Term
|
Definition
| are enzymes that unwind and wind DNA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| these are enzymes that catalyze the synthesis of a short RNA segment (primer) (No DNA poly, can initiate synthesis without an initial RNA or DNA primer) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| is an enzyme that catalyzes the joining of two large molecules by chemical bonding. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-has a 5'->3' polymerase activity (requires a primer
-has a 3'->5' exonuclease activity (proofreading)
-has a 5'->3' exonuclease activity (mediating nick translation during DNA repair) removes the primer |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-synthesizes the RNA/DNA primer
-synthesizes the leading strand |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| is a prokaryotic transcription initiation factor that enables specific binding of RNA poly |
|
|
Term
| What are basal transcription factors |
|
Definition
| these form the preinitiation complex, which with RNA poly II bind to and read single stranded DNA gene template. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| is an enzyme that produces RNA |
|
|
Term
| What is a reverse transcriptase |
|
Definition
| is a DNA poly enzyme that transcribes single stranded RNA into double stranded DNA. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Is a RNA molecule thats shape allows it to catalyze a chemical reaction. |
|
|
Term
| What is involved in replacing the RNA primer with dNTPs in an Okazaki fragment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What catalyzes the formation of phospho-diester bonds between adjacent ribonucleotides during transcription. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ribosomes
A. Read the template in the 3’→5’ direction, add amino acids to the peptide at the amino terminal
B. Read the template in the 3’→5’ direction, add amino acids to the peptide at the carboxy terminal
C. Read the template in the 5’→3’ direction, add amino acids to the peptide at the amino terminal
D. Read the template in the 5’→3’ direction, add amino acids to the peptide at the carboxy terminal |
|
Definition
| D-Read the template in the 5’→3’ direction, add amino acids to the peptide at the carboxy terminal |
|
|
Term
When polymerization of a protein is complete, and α-helices or β-pleated sheets have formed, what is the highest level of structure that has been completed?
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. quaternary |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of interaction is NOT directly responsible for the formation of tertiary structure in proteins?
A. peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids
B. hydrogen bonds between side chains and sections of the polypeptide backbone
C. hydrogen bonds between side chains of different amino acids
D. covalent bonds between two sulphur-containing side chains |
|
Definition
| A-peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids |
|
|
Term
What forms the “backbone” of a protein?
A. a chain of sugar and phosphate groups, linked through phosphodiester bonds
B. purine and pyrimidine pairs, hydrogen-bonded to each other
C. a chain of amino and carboxyl groups, linked via peptide bonds
D. a chain of sugar groups, linked through glycosidic bonds. |
|
Definition
| C. hydrogen bonds between side chains of different amino acids |
|
|
Term
Which of the following includes all of the purines found in either RNA and DNA?
A. cytosine and uracil
B. cytosine and thymine
C. adenine and thymine
D. guanine and adenine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is responsible for holding the two strands together in the “stems” of RNA?
A. hydrophobic interactions
B. hydrogen bonds
C. ionic bonds
D. covalent bonds
E. phosphodiester bonds |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following moves along its appropriate DNA or RNA template in the 3’→5’ direction?
A. DNA polymerase III
B. RNA polymerase
C. Ribosomes
D. A and B
E. A and C
F. B and C
G. A, B, and C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following do starch and glycogen have in common?
A. the type of glycosidic linkage used
B. the size of their monosaccharide subunits
C. a storage function in animals
D. A and B
E. A and C
F. B and C
G. A, B, and C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A cell has DNA with 15 nucleotides per strand of the double helix. The cell was induced to undergo transcription of its entire DNA. During transcription the cell was incubated in a solution containing deoxyribonucleotides that weigh 2 units (normal) each and ribonucleotides that weigh 3 units (due to other unusual isotopes) each.
11. What will be the weight value of each mRNA strand produced?
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
D. 60
E. 90 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The average molecular weight of a nucleotide in DNA is 310 g/mole. The average molecular weight of a nucleotide in RNA is 325 g/mole. The average weight of an amino acid is 120 g/mole.
12. Bacterial DNA (double stranded) was isolated and determined to have the molecular weight of 124,000 g/mole. What is the best estimate of the molecular weight of the mRNA that would result from transcription of this DNA?
A. 48,000 g/mole
B. 62,000 g/mole
C. 65,000 g/mole
D. 84,000 g/mole
E. 124,000 g/mole
F. 130,000 g/mole |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the best estimate of the molecular weight of the protein that would be produced through translation of the mRNA (assume the entire mRNA “codes” for the protein)?
A. 8,000 g/mole
B. 12,000 g/mole
C. 16,000 g/mole
D. 24,000 g/mole
E. 48,000 g/mole |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Transcription of the following bacterial gene would produce which of the following mRNA sequences?
5’ -35 box -10 box GATGTCTCTAGGTTTC 3’
A. 5’ GAUGUCUCUAGGUUUC 3’
B. 5’ GATGTCTCTAGGTTTC 3’
C. 5’ CUACUGUGUUCCUUUG 3’
D. 3’ GAUGUCUCUAGGUUUG 5’
E. 3’ GATGTCTCTAGGTTTG 5’
F. 3’ CUACUGUGU UCCUUUG 5’ |
|
Definition
| A. 5’ GAUGUCUCUAGGUUUC 3’ |
|
|
Term
RNA polymerase and primase have which of the following in common?
A. Both can synthesize nucleic acids in the 5’→3’ direction
B. Both can polymerize deoxyribonucleotides
C. Both can synthesize nucleic acids starting from a single-stranded template.
D. A and B
E. B and C
F. A and C
E. A, B, and C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This table gives the results of assays of percentages of bases from nucleic acids isolated from source 1. What type of nucleic acid (RNA or DNA) is most likely specified? State whether it is likely to be single or double stranded.
Source A G T C U
(1) 20 30 0 10 40
17. The nucleic acid from source #1 is _________ and most likely __________.
A. RNA; single stranded
B. RNA; double stranded
C. DNA; single stranded
D. DNA; double stranded |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
mRNA and rRNA have which of the following in common?
A. Both are translated into proteins
B. Both are involved in translation
C. Both contain uracil
D. A and B
E. B and C
F. A and C
G. A, B, and C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe what DNA looks like |
|
Definition
| is a double helix form, that has the bases ATCG that complementary base pair with the other side |
|
|
Term
| Describe what RNA looks like |
|
Definition
| is a single chained strand of DNA with the T's being replaced by U's |
|
|
Term
| Describe what Protein looks like |
|
Definition
| are chains of amino acids bonded together by peptide bonds-> the genetic code determines what proteins are coded for, which determines the shape |
|
|
Term
| Describe what carbohydrates look like |
|
Definition
| Long chains of carbon and hydrogen |
|
|
Term
| Describe what fats look like |
|
Definition
| Glycerol head with chains of fatty acid- usually three chains |
|
|
Term
An original DNA sequence and the peptide chain it codes for are shown below.
5’ TATTGGCTAGTACAT 3’
Tyr- Trp –Leu-Val- His
If a mutation in the DNA occurs that adds one base pair as shown below (underlined C added), what will the new peptide chain look like (use the codon map on page 4) following transcription and translation?
5’ TATTGGCCTAGTACAT 3’
A. Tyr – Trp – Leu – Val – His
B. Tyr – Trp – Pro – Ser - Thr
C. Tyr – Val – His – Ser - Phe
D. Tyr – Val - His
E. Tyr – Val |
|
Definition
| B. Tyr – Trp – Pro – Ser - Thr |
|
|
Term
| Where is the main location where DNA replication takes place |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the location where Krebs cycle takes place. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the barrier between nucleus and cytoplasm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. Which of the following is bounded by 2 lipid bilayers?
A. lysosome
B. rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. mitochondrion
D. secretory vesicle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the site of steroid hormone synthesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the location of electron transport protein complexes |
|
Definition
| In the cell membrane of the mitochondria |
|
|
Term
| What is the site of synthesis of proteins intended for function within the nucleus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the site where proteins are tagged and sorted for delivery to appropriate destinations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9. Loss of function of ribosomes would produce which of the following?
A. Increased proteins in secretory vesicles.
B. Increased proteins in lysosomes.
C. Increased proteins in the plasma membrane.
D. Increased proteins in the lumen of the rough endoplasmic reticulum
E. Increased cytoplasmic concentration of amino acids |
|
Definition
| E. Increased cytoplasmic concentration of amino acids |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is (are) synthesized in the nucleus but function(s) in the cytoplasm?
A. DNA
B. proteins
C. ribosomal subunits
D. A and B
E. A and C
F. B and C
G. A, B, and C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What region of a steroid is hydrophilic?
A. the methyl (–CH3) groups
B. the terminal hydroxyl group
C. the ring structures
D. the long hydrocarbon chain |
|
Definition
| B. the terminal hydroxyl group |
|
|
Term
Which of the following substances would most likely diffuse across a cell membrane the fastest?
A. glucose
B. water
C. fatty acid
D. carbon dioxide gas (CO2)
E. estradiol (a lipid-like hormone) |
|
Definition
| D. carbon dioxide gas (CO2) |
|
|
Term
In an experiment involving planar bilayers, a solution containing substance Z is added on the left side of the membrane while pure water is added on the right side. After 30 minutes the researchers test for the presence of substance Z on each side of the membrane. The right side tests negative for substance Z. What can you conclude?
A. The experiment failed.
B. The bilayer was permeable to substance Z
C. The water level on the left side would be higher than the water level on the right side
D. The left side would probably test negative substance Z. |
|
Definition
| C. The water level on the left side would be higher than the water level on the right side |
|
|
Term
You have a planar bilayer with equal amounts of saturated and unsaturated phospholipids. After testing the permeability of this membrane to glucose, you increase the proportion of unsaturated phospholipids in the bilayer. What will happen to the membrane’s permeability to glucose?
A. You can’t predict the outcome. You simply have to make the measurement.
B. Permeability to glucose will increase.
C. Permeability to glucose will decrease.
D. Permeability to glucose will stay the same. |
|
Definition
| B. Permeability to glucose will increase. |
|
|
Term
What will happen to a red blood cell, which has an internal solute concentration of about 0.9 percent (0.9 g/100ml), if it is placed into a beaker containing a solute concentration of 0.45 percent (assume the cell membrane is impermeable to the solutes on either side)?
A. The cell would shrink because the solution in the beaker is hypotonic.
B. The cell would shrink because the solution in the beaker is hypertonic.
C. The cell would swell because the solution in the beaker is hypotonic.
D. The cell would swell because the solution in the beaker is hypertonic
E. There would be no change in cell volume because the solution in the beaker is isotonic. |
|
Definition
| C. The cell would swell because the solution in the beaker is hypotonic. |
|
|
Term
1) Relative magnitude of concentration gradient: 1 unit
2) Relative magnitude of concentration gradient: 2 units
3) Relative surface area of the membrane: 1 unit
4) Relative surface area of the membrane: 2 units
5) Relative lipid solubility of the particle: 1 unit
6) Relative lipid solubility of the particle: 2 units
7) Relative charge of the particle: 0 units
8) Relative charge of the particle: 1 units
16. Assemble the set of conditions (by choosing from options shown above) that would produce the slowest rate of diffusion of a particle across the membrane.
A. 1, 3, 5, 8
B. 1, 4, 6, 7
C. 1, 4, 5, 8
D. 2, 4, 6, 8
E. 2, 4, 6, 7
F. 2, 3, 5, 8 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You are using an experimental system with two chambers separated by a membrane (permeable to water, but not NaCl), as shown. You add equal amounts of NaCl to both chambers and wait. What happens to the water levels in the two chambers?
A. Chamber 1: falls Chamber 2: rises
B. Chamber 1: falls Chamber 2: falls
C. Chamber 1: rises Chamber 2: rises
D. Chamber 1 rises Chamber 2 falls
E. The water levels will be equal |
|
Definition
| E. The water levels will be equal |
|
|
Term
18. Under what circumstances does membrane transport always require energy?
A. whenever moving molecules too big to cross directly through the phospholipid bilayer membrane
B. whenever a solute needs to be moved from low concentration to high concentration
C. whenever a solute is charged, such as an ion
D. whenever a molecule is polar |
|
Definition
| B. whenever a solute needs to be moved from low concentration to high concentration |
|
|
Term
• Two identical solutions are separated by a planar bilayer (side 1 and side 2).
• Substance X is dissolved in the solution on side 1 and allowed to equilibrate.
• 30 minutes later the concentration of substance X is equal on both sides
19. Substance X is most likely a
A. large polar molecule
B. small charged molecule
C. small nonpolar molecule
D. large protein |
|
Definition
| C. small nonpolar molecule |
|
|
Term
• Two identical solutions are separated by a planar bilayer (side 1 and side 2).
• Substance Y is dissolved in the solution on side 1 and allowed to equilibrate.
• 30 minutes later there is still no substance Y on side 2
• An experimental protein is added to the bilayer
• 30 minutes later there is still no substance Y on side 2
• 30 minutes after addition of ATP to the bath on both sides there is still no substance Y on side 2.
20. Which of the following would likely be present at this point in the experiment?
A. The water level on side 1 is higher than on side 2
B. The water level on side 2 is higher than on side 1
C. The water level on both sides is the same |
|
Definition
| A. The water level on side 1 is higher than on side 2 |
|
|
Term
| What accumulates in cristae and intermembrane spaces |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What joins with oxaloacetate to begin the Krebs cycle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's absence leads to fermentation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is driven by a proton (H+) gradient. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
26. Which of the following represents an oxidation reaction?
A. O2 is converted to H2O
B. NADH is converted to NAD+
C. FAD is converted to FADH2
D. CO2 is converted to C6H12O6 (glucose) |
|
Definition
| B. NADH is converted to NAD+ |
|
|
Term
If the enzyme that converts pyruvate to acetyl CoA were inhibited, which of the following would occur?
A. NADH production would increase
B. ATP production would increase
C. CO2 production would increase
D. acetyl CoA concentration in the mitochondrial matrix would increase
E. pyruvate concentration in the cytoplasm would increase |
|
Definition
| E. pyruvate concentration in the cytoplasm would increase |
|
|
Term
If the enzyme that converts pyruvate to acetyl CoA were inhibited, which of the following would occur?
A. NADH production would increase
B. ATP production would increase
C. CO2 production would increase
D. acetyl CoA concentration in the mitochondrial matrix would increase
E. pyruvate concentration in the cytoplasm would increase |
|
Definition
| E. pyruvate concentration in the cytoplasm would increase |
|
|
Term
28. Which of the following does not take place in the cytoplasm?
A. Conversion of glucose to pyruvate
B. Conversion of ADP to ATP
C. Conversion of NAD+ to NADH
D. Converson of pyruvate to acetyl Co A |
|
Definition
| D. Converson of pyruvate to acetyl Co A |
|
|
Term
Following glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylaton, most of the energy from the original glucose is in the form of:
A. ATP
B. CO2
C. H2O
D. NADH and FADH2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
30. How many molecules of ATP are generated from glucose under anaerobic conditions?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. 30 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Plants constantly use CO2 to produce carbohydrate. This CO2 comes directly from
A. NADPH
B. ATP
C. water
D. light
E. chlorophyll
F. atmospheric air |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is one biochemical even that occurs in a chloroplast during the light-dependent phase?
A. ATP synthase is inhibited
B. A high concentration of H+ ions is produced in the thylakoid lumen
C. O2 is reduced to water
D. NADPH is oxidized |
|
Definition
| B. A high concentration of H+ ions is produced in the thylakoid lumen |
|
|
Term
If the activity of rubisco were increased, which of the following would occur?
A. CO2 would increase
B. ATP would increase
C. NADPH would increase
D. glucose production would increase |
|
Definition
| D. glucose production would increase |
|
|
Term
Which of the following would decrease the rate of ATP synthesis in chloroplasts?
A. increase the amount of H2O
B. increase the amount of CO2
C. poke holes in the thylakoid membranes
D. increase light |
|
Definition
| C. poke holes in the thylakoid membranes |
|
|
Term
| What is the first organic compound that includes “fixed” CO2. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What transforms light energy into NADPH |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is found in both chloroplast thylakoid membranes and mitochondrial inner membranes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The final electron acceptor(s) associated with photosystem I is/are:
A. oxygen
B. hydrogen ions
C. NADP+
D. pheophytin
E. CO2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The light-independent reactions of plants function to make organic molecules using carbon dioxide as a carbon source. What is the electron source that helps reduce carbon dioxide to sugars and other organic molecules?
A. NADH
B. NADPH
C. ATP
D. O2
E. H2O |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The electrons of photosystem II are excited and transferred to electron carriers. From which molecule or structure do the photosystem II replacement electrons come?
A. pheophytin
B. photosystem I
C. water
D. oxygen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Its main function is to convey the carbon atoms to the citric acid cycle to be oxidized for energy production. (Broken down from Pyruvate, combines with oxaloacetate to enter citric acid cycle. |
|
|
Term
| What role does carbon dioxide play in the respiration |
|
Definition
| Is the waste product of the citric acid cycle, comes from sugars. |
|
|
Term
| What role does Oxygen play in respiration |
|
Definition
| Is the final electron acceptor, becomes water. Is also kind of a waste product |
|
|
Term
| What does NAD+ do in cellular resp |
|
Definition
| In the krebs cycle, hydrogen attaches to it to become NADH |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of NADH in cell. respiration. |
|
Definition
| NADH is transported to the electron chain where the hydrogen is cleaved off and used in the ETC or in the hydrogen concentration gradient |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of phosphate in cellular respiration |
|
Definition
| ATP can be triphosphorylated or diphosphorylated |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of Hydrogen Ions in cellular respiration |
|
Definition
| These create a gradient that then travels through the ATP synthase, generating ATP as they go through |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of H2O in cellular respiration |
|
Definition
| It is a waste product of cell. respiration, |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of ATP synthase in cell. respiration |
|
Definition
| THis is what generates the most portion of ATP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| This is in the last step of the electron chain of light reactions in photosynthesis. It is then used as reducing power for the biosynthetic reactions in the Calvin cycle |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the second system (was discovered first) Uses the energy from photons, they use the excited molecules to form the new molecule |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| is the light dependent complex. Uses photons of light to energize electrons that are then transfered to NADPH. It oxidizes water to hydrogen (used for protein gradient and ATP sythnase) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| creates the ATP molecules using the hydrogen gradient |
|
|
Term
| What is 3-phosphoglycerate |
|
Definition
| is the resultant of the split of 6 carbon intermediate that is unstable 2 of these are formed for each molecule of CO2 |
|
|
Term
| What is glyceraldehyde 3- phosphate |
|
Definition
| in the calvin cycle two 3-phosphoglycerate moleucles are reduced to form two of these (G3) |
|
|
Term
| What is ribulose bisphosphate |
|
Definition
| this is the molecule that carbon dioxide reacts with in carbon fixation. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| This enzyme (ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase oxygenase) catalyzes RuBP with carbon dioxide in order to synthesize a highly unstable 6 carbon intermediate which decays to glycerate 3 phosphate |
|
|
Term
A cell has 2 homologous pairs of chromosomes. In the unreplicated state (prior to mitosis or meiosis), each homolog of chromosome 1 weighs 1 unit and each homolog of chromosome 2 weighs 2 units. At a certain stage in the life cycle of this cell (including mitosis or meiosis) all of the DNA is removed and weighed. Match the following descriptions with the appropriate total DNA weight (you may use an answer more than once).
A. 3 units/cell
B. 6 units/cell
C. 9 units/cell
D. 12 units/cell
E. 15 units/cell
F. 24 units/cell
When the cell is in metaphase of meiosis I... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A cell has 2 homologous pairs of chromosomes. In the unreplicated state (prior to mitosis or meiosis), each homolog of chromosome 1 weighs 1 unit and each homolog of chromosome 2 weighs 2 units. At a certain stage in the life cycle of this cell (including mitosis or meiosis) all of the DNA is removed and weighed. Match the following descriptions with the appropriate total DNA weight (you may use an answer more than once).
A. 3 units/cell
B. 6 units/cell
C. 9 units/cell
D. 12 units/cell
E. 15 units/cell
F. 24 units/cell
When the cell has just completed meiosis I and cytokinesis... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A cell has 2 homologous pairs of chromosomes. In the unreplicated state (prior to mitosis or meiosis), each homolog of chromosome 1 weighs 1 unit and each homolog of chromosome 2 weighs 2 units. At a certain stage in the life cycle of this cell (including mitosis or meiosis) all of the DNA is removed and weighed. Match the following descriptions with the appropriate total DNA weight (you may use an answer more than once).
A. 3 units/cell
B. 6 units/cell
C. 9 units/cell
D. 12 units/cell
E. 15 units/cell
F. 24 units/cell
When the cell is in G1... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A cell has 2 homologous pairs of chromosomes. In the unreplicated state (prior to mitosis or meiosis), each homolog of chromosome 1 weighs 1 unit and each homolog of chromosome 2 weighs 2 units. At a certain stage in the life cycle of this cell (including mitosis or meiosis) all of the DNA is removed and weighed. Match the following descriptions with the appropriate total DNA weight (you may use an answer more than once).
A. 3 units/cell
B. 6 units/cell
C. 9 units/cell
D. 12 units/cell
E. 15 units/cell
F. 24 units/cell
When the cell is in metaphase of mitosis... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following cell(s) is(are) diploid?
A. A cell that just entered metaphase of meiosis I.
B. A cell that just entered metaphase of meiosis II.
C. A sperm cell
D. A & B
E. A & C
F. B & C
G. A, B, & C |
|
Definition
| A. A cell that just entered metaphase of meiosis I. |
|
|
Term
A human sperm cell (23 homologous pairs of chromosomes) is examined for DNA content. Which of the following best describes its DNA make up?
A. 46 chromosomes with no sister chromatids
B. 46 chromosomes with 92 sister chromatids
C. 92 chromosomes with no sister chromatids
D. 92 chromosomes with 184 sister chromatids
E. 23 chromosomes with 46 sister chromatids
F. 23 chromosomes with no sister chromatids |
|
Definition
| F. 23 chromosomes with no sister chromatids |
|
|
Term
At the end of mitosis and cytokinesis, each daughter cell has:
A. one quarter the DNA of the parent cell
B. half the DNA of the parent cell
C. identical DNA to that of the parent cell
D. twice the DNA of the parent cell |
|
Definition
| C. identical DNA to that of the parent cell |
|
|
Term
At the end of mitosis and cytokinesis, each daughter cell has:
A. one quarter the DNA of the parent cell
B. half the DNA of the parent cell
C. identical DNA to that of the parent cell
D. twice the DNA of the parent cell |
|
Definition
| C. identical DNA to that of the parent cell |
|
|
Term
DNA is composed of four nucleotides: adenosine, cytosine, thymidine, and guanosine. If scientists introduced radioactive thymidine into the growth medium of the cells, it would be incorporated into the DNA molecule:
A. at any point in the cell cycle
B. when centromeres split so the two chromosomes can be separated
C. during S phase only
D. as the cell enters G1 of interphase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Regulatory proteins that serve to prevent a cell from entering the S phase under conditions of DNA damage are also known as:
A. mitotic spindles
B. kinetochores
C. antibodies
D. tumor suppressors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A cell has two homologous pairs of chromosomes. For each chromosome, each single strand of DNA (sense or antisense strand) is 50 bases long. If the average weight of deoxynucleotides is 310, what is the weight of DNA in a daughter cell that is in metaphase of meiosis II?
A. 31,000
B. 62,000
C. 124,000
D. 248,000 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For the garden pea, yellow (Y) seed color is dominant and green (y) seed color is recessive. Also, green (P) pod color is dominant and yellow (p) pod color is recessive. What is the phenotype of a pea plant with the YyPp genotype?
A. yellow seed, green pod
B. yellow seed, yellow pod
C. green seed, green pod
D. green seed, yellow pod |
|
Definition
| A. yellow seed, green pod |
|
|
Term
If two parent garden peas, both with the YYPp genotype, are crossed what will be the phenotype(s) of the offspring?
A. All yellow seeds, green pods
B. All green seeds, green pods
C. All yellow seeds, yellow pods
D. All green seeds, yellow pods
E. half yellow seeds, green pods and half yellow seeds, yellow pods
F. half green seeds, green pods and half green seeds, yellow pods
G. ¾ yellow seeds, green pods and ¼ yellow seeds, yellow pods
H. ¾ green seeds, yellow pods and ¼ green seeds, green pods |
|
Definition
| G. ¾ yellow seeds, green pods and ¼ yellow seeds, yellow pods |
|
|
Term
Cystic fibrosis is a disease with defective chloride transport. Pulmonary airways and pancreatic ducts are pulled with thick mucus. Because of improving treatment, some patients live to their 40s or 50s. It is transmitted as a single-gene autosomal recessive disorder (both copies of the recessive allele must be present for the disease to occur). If an affected parent and an unaffected parent (who is not a carrier) have a child, what is the probability that the child will be affected?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. 100% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A male with red-green colorblindness (an X-linked recessive disorder) and an unaffected female (who is not a carrier) have a daughter. What is the probability (among female offspring) that the daughter will be affected?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. 100% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For the garden pea, round (R) seed shape is dominant and wrinkled (r) seed shape is recessive. A pea plant has round, green seeds (see #11 for designation of seed color alleles). Which of the following is(are) a possible genotype(s) of the plant?
A. RrYy
B. Rryy
C. RRyy
D. A & B
E. A & C
F. B & C
G. A, B, & C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The plant described in #15 is crossed with a plant with the rryy genotype, and all the offspring are round and green. Based on these results, what is the genotype of the plant described in #15?
A. RrYy
B. Rryy
C. RRyy
D. A & B
E. A & C
F. B & C
G. A, B, & C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Assume a particular organism has a diploid chromosome number of 4. How many different chromosome combinations can be normally packaged among the gametes of this organism? (Assume that no crossing over occurs.)
A. 4
B. 8
C. 2
D. infinite number
E. 0 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A man who is a dwarf (achondropasia) and woman who is not a dwarf want to have a child. Achondroplasia is an autosomal (not sex-linked) dominant disorder. The father is heterozygous for the disorder. What is the probability that their first child will have achondroplasia?
A. 0%
B. 1/8
C. 1/2
D. 1/4
E. 100% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDd?
A. 32
B. 4
C. 16
D. 8
E. 2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A woman who carries an X-linked recessive allele (gene) will pass it on to
A. all of her children
B. all of her sons
C. half of her sons
D. all of her daughters |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pea plants with the genotype GgWw are crossed with others that have the genotype GGWw. Sixty four offspring plants are examined: 10 GGWW, 6 GgWW, 11 GGWw, 19 GgWw, 11 GGww, 7 Ggww. What is the expected distribution of offspring genotypes (in the order just presented)?
A. 16:16:8:8:8:8
B. 8:8:8:8:16:16
C. 8:16:8:16:8:8
D. 8:8:16:16:8:8
E. 16:8:8:8:8:16 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If performing a chi square test on the data from #21, how many degrees of freedom are there?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a reasonable null hypothesis for the chi square test?
A. The observed occurrence of offspring genotype is not as expected.
B. GGWW and GGww occur at equal frequencies.
C. Ggww and GgWW do not occur at equal frequencies.
D. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the correct value for the chi square statistic?
A. 4.375
B. 6.625
C. 8.188
D. 21.125
E. 29.5 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a reasonable conclusion (χ2 table is on the next page)?
A. The observed occurrence of offspring genotype is as expected.
B. The observed occurrence of offspring genotype is different than expected.
C. The null hypothesis should be rejected
D. A & B
E. A & C
F. B & C
G. A, B & C |
|
Definition
| A. The observed occurrence of offspring genotype is as expected. |
|
|
Term
| Suppose a species of rabbit can be black (homozygous dominant), gray (heterozygous), or white (homozygous recessive). In an environment with lots of black rocks and white rocks, very few gray rabbits are found. However, there are many black or white rabbits. What type of natural selection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2. Collared flycatchers that lay small clutches (number of eggs laid) and large clutches are not as fit as those that lay intermediate sized clutches. If the clutch is too small, not enough offspring survive. If the clutch is too large, many offspring die because of inadequate parental care. Clutch size is genetically determined. What type of natural selection is this |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3. Large marine iguanas of the Galápagos have higher reproductive success than smaller iguanas. However, the large iguanas are generally in poor body condition because they do not eat enough; at higher temperatures their foraging efficiency improves. After a 5-yr period of above average temperatures the number of large marine iguanas is increased. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4. In Cameroon, West Africa, black-bellied seedcrackers have access to either small or large seeds. Birds with small beaks crack and eat small seeds efficiently; birds with large beaks crack and eat large seeds efficiently. Birds with intermediate sized beaks don’t handle either seed well. Juvenile birds have a range of beak length from 6 mm to 11 mm. However, the adults who are old enough to breed have beaks that are either 6-7 mm or 9.5-11 mm in length. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. Which of the following tend(s) to reduce genetic variability in a population?
A. Disruptive selection
B. Directional selection
C. Mutation
D. A and B
E. A and C
F. B and C
G. A, B, and C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a chance mistake in DNA replication |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What tends to make two nearby populations more similar to each other |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an important mechanism for restoring genetic variation in a population lost because of natural selection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9. Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant disorder that produces loss of normal motor control and dementia. Affected individuals often die early from secondary causes such as pneumonia. However, individuals are typically in their 40s or 50s before they become affected. Over time, we would expect genetic variation to _______________ for this trait.
A. Remain the same
B. Increase
C. Decrease
D. Fluctuate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10. Genetic drift occurs in a population. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Involves influx of alleles from other populations
B. No change in allele frequencies is involved
C. Tends to make neighboring populations less similar
D. Always increases fitness of the population
E. Has greatest effect in small |
|
Definition
| E. Has the greatest effect in small populations |
|
|
Term
11. A mutation in a single gene can make M. tuberculosis resistant to the antibiotic, rifampin. Treating an individual with tuberculosis with rifampin led to the generation of a population of resistant bacteria. In this case
A. the rifampin induced mutations in the bacteria that led to drug resistance.
B. disruptive selection occurred.
C. bacteria with a pre-existing mutation were more fit
D. the development of resistance was independent of selecton |
|
Definition
| C. bacteria with a pre-existing mutation were more fit |
|
|
Term
| 12. True or false. Natural selection can only occur for traits that are heritable. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
13. Which would be most likely to lead to new species?
A. Directional selection
B. Disruptive selection
C. Genetic drift
D. Gene flow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the dependent variable |
|
Definition
| This is the variable that is created as a result of the independent variable (it is dependent upon the independent variable) |
|
|
Term
| How do you do standard deviation? |
|
Definition
-find the mean
-subtract the mean from each piece of data
-square each of these
-add these together
-divide the number you got from adding them together by one less than the data set. (ex. if 27 values use 26)
-calculate the square root of the previous step. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| is the sum of all the values divided by the number of values |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| this can be found by taking all the numbers and putting them from lowest to highest, and then subtracting one value from each side till the middle number is found |
|
|
Term
| What does null hypothesis mean |
|
Definition
| Says that there is no relationship between two measured phenomena |
|
|
Term
| What do you use when comparing two sample means (whether the null hypothesis should be accepted. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the formula for a T test |
|
Definition
| Mean1-Mean2/ pooled variation. |
|
|
Term
| By convention, the null hypothesis is rejected if the t value is... |
|
Definition
| in the most extreme 5.% of all possible values (greater than the critical value of t) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| This is where each experimental subject is observed before and after a treatment. |
|
|
Term
| If there are more than two groups that are tested what do you do (statistics wise) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is standard deviation |
|
Definition
| its the measurement of variability or diversity (high deviation is spread out, low is closer to the mean) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The process by which autotrophs (usually driven by photosynthesis) change carbon dioxide into sugars. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The process by which autotrophs (usually driven by photosynthesis) change carbon dioxide into sugars. |
|
|
Term
| What happens in the Calvin Cycle |
|
Definition
-RuBisCo combines with carbon dioxide to form 3-phosphoglycerate,
-ATP is then used to make this a 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate
-NADPH then is broken down (goes to NADP+) to make this into Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
-this then regenerates to ribulose 5-phosphate
-this is then converted to ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate |
|
|
Term
| Sister chromatids are what |
|
Definition
| two identical copies of a chromatin connected by a centromere. |
|
|
Term
| Homologous chromosomes are what? |
|
Definition
| they are two different copies of the same chromosome that diploid organisms inherit, one from each parent. |
|
|
Term
| When are sister chromatids created |
|
Definition
| during the S subphase of interphase |
|
|
Term
| Sister chromatids have the same genes and the same ____, chromosomes have the same genes but ______ each which might or might not be the same as each other. |
|
Definition
| Alleles, two copies of alleles |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It has two homologous copies of each chromosome, one from Mom, one from Dad (2n=2X) Humans diploid cells have 46 chromosomes, gametes have 23 chromosomes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| when it has only one set of chromosomes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-Chromosomes make a copy of themselves (s phase)this is a homologous pair
-they align themselves in the center, microtubules form, and pull them apart
-cytokinesis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cells prepare for mitosis when |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cells duplicate chromosomes when |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-begins with one cell containing two copies of each chromosome
-these are duplicated creating two exact copies of the maternal and paternal versions of each chromosome (homolog)
-these are then pulled apart
-cytokinesis
-these then align in the center and are pulled apart,
-cytokinesis again
the whole process results in the 1 chromosome from each parent that are different from the parental strand |
|
|
Term
| Independent assortment states what |
|
Definition
| that alleles of different genes assort independently of one another during gamete formation. |
|
|
Term
| How do you do a Chi Squared test |
|
Definition
-define the expected (e) (the null hypothesis) and find the observed (o)
-find the deviation (d=o-e)
-square the deviation
-divide your squared answer by the expected
-add these values together
-find the degrees of freedom and then compare to the critical value
(to reject the null hypoth it must be greater than the critical value |
|
|
Term
| If the electron transport chain stops how much less ATP is produced? |
|
Definition
| 1/14.5 (You end up producing 2 ATP out of 29) |
|
|
Term
| What does a time control do? |
|
Definition
| It is a negative control, it allows for you to have something to compare against. This would be for example rats given a placebo over a measured time |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It catalyzes formation of peptide bonds in growing peptide (N to C terminus) or 3' to 5' |
|
|
Term
| DNA poly III moves toward what |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| RNA poly reads _____ and synthesizes _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are there only left handed enantiomers found in humans |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Just the basic chain of bases (no shape just straight line) |
|
|
Term
| What determines secondary structure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If sulfur was found in a chain of amino acids what effect would this have? |
|
Definition
| It helps shape its tertiary structure |
|
|
Term
| What forms the backbone of nucleic acid |
|
Definition
| sugar and phosphate groups with diester bonds |
|
|
Term
| What forms the backbone of a protein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cytosine, Thymine, Uracil |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are starches and cellulose similar |
|
Definition
| they have the same size monosachride units |
|
|
Term
| glycerol and fatty acids are bonded how? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| hypertonic solutions do what |
|
Definition
| crenate (to much solutes outside of cell causes water to leave cell and shrivel) |
|
|
Term
| Hypotonic solutions do what? |
|
Definition
| they swell and burst (too much solutes inside cell or not enough outside of cell) |
|
|
Term
| Where does the O2 from photosythesis come from |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the Calvin cycle is not working what happens |
|
Definition
| Glucose production goes down |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If there were no mitochondria what could still take place in a cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate require for carbon fixation to occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The carbon found in glucose comes from what |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Oxygen found in glucose comes from what |
|
Definition
|
|
