Shared Flashcard Set

Details

Z Pediatrics
Pediatrics Clerkship
255
Medical
Graduate
09/24/2013

Additional Medical Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
What post-infectious complication can occur after a viral infection in children between the age of 1 -3?
Definition
  • acute cerebellar ataxic (post-viral cerebellitis)
  • autoimmune response to virus (varicella, coxsackie, echovirus).
  • ataxia, nystagmus, dysarthria, vomiting.

Lange p. 16 

Term
What deformity is commonly associated with craniosynostosis?
Definition
  • extremity malformations: syndactyly (fusion of one or more digits) of fingers or toes.
  • Occurs in Apert syndrome (autosomal dominant).
  • on exam: prominent occiput, broad forehead, absent anterior fontanelle. usually affects the sagittal suture → scaphocephaly (long and narrow skull).

L p. 29, PT p. 246

Term
Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis
Definition
  • chronic synovitis, age of onset < 16 y.o.
  • polyarticular form: ≥  5 joints, symmetric, chronic pain and swelling of both large & small joints, systemic features less prominent.
  • pauciarticular form: < 5 joints, asymmetric chronic arthritis of large weight-bearing joints, iridocyclitis (aka uveitis - inflammations of iris and anterior chamber, tx w/ corticosteroids) → blindness.
  • Systemic form: fever, rash (salmon-pink macular rash), arthritis, hepatosplenomegaly, leukocytosis, and polyserositis.

FA-Peds p. 337

Term
What must be considered when a reticular pattern of the lung is noted on CXR?
Definition
  • total anomolous pulmonary return w/ obstruction of veins.
  • pulmonary veins drain into right atrium → shunt to left atrium via patent foramen ovale.
  • cyanosis from right to left shunt & pulmonary venous congestion  → pulmonary edema.

L p. 30

Term
How is intussusception corrected?
Definition
  • barium enema (lower GI series) or air contrast barium enema; must perform w/ surgical backup b/c of danger of performation!
  • occurs most commonly during the 2nd half of the first year of life.
  • intermittent abdominal pain & vomiting.
  • mild fever & leukocytosis are common features.
  • very often sausage shaped mass can be palpated on exam.
  • currant jelly stool.
  • causes: although most are idiopathic, Meckels diverticulum or polyp can serve as a lead point.

L p. 30, PT p. 191, 192

Term
What conditions predispose a child to brain abscess formation?
Definition
  • right-to-left shunt (cyanotic congenital heart disease); skips filtration by mØ in the lung.
  • cystic fibrosis
  • immunodeficiency
  • otitis media
  • mastoiditis
  • appears as ring-enhancing lesion on brain imaging.
  • common cause of brain abscess is Citrobacter koseri; gram negative enteric rod transmitted from mom at birth.

L p. 30, Kap q. m001036

Term
A 2-year-old infant presents with swollen hands and feet. What is on the differential?
Definition
  • sickle cell disease
  • dactylitis (painful inflammation of finger or toe).
  • in sickle cell disease consider folate deficiency secondary to rapid RBC turnover; macrocytic anemia.

L p. 31

Term
What can cause microcytic anemia in an infant?
Definition
  • reliance on cow's milk
  • ↓ iron & not well absorbed.

L p. 31

Term
When should Hirschsprung disease be considered?
Definition
  • newborn should pass meconium within 48 hours of birth.
  • any delay in passage of stool in a full-term baby → think Hirschsprung disease.
  • HD may be recognized early in life or may go undetected if only a short segment is affected; cardinal symptom is constipation.
  • screening test is anorectal manometry.
  • meconium ileus in CF → vomiting, abdominal distension, failure to pass meconium.

L p. 32, Kap q. s2s043m

Term
Infant with aniridia, what must you be worried about?
Definition
  • WAGR
  • wilm's tumor, aniridia (absence of iris), genitourinary anomalies, MR; also hemihypertrophy.
  • renal US every 4-6 months to screen for Wilm's tumor; nephroblastoma; will NOT cross midline.
  • May present with hematamesis, possible lung metastasis, can be bilateral.
  • Wilm's tumor occurs from deletion of gene on chrom 11.

L p. 33, PT p. 110, Kap q. Q0412m

Term
Tay-Sachs disease
Definition
  • β-hexosaminidase A deficiency in WBC
  • cherry red spot on retina, loss of developmental milestones (neurodegenerative disease), ↑ startle response 2° to hyperacusis.
  • hepatosplenomegaly is Neimann-Pick.

L p. 33, PT p. 247

Term
Wiskott-Aldrich
Definition
  • WAITER
  • WA - wiskott aldrich
  • immunodeficiency (↑ IgE, IgA; ↓ IgM)
  • thrombocytopenia/purpura (small platelets as well; both are due to ↓ platelet production).
  • eczema (atopic dermatitis)
  • recurrent pyogenic infection
  • ↑ risk of lymphoma & ALL
  • X-linked recessive defect

FA p. 238, UW4847

Term
Neuroblastoma
Definition
  • from neural crest cells, due to N-myconcogene; it is a neuroendocrine tumor.
  • most commonly originates in the adrenal glands, but also nerve tissue in neck, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.
  • one of few malignancies that can spontaneously regress.
  • presents with bluish skin nodules, periorbital proptosis and periorbital ecchymosis.
  • metastasis to bone (long, skull, orbital, bone marrow, LN, liver, skin) → bone pain.
  • tends to encase and surround abdominal structures.
  • usually crosses the midline.
  • ↑ urine homovanillic acid (HVA) and vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) in 95% of cases.
  • iodine-131-meta-iodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) scan shows ↑ uptake by mass.

Kap Peds p. 221, q. m000289

Term
What hematologic abnormality should be suspected in a patient with bilateral absence of radii?
Definition
  • thrombocytopenia
  • thrombocytopenia absent radius (TAR) syndrome.
  • accompanying cardiac lesions include: tetralogy of Fallot and ASD.

L p. 36, PT p. 136

Term
What is the leading cause of mortality in minimal change disease?
Definition
  • bacterial peritonitis (↑ susceptibility to infections).
  • remember minimal change disease is a nephrotic syndrome.
  • no hematuria or abnormal sediment
  • tx: prednisone
  • ↓ serum albumin, ↑ serum globulin

L p. 36, Kap q. s2s350m, UW 4018

Term
When is abx prophylaxis for dental procedures recommended?
Definition
  • past hx of endocarditis
  • prosthetic valve
  • heart transplant
  • severe congenital heart defects
  • repaired congenital heart defects

PT p. 37

Term
How does one develop rheumatic fever?
Definition
  • 1-5 weeks after group A strep pharyngitis.
  • J♥NES - joints (painful migratory polyarthritis, swollen, can have fever, heals w/o deforming), pancarditis (valvular damage [vegetation & fibrosis]), nodules (subQ on extensor surfaces), erythema marginatum (serpiginous skin rash), sydenhan chorea.
  • arthralgia is most common (minor criteria).
  • ↑ ASO titers, anti-DNase B, and antihyaluronidase
  • type II hypersensitivity
  • tx of GAS w/ penicillin prevents rheumatic fever; however, will not prevent post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
  • tx rheumatic fever w/ penicillin; use aspirin for arthritis.

FA p. 302, PT p. 128, Kap q. Q0693

Term
What features are associated with Henoch-Schönlein purpura?
Definition
  • it is an idiopathic acute vasculitis of small blood vessels; usually following an URI.
  • palpable purpura (buttocks & lower extremities).
  • arthritis
  • colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, melena.
  • acute scrotal pain; scrotal swelling.
  • can develop chronic nephritis (hematuria).
  • ↑ risk for intussusception
  • ↑ complement & mesangial deposition of IgA.

PT p. 38, 226, UW 4279

Term
What kind of leg defect is normal in toddlers < 2 years of age?
Definition
  • genu varum (bowlegs; straddle barrel of rum); improves spontaneously by age 2.
  • blount disease - abnormality in medial aspect of proximal tibial epiphysis (3 forms: infantile, juvenile, adolescent).
  • radiographically - prominent step abnormality w/ beaking at proximal tibial epiphysis.
  • blount disease must be treated aggressively; bracing, even possible surgery.

PT p. 40

Term
What are breath holding spells?
Definition
  • Form 1: brief shrill cry followed by a prolonged expiration and apnea → cyanotic spell.
  • occurs predictably upon upsetting or scolding child (peak at age 2 and resolve by age 5).
  • tx - avoid reinforcing behavior.
  • Form 2: pallid (pallor) breath-holding spells; usually caused by painful experience → child holds breath → LOC → become pale & hypotonic → brief tonic episode (not seizure!).
  • Also cyanotic and complicated types; complicated is a more severe form of pallid or cyanotic with seizure-like activity.
  • tx - avoid reinforcement; may be associated with iron deficiency anemia so check Fe levels.

PT p. 40, UW 4872

Term
What are the criteria for dx diabetes mellitus?
Definition
  • fasting glucose ≥ 126 mg/dl.
  • 2-hour plasma glucose after oral glucose tolerance test ≥ 200 mg/dl.
  • random plasma glucose ≥ 200 mg/dl.
  • impaired glucose tolerance is fasting glucose btw 100 and 125 mg/dl; 2-hour btw 140 and 200 mg/dl.

PT p. 41 

Term
Osgood-Schlatter disease
Definition
  • stress reaction in area of insertion of patellar tendon into tibial tubercle → anterior knee pain.
  • it is an traction apophysitis.
  • on X-ray tubercle may be lifted from shaft or fragmentation of the tubercle.
  • common in adolescent athletes.
  • swelling, tenderness, and ↑ size of tibial tuberosity.
  • tx - rest.
  • stress fractures on the other hand usually presents with pain in the shins.

PT p. 43, Kap Q0676m, UW 4849

Term
Croup
Definition
  • laryngotracheobronchitis
  • steeple sign on CXR
  • barking cough, stridor, and hoarseness.
  • tx - single dose of steroids; in severe cases racemic epinephrine.
  • causes: bacterial - Corynebacteria diphtheria (grey membrane), Staph aureus, Strep pneumoniae, H. influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis; viral - parainfluenza, RSV, influenza A & B, measles, adenovirus.  
Term
Whooping Cough
Definition
  • Bordatella pertussis
  • characteristic symptoms: 3 stages: 1) catarrhal - rhinitis, sneezing, irritative cough [1-3 weeks]; 2) paroxysmal - parox coughing (10-30 forceful coughs ending in loud inspiratory whoop, vomiting commonly follows paroxysm, cyanosis, sweating, and exhaustion [lasts 2-6 weeks]; 3) convalescence - irritative chronic cough that lasts for several weeks or even months. 
  • on the other hand epiglottitis is caused by: Hib, Strep pneumo, Staph aureus, GAS; positive thumb sign.

Kap q. MB000075

Term
DTap, TdaP, Td
Definition
  • DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus toxoid, acellular pertussis); routinely recommended in children.
  • Tdap (tetanus toxoid, reduced diptheria toxoid, acellular pertussis); single booster at 11-12 years old.
  • Td (tetanus toxoid and reduced diphtheria toxoid); for life every 10 years.
  • Tetanus Ig is administered in only 1 scenario (<3 tetanus toxoid doses or unknown AND wound is dirty). If the patient has received ≥ 3 doses AND the wound is dirty AND it has been ≥ 5 years since last tetanus shot → administer tetanus toxoid.
  • diphtheria → lymphadenopathy and "bull neck" appearance.
  • If DTaP is administered and patient experiences an adverse rxn, administration of next series of DTaP should occur without acellular pertussis (i.e. only administer DT); pertussis is generally the cause of adverse rxns.

UptoDate, PT p. 276, UW 4258

Term
[image]
Definition
  • Cutis Aplasia; can be associated with many conditions.
  • Trisomy 13 (Patau Syndrome)
  • microcephaly, microphthalmia (small eyes), variety of cardiac features, holoprosencephaly, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, coloboma (hole in one of the structures of the eye - iris, retina, choroid), rocker bottom feet.
  • normal α-fetoprotein, β-hCG, estriol, and inhibin A.
  • Edwards (trisomy 18) - clenched hands, absent palmar creases, low set ears, micrognathia, VSD; ↓ α-fetoprotein, ↓ β-hCG, ↓ estriol

PT p. 51, UW 2468

Term
What are the causes and signs of riboflavin (B2) deficiency?
Definition
  • isolated B2 deficiency is rare, but can occur b/c of poor intake, reduced absorption in patients with biliary atresia or hepatitis, or poor absorption in those receiving probenecid, phenothiazine, or oral contraceptives.
  • cheilosis (fissuring & dry scaling of lips and angles of mouth), glossitis, keratitis, conjunctivitis, corneal vascularization, and seborrheic dermatitis.

PT p. 54

Term
Other than iron deficiency, what else can cause microcytic anemia?
Definition
  • vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency
  • also can cause seizures, peripheral neuritis, dermatitis.

PT p. 54

Term
Angelman Syndrome
Definition
  • deletion of part of chrom 15 (q1-q13) from maternal side; paternal deletion → Prader-Willi.
  • unusual gait, large mouth w/ tongue protrusion, hypopigmentation w/ blond hair and pale blue eyes.
  • unprovoked bursts of laughter.
  • bizarre movements
  • seizures
  • example of genomic imprinting.

PT p. 54, 358

Term
What are the features associated with cri-du-chat?
Definition
  • Profound MR
  • self-injurious behavior
  • hypersensitivity to sound
  • repetitive behaviors
  • round facies, hypotonia, high arched palate, wide & flat nasal bridge.
  • deletion of short arm of chrom 5

PT p. 55, UW 2489

Term

VACTER

CHARGE

Definition
  • vertebral defect
  • anal atresia
  • cardiovascular abnormalities
  • tracheoesophageal fistula
  • renal/radial defect
  • limb abnormalities
  • normal intelligence.
  1. Colobomas
  2. Heart Defects
  3. Choanal Atresia
  4. Retardation (growth and/or mental)
  5. genitourinary abnormalities
  6. ear anomalies

PT p. 55, Kap q. Q0233, Q0478m

Term
What can excess vitamin A cause?
Definition
  • hyperostosis (excess bone growth)
  • hepatomegaly
  • ↑ CSF pressure (HA and vomiting)
  • drying of skin w/ desquamation of palms & soles
  • alopecia

PT p. 57

Term
Vitamin C excess
Definition
  • kidney stone (calcium oxalate)

PT p. 57

Term
An adolescent complains of splotchy red rash on nape of neck that becomes prominent with exercise or emotion.
Definition
  • salmon patch (nevus simplex or flameus)
  • flat vascular lesion
  • lesions on face fade over first few weeks of life, but nuchal and occipital lesion persists.
  • no thx indicated

PT p. 52

Term
Neonate with splotchy areas of erythema w/ a central clear pustule. Miscroscopic examination of pustule reveals eosinophils.
Definition
  • erythema toxicum
  • idiopathic & benign; self-limited
  • rash waxes and wanes over first days to weeks of life

PT p. 56

Term
Milia
Definition
  • fine, yellowish white, 1-2 mm lesions scattered over face & gingivae of neonate.
  • they are cysts that contain keratinized material.
  • when on palate they are called Epstein pearls.

PT p. 52 

Term
What kind of birth defect is associated with ACE inhibitors?
Definition
  • renal dysgenesis
  • oligohydramnios
  • skull ossification defect

PT p. 58

Term
A 2-week-old boy has scaly, yellow patches on his scalp w/ associated hair loss.
Definition
  • seborrheic dermatitis
  • affected areas: eyebrows, nasolabial folds, base of eyelashes, paranasal skin.
  • tx: topical steroids or a selenium-sulfide-containing product.

PT p. 58, UW4711

Term
A mother with SLE delivers a baby. What findings can be associated with the neonate?
Definition
  • thrombocytopenia
  • rashes
  • congenital heart block

PT p. 59

Term
What vitamin is commonly deficient in newborns?
Definition
  • vitamin K
  • lack of free vit K in mother and absence of bacterial intestinal flora.
  • Measles - give vitamin A

PT p. 60

Term
What kind of test can help elucidate T-cell dysfunction?
Definition
  • intradermal skin test with Candida albicans → no response.
  • associated with DiGeorge syndrome
  • CATCH-22 (Cardiac abnormality - tetralogy of Fallot/VSD/interrupted aortic arch, Abnormal facies, thymic aplasia, Cleft palate, Hypocalcemia/Hypoparathyroidism, chrom 22 abnormality.

PT p. 60

Term
What is choanal atresia? How does it present?
Definition
  • narrowing or blockage of the nasal airway by tissue; it is a congenital condition.
  • baby is unable to breathe through nose; therefore, during feeding → cyanosis & apnea.
  • spells of crying corrects the problem b/c it forces baby to breath through mouth, otherwise, they are nose breathers.
  • NG tube test to raise suspicion, confirm with CT with contrast of head.

PT p. 89, Kap q. Q0478m

Term
When is varicella immunoglobulin administered in a neonate?
Definition
  • varicella zoster Ig is administered immediately after delivery:
  • If mother had onset of chicken pox 5 days prior to delivery
  • or if chicken pox started within 2 days after delivery.
  • if beyond these time frames nothing needs to be done b/c these babies are at no greater risk of complications than older children.

PT p. 89

Term
What are some contraindications to breastfeeding?
Definition
  • HIV
  • active pulmonary TB (may start breastfeeding 2 weeks after anti-tuberculin thx).
  • malaria
  • typhoid fever
  • septicemia
  • mothers taking antineoplastic agents
  • herpetic breast lesions
  • varicella infection (<5 days earlier or 2 days after delivery).

PT p. 90, UW4892

Term
What is the Apt test?
Definition
  • Differentiates fetal Hb from adult Hb.
  • Neonatal melena and hematamesis can occur from gross placental bleeding at time of delivery.
  • fetal Hb is alkali resistant.

PT p.91

Term
How does necrotizing enterocolitis present?
Definition
  • usually occurs in premature babies (1 week after birth); it is an infarction of the bowel.
  • feeding intolerance and distended abdomen
  • 25 % have bloody stool
  • hypoxia, acidosis, emesis
  • dilated loops of bowel with air in bowel wall (pneumatosis intestinalis) via plain film radiographs; the intramural air can spread to portal venous system.
  • cause is unknown (not really infectious); combination of multiple factors: immature GI tract, mucosal injury, immature immune system.
  • be suspicious with progressively ↑ gastric residual volume. 
  • tx: bowel rest w/ NG tube decompression + systemic abx + serial abdominal films (looking for perforation).
  • if perforation results (free air under diaphragm) → surgery.

PT p. 93, 200, Kap q. MB000076, UW 2456

Term
[image]
Definition

Normal radiograph

 

PT p. 66

Term
How do infants raise their core temp?
Definition
  • ↑ metabolic demand → ↑ ventilation
  • lactate can accumulate → metabolic acidosis
  • infants rarely shiver in response to increase heat production.

PT p. 93

Term
Infant stops breathing for 20 seconds, becomes bradycardic and cyanotic. What is the problem?
Definition
  • apnea of prematurity (AOP)
  • apnea: cessation of air flow > 20 s, with bradycardia & hypoxemia.
  • incompletely developled respiratory center
  • this is particularly true in prematurity
  • tx: theophylline and caffeine

PT p. 94, Kap q. MB000084

Term
A neonate refuses to move his left (or) right arm. What is a possible cause?
Definition
  • fracture of the clavicle → pseudoparalysis (mimics Erb-Duschenne palsy).
  • fxr may not be apparent at birth; it may take a week before callus forms. Infant will present with a firm mass on clavicle.

PT p. 95

Term
What is the difference between neonatal gonococcal conjunctivitis and chlamydial conjunctivitis?
Definition
  • gonococcal - presents within the first 2-5 days of life.
  • chlamydial - presents within the first 5-14 days of life.

PT p. 97

Term
What causes hyaline membrane disease (HMD)?
Definition
  • it is an infant respiratory distress syndrome.
  • caused by surfactant deficiency
  • the incidence ↑ with ↓ gestational age & birth weight.
  • maternal diabetes is a risk factor.
  • ↓ lung compliance
  • ↓ lung volume
  • right-to-left shunt; 2° to ↑ pulmonary pressure b/c lungs haven't expanded yet.
  • tachypnea, retractions → distress becomes progressively worse over first few days of life to include grunting, nasal flaring, cyanosis.
  • CXR: shows fine reticular granularity.
  • tx: antenatal prevention w/ corticosteroids; postnatal w/ surfactant and respiratory support.

PT p. 98, UW 4831

Term
What are some findings in a neonate with Turner's?
Definition
  • low birth weight
  • edema of dorsum of hands & feet (due to abnormal development of lymphatic network; nonpitting)
  • redundant skin folds at nape of neck
  • low hairline
  • shield chest
  • coarctation of aorta
  • HTN
  • bicuspid aortic valve
  • horseshoe kidney

PT p. 98, UW 4764

Term
What does a paralyzed diaphragm look like on CXR?
Definition
  • remains elevated during inspiration.
  • on expiration asymmetry cannot be visualized.
  • during inspiration the mediastinum is pulled toward normal side (due to ↑ negative pressure generated by normal diaphragm) → further impairing normal respiration.
  • injury to phrenic nerve can occur with injury to brachial plexus.

PT p. 95

Term
What effect does propranolol have on a fetus?
Definition
  • cause growth retardation when given throughout pregnancy.
  • diminishes ability of asphyxiated infant to ↑ heart rate and cardiac output.
  • also associated with hypoglycemia and apnea.

PT p. 101

Term
Describe the course of physiologc jaundice.
Definition
  • becomes apparent on 2nd or 3rd day of life.
  • peaks to no > than 12 mg/dl on 4th or 5th day and disappears by end of week.
  • rate of rise is < 5 mg/dl per 24 hours & levels of conjugated bilirubin do not exceed 1 mg/dl.
  • jaundice that appears during 1st day of life is usually a feature of hemolysis; accompanied by unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, reticulocytosis, evidence of RBC destruction on smear.
  • occurs b/c of ↑ breakdown of fetal RBCs; result of shortened lifespan of fetal RBC and higher mass of RBC in neonates. Also, hepatic capacity is ↓; ↓ activity of glucuronyl transferase (conjugating enzyme).

PT p. 101

Term
What are some physical findings associated with congenital hypothyroidism?
Definition
  • umbilical hernia
  • distended abdomen
  • large head & large fontanelles
  • hypothermic
  • feeding difficulties
  • generalized hypotonia
  • coarse facial features
  • macroglossia
  • constipation and jaundice
  • bradycardia
  • most common cause is thyroid dysgenesis (85% of cases).

PT p. 103, Kap q. s2s347m, UW 3662

Term
What lab finding accompanies neural tube defects?
Definition

↑ α-fetoprotein in amniotic fluid

PT p. 104

Term
What causes transient tachypnea of the newborn?
Definition
  • retained fetal lung fluid
  • occurs quickly (15 minutes of life)
  • tachypnea, retractions, grunting, and sometimes cyanosis.
  • CXR: prominent vascular markings with fluid in the fissures & hyperexpansion (flat diaphragms).
  • occurs after vaginal delivery, but especially after caesarean delivery.

PT p. 104

Term
What is of concern in an infant with fifth-finger polydactyly?
Definition
  • black child: nothing, very common (by 10x), typically familial; just excise.
  • white child: careful examination of cardiac system.
  • However, preaxial (thumb-side) polydactyly is unusual and should be further investigated.

PT p. 105

Term
Harlequin Syndrome
Definition
  • transient change in skin color of an otherwise asymptomatic newborn (usually preterm).
  • dependent side of entire body turns red while upper side remains pale.

PT p. 106

Term
What can occur if hematocrit > 65% in infants?
Definition
  • hyperviscosity
  • respiratory distress
  • hyperbilirubinemia
  • ↑ fetal RBC breakdown → ↑ phosphate → hypocalcemia
  • renal vein thrombosis
  • CHF
  • seizure/convulsions
  • most common cause of polycythemia in a term infant is delayed clamping of umbilical cord resulting in excess transfer of placental blood.

PT p. 106, UW 4819

Term
Congenital Rubella
Definition
  • Blueberry muffin rash
  • IUGR
  • cataracts
  • microphthalmia
  • myocarditis
  • PDA
  • pulmonary artery stenosis
  • septal defects
  • highly contagious (isolate babies with Rubella, Syphilis, and CMV).

PT p. 108

Term
What is the classic triad of congenital toxoplasmosis?
Definition
  • hydrocephalus
  • chorioretinitis
  • intracranial calcifications

PT p. 108

Term
Congenital CMV
Definition
  • purpura or petechiae
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • jaundice
  • IUGR
  • microcephaly
  • chorioretinitis
  • intracranial calcifications
  • sensorineural hearing loss

PT p. 108

Term
What causes galactosemia?
Definition
  • galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase
  • galactose-1-phosphate accumulates (normally converted to glucose).
  • failure to thrive
  • jaundice
  • hepatomegaly
  • infantile cataracts (galacticol accumulates in eye); can reverse with early treatment.
  • hypoglycemia → convulsions/seizures.
  • MR
  • tx: eliminate galactose and lactose (galactose + glucose).
  • ↑ risk for neonatal sepsis.
  • galactokinase deficiency: cataracts only.

FA p. 109, UW 3193

Term
Phenylketonuria
Definition
  • cannot metabolize phenylalanine → tyrosine
  • buildup of phenylalanie → severe MR
  • growth retardation
  • seizure
  • musty odor
  • fair skin, blue eyes
  • photosensitive
  • eczema

PT p. 110, FA p. 112, Kap q. s2s295m

Term
[image]
Definition
  • boot shaped heart (apex lifted off diaphragm due to RV hypertrophy).
  • indicative of tetralogy of Fallot
  • overriding aorta (dextroposition of aorta), pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow obstruction), VSD, right ventricular hypertrophy.

PT p. 129, Kap q. Q0281m

Term
What physical exam finding is associated with an ASD?
Definition
  • fixed split S2
  • does not change with respirations.
  • palpable right ventricular systolic lift along the left sternal border.

PT p. 131

Term
What findings are associated with Kawasaki disease?
Definition
  • prolonged fever
  • erythematous macular exanthem over body
  • epidermal peeling on hands & feet
  • ocular conjunctivitis
  • dry & cracked lips
  • oropharyngeal mucosal erythema
  • red throat
  • cervical lymphadenopathy
  • arthritis
  • complication: coronary artery aneurysm and thrombosis.
  • tx: IV Ig and high-dose aspirin.
  • can be confused with GAS (scartlet fever: scarlatiniform rash, desquamation, erythema of mucosal membranes, cervical lymphadenopathy).

PT p. 132, 279

Term
What is the most common cause of myocarditis?
Definition
  • coxsackievirus B
  • adenovirus

PT p. 133

Term
What findings indicate Ebstein's anomaly?
Definition
  • systolic murmur in pulmonic area.
  • middiastolic murmur along lower left sternal border.
  • right atrial hypertrophy.
  • ventricular block pattern in right chest leads.
  • cyanosis and S3 & S4 (quadruple rhythm).

PT p. 133

Term
Spindle-shaped swellings in finger joints.
Definition
  • juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

PT p. 134

Term
Which congenital heart defect causes left ventricular hypertrophy? right ventricular hypertrophy?
Definition
  • tricuspid atresia (left axis deviaton on ECG).
  • transposition of the great vessels (presents with early cyanosis); cyanosis in tetrology of Fallot is not seen in the first few days of life.

PT p. 135

Term
What must be administered to keep the ductus arteriosus patent?
Definition
  • Patent ductus arteriosus w/ Prostaglandin E1.
  • Indomethacin Interupts PDA.

PT p. 136

Term
What is the male version of Turner syndrome?
Definition
  • Noonan syndrome
  • occurs in both sexes
  • short stature
  • downslanting palpebral fissures
  • ptosis
  • low set malformed ears
  • webbed neck
  • shield like chest
  • cryptorchidism
  • pulmonic stenosis

PT p. 136

Term
How does neonatal lupus occur?
Definition
  • transfer of maternal IgG autoAb
  • thrombocytopenia, neutropenia, rash, liver dysfxn, congenital heart block (permanent, frequently requires pacing).

PT p. 137

Term
Recurrent pneumonia, rapid resolution of CXR findings (3 days), hemoptysis.
Definition
  • Idiopathic Pulmonary Hemosiderosis (IPH); pulmonary hemorrhage.
  • additional findings: clubbed fingers (suggestive of chronic process), occult blood in stool (from swallowing sputum).
  • dx: bronchoalveolar lavage → hemosiderin laden mø.
  • Heiner syndrome (distinct subset of IPH with hypersensitivity to cow's mild); d/c milk → improvement.

PT p. 160

Term
What is the danger of treating obstructive sleep apnea with O2?
Definition
  • O2 ↓ respiratory drive in severe OSA (use with caution).
  • must be dx w/ polysomnography to exclude other causes of snoring.
  • untreated OSA → cor pulmonale.

PT p. 161

Term
What is a feared complication of staph (and other) pneumonia?
Definition
  • tension pneumothorax
  • caused by bacterial toxin production → rupture of alveoli.

PT p. 161

Term
Inspiratory stridor vs. biphasic (inspiratory & expiratory stridor)
Definition
  • inspiratory stridor is classic for croup (tx - inhaled epi & oral steroids); most common cause is laryngomalacia (soft immature cartilage of upper larynx collapses inward during inhalation; epiglottis rolling is dx; noise ↑ when supine or crying, and during URI; child should be held upright for 30 minutes after feeding & never feed while lying down; self-limiting and will improve gradually w/ age).
  • biphasic should make you consider alternative dx
  • if biphasic, but no drooling and dysphagia, think tracheitis (bacterial) → intubate & IV abx.
  • biphasic w/ drooling and dysphagia (epiglottitis; commonly caused by GAS, Moraxella, S. pneumo; used to be Hib) → intubate in OR; patient will have nasal flaring, and retractions.

PT p. 161, Kap q. Q0414m, q. MB000074m, UW 2432

Term
Grades of Asthma
Definition
  • Intermittent - daytime symptoms ≤ 2/week; ≤ 2 nocturnal awakenings/month. tx - PRN β2-agonist.
  • Mild Persistent - symptoms > 2/week, 3-4 nocturnal awakenings/month; tx - low dose daily inhaled glucocorticoid.
  • Moderate Persistent - daily symptoms, nocturnal awakenings > 1/ week. tx - low dose of inhaled glucocorticoid & long-acting inhaled β-agonist.
  • Severe Persistent - symptoms throughout day, nightly awakenings. tx - medium or high dose  inhaled glucocorticoid & long-acting inhaled β-agonist.
  • any grade > intermittent requires glucocorticoid thx!

UpToDate

Term
What is eosinophilic esophagitis?
Definition
  • allergic response
  • symptoms similar to GERD, but does not respond to acid blockade.
  • bx reveals eø
  • tx w/ corticosteroids and avoidence of specific food allergens.
  • some have ↑ IgE or peripheral eø.

PT p. 189

Term
[image]
Definition
  • malrotation of gut w/ volvulus (curly "Q" twist of barium).
  • most common is when cecum fails to move to lower right quadrant.
  • present in first few weeks of life with bilious vomiting and intermittent abdominal pain.
  • tx - surgical.

PT p. 189

Term
[image]
Definition
  • meconium ileus; associated with polyhydramnios.
  • virtually pathognomonic for CF
  • echogenic bowel on prenatal US
  • dilated loops of small bowel
  • enema shows microcolon from disuse.
  • X-ray shows: dilated small bowel and a granular, ground glass appearance in lower abdomen.
  • complications: perforation and meconium peritonitis.

PT p. 190, UW 2466

Term
Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae Ab (ASCA) vs p-ANCA
Definition
  • ASCA - Crohns (55%), uncommon in UC.
  • p-ANCA - UC (70%) and Crohn's (<20%)
  • most serious complication of UC is toxic megacolon.
  • strictures more common in Crohn's.
  • risk of colon cancer is present in Crohn's, but not as ↑ as in UC.
  • Crohn's (granulomatous colitis).

PT p. 190, 193

Term
3-year-old presents with chronic constipation despite frequent use of stool softeners; one stool per week. No hx of encopresis. Did not pass stool for 48 hours after birth. Workup? Dx?
Definition
  • barium enema and rectal manometry.
  • bx of rectum looking for aganglionic mucosa.
  • Hirschsprung disease
  • no encopresis ≠ functional (ψ) constipation.
  • in rectal manometry the normal relaxation of internal rectal sphincter does not occur.

PT p. 191

Term
1-year-old in the 95th % for weight, has been spitting up food since 1-month of age. Otherwise asymptomatic. Dx?
Definition
  • occasional gastroesophageal reflux during infancy (physiologic); GERD is pathologic (respiratory symptoms, esophagitis, related apnea, weight loss.
  • presents during 1-2 months of life.
  • resolves by 1-2 years of age.
  • attempt tx w/ smaller feeds, thickened formula, avoiding high-fat meals.
  • tx medically only if infant has other problems related to reflux (apnea, bradycardia, or aspiration pneumonia).

PT p. 193, 194

Term
How does Meckels diveticulum present?
Definition
  • painless rectal bleeding in the first 2 years of life.
  • lining of Meckel diverticulum usually contains acid secreting gastric mucosa → ulcerations of diverticulum or adjacent ileum.
  • Bleeding, perforation, or diverticulitis can occur; presentation indistinguishable from acute appendicitis.
  • dx w/ 99m technetium scan (labels gastric mucosa).
  • Rules of 2: 2% of population, 2x more common in males, found w/in 2 feet of ileocecal valve, 2 inches long, approx 2% develop complications (bowel obstruction, hemorrhage, diverticulitis (22%), umbilical fistula).

PT p. 195, Kap q. m001089

Term
How can obstructive jaundice be differentiated from hereditary jaundice?
Definition
  • direct bilirubin > 20% of total bilirubin (total: 12 mg/dl, direct: 3.5 mg/dl).
  • In obstructive jaundice consider CF and α1-antitrypsin.

PT p. 196

Term
What problem is specific for bottle feeding fruit juices or the use of sweetened pacifiers?
Definition
  • extensive maxillary decay (especially frontal).
  • normal mandibular front teeth.

PT p. 198

Term
Which compounds are not adsorbed by activated charcoal?
Definition
  • etOH
  • acids
  • ferrous sulfate
  • strong bases (drain/oven cleaners)
  • cyanide
  • lithium
  • potassium
  • Good For: phenobarbital & TCA.

PT p. 199

Term
What does the modified barium swallow allow you to see?
Definition
  • visualization of the swallow reflex.

PT p. 201

Term
What is Sandifer syndrome?
Definition
  • infant arching of back and becoming tonic
  • this occurs to protect airway from refluxing gastric contents.
  • dx w/ esophageal pH probe.

PT p. 202

Term
Which medications can cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?
Definition
  • lithium
  • methicillin
  • rifamipin
  • amphotericin

PT p. 218

Term
What is the difference between RTA type2 and Fanconi syndrome?
Definition
  • proximal RTA (type 2) is caused by a failure of the proximal tubular cells to reabsorb filtered HCO3-.
  • FS: more generalized dysfunction of proximal tubular cells and includes phosphaturia, glycosuria, aminoaciduria, uricosuria, and tubular proteinemia.
  • FS can have both hereditary and acquired causes.
  • Hereditary FS: cystinosis, galactosemia, Wilson disease.
  • Acquired FS: gentamicin, outdated tetracycline, cephalothin, cidofovir, valproic acid, streptozocin, 6-mercaptopurine, toluene (glue sniffing).

PT p. 219

Term
What is phemosis? paraphemosis?
Definition
  • phemosis: inability to retract the foreskin; normal up until age 3.
  • paraphemosis: painful condition where retracted foreskin gets trapped behind the glans → venous congestion & edema.
  • white cheeselike material(cellular debris) arising from foreskin is normal; this occurs as foreskin adhesions detach from the glans.

PT p. 219

Term
How is vesicoureteral reflex managed?
Definition
  • low grade lesions (grade I & II, no dilatation): close observation, daily low-dose abx, UA/culture every 3-4 months.
  • grade III: dilatation of ureter and collecting system.
  • grade IV: grade III + blunting of calyces.
  • grade V (dilatation & tortuosity of uereters): requires surgical reimplantation of ureters.
  • If any breakthrough infections occur while on prophylactic abx → surgery (also, if new renal scars are detected).

PT p. 220, Kap q. Q0486m

Term
Prune Belly Syndrome
Definition
  • lax, wrinkled abdominal wall (absent abdominal muscular tone).
  • undescended testes (intrabdominal testes)
  • urinary tract anomalies (hydronephrosis and dilated ureters/bladder).
  • oligohydramnios
  • pulmonary hypoplasia

PT p. 217, 220

Term
Acute lobar nephronia
Definition
  • it is in the middle of the spectrum between pyelonephritis and renal abscess.
  • patients have prolonged fever curves despite appropriate abx.
  • dx: CT → wedge shaped area distinct from normal kidney w/ minimal contrast enhancement.
  • tx: prolonged IV and PO abx.

PT p. 221

Term
How do ulcerations of the finger tips result in a patient with SLE?
Definition
  • raynaud phenomenon (vasospasm) → ↓ blood flow → digital ulceration and gangrene.

PT .p 224

Term
Describe the features of vulvovaginitis.
Definition
  • burning with urination (2° to contact btw raw skin & urine).
  • foul-smelling discharge from vagina (usually brown or green in color).
  • reddened vulva
  • nonspecific vulvovaginitis, aka chemical vulvovaginitis.
  • causes: tight-fitting clothing, nylon undergarments, prolonged bubble baths.

PT p. 226

Term
How is a hydrocele managed?
Definition
  • observe, small hydroceles usually resolve spontaneously in the first year of life.
  • if large, may require surgical repair.
  • common condition affecting 2% of males.

PT p. 226

Term
What findings are associated with Alport syndrome?
Definition
  • hematuria (microscopic, but can be gross after a URI).
  • hearing loss → deafness
  • end stage renal failure
  • X-linked dominant disorder

PT p. 227

Term
How does idiopathic calciuria present?
Definition
  • recurrent gross hematuria
  • persistent microscopic hematuria
  • dysuria
  • abdominal pain
  • no initial stone formation; over time stones may form in 15% of cases.

PT p. 228

Term
Bartter syndrome
Definition
  • aka juxtaglomerular hyperplasia
  • hyperreninemia (BP is usually normal)
  • hypokalemia
  • alkalosis
  • hyperaldosteronism
  • hypokalemia
  • presents btw 6 and 12 months of age with failure to thrive, constipation, weakness, vomiting, polyuria, polydypsia.
  • tx: prevent dehydration, provide nutritional support, correct K+ level.

PT p. 229

Term
Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
Definition
  • resembles MS (often difficult to differentiate during first attack).
  • follows infections and some immunizations: URI, varicella, mycoplasma, HSV, rubella, rubeola, mumps.
  • MRI → disseminated multifocal white matter lesions that enhance w/o contrast.
  • tx: high dose corticosteroids.

PT p. 244

Term
Homocystinuria
Definition
  • poor growth
  • arachnodactyly (fingers are abnormally long or slender).
  • osteoporosis
  • dislocated lens
  • MR
  • thromboembolic phenomena can occur → vascular occlusive disease → acute infantile hemiplegia
  • homocysteine is converted to methionine (via B12 & methylenet-THF-reductase) or cystathionine → cysteine via cystathionine synthase.

PT p. 245, FA p. 113

Term
Myotonic Muscular Dystrophy
Definition
  • unlike other forms of myopathies distal muscle weakness is the feature of this disease.
  • ↑ CK
  • ptosis, cataracts, baldness, hypogonadism, facial immobility, psychomotor retardation.
  • temporal wasting, thin cheeks, upper lip in an inverted V shape.
  • Myotonia or delayed muscle relaxation is a prominent feature of the disease; classically unable to relax grip after handshake. 
  • neonatal respiratory distress.
  • autosomal dominant

PT p. 248, UW 3661

Term
What kind of migraine is predominant in children?
Definition
  • common migraine (bifrontal HA w/o aura or diffuse throbbing of only a few hours).
  • HA terminated w/ vomiting or sleep.

PT p. 248

Term
[image]
Definition
  • periventricular calcification 2° to congenital CMV infection.
  • toxoplasms calcifications are soft appearing and scattered throughout cortex. 

PT p. 254

Term
An adolescent presents with symmetric, slowly progressive distal muscular atrophy of legs and feet; hammertoes and pes cavus.
Definition
  • Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease; most common hereditary neuropathy.
  • CMT-2 is the only axonal motor neuropathy of CMT family; others are primarily demyelinating.
  • Hereditary sensory & autonomic neuropathy (HSAN) is a hereditary neuropathy that affects autonomic sensory or motor nerves.

BP p. 165

Term
What is encephalofacial angiomatosis commonly known as?
Definition
  • Sturge-Weber syndrome
  • facial cutaneous angiomas and leptomeningeal angiomas.
  • pt may be mentally retarded.
  • often exhibits hemiparesis or hemiatrophy on the side opposite the port-wine nevus.
  • seizures may develop.

PT p. 54

Term
How is tic douloureuz tx?
Definition
  • carbamazepine, phenytoin, gabapentin
  • if pt does not respond to pharmthx → radiofrequency ablation.
  • aka trigeminal neuralgia (injury to CN V)
  • pain routinely triggered by cold stimuli.
  • often associated with MS (aka symptomatic trigeminal neuralgia, b/c symptom of another condition), but also basilar artery aneurysms, acoustic schwannomas, and posterior fossa meningiomas.

PT p. 81, Kap imq42m

Term
Werdnig-Hoffmann disease
Definition
  • congenital motor neuron disease
  • weakness, hypotonia, muscle atrophy
  • lethal (weeks to months)
  • destruction of anterior horn (LMN) → flaccid paralysis.
  • it is one of the spinal muscular atrophies (SMA).

PT p. 220, BP p. 158

Term
What is the recommended thx for Listeria monocytogenes?
Definition
  • ampicillin plus gentamicin

PT p. 122

Term
What can Bartonella henselae cause?
Definition
  • cat-scratch disease
  • meningitis in immunocompetent
  • encephalitis w/ status epilepticus and bacillary angiomatosis in HIV pts.
  • presents initially with regional adenitis (inflammation of lymph node or gland)
  • MRI shows ↑ signal intensity in pulvinar (posterior thalamus).

PT p. 124

Term
Which tumors are most common in children?
Definition
  • pilocytic astrocytoma
  • medulloblastomas (arise in cerebellar vermis and grow down into 4th ventricle).
  • ependymomas (grows as a mass filling 4th ventricle). 
  • cerebellar gliomas
  • found infratentorially (posterior fossa)

PT p. 132, Kap s2s353m, Q0146m

Term
A 9-year-old patient presents with precocious puberty and poorly controlled seizures. Her seizures are typically preceded by fits of laughter. What kind brain tumor does she have?
Definition
  • hypothalamic hamartoma
  • acromegaly is also possible
  • paroxysms of laughter are known as gelastic seizures.

PT p. 135

Term
What is acute disseminated encephalopmyelitis?
Definition
  • after infxn (chicken pox, measles) or vaccine (rabies, small pox).
  • examination of the brain reveals damage to small blood vessels and perivascular tissues in the white matter of cerebral hemispheres.
  • dx suggested by MRI or CT with rapidly evolving white matter damage w/ ↑ ESR, ↑ CSF pressure w/ ↑ RBC/WBC/protein.
  • difficult to differentiate from MS if it is the first MS attack.

PT p. 199, Kap m000690

Term
What does adrenal insufficiency and progressive degenerative disease of white matter suggest?
Definition
  • adrenoleukodystrophy
  • X-linked disorder of ATP-binding transporter in peroxisomal system responsible for long-chain fatty acid metabolism → accumulation of long-chain fatty acid in adrenal cortical cells.
  • symptoms of adrenal insufficiency: fatigue, weakness, hypotension, orthostasis, muscle aches, hypoglycemia, confusion, N&V, diarrhea

PT p. 199

Term
What are the signs and symptoms associated with Sturge-Weber disease?
Definition
  • port-wine stain (nevus flammeus)
  • ipsilateral leptomeningeal angiomas
  • pheochromocytomas
  • glaucoma
  • seizures
  • hemiparesis
  • MR
  • head CT → calcifications in cerebral cortex in railroad track pattern.
  • coarctation of aorta
  • aka PHACE

FA p. 467, PT-neuro p. 206, PT p. 259

Term
Tuberous Sclerosis
Definition
  • H - hamartomas of the skin
  • A - adenoma sebaceum (cutaneous angiofibromas, red patches on face containing many blood vessels).
  • M - mitral regurgitation
  • A - ash leaf spots
  • R - cardiac rhabdomyoma
  • T - tuberous sclerosis
  • O - autOsomal dominant
  • M - MR
  • A - renal angiomyolipoma
  • S - seizures
  • also retinal phakomas (gliomatous tumors that require no tx and are principal criterion for making dx of tuberous sclerosis).
  • CNS calcifications; calcified subependymal glial nodules; can → obstructive hydrocephalus.
  • infantile spasms (may be confused with colic); tx w/ ACTH IM gel (6-8 weeks of tx)

FA p. 467, PT p. 219, 220, Kap m000365m

Term
Neurofibromatosis type I
Definition
  • cafe-au-lait spots
  • lisch nodules (pigmented iris hamartomas)
  • neurofibromas in skin (short sessile or pedunculated lesions)
  • optic gliomas
  • pheochromocytomas, meningiomas
  • chrom 17
  • macrocephaly, short stature, feeding problems, and learning disabilities.
  • bony abnormalities - sphenoid dysplasia, congenital pseudoarthritis, kyphoscoliosis, pathologic fractures.

FA p. 467, PT-neuro p. 275, PT p. 258

Term
What is the difference between Tay-Sachs and Niemann Pick disease?
Definition
  • TS has no hepatosplenomegaly
  • both have cherry red spot on macula, neurodegenerative disorder.
  • TS - hexosaminidase A deficiency → GM2 accumulation.
  • NP - sphingomyelinase def → sphingomyelin accumulation.

FA p. 116

Term
What is the difference btw Chiari malformation type I and II?
Definition
  • type I (adult) - cerebellar tonsils extend below foramen magnum; not symptomatic until adults. symptoms are referable to the cerebellum.
  • type II - cerebellar anatomy more deranged; small posterior fossa → downward displacement of vermis & medulla below foramen magnum → hydrocephalus and MR; symptomatic at birth of infancy. Also associated with myelomeningocele & syringomyelia.

PT p. 222, Kap Q0257m

Term
Ataxia Telangiectasia
Definition
  • Triad of cerebellar defects (ataxia), spider angiomas (telangiectasias), IgA deficiency.
  • poor smooth pursuit of objects with eyes.
  • Defect in ATM gene (DNA repair) → ↑ cancer risk (lymphoma, leukemia, radiation sensitivity).

PT p. 238

Term
Myotonic Muscular Dystrophy
Definition
  • psychomotor retardation can be presenting complaint (late walker, clumsy, sluggish). 
  • ↑ creatine kinase (esp in preclinical phase)
  • neonatal respiratory distress
  • in older children, the following:
  • problems relaxing grip
  • hypersomnolence
  • ptosis
  • premature baldness
  • testicular atrophy
  • cataracts
  • prominent distal muscle weakness.

PT-neuro p. 232, PT-peds p. 248

Term
What can develop in a child with lead poisoning?
Definition
  • toxic levels → brain edema → ↑ ICP
  • chronic: ataxia, tremor, psychomotor retardation, MR.

PT p. 239

Term
A 5-year-old girl presents with rapidly ascending flaccid quadraparesis over 2 days. She had been camping in the woods with her family. What is the likely dx?
Definition
  • tick paralysis
  • removal of tick → remarkable resolution
  • rapidity of progression & absence of ↑ CSF protein makes GBS unlikely.
  • holycyclotoxin interferes with presynaptic release at the NMJ.

PT p. 242

Term
Which neurocutaneous syndrome is associated with glaucoma?
Definition
  • Sturge-Weber syndrome
  • chromosome 3

PT p. 259

Term
What can cause one-sided facial pain and blurry vision in a child?
Definition
  • infection (Gradenigo syndrome)
  • it is an osteomyelitis of the petrous pyramid
  • abducens & trigeminal nerves are affected as they pass the tip of the petrous bone.
  • chronic ear infection may extend to the petrous pyramid.

PT p. 262

Term
If mastoiditis is untreated, which structures can be affected?
Definition
  • if it extends supratentorially → temporal lobe → wernicke's aphasia (fluent aphasia).
  • infratentorially → cerebellum → ataxia, vertigo, N&V, morning HA.
  • the lesions are usually abscesses formed by bacteria.

PT p. 274

Term
What is Lyme (Borrelia) radiculopathy?
Definition
  • it is a non-compressive sciatica
  • sciatic nerve injury → foot drop (common peroneal nerve → deep peroneal nerve → anterior tibial muscle); irritation of spinal roots to sciatic nerve can occur with Lyme radiculopathy.

PT p. 306

Term
What part of the CNS/PNS is affected in Friedreich's ataxia?
Definition
  • spinal cord
  • both dorsal and ventral spinocerebellar tracts are involved.
  • posterior columns and lateral corticospinal tracts are also involved.
  • Chrom 9 (frataxin), recessive
  • pes cavus, ataxia, absent jerk reflexes, hammer toes, scoliosis.
  • FA is also associated with necrosis and degeneration of cardiac muscle fibers → myocarditis, myocardial fibrosis, and cardiomyopathy.
  • Affected neurological tracts are the same as vitamin B12 & E deficiency.

PT-neuro p. 308, UW 2439

Term
What other conditions are associated with Friedreich's disease?
Definition
  • concentric hypertrophic cardiomyopathy; most common cause of death.
  • diabetes in 10% of pts.
  • cardiac conduction system
  • optic atrophy (1° to Friedreich or 2° to DM)

PT-neuro p. 308, UW3985

Term
What is responsible for the peripheral neuropathy seen in Friedreich's ataxia?
Definition

loss of cells in the dorsal root ganglia → hyporeflexia

PT-neuro p. 309

Term
A 6-year-old presents with limb & gait ataxia and dysarthria. What must be on the differential?
Definition
  • postinfectious cerebellitis
  • between ages 2-7
  • usually follows varicella or other viral infxn.
  • lasts a few weeks → complete recovery.

BP-neuro p. 59

Term
How is postherpetic neuralgia treated?
Definition
  • TCA (imipramine, desipramine, amitryptiline), gabapentin, pregabalin.
  • acyclovir & prednisone to treat an acute episode of zoster and perhaps ↓ incidence of postherpetic neuralgia.

PT p. 85, Kap imq816

Term
A patient presents with descending paralysis, what are you worried about?
Definition
  • botulism

UW 2289

Term
How is absence seziures dx? tx?
Definition
  • EEG; hyperventilation, photic stimuls, and sleep can trigger absence seizures.
  • ethosuximide or valproic acid.

UW 2279

Term
What kind of thx is indicated in an infant born to an HIV + mother?
Definition
  • starting at 6 weeks TMP-SMX for P jirovecii.

PT p. 278

Term
How does Reye syndrome occur?
Definition
  • Aspirin after viral infection (especially flu, varicella)
  • fatal hepatoencephalopathy
  • mitochondrial abnormalities, fatty liver
  • ↑ liver enzymes and ammonia
  • total bilirubin is normal → no icterus
  • excitability, delirium, combativeness
  • seizures, cerebral edema, herniation
  • mechanism: aspirin metabolites ↓ β-oxidation by reversible inhibition of mitochondrial enzyme.

PT p. 278, FA p. 361, UW 2896

Term
Bacteria that causes bloody diarrhea.
Definition
  • SECSY
  • Shigella, E. coli (EHEC), campylobacter, Salmonella, Yersinia.
  • toxic encephalopathy can be seen w/ Shigella (Ekiri Syndrome) → seizures.

PT p. 279

Term
What is hydrops fetalis? What can cause it?
Definition
  • accumulation of fluid in at least 2 fetal compartments.
  • skin/scalp, pleura (pleural effusion), percardium (pericardial effusion), abdomen (ascites).
  • usually occurs from fetal anemia (caused by maternal parvovirus B19 infection, ABO blood group incompatibility).

PT p. 281

Term
What is the danger of pertussis and newborn infants?
Definition
  • despite mother being immunized infant is at great risk of infection.
  • pertussis not entirely prevented by transplacentally acquired Ab.
  • tx with erythromycin prophylatically in exposed, susceptible people; even in immunized household contacts, highly contagious (75% of immunized will develop it)!!!
  • no need to immunize infant if culture comes back positive; infection confers lifelong immunity.

PT p. 282, UW 3906

Term
What is the difference between early onset group B strep and late onset GBS? What are the common causes of meningitis in a neonate?
Definition
  • early (first 7 days of life): from maternal complications (prolonged rupture and chorioamnionitis).
  • late (after 7 days): environmental exposures not related to mother.
  • up to age 3 months: #1 GBS, #2 E. coli, #3 Listeria monocytogenes.

PT p. 284, Kap q. m000804

Term
What can cause toxic shock syndrome?
Definition
  • TSST-1 from tampons & diaphragms, and non-menstrual (pneumonia, abscess, cellulitis, bacteremia, osteomyelitis).
  • presentation: high fever, hypotension, vomiting, diarrhea, erythematous macular rash, injected conjunctiva & oral mucosa, and strawberry tongue.

PT p. 285

Term
Describe the pathophyiology of HUS and its similarity to TTP.
Definition
  • hemolytic uremic syndrome - shiga/shiga-like toxin deposited in glomerular endothelium → apoptosis & binding of leukocytes → thrombosis; also shiga toxin inactivates ADAMTS13 (metalloproteinase) → vWF multimers form → platelet aggregation.
  • HUS: oliguria, hematuria, kidney failure, thrombocytopenia; tx w/ peritoneal dialysis.
  • thrombotic thrombocytopenia: inactive ADAMTS13 possibly via Ab formation.
  • TTP symptoms: thrombocytopenia (bruising and purpura), neurologic symptoms (hallucinations, AMS, stroke, HA), kidney failure, fever.
Term
What are some common complications of S. aureus pneumonia?
Definition
  • pleural effusion
  • empyema
  • pyopneumothorax
  • commonly child has URI for several days, with abrupt onset of fever and respiratory distress.

PT p. 297

Term
What is the duration of mycoplasma pneumonia?
Definition
  • worsens for first 2 weeks and slowly resolves over ensuing 3 to 4 weeks.
  • CXR - interstitial or bronchial pattern, especially in lower lobes.

PT p. 297

Term
How is ITP treated?
Definition
  • idiopathic (immune) thrombocytopenic purpura - most cases occur after viral infection; Ab against GpIIb/IIIa; tx - if platelet > 30,000, just observe. IV Ig and corticosteroids; sometimes splenectomy.
  • heparin induced thrombocytopenia - stop heparin; due to Ab formation.

PT p. 308

Term
What level of Lead (Pb) is considered dangerous and can lead to microcytic anemia?
Definition
  • > 10 μg/dl
  • free protoporphyrins accumulate in blood (this occurs with iron deficiency anemia as well, so lead level is crucial).

PT p. 309

Term
What findings are associated with Transient Erythroblastopenia of Childhood (TEC)?
Definition
  • commonly dx between 1 to 3 years and some have a hx of recent viral infection (but NOT parvovirus).
  •  profound anemia → pallor, tachycardia & murmur
  •  reticulocytopenia, with marked reduction in erythrocyte precursors in marrow; normal RBC adenosine level.
  • lasts for several months and may require 1 to 2 transfusions.
  • Diamond-Blackfan anemia (DBA) is congenital and presents in infancy with an ↑ RBC adenosine level; triphalangeal thumb.

PT p. 309, Kap p. m000386

Term
What can trigger hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficiency?
Definition
  • sulfa drugs, antimalarials, nitrofurans, napthalene mothballs, fava beans, infection.
  • heinz bodies → bite cells.

PT p. 311

Term
What can be administered to increase levels of vWF in von Willebrand disease type I?
Definition
  • desmopressin
  • type I - decreased production of normal vWF.

PT p. 314

Term
What are the symptoms of Hodgkin disease?
Definition
  • fever, night sweats, malaise, weight loss, and pruritis, pulmonary findings (cough), nontender lymphadenopathy (cervical, supraclavicular, axillary, inguinal).
  • dx: first CXR looking for mediastinal mass, then bx nodes.
  • it is a B-cell disease, 50% associated with EBV.

PT p. 315

Term
Patient has hypodense calcification of his bones and a hx of fractures. His brother has the same problem. Their condition is unresponsive to dietary changes or vitamin supplementation. What is the likely condition?
Definition
  • vitamin D resistant Rickets
  • X-linked dominant trait
  • problem with renal tubular reabsorption of phospate → hyperphosphaturia & hypophosphatemia.
  • ↓ conversion of 25-hydroxyvitamin D to 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D.
  • Ca2+ concentration is usually normal.
  • note: PTH "phosphate trashing hormone."

PT p. 353

Term
Blue Sclera and hx of bone fxr w/ minimal trauma.
Definition
  • Osteogenesis Imperfecta
  • normal serum Ca & PO4 concentrations; it is a problem with bone matrix.

PT p. 354

Term
What is secreted by medullary thyroid carcinoma?
Definition
  • calcitonin b/c it arises from C cells of the thyroid.
  • normal Ca and PO4

PT p. 354

Term
What is different about the neonatal period of a patient with Prader-Willi syndrome when compared to childhood?
Definition
  • feeding difficulty → failure to thrive
  • little movement in utero and hypotonic during neonatal period.
  • later obesity is the problem (hyperphagia), hypotonia, hypogonadism, almond shaped palpebral fissures.

PT p. 355

Term
Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome
Definition
  • autosomal recessive
  • obesity, MR, hypogonadism, polydactyly, and retinitis pigmentosa with night blindness.

PT p. 355

Term
Holt-Oram syndrome
Definition
  • abnormalities of upper extremities (hypoplastic radii, thumb abnormalities); low sloping shoulders, right hand attached at elbow w/ agenesis of forearm, bifid thumb.
  • cardiac abnormalities
  • missing chest wall musculature

PT p. 357

Term
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Definition
  • MR, microcephaly, holoprosencephaly
  • short palpebral fissure (space where upper & lower eyelids meet).
  • short nose
  • thin upper lip
  • large philtrum
  • heart defects

PT p. 357

Term
Diabetic embryopathy findings
Definition
  • infants born to diabetic moms are frequently macrosomic, BUT can have other anomalies.
  • congenital heart disease (asymmetric septal hypertrophy, transposition of the great vessels).
  • caudal regression (hypoplastic lower extremities).
  • vertebral defects
  • single umbilical artery
  • jaundice
  • small left colon or duodenal atresia
  • renal vein thrombosis
  • hyaline membrane disease (aka infant respiratory distress syndrome) → tachypnea, retractions → progressively worsens to include  grunting, nasal flaring, cyanosis.

PT p. 357, Kap q. m000420, UW 4831, 3835

Term
What is the difference between growth hormone deficiency and achondroplasia?
Definition
  • GH deficiency → proportionate growth retardation (upper to lower segment ratio is normal).
  • achodroplasia → stunted long bones, normal growth of trunk & head; autosomal dominant; marked lumbar lordosis, stubby fingers.

PT p. 345, 347

Term
What symptoms are associated with newborn hypothyroidism?
Definition
  • jaundice
  • constipation
  • sluggishness
  • poor feeding
  • apnea
  • macroglossia
  • excessive sleepiness

PT p. 346

Term
Adolescent fractures femur and is immobilized. What complications can occur?
Definition
  • immobilization hypercalcemia → hypercalciuria → nephropathy, nephrocalcinosis, hypertensive encephalopathy, and convulsions.
  • dx: urinary calcium to creatinine ratio > 0.2 = hypercalciuria.

PT p. 349

Term
What findings are associated with congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
Definition
  • 21-hydroxylase deficiency →
  • anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration
  • hypoglycemia, ↑ pigmentation
  • lab: hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, urinary Na+ wasting.
  • note: can be deficiency of 17α-hydroxylase or 11β-hydroxylase as well. Basically adrenal hyperplasia b/c of ↑ ACTH 2° to ↓ cortisol.
  • desmolase, 17(→), 3(↓), 21(↓), 11(↓)

PT p. 438, FA p. 318

Term
When is gynecomastia normal in boys?
Definition
  • during tanner stage 2 or 3.
  • can be unilateral or bilateral.
  • spontaneously regresses usually lasts no more than 2 years.
  • discharge is abnormal; look for prolactinoma.

PT p. 350, Kap q. m000360

Term
What is the problem with alkaptonuria?
Definition
  • homogentisic acid oxidase deficiency → ↑ homogentisic acid → urine turns dark brown or black on exposure to air.
  • affected children are asymptomatic
  • adults, ochronosis: deposition of bluish pigment in cartilage and fibrous tissue → arthritis.
  • vitamin C may delay symptoms.

PT p. 350

Term
What are some mitochondrial diseases?
Definition
  • MERFF - myoclonic epilepsy, ragged red fibers associated with exercise.
  • MELAS - mitochondrial encephalopathy, lactic acidosis, stroke-like episodes.
  • LHON - Leber hereditary optic neuropathy (acute loss of central vision).

PT p. 358, FA p. 89

Term
What complications are a young mother at risk for?
Definition
  • low-birthweight infants
  • prematurity
  • ↑ risk of pregnancy-induced HTN
  • poor weight gain in the mother
  • ↓ risk of twin gestation

PT p. 367

Term
What are some physiologic symptoms of anorexia-nervosa?
Definition
  • bradycardia, orthostatic hypotension, arrhythmias
  • Qtc prolongation and ST-T waves Δs in ECG
  • ACS, cardiomyopathy, mitral valve prolapse
  • ↑ cholesterol & carotene levels
  • anemia & leukopenia
  • osteopenia, osteoporosis
  • hypothyroidism (according to uptodate, TSH is normal, T3 & T4 may be normal or slightly ↓, ↑ reverseT3; euthyroid sick syndrome).
  • depression-like symptoms 2° to malnutrition
  • cognitive impairment, evidence of enlarged ventricles, ↓ grey & white matter, peripheral neuropathy.
  • lanugo
  • muscle wasting
  • amenorrhea (key for differentiating b/w bulimia), loss of libido
  • in patients who regularly vomit: parotid enlargement, ↑ amylase levels, electrolyte imbalance (hypokalemia).
  • hyponatremia 2° to polydypsia
  • GH & cortisol are frequently ↑; ↓ LH/FSH
  • 2 subtypes: restrictive type & binge-eating/purging type (different from bulimia in that low body weight and hormonal imbalances distinguishes the 2).
  • pharmacologic thx not helpful; Food is the best medicine! tx as outpatient unless they are more than 20% below their ideal body weight; also CBT. BUT, if pt fails to respond to above thx use Olanzapine (UW3140).
  • if patient recovers and manages to get pregnant → premature or small for gestational age baby 2° ↓ nutritional reserves; also intellectually impaired infant.

FA-P p. 147, q. 3-24, 4-26, UW3953

Term
What can be involved in pelvic inflammatory disease?
Definition
  • tubo-ovarian abscess
  • endometritis
  • salpingitis
  • pelvic peritonitis
  • PID → ↑ risk of ectopic pregnancy
  • 20% become infertile after one episode of PID.
  • other sequelae include: dyspareunia (pain w/ sex), pyosalpinx, pelvic adhesions.

PT p. 373 

Term
What causes lymphogranuloma venereum?
Definition
  • serotypes (L1, L2, L3) of Chlamydia trachomatis.
  • primary stage: self-limited painless genital ulcer → heals within a few days.
  • secondary stage: occurs 10-30 days later. infection spreads through lymph nodes → lymphadenitis and lymphangitis.

wiki

Term
What are the components of the Apgar score?
Definition
  • Heart Rate
  • Respiration
  • Color (skin)
  • Tone (None, Weak/Passive, Active)
  • Reflex irritability (None, Facial Grimace, Active Withdrawal).
  • Score 7-10 generally have better outcome than 0-3 at five minutes.

PedsKap p. 1

Term

At what age do newborn reflexes disappear?

Babinski? Parachute?

Definition
  • generally 4-6 months
  • Babinski - disappears at 18 months
  • Parachute reflex appears at 6-8 months, never disappears.

PedsKap p. 47

Term
What conditions can mimick the symptoms of acute appendicitis?
Definition
  • mesenteric adenitis
  • Yersinia enterocolitica
  • constipation
  • Crohn disease
  • Meckel diverticulitis
  • ectopic pregnancy
  • ovarian torsion
  • UTI

Kap q. m001089

Term
What findings are associated with intestinal obstruction?
Definition
  • abdominal distension
  • air fluid levels
  • crampy abdominal pain
  • N & V
  • peritoneal irritation
  • diarrhea or constipation

Kap q. m001089

Term
  • Fixed Spliting
  • Wide Splitting
  • Paradoxical Splitting
Definition
  • fixed - ASD
  • wide - conditions that delays RV empyting (pulmonic stenosis, RBBB)
  • paradoxical - anything that delays LV emptying (aortic stenosis, LBBB); P2 occurs before A2.
  • Endocardial Cushion Defects - ASD & VSD are present and contiguous → cardiomegaly

FA p. 284, Kap q. s2s101

Term
How is dehydration w/ hypernatremia treated?
Definition
  • (UW4853) initial bolus in resuscitation should be done with 0.9% normal saline or LR.
  • Kaplan says → D5W
  • 1 L of D5W for every 3 mEq of sodium above 140 mEq.
  • if Na+ 164 mEq, then 8 L D5W.
  • correct over 48 hours to avoid dropping sodium too rapidly and causing cerebral edema.

Kap p. Q0302m

Term
What is the pattern of blood flow in hypoplastic left heart syndrome?
Definition
  • basically the pulmonary artery supplies the lungs and the systemic circulation.
  • the systemic circulation is accessed via the ductus arteriosus.

Kap q. Q0311m

Term
How is SVT treated?
Definition
  • adenosine
  • look for narrow QRS complexes, possibly no visible P waves; heart rate tends to be unvarying; whereas with sinus tachycardia HR varies with Δ's in vagal and sympathitic tone.
  • in neonates most common cause of SVT is re-entry via an accessory pathway.

Kap q. m000402

Term
What are the causes of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)?
Definition
  • adenosine deaminase deficiency (autsomal recessive); ↑ adenosine & deoxyadenosine (dATP) turn off DNA synthesis.
  • X-linked severe combined immmunodeficiency
  • failure to synthesize MHC II antigens.
  • tx: bone marrow transplant.
  • absence of thymic shadow, but also think of DiGeorge.

Kap q. Q0597

Term
Common Variable Immunodifeciency (CVID)
Definition
  • no plasma cells; normal number of B-cells.
  • defect in B-cell maturation
  • very ↓ IgG, and below normal levels of IgM & IgA
  • onset in late adolescence.
  • ↑ risk for lymphomas, gastric carcinoma, skin cancer.

Kap q. Q0389

Term
What kind of auto-antibodies are present in type I DM?
Definition
  • anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase Ab
  • it is a pancreatic Ag

Kap q. MB000054

Term
How is acute CHF in an infant managed?
Definition
  • IV furosemide
  • furosemide also used to tx bronchopulmonary dysplasia.

Kap q. Q0191, Q0181

Term
Which vaccinations should be administered after a splenectomy?
Definition
  • pneumococcal (Streptococcus pneumoniae)
  • HiB
  • meningococcal

Kap q. Q0317m

Term
[image]
Definition
  • herpetic whitlow, acute eruption of vesicles on an erythematous base.
  • tx: observation and analgesics
  • acycolvir or valacyclovir can be used to ↓ duration.

Kap q. m000783m

Term
How is scoliosis screened?
Definition
  • Adam's test: forward bending

Kap q. s2s099m

Term
Bone pain, worse at night, is relieved by ASA or ibuprofen. What is the dx?
Definition
  • osteoid osteoma

Kap q. Q0301

Term
What kind of organisms are an individual with chronic granulomatous disease susceptible to?
Definition
  • catalase (+)
  • Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonda cepacia, Serratia marcescens, Nocardia, and Aspergillus.
  • NADPH deficiency → (-) nitroblue tetrazolium test.

Kap q. MB000088

Term
[image]
Definition
  • sunset sign (both eyes deviated downward with retraction of both eyelids).
  • usually seen in hydrocephalus → ↑ ICP
  • other signs include: tense anterior fontanelle, visibly distended scalp veins.
  • germinal matrix hemorrhage: during development the ventricles are lined with highly vascular neuroectodermal tissue. In premature infants this lining has not completely developed. These vessels within the germinal matrix region are vulnerable to hypoxic insult → hemorrhage (subarachnoid) → ↓ absorption of CSF by damaged arachnoid villi & cisterns (whose fxn it is to absorb CSF) → communicating/non-obstructive hydrocephalus.

Kap q. Q0832m, UW3666

Term
Suspect thalassemia in a patient with profoundly ↓ MCV.
Definition
  • β-thalassemia major requires lifelong transfusion w/ iron chelation (otherwise 2° hemochromatosis); "crew cut" on skull X-ray.
  • other causes of microcytic anemia: iron deficiency, lead poisoning, sideroblastic anemia.

Kap q. Q0815

Term
What complication can occur in an immunocompromised patient with chickenpox?
Definition
  • pneumonia

Kap q. 0177m

Term
How is Mycoplasma pneumoniae tx?
Definition
  • azithromycin

Kap q. m000419

Term
What congenital heart defect can present with short P-R interval with slow upstroke of the QRS?
Definition
  • Ebstein's anomaly
  • it can present as an SVT
  • WPW can also present like this

Kap q. m000352

Term
What can cause a widened pulse pressure in infants?
Definition
  • PDA
  • best heard in left sternal border, 2nd intercostal space, and radiates to clavicle.
  • widened pulse is associated with a bounding pulse.

Kap q. m000399

Term
Reiter's
Definition
  • asymmetric arthritis
  • urethritis
  • uveitis

FA-Peds p. 338

Term
What causes late decelerations on the fetal heart monitor?
Definition
  • hypoxia during labor → predisposing fetus to perinatal asphyxia.
  • poor tone and weak repiratory effort indicate the same.

Kap q. Q0416

Term
When does transient synovitis present?
Definition
  • aka post-viral synovitis
  • usually after a viral infection or vaccination (common after rubella vaccine).
  • symptoms typically last < 1 week, fever is usually absent, and children do not appear toxic.
  • X-ray: widening of joint space or enhanced pericapsular shadow.

Kap p. m000251m, UW 4857

Term
What is the tx of choice for streptococcal pharyngitis?
Definition
  • 10 days of penicillin V
  • or Benzathine penicillin G IM

Kap q. Q0310

Term
2-year-old boy with fever of 39 °C, redness, and tenderness of skin. According to parents 2 small fluid-filled lesions broke open with pressure on boy's arm 2 days ago. Currently there are 2 bullae on lower legs. Separation of epidermis occurs with application of gentle pressure. What is it?
Definition
  • staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome.
  • Nikolsky sign is present.
  • tx - w/ oxacillin IV for secondary infection of skin.

Kap q. m000358

Term
Disease that occur after viral illness:
Definition
  1. Henoch Schonlein Purpura
  2. IgA nephropathy
  3. minimal change disease
  4. transient tenosynovitis
  5. ADEM
  6. postviral cerebellitis
  7. Bell palsy
  8. ITP
  9. Transient Erythroblastopenia of Childhood
  10. bacterial sinusitis
  11. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
Term
What percentage of dehydration is associted with the levels of dehydration? How is the fluid replaced?
Definition
  • mild 3%-5%, cap refill < 2
  • moderate  6%-9%, cap refill 2-3 seconds
  • severe > 10%, cap refill > 3 seconds
  • Weight x (% dehydration) w/ first half of deficit replaced over 8 hours and the remainder replaced over 16 hours (total 24 hours).
Term
Hereditary Angioedema
Definition
  • C1 inhibitor deficiency
  • edema of skin, especially periorbital, but mucosal surfaces  as well (larynx, bowels → colicky pain).
  • precipitated by infection, dental procedure, or trauma.
  • C4 levels are depressed
  • angioedema via ACEi/ARBs involves the same mechanism.

Pathoma p. 17, UW2769

Term
What are some common findings in CF?
Definition
  • nasal polyps
  • neonatal jaundice
  • recurrent sinus infection
  • chronic diarrhea
  • features of malabsorption (failure to thrive, low weight/height percentile).
  • dry skin (vitamin A deficiency), epistaxis (vitamin K deficiency); remember D, E, A, & K are all fat soluble and require pancreatic enzymes for absorption.

Kap q. s2s059m, UW 3926

Term
How is renal scarring determined?
Definition
  • Renal dimercaptosuccinic acid scan (DMSA scan)
  • usually performed after VCUG (voiding cystourethrogram) confirms reflux.

Kap q. m000414

Term
What is the patient demographic for SIDS?
Definition
  • < 1 year old; peak incidence 2-3 months of age
  • death unexplainable by hx or postmortem examination.
  • autopsy may reveal: mild pulmonary edema and diffuse intrathoracic petechiae.

Kap q. s2s061

Term
What is the most common infectious cause of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
Definition
  • Mycoplasma
  • also: HSV, TB, Hep B, EBV, enterovirus

Kap q. m000356

Term
What findings are associated with Down syndrome?
Definition
  • clinodactyly of fifth finger
  • endocardial cushion defect/ASD
  • duodenal atresia
  • hypotonia
  • enlarged tongue
  • ↓ α-fetoprotein
  • ↑ risk of ALL and AML

FA p. 93, Kap q. Q0228m

Term
What is a patient with DM type I at increased risk for?
Definition
  • celiac disease
  • Also individuals with Down syndrome, Hashimoto's thyroiditis, and selective IgA deficiency are at ↑ risk for celiac disease.
  • screen by measuring total serum IgA (to ensure that no false negative test; occurs in selective IgA def) & measure serum tissue transglutaminase (TTG) IgA-Ab.
  • verify positive screen w/ duodenal bx via endoscopy.

Kap q. m001038

Term
At what age to infants double their weight? triple? double their height?
Definition
  • double weight - 6 months
  • triple weight - 1 year
  • double height - 4 years

Kap q. Q0225

Term
What is a 0.5 sm oval plaque, yellow-orange color, slightly raised lesion on a newborn scalp?
Definition
  • Nevus sebaceus
  • over time lesion will become nodular and wart-like
  • predominantly sebaceous glands
  • can differentitate into epithelial tumors
  • in adulthood can turn into basal cell carcinoma

Kap q. m000355

Term
Describe the characteristics of an innocent murmur.
Definition
  • Never diastolic
  • soft vibratory or musical systolic ejection murmur best heart at left lower to midsternal border.
  • Never > 2/6 intensity
  • most are heard in children btw age 3 and 7.
  • most frequently heard at time of routine physical examination, but also heard at times of ↑ cardiac output such as fever, infection, and anxiety.
  • Pulmonary flow murmurs are also innocent, but have a higher pitch, blowing character during early systole, heard best in 2nd left parasternal space w/ pt lying down.
  • Venous hum: heard in neck or anterior chest in both systole and diastole, but can disappear with compression of the jugular vein.

Kap q. s2s063

Term
Describe the characteristics of growing pains.
Definition
  • affects children btw 3-10 years.
  • bilateral and involve the lower leg and knees.
  • manifests with deep pain during rest (usually at bedtime), and are relieved by massaging or analgesics.
  • can be painful enough to wake from sleep and make them cry.
  • children wake up next morning feeling fine and physical activity is not impaired.
  • Ddx: osteoid osteoma, presents at night, relieved by analgesics, but is unilateral.

Kap q. Q0388m

Term
What is infantile colic?
Definition
  • definition: excessive crying in an otherwise healthy infant for > 3 hours/day, > 3 days/week, > 3 weeks/month.
  • usually presents within the first 3 weeks of life and resolves spontaneously by 4 months of age.
  • crying usually occurs at the same time everyday, and usually in the evenings.

UW 4856

Term
What is the most common cause of pubertal delay in adolescents?
Definition
  • constitutional growth delay
  • most common cause of short stature as well.
  • child will have normal birth weight & length, but at 6 months to 3 years of age the height & growth velocity slows. At 3 years of age the child regains normal growth velocity and follows the growth curve at 5th - 10th percentile.
  • puberty and adolescent growth are delayed, but eventually occurs → normal adult height.

UW 4830

Term
What are the long-term neurologic sequelae associated with bacterial meningitis?
Definition
  • hearing loss
  • loss of cognitive fxn (due to neuronal loss in the dentate gyrus of the hippocampus) → regression.
  • seizures
  • MR
  • spasticity or paresis

UW 2442

Term
What is the most common cause of secondary HTN in children?
Definition
  • fibromuscular dysplasia
  • hum or bruit over costovertebral angle due to well-developed collaterals.

UW 3866

Term
What is the most common cause of septic arthritis?
Definition
  • in children, hematogenous spread of bacteria, frequently following an URI.
  • osteomyelitis develops in this fashion as well.
  • surgical emergency, drain immediately.
  • tx: < 5 (nafcillin or vancomycin + 3rd gen cephalosporin), > 5 (nafcillin or vancomycin alone).

UW 3577

Term
What is Fanconi Anemia?
Definition
  • aplastic anemia, pancytopenia
  • short stature
  • microcephaly
  • abnormal thumbs (absent thumbs, but NOT triphalangeal thumbs).
  • hypogonadism
  • hypopigmented/hyperpigemented (cafe au lait & large freckles).
  • strabisums
  • low set ears
  • middle ear abnormalities.
  • horseshoe kidneys

UW 4438

Term
Diamond-Blackfan syndrome
Definition
  • aka congenital hypoplastic anemia (macrocytic anemia, low reticulocyte count, congenital anomalies).
  • intrinsic defect in erythroid progenitor cells → ↑ apoptosis → pallor; pure red cell aplasia.
  • triphalangeal thumbs
  • webbed neck, cleft lip, shielded chest

UW 3818

Term
What are the advantages/disadvantages of breast milk?
Definition
  • benefits: ↓ reflux, contains (lactoferrin, lysozyme, IgA; all of which help with immunity), absorbs better, and improves gastric emptying.
  • cons: inadequate vitamin D (must supplement)

UW 4868

Term
What are the diagnostic criteria for simple febrile seizures?
Definition
  • temp > 38 °C
  • age < 6 years
  • NO CNS infection
  • no acute systemic metabolic cause of seizure.
  • no history of previous afebrile seizure.
  • ------------------------------------------ •
  • Febrile seizures are most commonly associated with viral illnesses or bacterial infections (e.g. otitis media).
  • rule out serious intracranial infections with H&P and identify source of infection.
  • intracranial infection: look for focal signs.
  • if no evidence of intracranial infection just tx fever, no need to admit/observe; no scans or LP necessary.
  • FYI - simple febrile seizures (generalized tonic clonic seizures that last < 15 minutes).

UW 4841

Term
↑ intracranial pressure (HA, vomiting), bitemporal hemianopsia, calcified lesion above sella. What is it?
Definition
  • in a young boy, it is a craniopharyngioma until proven otherwise.
  • may present with diabetes insipidus as well.
  • presence of a cystic calcified parasellar lesion on MRI is almost diagnostic.

UW 2648

Term
What are some of the early findings associated with congenital syphilis? late findings?
Definition
  • cutaneous lesions of palms and soles, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, anemia, rhinorrhea.
  • on X-ray: metaphyseal dystrophy and periostitis.
  • Late (after 2 years): frontal bossing, high arched palate, hutchinson teeth, interstitial keratitis, saddle nose, perioral fissures.

UW 4852

Term
When does serum sickness-like reaction occur?
Definition
  • administration of penicillin, amoxicillin, or cefaclor in setting of viral illness.
  • occurs 1-2 weeks after drug.
  • symptoms: fever, urticarial rash, polyarthralgia, lymphadenopathy.

UW 4584

Term
What is the normal time course of varicella infection?
Definition
  • incubation period 10-21 days.
  • infective from 48 hours prior to onset of vesicular rash until all vesicles are crusted and should be isolated during this period.
  • vaccinate if within 3-5 days of exposure; otherwise, ↓ efficacy.

UW 4186

Term
What are the most common causative organisms of otitis media?
Definition
  1. Stretococcus pneumoniae
  2. non-typable Haemophilus influenzae
  3. Moraxella catarrhalis
  4. First line tx is 10-day course of amoxicillin.

UW 3972

Term
What findings are associated with cerebral palsy?
Definition
  • hypotonia
  • hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
  • learning disabilities
  • low APGAR scores
  • common cause is cerebral anoxia

UW 2443

Term
What familial condition is associated with cyclical vomiting?
Definition
  • parents with a hx of migraines.
  • tx: antiemetics and reassurance

UW 2453

Term
How can you tell the difference between a small VSD and a large one?
Definition
  • small VSD: harsh and lous holosystolic murmur, CXR: normal heart size, w/ slight ↑ in pulmonary vascularity.
  • 40% of small VSDs close spontaneously by age 3, and 75% by age 10; therefore, reassurance and surveillance.
  • large VSD: softer murmur, ↑ pulmonary pressure → Eisenmenger syndrome.

UW 3990

Term
What is the hallmark of late Lyme disease?
Definition
  • arthritis; intermittent, and if untreated episodes will gradually disappear after 10 years.
  • swelling from effusion and restriction of movements.
  • can be monoarticular (just the knee).
  • remember: lyme = erythema migrans, rheumatic fever = erythema marginatum.

UW 3836

Term
Paralysis of hand with ipsilateral Horner syndrome. What is injured?
Definition
  • Klumpke paralysis; injury to 7th & 8th cervical nerve and 1st thoracic nerve.
  • Erb-Duchenne palsy: injury to 5th and 6th cervical nerve; adducted arm, internally rotated, pronated; clinically presents with absent moro reflex & intact grasp reflex.

UW 4198

Term
How does acute iron toxicity present?
Definition
  • GI phase (30 min-6 hours): direct mucosal injury → N&V, hematemesis, melena, adominal pain.
  • latent (6-24 hours): largely asymptomatic.
  • 6-72 hours: shock and metabolic acidosis.
  • 12-96 hours: hepatotoxicity.
  • several weeks later: bowel obstruction 2° to mucosal scarring.
  • Levels ≥ 350 mcg/dl is considered toxic.

UW 4710

Term
What are the hereditary QT prolongation syndromes?
Definition
  • Jervell-Lange-Nielson syndrome: autosomal recessive, congenital deafness, QT interval prolongation → torsades de pointes → syncope or sudden death; tx prophylactically w/ propranolol.
  • Romano-Ward syndrome: autosomal dominant, NO deafness.

UW 3910

Term
A boy presents with gout. What must be on the differential?
Definition
  • Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase deficiency) - hypotonia, progressive MR, choreoathetosis, spasticity, dysarthric speech, dystonia, compulsive self-injury.
  • X-linked recessive
  • gout is usually seen in patients > 50.

UW 3817

Term
Syndromes with FAP and/or HNPCC.
Definition
  • Turcot's: FAP or HNPCC + brain tumors
  • Gardner's: lipomas, osteomas (esp of mandible), supernumerary teeth, gastric polyps, juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibromas.
  • FAP - familial adenomatous polyposis
  • HNPCC - hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer

UW 2583

Term
What HbS level is consistent with sickle cell trait?
Definition
  • HbS 35-40%
  • most common presentation is painless hematuria.

UW 3787

Term
What are the criteria for differentiating transient synovitis from septic arthritis?
Definition
  • WBC > 12,000
  • T > 38.5 °C
  • ESR > 40 mm/h
  • refusal to bear weight
  • C-reactive protein > 2.0 mg/dL (20 mg/L)
  • if at least 3 of 4 are positive, febrile, or ill-appearing → work-up for septic arthritis is indicated (arthrocentesis & IV abx).

  • Transient synovitis
  • usually follows a viral infection or mild trauma.
  • X-rays should be ordered to exclude bony lesion, fxrs, and Legg-Calvé-Perthes (avascular necrosis).
  • tx: NSAIDs and rest

UW 4857

Term
How does a patient with celiac disease present?
Definition
  • bulky, foul-smelling, floating stool
  • loss of muscle mass or sub-Q fat
  • pallor - iron deficiency anemia
  • bone pain - osteomalacia
  • easy bruising - vit K deficiency
  • hyperkeratosis - vit A deficiency
  • anti-endomysial IgA-Ab, anti-gliadin IgA-Ab, anti-tissue glutaminase IgA-Ab

UW 3602

Term
What are the glycogen storage diseases?
Definition
  • Von Gierke (Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency): severe hypoglycemia, ↑↑ glycogen in liver, ↑ blood lactate, hepatomegaly.
  • Pompe (Acid maltase or lysosomal α-1,4-glucosidase def): cardiomegaly & hepatomegaly, early death; Pompe's trashes the Pump.
  • Cori (Debranching enzyme def): milder form of Von Gierke with normal blood lactate levels; gluconeogenesis is intact.
  • McArdle (skeletal muscle glycogen phosphorylase def): ↑ glycogen in muscle, but cannot break down, leading to painful muscle cramps, myoglobinuria w/ exercise; McArdle=Muscle.
  • Very Poor Carbohydrate Metabolism.

UW 3192, FA p. 115

Term
How is the vaccination schedule different in a preterm infant?
Definition
  • it does not differ from full-term infants.
  • administer vaccines according to chronological age and NOT gestational age.
  • prematurity does not alter immune response to vaccines & the risk of infection is much greater in preterm infants.

UW 4479

Term
In what age group is bedwetting normal?
Definition
  • normal before the age of 5.

UW 2433

Term
What comlication can occur with hemophilia?
Definition
  • recurrent hemarthroses → hemosiderin deposition → hemophilic arthropathy (synovial thickening w/ fibrosis).

UW 4249

Term
Infant < 3 months of age presents with vaginal spotting/bleeding. What must be done?
Definition
  • normal; 2° to maternal estrogens crossing placenta and causing a pubertal effect.
  • disappears as soon as hormone is cleared from circulaton.
  • however; w/u if purulent discharge, discoloration, or odor is noted.

UW 3773

Term
What are the features of sinusitis?
Definition
  • persistent symptoms of nasal drainage, congestion, and cough.
  • most cases can be dx clinically; symptoms must last 10-30 days w/o improvement.
  • most common predisposing factor for acute bacterial sinusitis is a viral URI.
  • tx: amoxicillin w/ or w/o clavulanic acid.

UW 4850

Term
Macrosomia, macroglossia, visceromegaly, omphalocele, hypoglysemia, and hyperinsulinemia. Also, microcephaly and prominent occiput.
Definition
  • looks like maternal diabetes, BUT it's not.
  • Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

UW 3835

Term
RTA can present as failure to thrive.
Definition
UW 4828
Term
How is acute severe exacerbation of lung disease in a CF pt tx?
Definition
  • ceftazidime + gentamicin
  • basically penicillin/cephalosporin + aminoglycoside.

UW 4030

Term
When treating lyme disease, how is the abx selected?
Definition
  • age > 9 → doxycycline for 21 days.
  • age < 9 → amoxicillin for 21 days.
  • if both are contraindicated use cefuroxime axetil or erythromycin.

UW 3636

Term
Pseudohypoparathyroidism
Definition
  • aka Albright hereditary osteodystrophy, McCune-Albright syndrome, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia.
  • ↓ Ca2+, ↑ PO4 (same problem as hypoparathyroidism)
  • ↑ PTH w/ unresponsiveness of renal tubules to PTH.
  • other features: brachydactyly (short fingers/toes) of 4th & 5th digits, obesity w/ round facies, short neck, cafe-au-lait spots, precocious puberty,  subcapsular cataracts, cutaneous/subcutaneous&perivascular calcifications of basal ganglia.
  • Cushing's syndrome can occur with this disease.
  • the 3 P's: precocious puberty, pigmentation, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia.

PT p. 354, UW 3871

Term
Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
Definition
  • avascular necrosis of femoral head
  • boys 4-10
  • insidious onset of hip or knee pain
  • antalgic gait (where stance phase of gait is abnormally short; ie, pain on bearing weight).

UW3404

Supporting users have an ad free experience!