin, Ethambutol,
Streptomycin,
Pyrazinamide, Isoniazid
(INH) |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical
indications for Azole
therapy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the clinical uses
for 1st Generation
Cephalosporins? |
|
Definition
Gram + cocci, Proteus
mirabilis, E. coli, Klebsiella
pneumoniae (PEcK) |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical uses
for 2nd Generation
Cephalosporins? |
|
Definition
Gram + cocci,
Haemophilus influenza,
Enterobacter aerogenes,
Neisseria species, P.
mirabilis, E. coli, K.
pneumoniae, Serratia
marcescens ( HEN PEcKS ) |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical uses
for 3rd Generation
Cephalosporins? |
|
Definition
1) Serious Gram -
infections resistant to
other Beta lactams 2)
Meningitis (most penetrate
the BBB) |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical uses
for Aztreonam? |
|
Definition
Gram - rods: Klebsiella
species, Pseudomonas
species, Serratia species |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical uses
for Imipenem/cilastatin? |
|
Definition
Gram + cocci, Gram -
rods, and Anerobes |
|
|
Term
What are the Macrolides
used for clinically? |
|
Definition
Upper respiratory tract
infections -pneumonias -
STDs: Gram+ cocci
(streptococcal infect in pts
allergic to penicillin) -
Mycoplasma,
Legionella,Chlamydia,
Neisseria |
|
|
Term
What are the major
structural differences
between Penicillin and
Cephalosporin? |
|
Definition
Cephalosporin: 1) has a 6
member ring attached to
the Beta lactam instead of
a 5 member ring 2)has an
extra functional group
( attached to the 6
member ring) |
|
|
Term
What are the major toxic
side effects of Imipenem/
cilastatin? |
|
Definition
GI distress, Skin rash, and
Seizures at high plasma
levels |
|
|
Term
What are the major toxic
side effects of the
Cephalosporins? |
|
Definition
1) Hypersensitivity reactions
2) Increased nephrotoxicity
of Aminoglycosides 3)
Disulfiram-like reaction
with ethanol (those with a
methylthiotetrazole group,
e.g., cefamandole) |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects
of Polymyxins? |
|
Definition
Neurotoxicity, Acute renal
tubular necrosis |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects
of Rifampin? |
|
Definition
Minor hepatotoxicity, Drug
interactions (activates
P450) |
|
|
Term
What are toxic side effects
for Metronidazole? |
|
Definition
Disulfiram-like reaction
with EtOH, Headache |
|
|
Term
What are toxicities
associated with
Chloramphenicol? |
|
Definition
Aplastic anemia (dose
independent), Gray Baby
Syndrome |
|
|
Term
What conditions are
treated with
Metronidazole? |
|
Definition
Giardiasis, Amoebic
dysentery (E. histolytica),
Bacterial vaginitis
(Gardnerella vaginalis),
Trichomonas |
|
|
Term
What do Aminoglycosides
require for uptake? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do you treat
Nematode/roundworm
(pinworm, whipworm)
infections with? |
|
Definition
Mebendazole/
Thiabendazole, Pyrantel
Pamoate |
|
|
Term
What drug is given for
Pneumocystis carinii
prophylaxis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug is used during
the pregnancy of an HIV +
mother?, Why? |
|
Definition
AZT, to reduce risk of Fetal
Transmission |
|
|
Term
What drug is used to treat
Trematode/fluke (e.g.,
Schistosomes,
Paragonimus, Clonorchis)
or Cysticercosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a common drug
interaction associated with
Griseofulvin? |
|
Definition
Increases coumadin
metabolism |
|
|
Term
What is a mnemonic to
remember Amantadine's
function? |
|
Definition
ocks Influenza A and
RubellA; causes problems
with the cerebellA |
|
|
Term
What is a prerequisite for
Acyclovir activation? |
|
Definition
It must be Phosphorylated
by Viral Thymidine Kinase |
|
|
Term
What is a Ribavirin
toxicity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is an acronym to
remember Anti-TB drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is an additional side
effect of Methicillin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is an occasional side
effect of Aztreonam? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Clindamycin used
for clinically? |
|
Definition
Anaerobic infections (e.g.,
B. fragilis, C. perfringens) |
|
|
Term
What is clinical use for
Carbenicillin, Piperacillin,
and Ticarcillin? |
|
Definition
Pseudomonas species and
Gram - rods |
|
|
Term
What is combination TMPSMZ
used to treat? |
|
Definition
Recurrent UTIs, Shigella,
Salmonella, Pneumocystis
carinii pneumonia |
|
|
Term
What is combined with
Ampicillin, Amoxicillin,
Carbenicillin, Piperacillin,
and Ticarcillin to enhance
their spectrum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Fluconazole
specifically used for? |
|
Definition
Cryptococcal meningitis in
AIDS patients and Candidal
infections of all types |
|
|
Term
What is Imipenem always
administered with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Ketoconazole
specifically used for? |
|
Definition
Blastomyces, Coccidioides,
Histoplasma, C. albicans;
Hypercortisolism |
|
|
Term
What is Metronidazole
combined with for 'triple
therapy'? Against what
organism? |
|
Definition
Bismuth and Amoxicillin or
Tetracycline; against
Helobacter pylori |
|
|
Term
What is Metronidazole
used for clinically? |
|
Definition
Antiprotozoal: Giardia,
Entamoeba, Trichomonas,
Gardnerella vaginalis
Anaerobes: Bacteroides,
Clostridium |
|
|
Term
What is Niclosamide used
for? |
|
Definition
Cestode/tapeworm (e.g.,
D. latum, Taenia species
Except Cysticercosis |
|
|
Term
What is Nifurtimox
administered for? |
|
Definition
Chagas' disease, American
Trypanosomiasis
(Trypanosoma cruzi) |
|
|
Term
What is the chemical name
for Ganciclovir? |
|
Definition
DHPG (dihydroxy-2-
propoxymethyl guanine) |
|
|
Term
What is the clinical use for
Ampicillin and Amoxicillin? |
|
Definition
Extended spectrum
penicillin: certain Gram +
bacteria and Gram - rods |
|
|
Term
What is the clinical use for
Nystatin? |
|
Definition
Topical and Oral, for Oral
Candidiasis (Thrush) |
|
|
Term
What is the clinical use for
Penicillin? |
|
Definition
Bactericidal for: Gram +
rod and cocci, Gram -
cocci, and Spirochetes |
|
|
Term
What is the major side
effect for Ampicillin and
Amoxicillin? |
|
Definition
| Hypersensitivity reactions |
|
|
Term
What is the major side
effect for Carbenicillin,
Piperacillin, and Ticarcillin? |
|
Definition
| Hypersensitivity reactions |
|
|
Term
What is the major toxic
side effect of Penicillin? |
|
Definition
| Hypersensitivity reactions |
|
|
Term
What is the memory aid for
subunit distribution of
ribosomal inhibitors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the memory key
for Isoniazid (INH) toxicity? |
|
Definition
INH: Injures Neurons and
Hepatocytes |
|
|
Term
What is the memory key
for Metronidazole's clinical
uses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the memory key
for organisms treated with
Tetracyclines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the memory key
involving the '4 R's of
Rifampin?' |
|
Definition
1. RNA pol inhibitor 2.
Revs up P450 3. Red/
orange body fluids 4.
Rapid resistance if used
alone |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA for
Acyclovir? |
|
Definition
Inhibit viral DNA
polymerase |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA for
Amphotericin B? |
|
Definition
Binds Ergosterol, forms
Membrane Pores that
Disrupt Homeostatis |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA for
Ampicillin and Amoxicillin? |
|
Definition
Same as penicillin.
Extended spectrum
antibiotics |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA for
Carbenicillin, Piperacillin,
and Ticarcillin? |
|
Definition
Same as penicillin.
Extended spectrum
antibiotics |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA for
Clindamycin? |
|
Definition
Blocks Peptide Bond
formation at the 50S
subunit, Bacteriostatic |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA for
Methicillin, Nafcillin, and
Dicloxacillin? |
|
Definition
Same as penicillin. Act as
narrow spectrum
antibiotics |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA for
Metronidazole? |
|
Definition
Forms toxic metabolites in
the bacterial cell,
Bactericidal |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA for
Nystatin? |
|
Definition
Binds ergosterol, Disrupts
fungal membranes |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA for
Rifampin? |
|
Definition
Inhibits DNA dependent
RNA polymerase |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA for the
Aminoglycosides? |
|
Definition
Inhibits formation of
Initiation Complex, causes
misreading of mRNA,
Bactericidal |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA for the
Azoles? |
|
Definition
| Inhibit Ergosterol synthesis |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA for the
Cephalosporins? |
|
Definition
Beta lactams - inhibit cell
wall synthesis, Bactericidal |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA for the
Fluoroquinolones? |
|
Definition
Inhibit DNA Gyrase
(topoisomerase II),
Bactericidal |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA for the
Macrolides? |
|
Definition
Blocks translocation, binds
to the 23S rRNA of the 50S
subunit, Bacteriostatic |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA for the
Tetracyclines? |
|
Definition
Binds 30S subunit and
prevents attachment of
aminoacyl-tRNA,
Bacteriostatic |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA for
Trimethoprim (TMP)? |
|
Definition
Inhibits bacterial
Dihydrofolate Reductase,
Bacteriostatic |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA for
Vancomycin? |
|
Definition
Inhibits cell wall
mucopeptide formation,
Bactericidal |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of
Amantadine? |
|
Definition
Blocks viral penetration/
uncoating; may act to
buffer the pH of the
endosome |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of
Aztreonam? |
|
Definition
Inhibits cell wall synthesis
( binds to PBP3). A
monobactam |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of
Foscarnet? |
|
Definition
Inhibits Viral DNA
polymerase |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of
Ganciclovir? |
|
Definition
Inhibits CMV DNA
polymerase |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of
Griseofulvin? |
|
Definition
Interferes with microtubule
function, disrupts mitosis,
inhibits growth |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of
Imipenem? |
|
Definition
Acts as a wide spectrum
carbapenem |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of
Isoniazid (INH)? |
|
Definition
Decreases synthesis of
Mycolic Acid |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of
Polymyxins? |
|
Definition
Bind cell membrane,
disrupt osmotic
properties, Are Cationc,
Basic and act as
detergents |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of
Ribavirin? |
|
Definition
Inhibits IMP
Dehydrogenase
(competitively), and
therefore blocks Guanine
Nucleotide synthesis |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of the RT
Inhibitors? |
|
Definition
Inhibit RT of HIV and
prevent the incorporation
of viral genome into the
host DNA |
|
|
Term
What is the most common
cause of Pt noncompliance
with Macrolides? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is treated with
Chloroquine, Quinine,
Mefloquine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What microorganisms are
Aminoglycosides
ineffective against? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What microorganisms are
clinical indications for
Tetracycline therapy? |
|
Definition
Vibrio cholerae Acne
Chlamydia Ureaplasma
Urealyticum Mycoplasma
pneumoniae Borrelia
burgdorferi (Lyme's)
Rickettsia Tularemia |
|
|
Term
What microorganisms is
Aztreonam not effective
against? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What musculo-skeletal
side effects in Adults are
associated with
Floroquinolones? |
|
Definition
Tendonitis and Tendon
rupture |
|
|
Term
What neurotransmitter
does Amantadine affect?
How does it influence this
NT? |
|
Definition
Dopamine; causes its
release from intact nerve
terminals |
|
|
Term
What organism is
Imipenem/cilastatin the
Drug of Choice for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What organisms does
Griseofulvin target? |
|
Definition
Dermatophytes (tinea,
ringworm) |
|
|
Term
What parasites are treated
with Pyrantel Pamoate
(more specific)? |
|
Definition
Giant Roundworm
(Ascaris), Hookworm
(Necator/Ancylostoma),
Pinworm (Enterobius) |
|
|
Term
What parasitic condition is
treated with Ivermectin? |
|
Definition
Onchocerciasis ('river
blindness'--rIVER-mectin) |
|
|
Term
What populations are
Floroquinolones
contraindicated in? Why? |
|
Definition
Pregnant women, Children;
because animal studies
show Damage to Cartilage |
|
|
Term
What should not be taken
with Tetracyclines? / Why? |
|
Definition
Milk or Antacids, because
divalent cations inhibit
Tetracycline absorption in
the gut |
|
|
Term
What Sulfonamides are
used for simple UTIs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When is HIV therapy
initiated? |
|
Definition
When pts have Low CD4+
(< 500 cells/cubic mm)
or a High Viral Load |
|
|
Term
When is Rifampin not used
in combination with other
drugs? |
|
Definition
1. Meningococcal carrier
state 2. Chemoprophylaxis
in contacts of children
with H. influenzae type B |
|
|
Term
Where does Griseofulvin
deposit? |
|
Definition
Keratin containing tissues,
e.g., nails |
|
|
Term
Which Aminoglycoside is
used for Bowel Surgery ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antimicrobial
classes inhibit protein
synthesis at the 30S
subunit? (2) |
|
Definition
1) Aminoglycosides =
bactericidal 2)
Tetracyclines =
bacteriostatic |
|
|
Term
Which antimicrobials
inhibit protein synthesis at
the 50S subunit? (4) |
|
Definition
1) Chloramphenical =
bacteriostatic 2)
Erythromycin =
bacteriostatic 3)
Lincomycin = bacteriostatic
4)cLindamycin =
bacteriostatic |
|
|
Term
Which individuals are
predisposed to
Sulfonamide-induced
hemolysis? |
|
Definition
| G6PD deficient individuals |
|
|
Term
Which RT inhibitor causes
Megaloblastic Anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which RT inhibitors cause
a Rash? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which RT inhibitors cause
Lactic Acidosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Tetracycline is used
in patients with renal
failure? / Why? |
|
Definition
Doxycycline, because it is
fecally eliminated |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
B.W. !!!, Ha. Good Luck on
Boards |
|
|
Term
Why are Methicillin,
Nafcillin, and Dicloxacillin
penicillinase resistant? |
|
Definition
Due to the presence of a
bulkier R group |
|
|
Term
Why is Cilastatin
administered with
Imipenem? |
|
Definition
To inhibit renal
Dihydropeptidase I and
decrease Imipenem
inactivation in the renal
tubules |
|
|
Term
List the mechanism,
clinical use, & toxicity
of 5 FU. |
|
Definition
-S-phase anti-metabolite
Pyr analogue -Colon, solid
tumors, & BCC/ -
Irreversible
myelosuppression |
|
|
Term
List the mechanism,
clinical use, & toxicity
of 6 MP. |
|
Definition
-inhibits HGPRT (pur. Syn.)
- Luk, Lymph, |
|
|
Term
List the mechanism,
clinical use, & toxicity
of Bleomycin. |
|
Definition
-DNA intercalator -
testicular &
lymphomas -Pulmonary
fibrosis mild
myelosuppression. |
|
|
Term
List the mechanism,
clinical use, & toxicity
of Busulfan. |
|
Definition
-Alkalates DNA -CML -
Pulmonary fibrosis
hyperpigmentation |
|
|
Term
List the mechanism,
clinical use, & toxicity
of Cisplatin. |
|
Definition
-Alkalating agent -
testicular,bladder,ovary,&a
mp;lung -Nephrotoxicity
& CN VIII damage. |
|
|
Term
List the mechanism,
clinical use, & toxicity
of Cyclophosphamide. |
|
Definition
-Alkalating agent -NHL,
Breast, ovary, & lung.
- Myelosuppression,
& hemorrhagic
cystitis. |
|
|
Term
List the mechanism,
clinical use, & toxicity
of Doxorubicin. |
|
Definition
-DNA intercalator -
Hodgkin's, myeloma,
sarcoma, and solid tumors
-Cardiotoxicity &
alopecia |
|
|
Term
List the mechanism,
clinical use, & toxicity
of Etoposide. |
|
Definition
-Topo II inhibitor(GII
specific) -Oat cell of Lung
& prostate, &
testicular -
Myelosuppression &
GI irritation. |
|
|
Term
List the mechanism,
clinical use, & toxicity
of Methotrexate. |
|
Definition
-S-phase anti-metabolite
folate analogue -Luk,
Lymp, sarc, RA,
&psoriasis / -
Reversible
myelosuppression |
|
|
Term
List the mechanism,
clinical use, & toxicity
of Nitrosureas. |
|
Definition
-Alkalate DNA -Brain
tumors -CNS toxicity |
|
|
Term
List the mechanism,
clinical use, & toxicity
of Paclitaxel. |
|
Definition
-MT polymerization
stabilizer -Ovarian &
breast CA -
Myelosupperession &
hypersensitivity. |
|
|
Term
List the mechanism,
clinical use, & toxicity
of Prednisone. |
|
Definition
-Triggers apoptosis -CLL,
Hodgkin's in MOPP -
Cushing-like syndrome |
|
|
Term
List the mechanism,
clinical use, & toxicity
of Tamoxifen. |
|
Definition
-Estrogen receptor
antagonist -Breast CA -
increased endometrial CA
risk |
|
|
Term
List the mechanism,
clinical use, & toxicity
of Vincristine. |
|
Definition
-MT polymerization
inhibitor(M phase) -MOPP,
lymphoma, Willm's &
choriocarcinoma -
neurotoxicity and
myelosuppression |
|
|
Term
Which cancer drugs effect
nuclear DNA (4)? |
|
Definition
-Alkalating agents
+cisplatin -Doxorubicin
+Dactinomycin -Bleomycin
-Etoposide |
|
|
Term
Which cancer drugs inhibit
nucleotide synthesis(3)? |
|
Definition
- Methotrexate - 5 FU - 6
mercaptopurine |
|
|
Term
Which cancer drugs work
at the level of mRNA(2)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which cancer drugs work
at the level of proteins(2)? |
|
Definition
-Vinca alkaloids(inhibit
MT) -Paclitaxel |
|
|
Term
ACE inhibitors- clinical
use? |
|
Definition
hypertension, CHF,
diabetic renal disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
reduce levels of
Angiotensin II, thereby
preventing the inactivation
of bradykinin (a potent
vasodilator); renin level is
increased |
|
|
Term
| ACE inhibitors- toxicity? |
|
Definition
fetal renal damage,
hyperkalemia, Cough,
Angioedema, Proteinuria,
Taste changes, hypOtension,
Pregnancy problems, Rash,
Increased renin, Lower
Angiotensin II (CAPTOPRIL) |
|
|
Term
Acetazolamide- clinical
uses? |
|
Definition
glaucoma, urinary
alkalinization, metabolic
alkalosis, altitude sickness |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
acts at the proximal
convoluted tubule to
inhibit carbonic anhydrase.
Causes self-limited
sodium bicarb diuresis and
reduction of total body
bicarb stores. |
|
|
Term
acetazolamide- site of
action? |
|
Definition
proximal convoluted
tubule |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
hyperchloremic metabolic
acidosis, neuropathy, NH3
toxicity, sulfa allergy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
ACIDazolamide' causes
acidosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
DOC in diagnosing and
abolishing AV nodal
arrhythmias |
|
|
Term
ADH antagonists- site of
action? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
adverse effect of
Nitroprusside? |
|
Definition
cyanide toxicity (releases
CN) |
|
|
Term
| adverse effects of betablockers? |
|
Definition
impotence, asthma, CV
effects (bradycardia, CHF,
AV block), CNS effects
(sedation, sleep
alterations) |
|
|
Term
adverse effects of
Captopril? |
|
Definition
fetal renal toxicity,
hyperkalemia, Cough,
Angioedema, Proteinuria,
Taste changes, hypOtension,
Pregnancy problems, Rash,
Increased renin, Lower
Angiotensin II (CAPTOPRIL) |
|
|
Term
adverse effects of
Clonidine? |
|
Definition
dry mouth, sedation,
severe rebound
hypertension |
|
|
Term
adverse effects of
ganglionic blockers? |
|
Definition
severe orthostatic
hypotension, blurred
vision, constipation,
sexual dysfunction |
|
|
Term
adverse effects of
Guanethidine? |
|
Definition
orthostatic and exercise
hypotension, sexual
dysfunction, diarrhea |
|
|
Term
adverse effects of
Hydralazine? |
|
Definition
nausea, headache, lupuslike
syndrome, reflex
tachycardia, angina, salt
retention |
|
|
Term
adverse effects of
Hydrochlorothiazide? |
|
Definition
hypokalemia, slight
hyperlipidemia,
hyperuricemia, lassitude,
hypercalcemia,
hyperglycemia |
|
|
Term
adverse effects of Loop
Diuretics? |
|
Definition
K+ wasting, metabolic
alkalosis, hypotension,
ototoxicity |
|
|
Term
adverse effects of
Losartan? |
|
Definition
fetal renal toxicity,
hyperkalemia |
|
|
Term
adverse effects of
Methyldopa? |
|
Definition
sedation, positive Coombs'
test |
|
|
Term
adverse effects of
Minoxidil? |
|
Definition
hypertrichosis, pericardial
effusion, reflex
tachycardia, angina, salt
retention |
|
|
Term
adverse effects of
Nifedipine, verapamil? |
|
Definition
dizziness, flushing,
constipation (verapamil),
nausea |
|
|
Term
adverse effects of
Prazosin? |
|
Definition
first dose orthostatic
hypotension, dizziness,
headache |
|
|
Term
adverse effects of
Reserpine? |
|
Definition
sedation, depression,
nasal stuffiness, diarrhea |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
pulmonary fibrosis, corneal
deposits, hepatotoxicity, skin
deposits resulting in
photodermatitis, neurologic
effects, consitpation, CV
(bradycardia, heart block,
CHF), and hypo- or
hyperthyroidism. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
slowly normalize K+,
lidocaine, cardiac pacer,
and anti-Dig Fab
fragments |
|
|
Term
Beta Blockers- CNS
toxicity? |
|
Definition
| sedation, sleep alterations |
|
|
Term
| Beta Blockers- CV toxicity? |
|
Definition
bradycardia, AV block,
CHF |
|
|
Term
Beta Blockers- site of
action? |
|
Definition
Beta adrenergic receptors
and Ca2+ channels
(stimulatory) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
new arrhythmias,
hypotension |
|
|
Term
Ca2+ channel blockersclinical
use? |
|
Definition
hypertension, angina,
arrhythmias |
|
|
Term
| Ca2+ channel blockersmechanism? |
|
Definition
block voltage dependent
L-type Ca2+ channels of
cardiac and smooth
muscle- decreasing
contractility |
|
|
Term
Ca2+ channel blockerssite
of action? |
|
Definition
Cell membrane Ca2+
channels of cardiac
sarcomere |
|
|
Term
| Ca2+ channel blockerstoxicity? |
|
Definition
cardiac depression,
peripheral edema,
flushing, dizziness,
constipation |
|
|
Term
Ca2+ sensitizers'- site of
action? |
|
Definition
troponin-tropomyosin
system |
|
|
Term
Cautions when using
Amiodarone? |
|
Definition
check PFTs, LFTs, and
TFTs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
increased AP duration,
increased ERP increased
QT interval. Atrial and
ventricular. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
post MI and digitalis
induced arrhythmias |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
decrease AP duration,
affects ischemic or
depolarized Purkinje and
ventricular system |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
local anesthetic. CNS
stimulation or depression.
CV depression. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
NO AP duration effect.
useful in V-tach that
progresses to V-fib and in
intractable SVT LAST
RESORT |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
decrease the slope of
phase 4, increase PR
interval (the AV node is
particularly sensitive) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
blocking the beta
adrenergic receptor leads
to decreased cAMP, and
decreased Ca2+ flux |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
impotence, exacerbation
of asthma, CV effects, CNS
effects, may mask
hypoclycemia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
increase AP duration,
increase ERP, increase QT
interval, for use when
other arrhythmics fail |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
prevention of nodal
arrhythmias (SVT) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
decrease conduction
velocity, increase ERP,
increase PR interval |
|
|
Term
class IV- primary site of
action? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
constipation, flushing,
edema, CV effects (CHF,
AV block, sinus node
depression), and torsade
de pointes (Bepridil) |
|
|
Term
classes of antihypertensive
drugs? |
|
Definition
diuretics,
sympathoplegics,
vasodilators, ACE
inhibitors, Angiotensin II
receptor inhibitors |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
angina, pulmonary edema
(also, erection enhancer) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| *Venodilators (incr VR); effect on contractility? |
|
Definition
| increase (reflex response) |
|
|
Term
| * B-Bl & Ca Ch Bl; effect on contractility? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| * Digoxin contraindications? |
|
Definition
renal failure, hypokalemia,
pt on quinidine |
|
|
Term
| * Can Digoxin be used in renal failure, hypokalemia, pt on quinidine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
decrease Digoxin dose in
renal failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Digitalis- site of action? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Digoxin v. Digitoxin:
bioavailability? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Digoxin v. Digitoxin:
excretion? |
|
Definition
Digoxin=urinary
Digitoxin=biliary |
|
|
Term
Digoxin v. Digitoxin: half
life? |
|
Definition
Digitoxin 168hrs Digoxin
40 hrs |
|
|
Term
Digoxin v. Digitoxin:
protein binding? |
|
Definition
Digitoxin 70% Digoxin
20-40% |
|
|
Term
| * Sympathomim effect on ejection time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| * B-Bl effect on ejection time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inc PR, dec QT, scooping
of ST, and T wave
inversion |
|
|
Term
| * Digitalis effect on end diastolic volume? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| * B-Bl & Ca Ch Bl effect on end diastolic volume? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Esmolol- short or long
acting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ethacrynic Acid- clinical
use? |
|
Definition
Diuresis in pateints with
sulfa allergy |
|
|
Term
| Ethacrynic Acidmechanism? |
|
Definition
not a sulfonamide, but
action is the same as
furosemide |
|
|
Term
| Ethacrynic Acid- toxicity? |
|
Definition
NO HYPERURICEMIA, NO
SULFA ALLERGY; same as
furosemide otherwise |
|
|
Term
Furosemide- class and
mechanism? |
|
Definition
Sulfonamide Loop Diuretic.
Inhibits ion co-transport
system of thick ascending
loop. Abolishes
hypertonicity of the
medulla, thereby preventing
concentration of the urine. |
|
|
Term
| Furosemide- clinical use? |
|
Definition
edematous states (CHF,
cirrhosis, nephrotic
syndrome, pulm edema),
HTN, hypercalcemia |
|
|
Term
Furosemide- toxicity? (OH
DANG) |
|
Definition
Ototoxicity, Hypokalemia,
Dehydration, Allergy
(sulfa), Nephritis
(interstitial), Gout |
|
|
Term
Furosemide increases the
excretion of what ion? |
|
Definition
| Ca2+ (Loops Lose calcium) |
|
|
Term
| * Cholestyramine on HDL effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| * Fibrates on HDL effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
decrease myocardial O2
consumption by: 1-
decreasing end diastolic
volume 2- decreasing BP
3- decreasing HR 4-
decreasing contractility 5-
decreasing ejection time |
|
|
Term
| * Nitrate, Nifidepine, Hydralazine effect HR? |
|
Definition
| increase (reflex response) |
|
|
Term
| * B-Bl, Verapamil effect on HR? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hydralazine- class and
mechanism? |
|
Definition
vasodilator- increases
cGMP to induce smooth
muscle relaxation
(arterioles>veins;
afterload reduction) |
|
|
Term
| Hydralazine- clinical use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
compensatory tachycardia,
fluid retention, lupus-like
syndrome |
|
|
Term
Hydrochlorothiazideclinical
use? |
|
Definition
HTN, CHF, calcium stone
formation, nephrogenic DI. |
|
|
Term
| Hydrochlorothiazidemechanism? |
|
Definition
Inhibits NaCl reabsorption
in the early distal tubule.
Decreases Ca2+ excretion. |
|
|
Term
Hydrochlorothiazidetoxicity?
(hyperGLUC, plus
others) |
|
Definition
Hypokalemic metabolic
alkalosis, hyponatremia,
hyperGlycemia,
hyperLipidemia,
hyperUricemia,
hyperCalcemia, sulfa
allergy. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
depresses ectopic
pacemakers, especially in
digoxin toxicity |
|
|
Term
K+ sparing diureticsclinical
use? |
|
Definition
hyperaldosteronism, K+
depletion, CHF |
|
|
Term
K+ sparing diuretics- site
of action? |
|
Definition
| cortical collecting tubule |
|
|
Term
| K+ sparing diureticstoxicity? |
|
Definition
hyperkalemia, endocrine
effects (gynecomastia,
anti-androgen) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| * Bile Acid Resins on LDL effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| * Cholesterol Absorption Blocker on LDL effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| * Fibrates on LDL effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
loop diuretics
(furosemide)- site of
action? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
ARF, shock, drug
overdose, decrease
intracranial/intraocular
pressure |
|
|
Term
| Mannitolcontraindications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
osmotic diuretic- increase
tubular fluid osmolarity,
thereby increasing urine
flow |
|
|
Term
| mannitol- site of action? |
|
Definition
proximal convoluted
tubule, thin descending
limb, and collecting duct |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
pulmonary edema,
dehydration |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
vasodilate by releasing NO
in smooth muscle, causing
and increase in cGMP and
smooth muscle relaxation
(veins>>arteries) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inhibits the Na/K ATPase,
increasing intracellular Na
+ decreasing the function
of the Na/Ca antiport
causing an increase in
intracellular Ca2+ |
|
|
Term
| * Class I (?); mechanism? |
|
Definition
Na+ channel blockers.
Slow or block conduction.
Decreased slope in phase
4 and increased threshold
for firing in abnormal
pacemaker cells. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
effective in torsade de
pointes and digoxin
toxicity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| * Ca Ch Bl effect on MVO2? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
propanolol, esmolol,
metoprolol, atenolol,
timolol |
|
|
Term
name four HMG-CoA
reductase inhibitors. |
|
Definition
Lovastatin, Pravastatin,
Simvastatin, Atorvastatin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Quinidine,
Procainamide,
Disopyramide |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Sotalol, Ibutilide,
Bretylium, Amiodarone |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Captopril, Enalapril,
Lisinopril |
|
|
Term
name three calcium
channel blockers? |
|
Definition
Nifedipine, Verapamil,
Diltiazem |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Lidocaine, Mexiletine,
Tocainide |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Flecainide, Encainide,
Propafenone |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Verapamil, Diltiazem,
Bepridil |
|
|
Term
name three K+ sparing
diuretics? |
|
Definition
Spironolactone,
Triamterene, Amiloride
(the K+ STAys) |
|
|
Term
| name two bile acid resins. |
|
Definition
| cholestyramine, colestipol |
|
|
Term
| name two LPL stimulators. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Nifedipine has similar
action to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
preferential action of the
Ca2+ channel blockers at
cardiac muscle? |
|
Definition
cardiac muscle:
Verapamil>Diltiazem>
;Nifedipine |
|
|
Term
preferential action of the
Ca2+ channel blockers at
vascular smooth muscle? |
|
Definition
vascular sm. Mus.:
Nifedipine>Diltiazem&g
t;Verapamil |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
reversible SLE-like
syndrome |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
cinchonism: HA, tinnitus,
thrombocytopenia, torsade
de pointes due to
increased QT interval |
|
|
Term
| Ryanodine- stie of action? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
slectively depress tissue
that is frequently
depolarized (fast
tachycardia) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
tastes bad and causes GI
discomfort |
|
|
Term
| * Statins; side effects/problems? |
|
Definition
expensive, reversible
increase in LFTs, and
myositis |
|
|
Term
| * Niacin; side effects/problems? |
|
Definition
red, flushed face which is
decreased by ASA or long
term use |
|
|
Term
| * Statins; side effects/problems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
torsade de pointes,
excessive Beta block |
|
|
Term
| Spironolactone mechanism? |
|
Definition
competitive inhibirot of
aldosterone in the cortical
collecting tubule |
|
|
Term
| * Cholestyramine; TG effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| * HMGCoA inhib; TG effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| * Cholesterol Absorption Blockers; TG effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| thiazides- site of action? |
|
Definition
distal convoluted tubule
(early) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
tachycardia, hypotension,
headache - 'Monday
disease' |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
nausea, vomiting,
diarrhea, blurred vision,
arrhythmia |
|
|
Term
Triamterene and
amiloride- mechanism? |
|
Definition
block Na+ channels in the
cortical collecting tubule |
|
|
Term
Verapamil has similar
action to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what two vasodilators
require simultaneous
treatment with beta
blockers to prevent reflex
tachycardia and diuretics
to prevent salt retention? |
|
Definition
| Hydralazine and Minoxidil |
|
|
Term
which diuretics cause
acidosis? |
|
Definition
carbonic anhydrase
inhibitors, K+ sparing
diuretics |
|
|
Term
which diuretics cause
alkalosis? |
|
Definition
| loop diuretics, thiazides |
|
|
Term
which diuretics decrease
urine Ca2+? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which diuretics increase
urine Ca2+? |
|
Definition
loop diuretics,
spironolactone |
|
|
Term
which diuretics increase
urine K+? |
|
Definition
all except the K+ sparing
diuretics Spironolactone,
Triamterene, Amiloride |
|
|
Term
which diuretics increase
urine NaCl? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acetaminophen has what
two clinical uses and lacks
what one clinical use of
the NSAIDs? |
|
Definition
Acetaminophen has
antipyretic and analgesic
properties, but lacks antiinflammatory
properties. |
|
|
Term
Can Heparin be used
during pregnancy? |
|
Definition
Yes, it does not cross the
placenta. |
|
|
Term
Can Warfarin be used
during pregnancy? |
|
Definition
No, warfarin, unlike
heparin, can cross the
placenta. |
|
|
Term
Does Heparin have a long,
medium, or short half life? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does Warfarin have a long,
medium, or short half life? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For Heparin what is the 1.
Structure 2. Route of
administration 3. Onset of action
4. Mechanism of action 5.
Duration of action 6. Ability to
inhibit coagulation in vitro 7.
Treatment for overdose 8. Lab
value to monitor 9. Site of action |
|
Definition
Heparin 1. Structure - Large anionic
polymer, acidic 2. Route of administration
- Paranteral (IV, SC) 3. Onset of action -
Rapid (seconds) 4. Mechanism of action -
Activates antithrombin III 5. Duration of
action - Acute (hours) 6. Ability to inhibit
coagulation in vitro - Yes 7. Treatment for
overdose - Protamine sulfate 8. Lab value
to monitor-aPTT (intrinsic pathway) 9.
Site of action - Blood |
|
|
Term
For Warfarin what is the 1.
Structure 2. Route of
administration 3. Onset of action
4. Mechanism of action 5.
Duration of action 6. Ability to
inhibit coagulation in vitro 7.
Treatment for overdose 8. Lab
value to monitor 9. Site of action |
|
Definition
Warfarin 1. Structure - Small lipidsoluble
molecule 2. Route of
administration -Oral 3. Onset of action
- Slow, limited by half lives of clotting
factors 4. Mechanism of action -
Impairs the synthesis of vitamin Kdependent
clotting factors 5. Duration
of action - Chronic (weeks or months)
6. Ability to inhibit coagulation in vitro
- No |
|
|
Term
For Warfarin what is the
(continued): |
|
Definition
7. Treatment for overdose
- IV vitamin K and fresh
frozen plasma 8. Lab value
to monitor - PT 9. Site of
action - Liver |
|
|
Term
Is toxicity rare or common
whith Cromolyn used in
Asthma prevention? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List five common
glucocorticoids. |
|
Definition
1. Hydrocortisone 2.
Predisone 3.
Triamcinolone 4.
Dexamethasone 5.
Beclomethasone |
|
|
Term
Secretion of what drug is
inhibited by Probenacid
used to treat chronic gout? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The COX-2 inhibitors
(celecoxib, rofecoxib) have
similar side effects to the
NSAIDs with what one
exception? |
|
Definition
The COX-2 inhibitors
should not have the
corrosive effects of other
NSAIDs on the
gastrointestinal lining. |
|
|
Term
What are are the
Sulfonylureas (general
description) and what is
their use? |
|
Definition
Sulfonylureas are oral
hypoglycemic agents, they
are used to stimulate
release of endogenous
insulin in NIDDM (type-2). |
|
|
Term
What are five advantages
of Oral Contraceptives
(synthetic progestins,
estrogen)? |
|
Definition
1. Reliable (<1% failure) 2.
Lowers risk of endometrial
and ovarian cancer 3.
Decreased incidence of
ectopic pregnancy 4. Lower
risk of pelvic infections 5.
Regulation of menses |
|
|
Term
What are five
disadvantages of Oral
Contraceptives (synthetic
progestins, estrogen)? |
|
Definition
1. Taken daily 2. No
protection against STDs 3.
Raises triglycerides 4.
Depression, weight gain,
nausea, HTN 5.
Hypercoagulable state |
|
|
Term
What are five possible
toxic effects of Aspirin
therapy? |
|
Definition
1. Gastric ulceration 2.
Bleeding 3.
Hyperventilation 4. Reye's
syndrome 5. Tinnitus (CN
VIII) |
|
|
Term
What are five toxicities
associated with Tacrolimus
(FK506)? |
|
Definition
1. Significant:
nephrotoxicity 2.
Peripheral neuropathy 3.
Hypertension 4. Pleural
effusion 5. Hyperglycemia. |
|
|
Term
What are four advantages
of newer low-molecularweight
heparins
(Enoxaparin)? |
|
Definition
1. Better bioavailability 2.
2 to 4 times longer half
life 3. Can be administered
subcutaneously 4. Does
not require laboratory
monitoring |
|
|
Term
What are four clinical
activities of Aspirin? |
|
Definition
1. Antipyretic 2. Analgesic
3. Anti-inflammatory 4.
Antiplatelet drug. |
|
|
Term
What are four clinical uses
of glucocorticoids? |
|
Definition
1. Addison's disease 2.
Inflammation 3. Immune
suppression 4. Asthma |
|
|
Term
What are four conditions in
which H2 Blockers are
used clinically? |
|
Definition
1. Peptic ulcer 2. Gastritis
3. Esophageal reflux 4.
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What are four H2 Blockers? |
|
Definition
1. Cimetadine 2. Ranitidine
3. Famotidine 4. Nizatidine |
|
|
Term
What are four
Sulfonylureas? |
|
Definition
1. Tolbutamide 2.
Chlorpropamide 3.
Glyburide 4. Glipizide |
|
|
Term
What are four
thrombolytics? |
|
Definition
1. Streptokinase 2.
Urokinase 3. tPA
(alteplase), APSAC
(anistreplase) |
|
|
Term
What are four unwanted
effects of Clomiphene use? |
|
Definition
1. Hot flashes 2. Ovarian
enlargement 3. Multiple
simultaneous pregnancies
4. Visual disturbances |
|
|
Term
What are nine findings of
Iatrogenic Cushing's
syndrome caused by
glucocorticoid therapy? |
|
Definition
1. Buffalo hump 2. Moon
facies 3. Truncal obesity 4.
Muscle wasting 5. Thin
skin 6. Easy bruisability 7.
Osteoporosis 8.
Adrenocortical atrophy 9.
Peptic ulcers |
|
|
Term
What are signs of Sildenafil
(Viagra) toxicity? |
|
Definition
Headache, flushing ,
dyspepsia, blue-green
color vision. |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical uses
for Ticlopidine,
Clopidogrel? |
|
Definition
Acute coronary syndrome;
coronary stenting.
Decreases the incidence or
recurrence of thrombotic
stroke. |
|
|
Term
What are the four
conditions in which
Omeprazole, Lansoprazole
is used? |
|
Definition
1. Peptic ulcer 2. Gastritis
3. Esophageal reflux 4.
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome |
|
|
Term
What are three clinical
uses of the Leuprolide? |
|
Definition
1. Infertility (pulsatile) 2.
Prostate cancer
(continuous: use with
flutamide) 3. Uterine
fibroids |
|
|
Term
What are three clinical
uses of the NSAIDs? |
|
Definition
1. Antipyretic 2. Analgesic
3. Anti-inflammatory |
|
|
Term
What are three common
NSAIDS other than Aspirin? |
|
Definition
Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and
Indomethacin |
|
|
Term
What are three
complications of Warfarin
usage? |
|
Definition
1. Bleeding 2.
Teratogenicity 3. Drugdrug
interactions |
|
|
Term
What are three possible
complications of Heparin
therapy? |
|
Definition
1. Bleeding 2.
Thrombocytopenia 3.
Drug-drug interactions |
|
|
Term
What are three possible
toxicities of NSAID usage? |
|
Definition
1. Renal damage 2.
Aplastic anemia 3. GI
distress |
|
|
Term
What are three toxicities of
Leuprolied? |
|
Definition
1. Antiandrogen 2. Nausea
3. Vomiting |
|
|
Term
What are three toxicities of
Propylthiouracil? |
|
Definition
1. Skin rash 2.
Agranulocytosis (rare) 3.
Aplastic anemia |
|
|
Term
What are three types of
antacids and the problems
that can result from their
overuse? |
|
Definition
1. Aluminum hydroxide:
constipation and
hypophosphatemia 2.
Magnesium hydroxide:
diarrhea 3. Calcium
carbonate: Hypercalcemia,
rebound acid increase - All
may cause hypokalemia |
|
|
Term
What are three unwanted
effects of Mifepristone? |
|
Definition
1. Heavy bleeding 2. GI
effects (n/v, anorexia) 3.
Abdominal pain |
|
|
Term
What are two Alphaglucosidase
inhibitors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are two clinical uses
of Azathioprine? |
|
Definition
1. Kidney transplantation
2. Autoimmune disorders
(including
glomerulonephritis and
hemolytic anemia) |
|
|
Term
What are two conditions in
which COX-2 inhibitors
might be used? |
|
Definition
Rheumatoid and
osteoarthritis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. Pioglitazone 2.
Rosiglitazone. |
|
|
Term
What are two mechanisms
of action of
Propythiouracil? |
|
Definition
Inhibits organification and
coupling of thyroid
hormone synthesis. Also
decreases peripheral
conversion of T4 to T3. |
|
|
Term
What are two processes
Corticosteroids inhibit
leading to decreased
inflammation? |
|
Definition
1. Phospholipase A2 is
prevented from releasing
arachidonic acid 2.
Decreases protein
synthesis thus lowering
amount of Cyclooxygenase
enzymes |
|
|
Term
What are two toxicities
associated with
Cyclosporine? |
|
Definition
1. Predisposes to viral
infections and lymphoma
2. Nephrotoxic
(preventable with mannitol
diuresis) |
|
|
Term
What are two toxicities of
the Glitazones? |
|
Definition
1. Weight gain 2.
Hepatotoxicity
(troglitazone) |
|
|
Term
What are two toxicities of
the Sulfonylureas? |
|
Definition
1. Hypoglycemia (more
common with 2ndgeneration
drugs:
glyburide, glipizide) 2.
Disulfiram-like effects (not
seen with 2nd-generation
drugs). |
|
|
Term
What are two types of
drugs that interfere with
the action of Sucralfate
and why? |
|
Definition
Sucralfate cannot work in
the presence of antacids
or H2 blockers because it
requires an acidic
environment to
polymerize. |
|
|
Term
What can result due to
antacid overuse? |
|
Definition
Can affect absorption,
bioavailability, or urinary
excretion of other drugs
by altering gastric and
urinary pH or by delaying
gastric emptying. |
|
|
Term
What enzyme does
Zileuton inhibit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What enzymes are
inhibited by NSAIDs,
acetaminophen and COX II
inhibitors? |
|
Definition
Cyclooxygenases (COX I,
COX II). |
|
|
Term
What is a common side
effect of Colchicine used
to treat acute gout,
especially when given
orally? |
|
Definition
GI side effects. (Note:
Indomethacin is less toxic,
more commonly used.) |
|
|
Term
What is a common side
effect of Misoprostol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a possible result of
overdose of
Acetaminophen? |
|
Definition
Overdose produces
hepatic necrosis;
acetaminophen
metablolite depletes
glutathione and forms
toxic tissue adducts in
liver. |
|
|
Term
What is a possible toxicity
of Alpha-glucosidase
inhibitors used in type-2
diabetes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a possible toxicity
of Ticlopidine, Clopidogrel
usage? |
|
Definition
Neutropenia (ticlopidine);
reserved for those who
cannot tolerate aspirin. |
|
|
Term
What is a sign of toxicity
with the use of
thrombolytics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is action of insulin in
the liver, in muscle, and in
adipose tissue? |
|
Definition
1. In liver, increases storage
of glucose as glycogen. 2. In
muscle, stimulates glycogen
and protein synthesis, and K
+ uptake. 3. In adipose
tissue, facilitates
triglyceride storage. |
|
|
Term
What is are two clinical
uses of Cyclosporine? |
|
Definition
1. Suppresses organ
rejection after
transplantation 2. Selected
autoimmune disorders. |
|
|
Term
What is the category and
mechanism of action of
Zafirlukast in Asthma
treatment? |
|
Definition
Antileukotriene; blocks
leukotriene receptors. |
|
|
Term
What is the category and
mechanism of action of
Zileuton in Asthma
treatment? |
|
Definition
Antileukotriene; blocks
synthesis by lipoxygenase. |
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
ane (e.g. Halothane) |
|
Definition
Inhalational general
anesthetic. |
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
azepam (e.g. Diazepam) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
azine (e.g.
Chlorpromazine) |
|
Definition
Phenothiazine
(neuroleptic, antiemetic). |
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
azol (e.g. Ketoconazole) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
barbital (e.g.
Phenobarbital) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
caine (e.g. Lidocaine) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
cillin (e.g. Methicillin) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
cycline (e.g. Tetracycline) |
|
Definition
Antibiotic, protein
synthesis inhibitor. |
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
ipramine (e.g. Imipramine) |
|
Definition
| Tricyclic antidepressant. |
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
navir (e.g. Saquinavir) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
olol (e.g. Propranolol) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
operidol (e.g. Haloperidol) |
|
Definition
Butyrophenone
(neuroleptic). |
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
oxin (e.g. Digoxin) |
|
Definition
Cardiac glycoside
(inotropic agent). |
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
phylline (e.g. Theophylline) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -pril
(e.g. Captopril) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
terol (e.g. Albuterol) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
tidine (e.g. Cimetidine) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
triptyline (e.g.
Amitriptyline) |
|
Definition
| Tricyclic antidepressant. |
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
tropin (e.g. Somatotropin) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the category of
drug names ending in -
zosin (e.g. Prazosin) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the category,
desired effect, and adverse
effect of Isoproterenol in
the treatment of Asthma? |
|
Definition
Nonspecific beta-agonist;
desired effect is the
relaxation of bronchial
smooth muscle (Beta 2).
Adverse effect is
tachycardia (Beta 1). |
|
|
Term
What is the category,
desired effect, and period
of use of albuterol in the
treatment of Asthma? |
|
Definition
Beta 2 agonist; desired
effect is the relaxation of
bronchial smooth muscle
(Beta 2). Use during acute
exacerbation. |
|
|
Term
What is the category,
desired effect, and
possible mechanism of
Theophylline in treating
Asthma? |
|
Definition
Methylzanthine; desired
effect is bronchodilation,
may cause bronchodilation
by inhibiting
phosphodiesterase, enzyme
involved in degrading cAMP
(controversial). |
|
|
Term
What is the category,
mechanism of action, and
effect of Ipratroprium in
Asthma treatment? |
|
Definition
Muscarinic antagonist;
competatively blocks
muscarinic receptors,
preventing
bronchoconstriction. |
|
|
Term
What is the category,
mechanism of action, and
particular use of
beclomethasone and
prednisone in Asthma
treatment? |
|
Definition
Corticosteroids; prevent
production of leukotrienes
from arachodonic acid by
blocking phospholipase A2.
Drugs of choice in a patient
with status asthmaticus (in
combination with albuterol.) |
|
|
Term
What is the category,
method of use, and
adverse effects of
Salmeterol in Asthma
treatment? |
|
Definition
Beta 2 agonist; used as a
long-acting agent for
prophylaxis. Adverse
effects are tremor and
arrhythmia. |
|
|
Term
What is the clincial use for
Misoprostol? |
|
Definition
Prevention of NSAIDinduced
peptic ulcers,
maintains a PDA. |
|
|
Term
What is the clinical use for
Clomiphene? |
|
Definition
| Treatment of infertility. |
|
|
Term
What is the clinical use for
Heparin? |
|
Definition
Immediate anticoagulation
for PE, stroke, angina, MI,
DVT. |
|
|
Term
What is the clinical use for
Sildenafil (Viagra)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the clinical use for
Sucralfate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the clinical use for
Warfarin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the clinical use of
Mifepristone (RU486)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the clinical use of
Tacrolimus (FK506)? |
|
Definition
Potent immunosuppressive
used in organ transplant
recipients. |
|
|
Term
What is the effect of the
Glitazones in diabetes
treatment? |
|
Definition
Increase target cell
response to insulin. |
|
|
Term
What is the enzyme
inhibited, the effect of this
inhibition, and the clinical
use of the antiandrogren
Finasteride? |
|
Definition
Finasteride inhibits 5
Alpha-reductase, this
decreases the conversion
of testosterone to
dihydrotestosterone,
useful in BPH |
|
|
Term
What is the lab value used
to monitor the
effectiveness of Heparin
therapy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the lab value used
to monitor the
effectiveness of Warfarin
therapy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the main clinical
use for the thrombolytics? |
|
Definition
Early myocardial
infarction. |
|
|
Term
What is the mecanism of
action of Sucralfate? |
|
Definition
Aluminum sucrose sulfate
polymerizes in the acid
environment of the
stomach and selectively
binds necrotic peptic ulcer
tissue. Acts as a barrier to
acid, pepsin, and bile. |
|
|
Term
What is the mecanism of
action of the COX-2
inhibitors (celecoxib,
rofecoxib)? |
|
Definition
Selectively inhibit
cyclooxygenase (COX)
isoform 2, which is found in
inflammatory cells nad
mediates inflammation and
pain; spares COX-1 which
helps maintain the gastric
mucosa. |
|
|
Term
What is the mecanism of
action, effective period,
and ineffective period of
use for Cromolyn in
treating Asthma? |
|
Definition
Prevents release of
mediators from mast cells.
Effective only for the
prophylaxis of asthma. Not
effective during an acute
attack. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action and clinical use of
the antiandrogen
Flutamide? |
|
Definition
Flutamide is a nonsteroidal
competitive inhibitor of
androgens at the
testosterone receptor,
used in prostate
carcinoma. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action and clinical use of
the antiandrogens
Ketoconazole and
Spironolactone? |
|
Definition
Inhibit steroid synthesis,
used in the treatment of
polycystic ovarian
syndrome to prevent
hirsutism. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of Acetaminophen? |
|
Definition
Reversibly inhibits
cyclooxygenase, mostly in
CNS. Inactivated
peripherally. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of Allopurinol used
to treat chronic gout? |
|
Definition
Inhibits xanthine oxidase,
decresing conversion of
xanthine to uric acid. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of Aspirin? |
|
Definition
Acetylates and irreversibly
inhibits cyclooxygenase
(COX I and COX II) to
prevent the conversion of
arachidonic acid to
prostaglandins. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of Clomiphene? |
|
Definition
Clomiphene is a partial
agonist at estrogen receptors
in the pituitary gland.
Prevents normal feedback
inhibition and increses
release of LH and FSHfrom
the pituitary, which
stimulates ovulation. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of Colchicine used
to treat acute gout? |
|
Definition
Depolymerizes
microtubules, impairing
leukocyte chemotaxis and
degranulation. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of Cyclosporine? |
|
Definition
Binds to cyclophilins
(peptidyl proline cis-trans
isomerase), blocking the
differentiation and
activation of T cells mainly
by inhibiting the production
of IL-2 and its receptor. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of Heparin? |
|
Definition
Heparin catalyzes the
activation of antithrombin
III. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of Mifepristone
(RU486)? |
|
Definition
Competitive inibitor of
progestins at progesterone
receptors. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of Misoprostol? |
|
Definition
Misoprostol is a PGE1
analog that increases the
production and secretion
of the gastic mucous
barrier. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of NSAIDs other
than Aspirin? |
|
Definition
Reversibly inhibit
cyclooxygenase (COX I and
COX II). Block
prostaglandin synthesis. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of Omeprazole,
Lansoprazole? |
|
Definition
Irreversibly inhibits H+/K+
ATPase in stomach parietal
cells. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of Probenacid used
to treat chronic gout? |
|
Definition
Inhibits reabsorption of
uric acid. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of Colchicine used
to treat acute gout? |
|
Definition
Depolymerizes
microtubules, impairing
leukocyte chemotaxis and
degranulation. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of Sildenafil
(Viagra)? |
|
Definition
Inhibits cGMP
phosphodiesterase,
casuing increased cGMP,
smooth muscle relaxation
in the corpus cavernosum,
increased blood flow, and
penile erection. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of the Alphaglucosidase
inhibitors? |
|
Definition
Inhibit intestinal bursh
border Alpha-glucosidases;
delayed hydrolysis of
sugars and absorption of
sugars leading to decresed
postprandial
hyperglycemia. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of the
glucocorticoids? |
|
Definition
Decrease the production of
leukotrienes and
protaglandins by inhibiting
phospholipase A2 and
expression of COX-2. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of the H2 Blockers? |
|
Definition
Reversible block of
histamine H2 receptors |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of the
Sulfonylureas? |
|
Definition
Close K+ channels in
Beta-cell membrane
leading to cell
depolarization causing
insulin release triggered
by increase in Calcium ion
influx. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of the
thrombolytics? |
|
Definition
Directly of indirectly aid
conversion of plasminogen to
plasmin which cleaves
thrombin and fibrin clots. (It
is claimed that tPA
specifically converts fibrinbound
plasminogen to
plasmin.) |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of Ticlopidine,
Clopidogrel |
|
Definition
Inhibits platelet
aggregation by irreversibly
inhibiting the ADP pathway
involved in the binding of
fibrinogen. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
action of Warfarin
(Coumadin)? |
|
Definition
Warfarin interferes with
the normal synthesis and
gamma-carboxylation of
vitamin K-dependent
clotting factors II, VII, IX,
and X, Protein C and S via
vitamin K antagonism. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
Azathioprine? |
|
Definition
Antimetabolite derivative
of 6-mercaptopurine that
interferes with the
metablolism and synthesis
of nucleic acid. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
Leuprolide? |
|
Definition
GnRH analog with agonist
properties when used in
pulsatile fashion and
antagonist properties when
used in continuous fashion,
causing a transient initial
burst of LH and FSH |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of
Tacrolimus (FK506)? |
|
Definition
Similar to cyclosporine;
binds to FK-binding
protein, inhibiting
secretion of IL-2 and other
cytokines. |
|
|
Term
What is the memory key
for the action of Sildenafil
(Viagra)? |
|
Definition
| Sildenafil fills the penis |
|
|
Term
What is the memory key
for the effect of aluminum
hydroxide overuse? |
|
Definition
AluMINIMUM amount of
feces. |
|
|
Term
What is the memory key
for the effect of
magnesium hydroxide
overuse? |
|
Definition
Mg = Must go to the
bathroom. |
|
|
Term
What is the memory key to
remember which pathway
(extrinsic vs. intrinsic) and
which lab value Warfarin
affects? |
|
Definition
WEPT: Warfarin affects the
Extrinsic pathway and
prolongs the PT. |
|
|
Term
What is the possible
mechanism and effect of
Metformin in treating
diabetes? |
|
Definition
Mechanism unknown;
possibly inhibits
gluconeogenesis and
increases glycolysis; effect
is to decrease serum
glucose levels |
|
|
Term
What is the specific clinical
use of Indomethacin in
neonates? |
|
Definition
Indomethacin is used to
close a patent ductus
arteriosus. |
|
|
Term
What is used to reverse the
action of Heparin? |
|
Definition
Protamine Sulfate is used
for rapid reversal of
heparinization (positively
charged molecule that
binds to negatively
charged heparin). |
|
|
Term
What patients are at risk
for life threatening
hypotension when taking
Sildenafil (Viagra)? |
|
Definition
Those patients who are
taking nitrates. |
|
|
Term
What process does
Zafirlukast interfere with? |
|
Definition
Leukotrienes increasing
bronchial tone. |
|
|
Term
What type of gout is
treated with Allopurinol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of gout is
treated with Colchicine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of gout is
treated with Probenacid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of patient
should not take
Misoprostol and why? |
|
Definition
Misoprostol is
contraindicated in women
of childbearing potential
because it is an
abortifacient. |
|
|
Term
Which H2 Blocker has the
most toxic effects and
what are they? |
|
Definition
Cimetidine is a potent
inhibitor of P450; it also has
an antiandrogenic effect and
decreases renal excretion of
creatinine. Other H2
blockers are relatively free
of these effects. |
|
|
Term
Why are the Sulfonylureas
inactive in IDDM (type-1)? |
|
Definition
Because they require some
residual islet function. |
|
|
Term
Acetaldehyde is
metabolized by
Acetaldehyde
dehydrogenase, which
drug inhibs this enzyme? |
|
Definition
-Disulfram & also
sulfonylureas,
metronidazole |
|
|
Term
Explain pH dependent
urinary drug elimination? |
|
Definition
-Weak Acids>Alkinalize
urine(CO3) to remove
more -Weak
bases>acidify urine to
remove more |
|
|
Term
How do you treat coma in
the ER (4)? |
|
Definition
-Airway -Breathing -
Circulation -Dextrose
(thiamine &narcan) -
ABCD |
|
|
Term
In coma situations you rule
out what (7)? |
|
Definition
-Infections -Trauma -
Seizures -CO -Overdose -
Metabolic -Alcohol (IT'S
COMA) |
|
|
Term
List some specifics of lead
poisoning(4)? |
|
Definition
-A57Blue lines in
gingiva& long bones
-Encephalopathy &
Foot drop -Abdominal
colic / -Sideroblastic
anemia |
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin:
Acetaminophen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin:
Amphetamine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin:
Anticholinesterases
(organophosphate.) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin:
Antimuscarinic
(anticholinergic) |
|
Definition
| -Physostigmine salicylate |
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin: Arsenic (all
heavy metals) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin:
Benzodiazepines |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin: Beta
Blockers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin: Carbon
monoxide |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin: Copper |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin: Cyanide |
|
Definition
-Nitrate,
hydroxocobalamin
thiosulfate |
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin: Digitalis |
|
Definition
-Normalize K+, Lidocaine,
& Anti-dig Mab |
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin: Heparin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin: Iron |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin: Lead |
|
Definition
-EDTA, dimercaprol,
succimer, &
penicillamine |
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin: Methanol
& Ethylene glycol |
|
Definition
-Ethanol, dialysis, &
fomepizole |
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin:
Methemoglobin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin: Opioids |
|
Definition
-B51Naloxone /
naltrexone (Narcan) |
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin: Salicylates |
|
Definition
-Alkalinize urine &
dialysis |
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin: TPA &
Streptokinase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin: Tricyclic
antidepressants |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List the specific antidote
for this toxin: Warfarin |
|
Definition
-Vitamin K & fresh
frozen plasma |
|
|
Term
What are the products and
their toxicities of the
metabolism of ethanol by
/ alcohol dehydrogenase? |
|
Definition
-Acetaldehyde -Nausea,
vomiting, headache,
& hypotension |
|
|
Term
What are the products and
their toxicities of the
metabolism of Ethylene
Glycol by / alcohol
dehydrogenase? |
|
Definition
-Oxalic acid -Acidosis
& nephrotoxicity |
|
|
Term
What are the products and
their toxicities of the
metabolism of Methanol
by / alcohol
dehydrogenase? |
|
Definition
-Formaldehyde &
formic acid -severe
acidosis & retinal
damage |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Adrenocortical
Insufficiency |
|
Definition
| -Glucocorticoid withdrawal |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Agranulocytosis
(3)? |
|
Definition
-Cloazapine -
carbamazapine -colchicine
-PTU |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Anaphylaxis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Aplastic anemia
(5)? |
|
Definition
-Chloramphenicol -
benzene -NSAIDS -PTU -
phenytoin |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Atropine-like
side effects? |
|
Definition
| -Tricyclic antidepressants |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Cardiac toxicity? |
|
Definition
-Daunorubicin &
Doxorubicin |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Cinchonism (2)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Cough? |
|
Definition
-ACE inhibitors
(Losartan>no cough) |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Cutaneous
flushing (4)? |
|
Definition
-Niacin -Ca++ channel
blockers -adenosine -
vancomycin |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Diabetes
insipidus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Disulfram-like
reaction (4) ? |
|
Definition
-Metronidazole -certain
cephalosporins -
procarbazine -
sulfonylureas |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Drug induced
Parkinson's (4) ? |
|
Definition
-Haloperidol -
chlorpromazine -reserpine
-MPTP |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Extrapyramidal
side effects (3)? |
|
Definition
-Chlorpromazine -
thioridazine -haloperidol |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Fanconi's
syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Focal to massive
hepatic necrosis (4)? |
|
Definition
-Halothane -Valproic acid
-acetaminophen -Amantia
phalloides |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: G6PD hemolysis
(8)? |
|
Definition
-Sulfonamides -INH -ASA
-Ibuprofen -primaquine -
nitrofurantoin /-
pyrimethamine -
chloramphenicol |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Gingival
hyperplasia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Gray baby
syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Gynecomastia (6)
? |
|
Definition
-Cimetidine -ketoconazole
-spironolactone -digitalis
-EtOH -estrogens |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Hepatitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Hot flashes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Neuro and
Nephrotoxic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Osteoporosis (2)? |
|
Definition
| -Corticosteroids -heparin |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Oto and
Nephrotoxicity (3)? |
|
Definition
-aminoglycosides -loop
diuretics -cisplatin |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: P450 induction
(6)? |
|
Definition
-Barbiturates -phenytoin -
carbamazipine -rifampin -
griseofulvin -quinidine |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: P450 inhibition
(6)? |
|
Definition
-Cimetidine -ketoconazole
-grapefruit juice -
erythromycin -INH -
sulfonamides - Valproic Acid |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Photosensitivity
(3)? |
|
Definition
-Tetracycline -amiodarone
-sulfonamides |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction:
Pseudomembranous
colitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Pulmonary
fibrosis(3)? |
|
Definition
-Bleomycin -amiodarone -
busulfan |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: SLE-like
syndrome |
|
Definition
-Hydralazine -
Procainamide -INH -
phenytoin |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Stevens-Johnson
syn. (3) ? |
|
Definition
-Ethosuxamide -
sulfonamides -lamotrigine |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Tardive
dyskinesia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Tendonitis and
rupture? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Thrombotic
complications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Torsade de
pointes (2) ? |
|
Definition
-Class III antiarrhythmics
(sotalol) -class IA
(quinidine) |
|
|
Term
Which drug(s) cause this
reaction: Tubulointerstitial
Nephritis (5)? |
|
Definition
-Sulfonamides -
furosemide -methicillin -
rifampin -NSAIDS (ex.
ASA) |
|
|
Term
Describe first-order
kinetics? |
|
Definition
Constant FRACTION
eliminated per unit time.
(exponential) |
|
|
Term
Describe Phase I
metabolism in liver(3)? |
|
Definition
-reduction, oxy, &
hydrolysis -H2O sol. Polar
product -P450 |
|
|
Term
Describe Phase II
metabolism in liver(3)? |
|
Definition
-acetylation,
glucuron.,& sulfation
-Conjugation -Polar
product |
|
|
Term
Explain differences
between full and partial
agonists(2). |
|
Definition
- Act on same receptor -
Full has greater efficacy |
|
|
Term
Explain potency in relation
to full and partial agonists
(2). |
|
Definition
- partial agonist can have
increased, decreased, /
A21or equal potency as
full agonist. - Potency is
an independent factor. |
|
|
Term
How do spare receptors
effect the Km? |
|
Definition
- ED 50 is less than the
Km (less than 50% of
receptors) |
|
|
Term
How do you calculate
maintenance dose? |
|
Definition
Md= (CpxCL)/F Cp= plas.
Conc. CL=clear. F=bioaval. |
|
|
Term
How does a competitive
antagonist effect an
agonist? |
|
Definition
-Shifts the curve to the
right -increases Km |
|
|
Term
How does a
noncompetitive antagonist
effect an agonist? |
|
Definition
- Shifts the curve down -
reduces Vmax |
|
|
Term
Name the steps in drug
approval(4)? |
|
Definition
-Phase I (clinical tests) -
Phase II -Phase III -PhaseIV
(surveillance) |
|
|
Term
Steady state concentration
is reached in __#half-lifes |
|
Definition
In 4 half-lifes= (94%) T1/2
= (0.7x Vd)/CL |
|
|
Term
What is the definition of
zero-order kinetics?
Example? |
|
Definition
-Constant AMOUNT
eliminated per unit time. -
Etoh &ASA |
|
|
Term
What is the formula for
Clearance (CL) |
|
Definition
CL= (rate of elimination of
drug/ Plasma drug conc.) |
|
|
Term
What is the formula for
Volume of distribution (Vd) |
|
Definition
Vd= (Amt. of drug in
body/ Plasma drug conc.) |
|
|
Term
What is the loading dose
formula? |
|
Definition
Ld= (CpxVd)/F
Cp=plasma conc. F=
Bioaval. |
|
|
Term
A 12yo patient was treated
for a reaction to a bee
sting, what drug provides
the best coverage of
sympathomimetic
receptors? |
|
Definition
Epinephirine(Alpha1,2 and
Beta 1,2) |
|
|
Term
A 57 yo heart failure pt
develops cardiac
decompensation, what
drug will give you
adequate perfusion of his
kidneys as well as tx for
his Hypotension |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A fellow passenger on a
Carnival cruise ship looks
pale and diaphoretic, what
antimuscarinic agent
would you give them? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A group of pts are rushed
into the ER complaining of
excessive sweating, tearing,
salivation, HA, N and V,
muscle twitching, difficulty
breathing and diarrhea. What
drug would be the most
effective immediate tx |
|
Definition
Atropine pts are suffering
from Cholinestrase
inhibitor poisining(Nerve
gas/Organophosphate
poisining) |
|
|
Term
As an Anes you want to
use a depolarizing
neuromuscular blocking
drug on your pt, what do
you use |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
By what mechanism does
this drug help |
|
Definition
Prevents the release of Ca
from SR of skeletal muscle |
|
|
Term
Clonidine is the preferred
sym pathomimetic tx of
HTN in pts with renal
disease, why?? |
|
Definition
Centrally acting alpha
agonist, thus causing a
decrease in central
adrenergic outflow,
spairing renal blood flow |
|
|
Term
Cocaine casues
vasoconstriction and local
anesthesia by what
mechanism |
|
Definition
Indirect agonist, uptake
inhibitor |
|
|
Term
Cocaine shares is
mechanism of action with
what antidepressant |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Dobutamine used for the
tx of shock acts on which
receptors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Guanethidine enhances the
release of Norepi? |
|
Definition
No, it inhibits the release
of Nor Epi |
|
|
Term
How does angiotensin II
affect NE release? |
|
Definition
It acts presynaptically to
increase NE release. |
|
|
Term
How does botulinum toxin
result in respiratory arrest? |
|
Definition
Prevents the release of
ACh, which results in
muscle paralysis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Prevents the release of
calcium from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum of
skeletal muscle. |
|
|
Term
How does NE modulate its
own release? What other
neurotransmitter has this
same effect? |
|
Definition
NE acts presynaptically on
alpha-2 receptors to
inhibit its own release.
ACh also acts
presynaptically through
M1 receptors to inhibit NE
release. |
|
|
Term
How would hemicholinium
treatment affect
cholinergic neurons? |
|
Definition
Hemicholinium inhibits the
transport of choline into
the nerve, thus inhibiting
formation of ACh. |
|
|
Term
How would you reverse the
effect of a neuromuscular
blocking agent? |
|
Definition
Give an antichloinesterase
- neostigmine,
edrophonium, etc |
|
|
Term
If a patient is given
hexamethonium, what
would happen to his/her
heart rate? |
|
Definition
It would increase to ~ 100
beats/min. Both sympathetic
and vagal stimulation would
be knocked out, but the SA
node has an intrinsic pace of
100 beats/min, which is
normally checked by vagal
stimulation. |
|
|
Term
Isopoterenol was given to
a patient with a developing
AV block, why? |
|
Definition
Stimulates beta adrenergic
receptors |
|
|
Term
Norepi feedbacks and
inhibits the presynaptic
receptor by what
mechanism |
|
Definition
Binding to the presynaptic
alpha 2 release
modulating receptors |
|
|
Term
Reserpine will block the
syntheis of this drug and
but not its precursor. |
|
Definition
Blocks Norepi, but not
Dopamine |
|
|
Term
These drugs acts indirectly
by releasing strored
catecholamines in the
presynaptic terminal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What anticholinesterase
crosses the blood-brainbarrier? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What antimuscarinic agent
is used in asthma and
COPD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What antimuscarinic drug
is useful for the tx of
asthma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the classic
symptoms of
cholinesterase inhibitor
poisoning (parathion or
other organophosphates)? |
|
Definition
Diarrhea, Urination,
Miosis, Bronchospasm,
Bradycardia, Excitation of
skeletal muscle and CNS,
Lacrimation, Sweating, and
Salivation = DUMBBELS;
also abdominal cramping |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical
indications for
bethanechol? |
|
Definition
Activates cholinergic
receptors on bladder and
bowel smooth muscle,
alleviating post-op and
neurogenic ileus and
urinary retention. |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical
indications for
neostigmine? |
|
Definition
Post-op and neurogenic
ileus and urinary retention,
myasthenia gravis, and
reversal of neuromuscular
junction blockade (postop)
through
anticholinesterase activity. |
|
|
Term
What are the indications
for using amphetamine? |
|
Definition
narcolepsy, obesity, and
attention deficit disorder (I
wouldn't recommend this) |
|
|
Term
What are the
nondepolarizing
neuromuscular blocking
drugs? |
|
Definition
Tubocurarine, atracurium,
mivacurium, pancuronium,
vecuronium, rapacuronium |
|
|
Term
What are the phases of
succinylcholine
neuromuscular blockade? |
|
Definition
Phase 1 = prolonged
depolarization, no antidote,
effect potentiated by
anticholinesterase; Phase 2
= repolarized but blocked,
an anticholinesterase is the
antidote for this phase. |
|
|
Term
What are two indirect
acting adrenergic
agonists? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What beta 2 agonist will
help your 21yo Astma pt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cholinergic inhibitor
acts by directly inhibiting
Ach release at the
presynaptic terminal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cholinomimetic is
useful in the diagnosis of
Myasthenia Gravis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cholinomimetics
might your pt be taking
for his glaucoma |
|
Definition
Carbachol, pilocarpine,
physostigmine,
echothiophate |
|
|
Term
What class of drug is
echothiophate? What is its
indication? |
|
Definition
anticholinesterase
glaucoma |
|
|
Term
What conditions would you
use dantrolene? |
|
Definition
In treatment of malignant
hyperthermia, due to
concomitant use of halothane
and succinylcholine. Also in
neuroleptic malignant
syndrome, a toxicity of
antipsychotic drugs. |
|
|
Term
What drug is used to
diagnose myasthenia
gravis? |
|
Definition
edrophonium (extremely
short acting
anticholinesterase) |
|
|
Term
What drugs target this
enzyme |
|
Definition
Neostigmine,
pyridostigmine
edrophonium
physostigmine
echothiophate |
|
|
Term
What effect would atropine
have on a patient with
peptic ulcer disease? |
|
Definition
Theoretically it could be
used to block the cephalic
phase of acid secretion
(vagal stimulation). |
|
|
Term
What effect would atropine
have on the preganglionic
sympathetic activation of
sweat glands? Would this
person sweat? |
|
Definition
None. No, because
atropine would block the
postganglionic muscarinic
receptors involved in
sweat gland stimulation. |
|
|
Term
What enzyme is
responsible for the
breakdown of ACh in the
synaptic cleft? |
|
Definition
Acetylcholinesterase; ACh
is broken down into
choline and acetate. |
|
|
Term
What enzyme is
responsible for the
degredation of Ach |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What enzyme is
responsible for the
production of Ach from
Acetyl CoA and Choline |
|
Definition
| Choline acetyltransferase |
|
|
Term
hat is the clinical utility
of clonidine? |
|
Definition
Treatment of
hypertension, especially
with renal disease (lowers
bp centrally, so flow is
maintained to kidney). |
|
|
Term
What is the clinical utility
of cocaine? |
|
Definition
The only local anesthetic
with vasoconstrictive
properties. |
|
|
Term
* What is the difference
between the affinity for
beta receptors between
albuterol/terbutaline and
dobutamine? |
|
Definition
Dobutamine has more of an
affintiy for beta-1 than
beta-2, and is used for
treating heart failure and
shock. Albuterol and
terbutaline is the reverse, and
is used in treatment of acute
asthma. |
|
|
Term
What is the difference in
receptor affinity of
epinephrine at low doses?
High doses? |
|
Definition
Prefers beta's at low
doses, but at higher doses
alpha agonist effects are
predominantly seen. |
|
|
Term
What is the effect of
epinephrine infusion on bp
and pulse pressure? |
|
Definition
Increased systolic and
pulse pressure, decreased
diastolic pressure, and
little change in mean
pressure. |
|
|
Term
What is the effect of
guanethidine on
adrenergic NE release? |
|
Definition
| It inhibits release of NE. |
|
|
Term
What is the effect of
norepinephrine on bp and
pulse pressure? |
|
Definition
Increases mean, systolic,
and diastolic bp, while
there is little change in
pulse pressure. |
|
|
Term
What is the effect of TCA's
on the adrenergic nerve? |
|
Definition
They inhibit reuptake of
NE at the nerve terminal
(as does cocaine). |
|
|
Term
What is the only
depolarizing
neuromuscular blocking
agent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the receptor
affinity and clinical use of
isoproterenol? |
|
Definition
It affects beta receptors
equally and is used in AV
heart block (rare). |
|
|
Term
* Ipratropium; What makes this drug
effective |
|
Definition
It antagonizes Ach M
receptors and decreases
parasym (GI) rxn |
|
|
Term
What nondepolorizing
agents could you have
used |
|
Definition
Tubocurarine, atra-, miv-,
pan-,ve-, rapacuronium |
|
|
Term
What other substances
regulate the Norepi nerve
ending |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
* Dantrolene; What other syndrome can
this drug tx |
|
Definition
Neuroleptic malignant
syndrome |
|
|
Term
What physiological effects
was the Anes using
Atropine to tx |
|
Definition
SLUD (salivation,
Lacrimation, urination,
Defecation)as well as
airway secretion, GI
motility, acid secretions |
|
|
Term
What reversal agent could
a Anes give to reverse the
effects of Atropine |
|
Definition
Bethanechol, Neostigmine,
physostigmine |
|
|
Term
What side effect of using
atropine to induce
pupillary dilation would
you expect? |
|
Definition
Atropine would also block
the receptors in the ciliary
muscle, causing an
impairment in
accommodation
(cycloplegia). |
|
|
Term
What sympathomimetic
would you not prescribe
for hypotension in a pt
with renal artery sclerosis. |
|
Definition
Norepinephrine (Alpha1,2
and beta 1) |
|
|
Term
What type of neurological
blockade would
hexamethonium create? |
|
Definition
Hexamethonium is a
nicotinic antagonist, and
thus is a ganglionic
blocker. |
|
|
Term
What would be the effect
on blood pressure with
infusion of the alpha -2
agonist clonidine? |
|
Definition
Initially vasoconstriction
would increase bp, but
then it acts on central
alpha-2 receptors to
decrease adrenergic
outflow resulting in
decreased bp. |
|
|
Term
* After full atropinization in case of organophosph poisoning, What would be the next
drug that you would give
and why |
|
Definition
Pralidoxime, regenerates
active cholinestrase |
|
|
Term
Which antimuscarinic
agents are used in
producing mydriasis and
cycloplegia? |
|
Definition
atropine, homatropine,
tropicamide |
|
|
Term
Which drug increases Sys
BP w/o affecting Pulse
Pressure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of epi, norepi, or
isoproterenol results in
bradycardia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following
would atropine
administration cause?
Hypothermia, bradycardia,
excess salivation, dry
flushed skin, or diarrhea |
|
Definition
Dry flushed skin, due to
inhibition of sympathetic
post-ganglionic blockade
on muscarinic receptors of
sweat glands. All others
are opposite of what
would be expected. |
|
|
Term
Which of these three drugs
will cause a reflex
bradycardia in your pt
(Norepi, Epi, or
Isoporterenol) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which receptors does
phenylephrine act upon? |
|
Definition
alpha-1 > alpha-2;
used as a pupil dilator,
vasoconstrictor, and for
nasal decongestion |
|
|
Term
While at a tail gait party,
you bite into a sandwich
that a yellow jacket is also
enjoying. Knowing your
allergy to this creature,
what should you do? |
|
Definition
Epinephrine to treat
anaphylaxis. Also useful if
you have open angle
glaucoma, asthma, or
hypotension. |
|
|
Term
Why are albuterol and
terbutaline effective in tx
of acute asthmatic attacks? |
|
Definition
These B-2 agonists cause
respiratory smooth muscle
to relax. |
|
|
Term
Why does atropine dilate
the pupil? |
|
Definition
Blocking muscarinic
receptors in the circular
fibers of the eye, results in
unopposed action of radial
muscles to dilate. |
|
|
Term
Why does NE result in
bradycardia? |
|
Definition
NE increases bp, which
stimulates baroreceptors
in the carotid sinus and
the aorta. The CNS signals
through vagal stimulation
to decrease heart rate. |
|
|
Term
Why is carbachol and
pilocarpine useful in
treatment of glaucoma? |
|
Definition
They activate the ciliary
muscle of the eye (open
angle) and pupillary
sphincter (narrow angle). |
|
|
Term
Why is pyridostigmine
effective in the treatment
of myasthenia gravis? |
|
Definition
As an anticholinesterase it
increases endogenous ACh
and thus increases
strength. |
|
|
Term
Why is reserpine effective
in treating HTN? |
|
Definition
Reserpine inhibits
dopamine transport into
vesicles, attenuating its
conversion to NE by
dopamine betahydroxylase. |
|
|
Term
Why is there a drop in
systolic, mean, and
diastolic bp with infusion
of isoproterenol? |
|
Definition
Stimulating beta receptors
stimulates heart rate, but
beta receptor induced
vasodilation reduces
peripheral resistance. |
|
|
Term
Why would a patient with
cog-wheel rigidity and a
shuffling gait be given
benztropine? |
|
Definition
Parkinson patients benefit
from antimuscarinic
agents through its
inhibitory action within the
indirect pathway. |
|
|
Term
Why would dopamine be
useful in treating shock? |
|
Definition
Receptors =
D1=D2>beta>alpha,
thus increasing heart rate
(beta) and blood pressure
(alpha vasoconstriction) while
maintaining kidney perfusion
(dopamine receptors) |
|
|
Term
Why would you give a drug
like pancuronium or
succinylcholine? |
|
Definition
Useful in muscle paralysis
during surgery or
mechanical ventilation. |
|
|
Term
Why would you use
pralidoxime after
exposure to an
organophosphate? |
|
Definition
Pralidoxime regenerates
active cholinesterase. |
|
|
Term
Will Hemicholinum affect
the release of stored Ach
during Cholinergic
Stimulation |
|
Definition
No, hemicholinum block
the uptake of Choline and
thus Ach synthesis |
|
|
Term
Would blockade of
muscarininc receptors in
the bladder be useful in
treating urinary retention? |
|
Definition
No. Atropine is used to
reduce urgency in mild
cystitis. So it would
aggravate the urinary
retention. |
|
|
Term
Would Hexamethonium be
an effective substitute |
|
Definition
No, hexamethonium
targets Nicotinc receptors
and will block Parasym,
Sym, as well as Somatic
systems |
|
|
Term
You tx your pt with
halothane as well and he
has also developed
malignant hypothermia,
what drug can you give |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Your patient develops a
marked arrythmia due to a
prolonged depolarization,
can you tx this w/
Neostigmine |
|
Definition
No cholinesterase
inhibitors will potentiate
the stimulating action of
Succinlycholine |
|
|
Term
Your patient has acute
angle glaucoma, does this
affect your tx |
|
Definition
Yes, Scopolamine would
antagonize his glaucoma |
|
|
Term
Your patient wants an
effective drug to treat his
motion sickness, what
would you prescribe |
|
Definition
|
|
