Evaluates the surface picture, Designates contacts to be watched or tracked in accordance with ship’s directives, Verifies that the recommended course is clear of all surface contacts.

Provides all radar data as directed by the Shipping Officer

Provides all navigation radar data as directed by the Piloting Officer. Maintain communications with, and keep the Navigation Plotter informed of designated points available for use.

Maintains CIC navigation plot. Plots and labels each fix on the chart in use. Extends the DR at least two fix intervals. Computes set and drift since last fix. Identifies nearest hazard to navigation. Determines time and distance to the next course change. Revises turn bearings. Plots various types of fixes as applicable, based on the installed electronic navigation system.

Logs all Piloting Officer recommendations as well as the standard fix report. Assumes responsibility from the Bearing Book Recorder for designating times of fixes when CIC has been designated as the primary navigation plot.

Communications Instructions-Radiotelephone Procedures (ACP125):

·         Protocol – Rules

·         Callsigns – Identifiers

·         Secure Nets and Codes - Cryptography

Transmission Security is that component of COMSEC which includes all measures designed to protect Allied radio transmissions from enemy __________.

·         Interception

·         Analysis

·         Deception

Maximum defense against interception and direction finding (DF) can be achieved if what protective measures are taken?

·         Radio Silence

·         Electronic Silence

·         Avoiding Unnecessary Transmissions

·         Transmission Length

·         Procedure

·         Changing Frequency

Use of Alternative Means of Communications

Codewords meanings are always classified and are intended to be used once only as an executive order.

True

Radio appointment titles are codewords.

What is a unique, daily changing group of four random letters used to disguise a command, formation, unit or sub unit?

Address Group

What is a combination of letters and figures that identify a communication facility, an organization, or an individual on a radio net?

Pronunciation of Figures:

1 WUN         6 SIX

2 TOO         7 SEV-EN

3 TREE        8 AIT

4 FOW-ER      9 NINE-ER

5 FIFE        0 ZE-RO

Classified Information Management Program (COMDTINST 5510.23):

What prescribes a uniform system for classifying, safeguarding, and declassifying national security information?

Who is ultimately responsible for the security of classified information at his or her command?

What form number is the Activity Security Checklist?

SF-701 (Retained for 3 months)

What form number is the Security Container Checksheet?

SF-702 (Shall be affixed to the container and used each time the container is opened and closed. Retained for 3 months)

Coversheet:                       Sticker:

SF-703 = Top Secret               SF-706 = Top Secret

       SF-704 = Secret                   SF-707 = Secret

       SF-705 = Confidential             SF-708 = Confidential

What form number is the Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement?

SF-312

What is a CG-4819?

Classified Document Control Log

CG-4764A (Shows the names of all individuals given access and the date of such access and shall be attached to all Top Secret information in document form. Retained for 5 years)

What form number is the Security Container Records Form?

What are the 3 types of restricted areas?

·         Exclusion (Most Secure)

·         Limited (Not as Secure)

·         Controlled (Least secure)

What sound transmission class (STC) is required for Top Secret spaces?

What sound transmission class (STC) is required for Secret and below spaces?

Who has been delegated as original classification authorities within the Coast Guard and have the authority to originally classify information as secret and below?

COMLANTAREA SOP (Annex K)

What form number is the Report of Radio Interference?

What form number is the Report of Violation of Radio Regulations or Communications Instructions?

CG-2861A retain 3 years

What form number is the Frequency Authorization Request Form?

What form number is the Communications Log?

How long do you retain a Message Tracer File?

How long do you retain a Visitor Register?

2 years

How long do you retain High-Precedence Message Test Results?

1 year

What is the unclassified short name referring to investigations and studies of compromising emanations (CE)?

       TEMPEST

Speed of Service Objectives:

Inspections, Evaluations, and Frequency requirements:

 These are complete and continuous records of all radio signals transmitted and received. The absence of any signals for a five minute period will be indicated by a NO SIGS entry in the log.

 These are a record of all transmitted and received signals that pertain to the unit. Entries may be abbreviated and in narrative form vice verbatim.

Abbreviated Log

 A recording, magnetic or digital, used as a complete or abbreviated radio log. Recordings that are not normally considered logs may provide valuable information in cases of distress, marine accidents, or disaster. This is often the case where radio circuits are recorded and manual logs are kept. If such information is recorded the CO shall ensure that the recording is protected and treated as a recorded log.

Which one of the following situations does NOT require the completion of a Personnel Security Action (CG-5588) form?

A. Request security clearances.

B. Request a Personnel Security Investigation (PSI)

C. Report a positive Page 7 entry.

D. Request an Interim clearance.

E. Granting local access.

F. Report derogatory information.

G. Report status changes.

When completing a CG-5588 form, what letter shall be entered in the “Status” block.

       B – Enlisted

       C - Officer

A Top Secret clearance shall be updated after ______ years.

       5 years

A Secret clearance will expire after ______ years.

       10 years

The level of access necessary for each military and civilian position shall be based on mission needs and the determination of the ______ .

       Commanding Officer

What are the 3 types of restricted areas?

·         Exclusion (Most Secure)

·         Limited (Not as Secure)

·         Controlled (Least secure)

FPCON:

This condition applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture?

       FPCON Normal

This condition applies when there is a general threat of possible terrorist activity directed against units and personnel, the nature & extent is unpredictable?

       FPCON Alpha

This condition applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists. You must be able to maintain this posture for weeks w/o causing undue hardship in operational capability?

       FPCON Bravo

This condition applies when an incident has occurred or when intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action against units and personnel is imminent?

       FPCON Charlie

This condition applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist actions against a specific location is likely?

       FPCON Delta

COMMS:

Be able to convert Hz ► KHz ► MHz ► GHz and vice versa

1000 Hz = 1 KHz

1000 KHz = 1 MHz

1000 MHz = 1 GHz

Frequency Ranges:

       VLF = 3 – 30 KHz

LF  = 30 – 300 KHz

MF  = 300 – 3000 KHz

       HF  = 3 – 30 MHz

       VHF = 30 – 300 MHz

       UHF = 300 – 3000 MHz

       SHF = 3 – 30 GHz (Microwaves)

       EHF = 30 – 300 GHz (Microwaves, Navy)

What is the supplementary hailing CH/Freq for non-commercial vessels?

              CH 9 / 156.45 MHz

SATCOM:

Geo-Synchronous satellites orbit _____ miles above the equator and travel with the speed of the earth’s rotation.

       22,282

What are the 2 types of networks?

Free (Does not require a Net Control Station (NCS))

Directed (Controlled by NCS)

What is the lateral direction of the antenna, in degrees (0018-3608)?

Azimuth

What is the vertical direction of the antenna, in degrees (0008-0908)?

Elevation

What is the mathematical difference in the uplink and downlink frequencies in MHz?

Offset

What type of circuit is one way communications on one frequency?

       Simplex (Ex. FSB)

What type of circuit is two-way communications allowing a unit to transmit only when not already receiving a transmission from another unit? (1 Frequency)

       Half Duplex

What type of circuit is two-way communications facilitated by transmitting on an uplink frequency, receiving on a separate, downlink frequency? (2 Different Frequencies)

       Full Duplex

What type of circuit is two-way communications facilitated by transmitting on an uplink frequency, receiving on a separate, downlink frequency? (2 Different Frequencies)

       Full Duplex

What does FSB stand for?

       Fleet Satellite Broadcast (receive only)

What does NBSV stand for?

       Narrowband Secure Voice

What does CUDIX stand for?

       Common User Digital Information Exchange Subsystem

What does DAMA stand for?

       Demand Assigned Multiple Access

What does ANDVT stand for?

       Advanced Narrowband Digital Voice Terminal

What does NAVMACS II stand for?

       Naval Modular Automated Communications System II

What does AUTOVON stand for?

       Automatic Voice Network

What does NCTAMS stand for and what is its purpose?

Naval Computer and Telecommunications Area Master Stations (NCTAMS) are net control for Naval UHF communications in assigned geographic locations

What equipment makes up the FSB Circuit?

Antennas:            AS-2815 (Eggbeaters, Polarized = no power)________________

AS-3018(Trashcans, Independent Group power)

              Amplifiers:          AM-6534 (Converts RF ► IF)

Transceiver:         MD-900/SSR-1 (Combines the 4 signals into 1 demodulated IF      signal)

Demultiplexer:       TD-1063/SSR-1 (Receives 1 multiplexed signal & demultiplexes into 16 separate signals)

OE-82C Antenna Group

                     Antennas:            AS-3018 (Unidirectional, LOS)

                     Amplifiers:          AM-6691A

                     Power/Switch:        SA-2000

       Antenna Controller:  C-9597 (Controls Azimuth and Elevation)

WSC-3

Transceiver:         RT-1107A (Modulates RF to IF)

Switchboard:         SB-4125 (Connects one of the RT-1107A units to the TD-1271)

            OK-454

Contains:            TD-1271 (Multiplexer)

SB-4124(Switchboard)

MX-10342(Allows testing)

Power Distribution Panel(Provides power)

              Crypto

KYV-5                The “K” means its function is cryptographic; the “Y” means its type is for speech; and the “V” means its assembly has a removable communications security component (faceplate). Powered by mercury batteries.

KG-84A               Used specifically for CUDIXS.  Here again, the “K” means its function is cryptographic; the “G” means its type is for key generation, but in this case it is used more generally as a data encryption device.

KGV-11               Does not encrypt or decrypt any of the information going to or from the MUX.  Its function is to generate a Channel Control Order-Wire (CCOW), which establishes and confirms the satellite connection every few seconds.

C-10315

Black Patch Panel

                     Crypto:

                     KWR-46

                     NAVMACS II

RADAR:

What is the measure of a wave’s energy level?

              Amplitude (Strength in Volts)

How fast do Radio frequency (RF) waves travel?

186,000 miles per second (Speed of Light)

What is the maximum range of a radar determined by?

       Pulse Rate

What is the maximum range of a radar determined by?

       Pulse Rate

What is minimum range determined by?

       Pulsewidth

What is the ability of a radar to distinguish between two targets on the same bearing but at slightly different ranges?

       Range Resolution

A natural property of radio waves is that the direction of their transmission path changes as they pass between media having different densities. This is known as what?

Refraction

What is the means by which a wave bends around the edges of an object and penetrates into the shadow region behind it?

       Diffraction

What is the scattering and absorption of energy as it passes through a medium?

       Attenuation

What is the propagation velocity of RF energy?

328 yards per microsecond (ms)

Search radars are calibrated on the basis of 2,000 yards per nautical mile, which provides sufficient accuracy for their function. For search radars, then, it takes 6.1 ms for an RF pulse to travel 1 nautical mile, or 12.2 ms per radar nautical mile (round-trip distance)

Radar antennas radiate RF energy in patterns of what?

              Lobes or Beams

As a radar transmits, some of the energy strikes the surface of the sea and is reflected upward. As a result, contacts cannot be detected. What are these areas called?

Fade Areas

What is the relative bearing of own ship from a target ship?

              Target Angle

What is the angular measurement between own ship’s head (own course) and the line of bearing to the object?

              Relative Bearing

What is the plotting symbol for an estimated position?

              Square

What is the plotting symbol for a radar fix?

              Triangle

   Who is responsible for the overall management of development, evaluation, and dissemination of naval doctrine, ACPs and Joint Army/Navy/Air Force Publications (JANAPs)?

       Naval Doctrine Command (NDC)

Who is responsible for the overall administration of COMTAC Publications within the Coast Guard?

       Commander, TISCOM (Telecommunication and Information Systems Command (Tis-332))

In the Administrative Maintenance File, how long should destruction reports be maintained for publications that were once held in the library?

       Top Secret & Secret = 5 years

       Unclassified & Confidential = 2 years

When are secret and below COMTAC publications inventoried?

       12 Months (Annually)

TS COMTAC Publications must be inventoried every _____?

       6 Months (BI-Annually)

COMTAC OPL Allowance lists must be reprinted every ______ or upon change.

       3 Months

Relief/designation letters of Publications Control Officer, including inventory at the time of relief must be retained for _________ after relief.

       2 Years

How long should Directives file (initial allowance authorization letters and all subsequent additions/deletions authorizations) be retained?

       2 years

Correspondence files/local memos (all letters, messages, general messages, rapid drafts, etc. pertaining to the operation of the library) must be retained for _________.

       2 years

_____________ replaces the NWPL Catalog Card (OPNAV 5070/11), and is the only method for accounting of each publication in the unit's CPL.

       Coast Guard Publication Control

Coast Guard publications and instructions not applicable to the Navy can be included in the COMTAC publications system.

       False

The COMTAC Online Publications Library (OPL) is centrally managed by __________and accessed through a web-interface using a standard web browser.

       TISCOM (Tis-332)

When must accounts (less Satellite) update Publications Control Officer (PCO) and Publications Control Clerk (PCC) information in the COMTAC OPL database? 

       At first log in and semiannually

COMTAC publications (including CD-ROMs) may be extracted or reproduced for use in training or operations, unless prohibited by the Letter of Promulgation.

       True

What are the three distinct formats COMTAC publications are prepared in?

       Paper

       Microfiche

       Compact disk read-only memory (CD-ROM)

When must an inventory of all COMTAC material take place?

·         Upon relief of the commanding officer

·         Relief of the PCO

·         Annually

The ______________ of a unit holding COMTAC material shall ensure a self-inspection of the unit’s CPL is conducted annually.

       Commanding Officer

Reports of the loss or possible compromise of classified COMTAC publications shall be made to the unit's ______________.

       Cognizant Security Manager

All NATO COMTAC publications shall be separated from non-NATO COMTAC publications.

       True

When should COMTAC publications be page checked?

·         Upon receipt

·         After entry of a change

·         After disassembling for any reason

What are the functional components of the CPL?

·         Publication Stock Center

·         Inventory of Publications

·         Custody Record File

·         COMTAC Administrative File

·         Publication Notice

All COMTAC publications must be stamped with an assigned ________ in the upper right-hand corner.

       Copy Number

When making short changes / corrections to a COMTAC publication what color ink is authorized?

       Blue or Black (Never RED)