Term
| What neurotransmitter is unique to emetic center ( when compared to other centers involved in vomiting) |
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Definition
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Term
| Maropitant (Cerenia) antagonizes _____ receptors in the emetic center that have a high affinity for _______ |
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Definition
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Term
| Antihistamine agents are generally used to stop vomiting caused by what? |
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Definition
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Term
| Histamine is involved in signaling of vomiting in all centers except.... |
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Definition
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Term
| Centrally acting emetic used in dogs |
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Definition
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Term
| Centrally acting emetic used in cats |
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Definition
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Term
| Apomorphine and Xylazine primarily work in the ______ to induce vomiting |
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Definition
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Term
| Emetic therapy is contraindicated with ingestion of what? |
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Definition
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Term
| Metoclopramide and Acepromazine (induce/control) vomiting by blocking _______ receptors in the _______ |
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Definition
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Term
| Only one anti-emetic drug acts directly in the emetic center- which is: |
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Definition
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Term
| Serotonin Antagonists like Ondanstetron are indicated to control vomiting in these three situations: (hint- 1 inflammatory, 1 infectious, 1 iatrogenic) |
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Definition
| Pancreatitis, Parvo, Chemo |
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Term
| Name a well known "bedside" peripherally acting emetic |
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Definition
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Term
| If syrup of ipecac doesnt work after a couple doses- what then do you do? |
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Definition
| Gastric lavage- it's toxic! |
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Term
| How does Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) work as a laxative? |
|
Definition
| Stimulates GI motility/secretions |
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Term
| What osmotic laxative is pretty effective in cats? |
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Definition
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Term
| MgSO4 (Epsom salts) are what kind of laxative |
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Definition
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Term
| DSS has a detergent like action and is used to enhance mineral oil as a ___________. |
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Definition
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Term
| What hormone promotes gastric acid secretion? |
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Definition
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Term
| Anticonvulsants as a group tend to have a (high/low) therapeutic window |
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Definition
| high? need to double check |
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Term
| The goal of antiepileptic therapy is to reduce seizure frequency by ____% |
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Definition
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Term
| How many half lives to reach a 97% steady state condition??? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which antimicrobial is known to inhibit phenobarbitol metabolism and therefore can result in toxic doses of phenobarb? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the classic drug in antiepileptic therapy? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the classic add-on drug in epileptic therapy? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is a go-to for acute treatment of epilepsy? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the two most common side effects of phenobarbitol? |
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Definition
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Term
| DCM in dogs is an example of what kind of heart failure? |
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Definition
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Term
| HCM in cats is an example of what kind of heart failure? |
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Definition
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Term
| Taurine deficiency in cats can produce what kind of heart failure? |
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Definition
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Term
| Pericardial effusion can produce what kind of heart failure? |
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Definition
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Term
| Aortic stenosis can produce what kind of heart failure? |
|
Definition
| Pressure overload ( inc afterload) |
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Term
| Chronic valvular disease like mitral regurg can produce what kind of heart failure? |
|
Definition
| Volume overload (excessive preload) |
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Term
| Systemic hypertension can initially produce what kind of heart failure? |
|
Definition
| Pressure overload ( inc afterload) |
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Term
| When you see _____ clinical signs in a heart failure patient, they are now classified as Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) |
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Definition
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Term
| Which ACE inhibitor is potentially safer than Enalapril in pts with renal disease b/c is excreted through liver? |
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Definition
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Term
| What drug is almost always indicated in any type of heart failure to prevent excessive fluid buildup? |
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Definition
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Term
| ACE inhibitors are generally safe except for two situations where at risk for systemic hypotension: high doses ACEI's, or ACEI's used in conjunction with ________ at high doses |
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Definition
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Term
| This phosphodiesterase inhibitor is great for long term treatment of DCM or mitral valve insufficiency |
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Definition
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Term
| While great for DCM patients, this drug is contraindicated in HCM and valvular stenosis patients b/c of its positive inotropic effect |
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Definition
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Term
| Diltiazem is what kinda of drug |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Enalapril is converted to its active form ______ in the liver |
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Definition
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Term
| Why might CHF patients become azotemic after administration of ACE inhibitors- and because of which you need to be careful with dosing over time |
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Definition
| Low kidney perfusion already exacerbated by a blocking of compensatory RAAS by ACE= decreased GFR |
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|
Term
| positive inotropes are contraindicated in patients with (diastolic/systolic) disfunction |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Digoxin slows removal of ______ from intracellular space resulting in increased inotropic activity |
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Definition
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Term
| This drug increases myocardial activity, has a supraventricular antiarrhythmic effect, and causes sustained inhibition of sympathetic activation |
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Definition
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Term
| Side effects of this drug are GI signs and arrhythmias even though this drug is an antiarrhythmic. Also, shoudn't use in cats with hypokalemia |
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Definition
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Term
| Drug that is an afterload reducer by increasing local concentrations of PGI2 in arterioles |
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Definition
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Term
| Potent vasodilator. Should not be used as sole afterload reducer in cats b/c of potential higher pressure on glomerulus ( use with an ACE inhibitor to prevent this) |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Preferentially dilates afferent arteriole in kidney. |
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Definition
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Term
| A venodilator, this drug is a preload reducer and used for acute tx of cardiogenic pulmonary edema |
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Definition
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Term
| A veno and arterial dilator, this drug decreases preload and afterload and used via IV infusion in Emergency situations |
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Definition
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Term
| There are two "Nitro" drugs used for heart failure. Which one ONLY dilates venous smooth muscle |
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Definition
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Term
| This catecholamine is used as support following cardiac arrest |
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Definition
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Term
| This catecholamine is a precursor to norepinephrine and at low dose a good drug for tx of oliguric renal failure by improving renal blood flow. At high dose good for Emergency treatment cardiogenic shock |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Most useful sympathomimetic in treatment of heart failure and used for severe myocardial failure or depression |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What phase of action potential do class I antiarrhythmias block? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What phase of action potential do fast sodium channels open? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which subclass ( A or B) of class I antiarrhythmias are all negative inotropes and therefore contraindicated in CHF due to systolic dysfunction (i.e DCM) |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Best drug for acute control of life threatening arrhythmias |
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Definition
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|
Term
| This group of antiarrhythmics specifically decrease the slope of phase 0 and are very frequently used for ventricular arrhythmias |
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Definition
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|
Term
| These drugs decrease sympathetic tone to decrease arrhythmias. Treatment for DCM pts shold be started once resp stress is resolved |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Beta blockers are what class antiarrhythmics |
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Definition
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|
Term
| This beta blocker is non-selective and is dosed to desired target heart rate. It's used only after digitalization where ventricular rate still not adequately reduced |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Selective beta blocker used common in chronic tx of HCM cats; use controversial |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which class antiarrhythmics work on slowing the refractory period by inhibiting potassium channel repolarization |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Calcium channel blockers are considered what class of antiarrhythmic |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Calcium channel blockers exhibit their antiarrhythmic effects by inhibiting calcium entry into cells during which two phases of an action potential? |
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Definition
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Term
| Drug of choice for acute treatment of a supraventricular arrhythmia (e.g. due to advance heartworm disease) |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| In the acute setting of DCM furosemide is a major player to relieve fluid accumulation- dog should then be evaluated every 30 min for evidence of______. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| In an acute DCM setting, what is used to decrease pulmonary hypertension? What about in the most severe cases |
|
Definition
| Venodilator- Nitroglycerine; veno- and arterial dilator- Nitroprusside |
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|
Term
| In an acute DCM setting with cardiogenic shock, what drug should be given as constant infusion to increase inotropic activity |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What can be used as an add-on to furosemide for CHRONIC diuresis of a DCM patient |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Name an aldosterone antagonist used sometimes in chronic DCM therapy |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Two drugs in order of preference that can be used for chronic management of pumping function in DCM dogs |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| When switching from acute to chronic therapy in DCM dogs nitroglycerin ( in acute setting) can be replaced with ________ to manage pulmonary hypertension chronically |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| In treatment of HCM cats, antagonism of what neurohormone is targeted in order to decrease the amount of myocardial fibrosis and concentric hypertrophy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you give a cat with acute pulmonary edema? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Classic maintenance therapy of moderate CHF in HCM cats |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What percent of dogs are dx with idiopathic epilepsy |
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Definition
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|
Term
| The of anticonvulsant drugs should be to reduce seizure frequency by ____% |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which antibiotic causes potential overdose in phenobarbitol |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Antiseizure meds generally reduce neuron firing through two main mechanisms. Either through _____ Agonism or block ____ channels ( there are others but these two are the main ones) |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Approximately how many days is the half life of phenobarbitol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This add on anti-seizure drug works by hyperpolarizing neuronal cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This drug may be eliminated faster in the presence of high sodium diets |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Half life for this drug is 24 days! |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What drug is a prodrug for phenobarb but has little to no advantages and is expensive |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Roughly what percent of epileptic dogs are considered refractory to conventional therapy? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What four drugs are used for pharmicoresistant epilepsy? (i.e phenobarb and KBr doesn't work) |
|
Definition
| Leveciracetam, Zonisamide, Gabapentin, Felbamate |
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|
Term
| Which of the drugs used for refractory epilepsy has its main effects on enhancing GABA at NMDA receptors? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Which kind of calcium channel is particularly good to block when trying to control seizures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which two antiseizure meds are primarily metabolized in liver (one is a classic drug and one for refractory cases) |
|
Definition
| Phenobarbitol; Zonisamide |
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|
Term
| Which anti-seizure med does NOT cause sedation |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Which drug, even though mechanism not well understood, is at least known to have a binding site on synaptic vesicle protein 2A (SV2A) |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which of the drugs used for refractory epilepsy is well tolerated in cats, and therefore is the preferred add on therapy to Phenobarb for cats. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| The goal of diuretic therapy is to increase _____excretion |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What condition associated with horse racing that would warrant diuretic therapy |
|
Definition
| Exercise Induced Pulmonary Hemorrhage (EIPH) |
|
|
Term
| What are the two main general disease categories that diuretics are used for |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common osmotic diuretic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which diuretic group works in the ascending loop of Henle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which group of diuretics work exclusively in the distal tubule? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| For psychoactive meds, which group (PRN or Maintenance) has effects on ion channels |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For psychoactive meds, which group (PRN or Maintenance) has effects on g proteins and change in DNA expression? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two amino acid neurotransmitters that have opposite effects from one another? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What Neurotransmitter is a precursor to GABA |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Tryptophan is the precursor to what neurotransmitter and is therefore hypothesized to make you sleepy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What postsynaptic receptors are involved in nausea as well as sleep disturbances? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Match the dopamine pathway with its function
1. Nigrostriatal a. emotion
2. Mesocorticolimbic b. reward
3. Mesolimbic c. motor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Whenever reaching for Acepromazine, think of this drug. For example can give this to a dog twice a day while boarding and then stop when comes home |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A truly anti-anxiety drug |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This substance is upregulated by serotonin. It bathes and nourishes neurons. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| SSRI's: Maintenance or PRN |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Reconcile (aka Fluoxetine) is a ___1____(kind of drug) and is used for ____2_____(a behavioral problem) |
|
Definition
| 1. SSRI 2, Separation anxiety |
|
|
Term
| What are 2 SSRI side effects associated with stimulation 5HT receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Reversal for serotonin syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why not use Tramadol with an SSRI |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After giving a some behavioral drugs in combo, you notice your patient with an acute onset of what looks like the autonomic system going haywire... what is it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two drugs DO NOT seem to cause serotonin syndrome |
|
Definition
| Buspirone(Buspar); Trazodone |
|
|
Term
| Clomicalm (clomipramine) is FDA approved for this canine behavioral problem___A___, and belongs to this group of drugs____B____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Amitrytptiline is a TCA not usually used for behavioral problems but rather ______ issues. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This group of phychopharm drugs binds thyroid hormone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This 5HT 1A partial agonist is good for augmenting SSRI effects |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This drug is incorrectly considered and anti-anxiety drug. It should be reserved for cases where animals can do themselves bodily harm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This MAO inhibitor is FDA approved for Canine Cognitive Dysfunction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This drug is commonly your culprit in serotonin syndrome. Be careful! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This PRN enhances GABA-A receptors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This drug great to give before a thunderstorm, but a side effect may be a paradoxical excitement- so give a test dose first! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Oral version of this PRN anti-anxiety med Feline Idiopathic Hepatic Necrosis in cats |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Be careful dosing benzos because... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which benzos are considered safest b/c no metabolites produced |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This drug is basically oral dexmedetomidine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This Alpha-2 Delta ligand will be used all the time- esp good for neuropathic pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antipsychotics/Neuroleptics block which neurotransmitter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Conventional Antipsychotics block which dopamine pathways |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Atypical Antipsychotics also antagonize 5HT and some Dopamine receptors which results in (more/less) side effects |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This highly potent phenothiazine has high extrapyramidal signs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phenothiazines like Ace or fluphenazine are (conventional or atypical) antipsychotics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If want an SSRI that has more sedation ( like a dogs that keeps owners up at night) which one is a good choice? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
-etine = ssri
-amine = tca
-zepam = benzo
-azine = phenothiazine |
|
Definition
| just thought this general rule for drug names might help |
|
|
Term
| Which drug inhibits all kinds of MAO and has effects therefore on norep, dopamine, and serotonin |
|
Definition
|
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