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Pathophysiology Exam 3 - Part A
Quiz questions
127
Pathology
11/21/2010

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Term
What are Cheyne-Stokes respirations characterized by?
Definition
Rapid respirations alternating with periods of apnea.
Term
What is hypertrophy of the nailbeds due to chronic hypoxemia called?
Definition
Clubbing
Term
Hypoventilation results in:

A) hypercapnia.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) increased minute ventilation.
D) decreased PaCO2.
Definition
A) hypercapnia.
Term
Which of the following conditions causes a decreased drive to breathe that results in hypoxemia and hypercapnia?

A) Emphysema
B) Asthma
C) Central nervous system disorders
D) Neuromuscular disorders
Definition
C) Central nervous system disorders
Term
A decrease in tidal volume results in a decrease in:

A) PaCO2.
B) the respiratory rate.
C) minute ventilation.
D) acidity.
Definition
C) minute ventilation.
Term
Which of the following diseases will result in a ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) mismatch?

A) Asthma
B) Pulmonary edema
C) Emphysema
D) All of the above
Definition
D) All of the above
Term
What is the collapse of a previously inflated area of lung tissue called?
Definition
Atelectasis
Term
Respiratory acidosis can result from:

A) increased minute ventilation.
B) decreased PaCO2.
C) tissue hypoxia.
D) reduced tidal volumes.
Definition
D) reduced tidal volumes.
Term
Coal miners or individuals exposed to asbestos often develop a chronic respiratory condition called:

A) bronchiolitis.
B) pneumoconiosis.
C) empyema.
D) allergic alveolitis.
Definition
B) pneumoconiosis.
Term
In acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), alveolar damage and impaired surfactant secretion lead to each of the following problems except:

A) pulmonary edema.
B) atelectasis.
C) air trapping.
D) pulmonary thrombus formation.
Definition
C) air trapping.
Term
Why does airway obstruction in chronic lung disease cause hypercapnia?

A) Airway obstruction causes pulmonary edema.
B) Airway obstruction causes alveolar destruction.
C) Airway obstruction causes prolonged inspiration and rapid expirations.
D) Airway obstruction causes air trapping.
Definition
D) Airway obstruction causes air trapping.
Term
When exposed to inhaled allergens, a child with asthma produces large quantities of what?
Definition
IgE
Term
In individuals with asthma, exposure to an allergen leads to which of the following pathophysiological events?

A) Loss of elastin and increased airway compliance
B) Pulmonary edema and increased alveolar compliance
C) Type II alveolar cell injury and decreased surfactant
D) Bronchoconstriction and airway edema
Definition
D) Bronchoconstriction and airway edema
Term
When conducting a physical assessment of an individual during an acute asthma episode, you would expect to observe all of the following except:

A) the use of accessory breathing muscles.
B) expiratory wheezing.
C) the absence of pulsus paradoxus.
D) coughing.
Definition
C) the absence of pulsus paradoxus.
Term
The loss of alpha1-antitrypsin in emphysema results in:

A) chronic mucous secretion and airway fibrosis.
B) the destruction of alveolar septa and the loss of elastic recoil.
C) pulmonary edema and increased alveolar compliance.
D) bronchoconstriction and airway edema.
Definition
B) the destruction of alveolar septa and the loss of elastic recoil.
Term
What is a frequent complication of chronic bronchitis related to the hypersecretion of mucus?
Definition
Recurrent infections
Term
Pneumonia leads to hypoxemia due to:

A) cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
B) upper airway obstruction.
C) the accumulation of exudates and fibrin deposition.
D) the decreased fraction of inspired oxygen.
Definition
C) the accumulation of exudates and fibrin deposition.
Term
All of the following physical and laboratory findings are indicative of a bacterial pneumonia except:

A) fever.
B) infiltrates on the chest X-ray film.
C) an increased white blood cell count.
D) a dry cough.
Definition
D) a dry cough.
Term
Staff at an inner-city homeless shelter send 46-year-old Henry Ship by ambulance to a local hospital after he begins coughing up blood. On arrival at the emergency room, he is feverish and says that he has felt very fatigued for several weeks. He also reports experiencing night sweats. Mr. Ship’s symptoms are most likely caused by:

A) viral pneumonia.
B) a pulmonary embolus.
C) tuberculosis.
D) aspiration pneumonia.
Definition
C) tuberculosis.
Term
Risk factors for tuberculosis (TB) include:

A) age.
B) immunosuppression.
C) gender.
D) excessive use of antibiotics.
Definition
B) immunosuppression.
Term
By what mechanism is severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS) transmitted?
Definition
Droplet inhalation
Term
What is the World Health Organization’s major concern regarding the avian flu, which is caused by the H5N1 virus?
Definition
The virus may mutate to a form that can be easily transmitted from person to person.
Term
Which of the following patients is at highest risk for developing a pulmonary embolism?

A) A 25-year-old male with asthma
B) A 28-year-old female in the first trimester of pregnancy
C) A 42-year-old female with a broken arm
D) A 67-year-old male hospitalized with a deep vein thrombosis in the femoral vein
Definition
D) A 67-year-old male hospitalized with a deep vein thrombosis in the femoral vein
Term
Chronic pulmonary hypertension can eventually cause which of the following complications?

A) Pulmonary emboli
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D) Cor pulmonale
Definition
D) Cor pulmonale
Term
Common sites of metastasis for lung cancer include all of the following except:

A) the liver.
B) the kidneys.
C) bone.
D) the brain.
Definition
B) the kidneys.
Term
Metaplastic changes to bronchial epithelial tissues are frequently caused by what?
Definition
Cigarette smoking
Term
Signs and symptoms of dyspnea include:

A) decreased work of breathing.
B) feeling short of breath.
C) a failure to use accessory breathing muscles.
D) an improvement of symptoms with exercise.
Definition
B) feeling short of breath.
Term
A high ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio can be caused by:

A) increased dead space.
B) alveolar collapse.
C) obstruction to pulmonary blood flow.
D) bronchoconstriction.
Definition
C) obstruction to pulmonary blood flow.
Term
Respiratory failure is defined by which one of the following laboratory alterations?

A) High PaO2
B) High PaCO2
C) Low hematocrit
D) High blood pH
Definition
B) High PaCO2
Term
Lung injury that results in diffuse pulmonary inflammation and infiltrates and that is followed by development of a hyaline membrane at the alveolocapillary interface is a condition known as:

A) sarcoidosis.
B) emphysema.
C) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
D) acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
Definition
D) acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
Term
Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema most often is caused by:

A) congestive heart failure.
B) systemic infection (sepsis).
C) dehydration.
D) anemia.
Definition
B) systemic infection (sepsis)
Term
Pulmonary edema and pneumothorax are examples of ______ pulmonary disease.

A) malignant
B) restrictive
C) obstructive
D) pleuritic
Definition
B) restrictive
Term
Air that enters the pleural space during inspiration and is unable to exit during expiration creates a condition called:

A) tension pneumothorax.
B) open pneumothorax.
C) pleural effusion.
D) empyema.
Definition
A) tension pneumothorax.
Term
Which of the following characteristics is not typical of asthma?

A) Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder.
B) Asthma is caused by bronchial hyperresponsiveness.
C) Asthma causes alveolar collapse.
D) Genetic susceptibility plays a role in the development of asthma.
Definition
C) Asthma causes alveolar collapse.
Term
A life-threatening complication of asthma is:

A) exercise-induced asthma.
B) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
C) status asthmaticus.
D) bronchiectasis.
Definition
C) status asthmaticus.
Term
Airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis is generally the result of:

A) thick mucous secretions and smooth muscle hypertrophy.
B) loss of alveolar elastin.
C) the accumulation of pulmonary edema.
D) hyperplasia of bronchial cartilage.
Definition
A) thick mucous secretions and smooth muscle hypertrophy.
Term
Individuals who have recently developed chronic bronchitis most often present with:

A) productive cough.
B) wheezing.
C) a barrel chest.
D) severe dyspnea.
Definition
A) productive cough.
Term
The increased anterior-posterior chest diameter associated with obstructive lung disease is caused by:

A) increased pulmonary blood flow.
B) increased expiratory flow rates.
C) increased residual lung volumes.
D) decreased chest wall compliance.
Definition
C) increased residual lung volumes.
Term
Which of the following measures is most effective for preventing pulmonary emboli in patients who are recovering from a major surgery?

A) Ambulate patients frequently to prevent blood clot formation.
B) Ensure that patients use supplemental oxygen.
C) Prevent the development of anemia.
D) Promote aggressive fluid intake.
Definition
A) Ambulate patients frequently to prevent blood clot formation.
Term
Primary pulmonary hypertension usually is caused by:

A) chronic pulmonary disease.
B) right-sided heart failure.
C) hereditary traits.
D) pulmonary emboli.
Definition
C) hereditary traits.
Term
_____ is a term that signifies right-sided heart failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension.
Definition
Cor pulmonale
Term
______ atelectasis is the collapse of lung tissue caused by external pressure exerted by a tumor, fluid, or air.
Definition
Compression
Term
What is inflammation of the pleura that causes pain on inspiration called?
Definition
Pleurisy
Term
Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is associated with urinary tract infections?

A) Herpes simplex virus
B) Candida albicans
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Trichomoniasis
Definition
B) Candida albicans
Term
What is the consequence of an upper urinary tract obstruction in a single ureter?

A) Renal stone formation
B) Hydronephrosis
C) Dilation of the urethra
D) Anuria
Definition
B) Hydronephrosis
Term
A major modifiable risk factor for the development of renal calculi in the general population is:

A) obesity.
B) dehydration.
C) smoking.
D) drinking alcohol.
Definition
B) dehydration.
Term
Which of the following procedures uses ultrasound waves to break large renal calculi into smaller stones that can be passed through the urinary tract?

A) Lithotripsy
B) Pyelography
C) Renal biopsy
D) Enterocystoplasty
Definition
A) Lithotripsy
Term
Which of the following disorders is characterized by a lesion of the central or peripheral nervous system that affects bladder control?

A) Neurogenic bladder
B) Bladder dyssynergia
C) Bladder prolapse
D) Cystitis
Definition
A) Neurogenic bladder
Term
Problems associated with a lower urinary tract obstruction include all of the following except:

A) urinary retention.
B) flank pain.
C) increased voiding frequency.
D) intermittent urinary stream.
Definition
B) flank pain.
Term
A major risk factor for developing bladder cancer is:

A) exposure to asbestos.
B) urethral obstruction.
C) cystitis.
D) smoking.
Definition
D) smoking.
Term
In addition to urinary tract infection, which of the following is a risk factor in the development of pyelonephritis?

A) Urinary retention and reflux
B) Nephrotic syndrome
C) Respiratory disease
D) Glomerulonephritis
Definition
A) Urinary retention and reflux
Term
Which of the following symptoms manifests with both urinary tract infection and pyelonephritis?

A) Costovertebral (CVA) tenderness
B) Chills
C) Dysuria
D) Fever
Definition
C) Dysuria
Term
What would urinalysis show in a patient who is developing glomerular disease?

A) Increased urine creatinine
B) Proteinuria
C) Low urine sodium
D) Presence of white blood cells
Definition
B) Proteinuria
Term
Nephrotic syndrome occurs when there is loss of _____ in the urine.

A) red blood cells
B) sodium
C) glucose
D) protein
Definition
D) protein
Term
In renal failure, the kidneys will continue to adapt until renal function reaches what percent of normal?

A) 75%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 10%
Definition
C) 25%
Term
The primary manifestation of acute renal failure is:

A) proteinuria.
B) oliguria.
C) hematuria.
D) diuresis.
Definition
B) oliguria.
Term
What is a primary laboratory finding in chronic renal failure?

A) Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
B) Decreased serum sodium
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Increased serum creatinine
Definition
D) Increased serum creatinine
Term
Which of the following dietary nutrients must be restricted in individuals with advanced chronic renal failure?

A) Fats
B) Carbohydrates
C) Protein
D) All of the above
Definition
C) Protein
Term
Which of the following complications associated with renal failure creates the greatest need for immediate dialysis?

A) Uremia
B) Increased creatinine
C) Hypertension
D) Hyperkalemia
Definition
D) Hyperkalemia
Term
Which of the following is not a known cause of chronic renal failure?

A) Hypertension
B) Systemic lupus erythematosus
C) Diabetes
D) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
Definition
D) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
Term
Which of the following systems are affected by uremia in renal failure?

A) Skin
B) Central nervous system
C) Reproductive system
D) All of the above
Definition
D) All of the above
Term
Loss of one kidney results in ______ of the remaining kidney.

A) hyperplasia
B) hypertrophy
C) atrophy
D) dysplasia
Definition
B) hypertrophy
Term
Obstruction of the lower urinary tract in males is often caused by:

A) congenital stricture of a calyx.
B) prostate enlargement.
C) pelvic organ prolapse.
D) urinary tract infection.
Definition
B) prostate enlargement.
Term
Which of the following factors has a major influence on the development of renal calculi?

A) Urine sodium levels
B) Serum lactate levels
C) Urine pH
D) Urine creatinine levels
Definition
C) Urine pH
Term
The main clinical manifestation of a kidney stone obstructing the ureter is:

A) pyuria.
B) renal colic.
C) urge incontinence.
D) an abdominal mass.
Definition
B) renal colic.
Term
Which of the following are risk factors for the development of renal cell carcinoma?

A) Male gender
B) Tobacco use
C) Obesity
D) All of the above
Definition
D) All of the above
Term
Which one of the following microorganisms causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

A) Klebsiella
B) Escherichia coli
C) Herpes simplex virus
D) Candida albicans
Definition
B) Escherichia coli
Term
An important cause of bacterial persistence resulting in recurring urinary tract infections includes:

A) poor hygiene.
B) increased mucus secretion by the urinary tract.
C) microbial resistance to antibiotics.
D) acidic urine pH.
Definition
C) microbial resistance to antibiotics.
Term
Which of the following diseases is a glomerular disorder?

A) Pyelonephritis
B) Obstructive uropathy
C) Interstitial cystitis
D) Nephrotic syndrome
Definition
D) Nephrotic syndrome
Term
The cause of glomerulonephritis is:

A) infection of the glomerular capsule secondary to a urinary tract infection.
B) antigen-antibody complexes that deposit on the glomerular membrane.
C) hydronephrosis from kidney stones.
D) viral infection in the blood stream that migrates to the glomerulus.
Definition
B) antigen-antibody complexes that deposit on the glomerular membrane.
Term
Which of the following infections is most commonly associated with the development of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A) Skin and wound infections
B) Throat infections
C) Endocarditis
D) Urinary tract infections
Definition
B) Throat infections
Term
What is the cause of the peripheral edema that often manifests with glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome?

A) Systemic inflammation
B) Right heart failure
C) Loss of plasma proteins in urine
D) Sodium retention
Definition
C) Loss of plasma proteins in urine
Term
What is the cause of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis in Goodpasture syndrome?

A) Autoimmune destruction of the glomerular membrane
B) Glomerular injury from drug toxicity
C) Viral infection of the glomerular membrane
D) Abnormal clotting in the glomerular capillaries
Definition
A) Autoimmune destruction of the glomerular membrane
Term
Secondary forms of nephrotic syndrome are associated with all of the following conditions except:

A) diabetes.
B) hyperthyroidism.
C) renal disease.
D) systemic lupus erythematosus.
Definition
B) hyperthyroidism.
Term
Renal insufficiency refers to a decline in renal function to ____ of normal.

A) 75%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 5%
Definition
C) 25%
Term
Which of the following are symptoms of uremia and azotemia?

A) Pruritus
B) Fatigue
C) Nausea
D) All of the above
Definition
D) All of the above
Term
Prerenal causes of acute renal failure include:

A) severe hypotension.
B) glomerulonephritis.
C) kidney stones.
D) acute tubular necrosis.
Definition
A) severe hypotension.
Term
Acute tubular necrosis leading to acute renal failure can result from all of the following problems except:

A) increased ammonia levels from liver failure.
B) contrast dyes used for radiologic studies.
C) ischemia occurring after major surgery.
D) antibiotics that are nephrotoxic.
Definition
A) increased ammonia levels from liver failure.
Term
Individuals with chronic renal failure are at risk for osteomalacia and spontaneous bone fractures because:

A) excess potassium leaches calcium from the bone.
B) erythropoietin secretion is impaired.
C) urea causes demineralization of the bone tissue.
D) of a vitamin D deficiency.
Definition
D) of a vitamin D deficiency.
Term
In chronic renal failure, which of the following hormones often needs to be therapeutically replaced?

A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B) Cortisol
C) Erythropoietin
D) Aldosterone
Definition
C) Erythropoietin
Term
Renal calculi are formed from all of the following substances except:

A) Struvite
B) Calcium oxalate
C) Uric acid
D) Urobilirubin
Definition
D) Urobilirubin
Term
Common causes of constipation include all of the following except:

A) inadequate fluid intake.
B) laxative use.
C) a low-fiber diet.
D) medications.
Definition
B) laxative use.
Term
Which of the following types of diarrhea can be caused by an inability to digest lactose in dairy products?

A) Secretory
B) Neurogenic
C) Osmotic
D) Motility
Definition
C) Osmotic
Term
Which of the following disorders can result in lower gastrointestinal bleeding?

A) Mallory-Weiss tear
B) Peptic ulcers
C) Cancer
D) Hernia
Definition
C) Cancer
Term
Which of the following conditions is a complication of gastrointestinal bleeding?

A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Polyps
C) Hypertension
D) Ascites
Definition
A) Iron deficiency anemia
Term
The presence of digested dark blood in the stool is called:

A) melena.
B) hematochezia.
C) hematemesis.
D) occult bleeding.
Definition
A) melena.
Term
Which of the following conditions can cause dysphagia?

A) Hiatal hernia
B) Achalasia
C) Gastroesophageal reflux
D) All of the above
Definition
D) All of the above
Term
Reflux esophagitis is defined as:

A) the autoimmune destruction of the esophageal lining.
B) dysplasia of the epithelial lining of the esophagus.
C) a congenital anomaly of the esophagus.
D) an inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux.
Definition
D) an inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux.
Term
Common manifestations of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) include:

A) nausea, vomiting, and weight loss.
B) diarrhea, abdominal cramping, and fever.
C) heartburn, dysphagia, and pain within one hour of eating.
D) back pain, ascites, and anorexia.
Definition
C) heartburn, dysphagia, and pain within one hour of eating.
Term
Complications associated with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) include which of the following?

A) Esophageal ulcerations
B) Esophageal cancer
C) Esophageal strictures
D) All of the above
Definition
D) All of the above
Term
A hiatal hernia is a protrusion of the _____ through the ______.
Definition
Stomach; diaphragm
Term
Paralytic ileus often occurs after:

A) gastroesophageal reflux resolves.
B) abdominal surgery.
C) pregnancy.
D) vomiting.
Definition
B) abdominal surgery.
Term
Intestinal obstruction can lead to all of the following complications except:

A) hepatic failure.
B) dehydration.
C) peritonitis.
D) perforation.
Definition
A) hepatic failure.
Term
The classic symptoms of a small bowel obstruction are:

A) nausea, dyspnea, and mid-back pain.
B) vomiting, severe abdominal pain, and abdominal distension.
C) constipation, pelvic pain, and dysuria.
D) fever, heartburn, and diaphoresis.
Definition
B) vomiting, severe abdominal pain, and abdominal distension.
Term
The most common cause of chronic gastritis is:

A) viral infection.
B) bacterial infection.
C) parasitic infection.
D) fungal infection.
Definition
B) bacterial infection.
Term
Individuals with chronic gastritis are at risk for developing which of the following problems?

A) Gastric cancer
B) Achlorhydria
C) Gastrointestinal bleeding
D) All of the above
Definition
D) All of the above
Term
How does a chronic infection with Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) lead to duodenal ulcers?

A) Chronic inflammation inhibits the proton pumps in the gastric lining.
B) Presence of bacteria in the stomach causes the pyloric sphincter to open prematurely, releasing acid into the duodenum.
C) H. pylori inhibits prostaglandins, leading to decreased mucus production.
D) H. pylori produces substances that are toxic to the duodenal mucosa.
Definition
D) H. pylori produces substances that are toxic to the duodenal mucosa.
Term
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents (NSAIDS) cause peptic ulcer by:

A) decreasing gastric bicarbonate production.
B) accelerating the proton pump in parietal cells.
C) inhibiting mucosal prostaglandin synthesis.
D) reducing mucosal blood flow.
Definition
C) inhibiting mucosal prostaglandin synthesis.
Term
In addition to NSAID use, possible risk factors for peptic ulcer disease include all of the following except:

A) smoking.
B) alcoholism.
C) psychological stress.
D) female gender.
Definition
D) female gender.
Term
Which type of ulcer is a stress ulcer that is associated with burn injuries?

A) Addison
B) Cushing
C) Curling
D) Retroperitoneal
Definition
C) Curling
Term
Gastric ulcers are characterized by:

A) increased acid secretion.
B) regurgitation of bile.
C) pain with eating.
D) bloody diarrhea.
Definition
C) pain with eating.
Term
Severe trauma can result in stress ulcers that often first manifest with:

A) abdominal pain.
B) peritonitis.
C) severe bleeding.
D) dumping syndrome.
Definition
C) severe bleeding.
Term
Gastrectomy surgery commonly leads to a vitamin B12 deficiency anemia because:

A) vitamin B12 is absorbed in the stomach.
B) decreased HCl production affects vitamin B12 absorption.
C) pepsin is required for the conversion of vitamin B12 into its active form.
D) decreased intrinsic factor production results in decreased vitamin B12 absorption in the ileum.
Definition
D) decreased intrinsic factor production results in decreased vitamin B12 absorption in the ileum.
Term
Which of the following disorders is characterized by night blindness, osteopathy, and clotting disorders?

A) Post-gastrectomy syndrome
B) Gluten-sensitive enteropathy
C) Bile salt deficiency
D) Lactase deficiency
Definition
C) Bile salt deficiency
Term
Which of the following disorders is characterized by the inability to digest all nutrients?

A) Pancreatic insufficiency
B) Gluten-sensitive enteropathy
C) Bile salt deficiency
D) Lactase deficiency
Definition
A) Pancreatic insufficiency
Term
All of the following are characteristics of ulcerative colitis except:

A) iron deficiency anemia.
B) the presence of ”skip” lesions.
C) diarrhea.
D) an increased risk of colon cancer.
Definition
B) the presence of ”skip” lesions.
Term
Which of the following factors are known causes of ulcerative colitis?

A) Genetic predisposition
B) Autoimmune injury
C) Inflammation
D) All of the above
Definition
D) All of the above
Term
Common characteristics of Chron disease include which of the following?

A) Significant blood loss in diarrhea
B) Gastroesophageal reflux
C) Vitamin B12 deficiency
D) Mucosal erosions of the rectum
Definition
C) Vitamin B12 deficiency
Term
Diverticula are:

A) ulcers that form in the colon.
B) outpouchings of the colon's mucosa.
C) perforations of the colon wall.
D) areas where the colon wall is hypertrophied.
Definition
B) outpouchings of the colon's mucosa.
Term
Diverticulosis can be related to which of the following dietary problems?

A) Lactose deficiency
B) Diet high in refined foods
C) Iron deficiency
D) High fiber intake
Definition
B) Diet high in refined foods
Term
Appendicitis usually presents with pain that manifests in which abdominal quadrant?

A) Right upper
B) Right lower
C) Left upper
D) Left lower
Definition
B) Right lower
Term
Which of the following nutritional disorders is characterized by consumption of large amounts of food (binging) followed by self-induced vomiting and/or the use of laxatives (purging)?

A) Obesity
B) Anorexia nervosa
C) Bulimia nervosa
D) Kwashiorkor
Definition
C) Bulimia nervosa
Term
What is the most common cause of acute mesenteric (vascular) insufficiency?

A) Emboli
B) Heart failure
C) Ileus
D) Anemia
Definition
A) Emboli
Term
Although the term hepatitis describes any inflammatory process affecting the liver, it is usually used to describe liver inflammation due to:

A) bacterial infection.
B) viral infection.
C) prescription drug toxicity.
D) street drug toxicity.
Definition
B) viral infection.
Term
Which of the following types of hepatitis is acquired from ingesting contaminated food and manifests acutely with fever, abdominal pain, and jaundice, but does not usually result in fulminant liver failure?

A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) All of the above
Definition
A) Hepatitis A
Term
The most common cause of liver cirrhosis are hepatitis C and:

A) alcoholism.
B) cocaine abuse.
C) overdose of antibiotic medications.
D) liver cancer.
Definition
A) alcoholism.
Term
Cholelithiasis is:

A) an infection of the gallbladder.
B) gallbladder atrophy.
C) hypersecretion of bile by the liver.
D) the accumulation of gallstones in the gallbladder.
Definition
D) the accumulation of gallstones in the gallbladder.
Term
The most common cause of portal hypertension is:

A) renal failure.
B) liver cirrhosis.
C) congestive heart failure.
D) esophageal varices.
Definition
B) liver cirrhosis.
Term
Which of the following statements explains why portal hypertension leads to ascites?

A) Hepatosplenomegaly develops
B) Back-up of blood in the intra-abdominal veins occurs
C) Esophageal varices form in the lower esophagus
D) Hemorrhoids can bleed
Definition
B) Back-up of blood in the intra-abdominal veins occurs
Term
Symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy are caused by increased serum levels of:

A) ammonia.
B) potassium.
C) urea.
D) creatinine.
Definition
A) ammonia.
Term
Which of the following symptoms is associated with hepatic encephalopathy?

A) Ascites, bleeding disorders, and immunosuppression
B) Peripheral edema, dyspnea, and weight gain
C) Decreased urinary output, increased serum creatinine, and elevated liver enzymes
D) Memory loss and confusion, progressing to coma
Definition
D) Memory loss and confusion, progressing to coma
Term
Jaundice related to biliary duct obstruction is manifested by which of the following laboratory alterations?

A) Decreased unconjugated bilirubin
B) Increased unconjugated bilirubin
C) Decreased conjugated bilirubin
D) Increased conjugated bilirubin
Definition
D) Increased conjugated bilirubin
Term
Tissue damage in acute pancreatitis is caused by:

A) leakage of pancreatic enzymes into pancreatic tissue.
B) hydrochloric acid reflux into the pancreatic duct.
C) autoimmune destruction of the pancreas.
D) insulin toxicity.
Definition
A) leakage of pancreatic enzymes into pancreatic tissue.
Term
The most common cause of chronic pancreatitis is:

A) narcotic addiction.
B) gall stones.
C) alcohol abuse.
D) diabetes mellitus.
Definition
C) alcohol abuse.
Term
Which of the following risk factors increases a person's chance of developing esophageal cancer?

A) Smoking
B) Alcohol
C) Gastroesophageal reflux
D) All of the above
Definition
D) All of the above
Term
Risk of developing cancer is increased with which of the following gastrointestinal disorders?

A) Duodenal ulcers
B) Diverticulosis
C) Ulcerative colitis
D) Dumping syndrome
Definition
C) Ulcerative colitis
Term
Which of the following symptoms is most specific to colon cancer?

A) Nausea and jaundice
B) Abdominal pain and hematochezia
C) Epigastric pain and vomiting
D) Heartburn and dysphagia
Definition
B) Abdominal pain and hematochezia