Term
| When polishing a composite with prisma gloss, strokes should be from __ to __. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long should composites be polished w/ fine prisma gloss? |
|
Definition
- on dry surface, 30-45 seconds
- then wet and repeat for another 30-45 seconds |
|
|
Term
| How long should composites be polished w/ extra-fine prisma gloss? |
|
Definition
- after using the fine prisma gloss, polish w/ extra-fine (on dry surface) for 30-45 seconds
- then wet and repeat for 30-45 seconds |
|
|
Term
| What bur should be used to shine a composite? |
|
Definition
| - cylindrical bur w/ mandrel |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Composite shades should be chosen after placing the rubber dam, before prepping the tooth, after pumice, with the light off. |
|
Definition
| False - choose shade BEFORE placing rubber dam, before prepping, after pumice, with the light off. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: You should never use more than one shade on the same tooth. |
|
Definition
| False - if the prep occupies different zones of a tooth (with different shades in each zone), then more than one shade may be needed. |
|
|
Term
| When possible, from which side (F or L) should initial access be obtained on an anterior prep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should you use a matrix and wedge for placing anterior composites? |
|
Definition
- isolation of prep
- confinement of materials
- elimination of overhang
- contour
- contact |
|
|
Term
| T/F: A portion of the mylar matrix should be apical to the gingival margin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The wedge should always be placed from the F for anterior composite placement. |
|
Definition
| False - choose the most advantageous site (i.e., the site w/ the largest embrasure, USUALLY the F) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 purposes of etchant? |
|
Definition
- removes smear layer
- increases surface area |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 components of the smear layer? |
|
Definition
- debris
- calcified material
- inorganic components |
|
|
Term
| What does the smear layer block? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 components of primer? |
|
Definition
- slightly filled resin
- hydrophilic wetting agent |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 components of the hybrid layer? |
|
Definition
- dentinal tooth structure (tubules)
- primer
- adhesive |
|
|
Term
| For how long should a prep be etched? Rinsed (after etching)? Dried (after etching)? |
|
Definition
etching - 15 s
rinsing - 15 s
drying - 3-5 s (leave moist) |
|
|
Term
| What is the method for applying primer? |
|
Definition
- coat generously for 15 seconds w/ pumping action
- air disperse
- (do not light cure) |
|
|
Term
| What is the method for applying adhesive? |
|
Definition
- coat lightly w/ thin layer
- air disperse
- LIGHT CURE for 20 seconds |
|
|
Term
| Which area of a prep should be filled w/ composite first? |
|
Definition
| - the most inaccessible areas |
|
|
Term
| How thick should increments of composite be? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For long is the initial increment of composite cured? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum distance from which composite should be cured? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long is the final curing session for a composite? |
|
Definition
| - 60 seconds (on both F and L) |
|
|
Term
| What area of the tooth is a round/egg/football finishing bur used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the order of burs/materials used for composite finishing? |
|
Definition
- high speed w/ finishing bur (gross reduction)
- slow speed w/ finishing bur (refine contours, eliminate overhang)
- slow speed w/ mandrel and brasseler finishing disks (blue, grey, green, clear)
- slow-speed w/ polishing disks and points
- slow speed w/ mandrel, cup, and prisma gloss
- finishing strips
|
|
|
Term
| T/F: Brasseler finishing disks can cut enamel. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Use water to lubricate throughout the finishing process. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Floss is used to check what 2 areas of an anterior restoration? |
|
Definition
- contact
- gingival margin (for overhang) |
|
|
Term
| What is the order - from coarsest to finest - of the Brasseler finishing burs? |
|
Definition
| - blue, black/grey, green, white/clear |
|
|
Term
| What 3 things must be done after finishing and polishing a composite restoration? |
|
Definition
- floss (to check contact and gingival margin)
- check occlusion
- check sulcus (for renegade adhesive) |
|
|
Term
| What dictates the size and shape of a class III prep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does a class 3 prep originate? |
|
Definition
| - just gingival to the proximal contact |
|
|
Term
| When should F access be made for a class III prep? |
|
Definition
- if caries has broken F surface
- if a previous restoration involved F surface |
|
|
Term
| A class III dentoform prep includes what portion of the contact? How wide (M/D) and long (I/G) should it be? |
|
Definition
- gingival 1/3 to 1/2
- width = 1mm
- height = 2mm |
|
|
Term
| For a class III prep, which margin should be greater in length (F or L)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For a class III prep, which margin should be greater in length (internal or external)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 purposes of beveling? |
|
Definition
- retention (allow greater surface area for bonding)
- esthetics (better color blending
- improved etching (beveled enamel etches better than non-beveled) |
|
|
Term
| Where should you NOT bevel? |
|
Definition
- on I surface
- on dentin
- on cementum
- on thin enamel |
|
|
Term
| Which prep should be restored first when restoring 2 adjacent preps? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are class IV composite preps different from amalgam? |
|
Definition
- 90˚ cavosurface margins only in areas of occlusion
- areas of unsupported enamel are OK
- no depth requirement |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 outline objectives for class IV preps? |
|
Definition
- margins on sound enamel
- remove defect
- curve margins (for better esthetics and no voids) |
|
|
Term
| Class IV dentoform preps should include how much of the incisal edge and I/G length? |
|
Definition
- 1/4 of incisal edge
- 2/3 of I/G length |
|
|
Term
| How wide should beveling be on a class IV dentoform prep? |
|
Definition
- 1-1.5 mm at incisal-most margin
- tapering to 0 mm at gingival-most margin |
|
|
Term
| What 2 criteria should be met for resistance form in class IV preps? |
|
Definition
- flat floors
- axial wall parallel to long axis, convex or flat both B/L and I/G |
|
|
Term
| What determines the macroretention of a class IV prep? |
|
Definition
| - internal configuration (should have L, F, G and Axial walls, should add G groove and I notch) |
|
|
Term
| What determines the microretention of a class IV prep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of bur should be used for caries excavation in a class III or IV? |
|
Definition
| - largest round bur that fits area |
|
|
Term
| Which is the only surface of a class IV prep that needs a beveled margin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At all margins besides the F, what should the angle be b/t the prep and the tooth surface? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a complex class II? |
|
Definition
- involves 4 or more surfaces
- involves 3 or more surfaces and cusp replaced |
|
|
Term
| For what 2 reasons is a complex class II needed? |
|
Definition
- Fx cusp
- extensive caries |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 types of complex class II preps? |
|
Definition
- lingual groove extension
- partial cusp coverage
- total cusp coverage
- total cusp replacement |
|
|
Term
| What portion of a complex class II should be prepped first? |
|
Definition
| - the normal class II part |
|
|
Term
| Groove extension usually extends to the __ on the B or L surface. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For partial cusp coverage, how much reduction is needed for functional and non-functional cusps? |
|
Definition
- functional = 2mm
- non-functional = 1.5mm |
|
|
Term
| How wide shoud a groove extension be (M/D)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is total cusp coverage needed? |
|
Definition
| - when enamel is not sound, but dentin is |
|
|
Term
| When is a total cusp replacement needed? |
|
Definition
| - when there is no sound enamel or dentin remaining |
|
|
Term
| For a total cusp replacement, the cusp should be reduced to what depth? |
|
Definition
| - the depth of the pulpal floor of the O portion of the class II prep |
|
|
Term
| Which type(s) of complex class II procedure(s) require(s) pin placement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of complex class II procedure requires only occlusal (and not axial) depth cuts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percentages of total saliva do each of the salivary glands contribute? |
|
Definition
submandibular - 70%
parotid - 25%
sublingual - 3-4%
minor glands - trace |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference b/t serous and mucous secretions? |
|
Definition
serous = watery, protein-rich
mucous = viscous, carbohydrate-rich |
|
|
Term
| Saliva is what percent water? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pulp protection protects the pulp from what 4 things? |
|
Definition
- thermal changes
- chemicals
- bacteria
- post-op sensitivity |
|
|
Term
| What is the best protector of pulp? |
|
Definition
| - 1.5-2 mm of sound dentin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| - thin layer of Dycal (CaOH) or Vitrebond (glass ionomer) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| - a thick layer of Vitrebond (glass ionomer) or ZOE (IRM) |
|
|
Term
| What does a base protect against? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: It is nessecary to extend liners and bases past the dentin to contact sound enamel. |
|
Definition
| - FALSE (only apply on dentin) |
|
|
Term
| In a one-part base or liner system, what initiates setting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In dual cured liner or base systems, what are the 2 things that promote setting? |
|
Definition
- light cure
- mixing of base and catalyst |
|
|
Term
| What kind of barrier does a liner provide in order to seal pulp exposures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Vitrebond self- or light-cured? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 characteristics that make Vitrebond a good liner? |
|
Definition
- not soluble in oral fluids
- good crushing strength
- releases fluoride |
|
|
Term
| What is the principal use of Dycal? |
|
Definition
| - for direct pulp capping |
|
|
Term
| Why is Dycal used in combination with Vitrebond? |
|
Definition
| - it is soluble, so Vitrebond is used to seal the area from microleakage |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Never place ZOE under composite restorations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where should varnish never be placed? |
|
Definition
- under composite
- under ZOE
- under Dycal
- under polycarboxylate cement |
|
|
Term
| What are the (6) contraindications for elective Tx? |
|
Definition
- tobacco use
- only minor blemishes on sound teeth
- high caries
- poor OH
- prominent teeth (veneers)
- bruxism (veneers) |
|
|
Term
| Re-contouring is also known as __ and is usually used in combo with __. |
|
Definition
- enameloplasty
- veneers |
|
|
Term
| What kind of burs are used for an enameloplasty? |
|
Definition
- finishing burs
- fine diamonds
- white or green stones |
|
|
Term
| What are the length:width ratios for centrals, laterals and canines in men? |
|
Definition
centrals - 1.15:1
laterals - 1.2:1
canines - 1.25:1 |
|
|
Term
| What are the length:width ratios for centrals, laterals and canines in women? |
|
Definition
centrals - 1.05:1
laterals - 1.15:1
canines - 1.15:1 |
|
|
Term
| T/F: For diastema closure, a prep is sometimes used to aid in retention. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: For diastema closure, use etchant, primer and adhesive. |
|
Definition
| False - do not use primer |
|
|
Term
| In diastema closure, the body (dentin) shade layer is cure for __ s, and the enamel shade layer is cured for __ s. |
|
Definition
dentin - 40 s
enamel - 60 s |
|
|
Term
| Direct veneers are made of __, while indirect veneers are made made of __. |
|
Definition
direct - composite
indirect - porcelain |
|
|
Term
| Before selecting a shade for a composite procedure, the tooth should be cleaned with __. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A veneer prep should not extend past the enamel. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the depth of a direct veneer prep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What fraction of the contact should be reduced in a direct veneer prep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are the proximal finish lines of a direct veneer prep located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: For a direct veneer prep, use etchant, primer and adhesive. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Direct veneers use an opaque shade, a cervical shade, a body shade, and an enamel shade. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much is each shade layer cured for in a direct veneer? |
|
Definition
opaque, cervical, and body = 40 s
enamel = 60 s (from F and L) |
|
|
Term
| Why is a class IV unstable for primary teeth? |
|
Definition
| - the teeth are too short |
|
|
Term
| For restorations of primary anteriors, a __ is done in place of a class IV. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 disadvantages of strip crowns? |
|
Definition
- chip, discolor over time (enamel rods are incisally oriented in G 1/3, weakened bonding surface)
- expensive
- time consuming
- technique sensitive (must have dry field) |
|
|
Term
| What determines prep form in a strip crown? |
|
Definition
| - caries (should be removed w/ spoon excavator or slow speed prior to crown placement) |
|
|
Term
| What is used to help form the shape of a strip crown? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For a strip crown, margins should be either __ or __. |
|
Definition
- feather-edged
- chamfered |
|
|
Term
| T/F: You should break contact and reduce the incisal during a strip crown prep. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: It is necessary to punch holes in the celluloid crown form before placement. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is better material for a strip crown: Z100 or flowable composite? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 2 contraindications for strip crowns? |
|
Definition
- significant tooth structure missing
- high caries risk |
|
|
Term
| When adding composite to fill voids in restorations, when is it necessary to add a small prep, re-etch and re-bond? |
|
Definition
| - if you have already started finishing and polishing when the void is discovered |
|
|
Term
| When should the high-speed be used to recontour composites? |
|
Definition
| - when there is more than 1 mm gross excess |
|
|
Term
| When repairing a marginal defect, the long axis of the bur should be held at what angle to the margin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is temporization necessary? |
|
Definition
- remaining deep caries
- caries control for pt w/ rampant caries
- when time prohibits more permanent restoration |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 purposes of temporization? |
|
Definition
- protect tooth and gingiva
- maintain tooth position in arch |
|
|
Term
| What kinds of crowns are used for temporization? |
|
Definition
| - aluminum, stainless steel, acrylic |
|
|
Term
| When not placing a crown, what kinds of materials are used for temporization? |
|
Definition
- ZOE (zinc-oxide eugenol, a type of IRM)
- glass ionomer |
|
|
Term
| What is the benefit of ZOE to the pulp? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is occlusion established w/ a ZOE restoration? |
|
Definition
| - having pt bite down before material sets |
|
|
Term
| What is the proportion of powder:liquid for mixing ZOE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major cation and anion present in saliva? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which anion in saliva has antibacterial properties? Which is responsible for buffering? |
|
Definition
antibacterial - OSCN-
buffering - HCO3 |
|
|
Term
| What is the flow rate of saliva during sleep, without stimulation, and with stimulation? |
|
Definition
sleep = .1 mL/min
unstimulated = .3 mL/min
stimulated = 4 mL/min |
|
|
Term
| What is the total volume of saliva flow during a 24 hr period? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the protein in saliva that aids in taste? What mineral does it require in order to function? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What components of saliva are responsible for digestion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What components of saliva are antibacterial? |
|
Definition
- amylase
- mucin
- cystatin
- histatin
- peroxidase |
|
|
Term
| What causes reversible hyposalivary function? |
|
Definition
| - medications (tricyclic antidepressants, antihypertensives, antimuscarinics, anticholinergics, antihistamines) |
|
|
Term
| What causes irreversible hyposalivary function? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What diseases can cause salivary hypofunction? |
|
Definition
- rheumatoid (sjogren's syndrome)
- immune disease (AIDS)
- diabetes
- neurological (parkinson's, alzheimer's)
- thyroid disorders
- sarcoidosis
- cancer
- autonomic dysfunction |
|
|
Term
| Saliva samples are used to measure antibodies to what diseases? |
|
Definition
- Hep A, B, C
- Measles
- Mumps
- Rubella |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Saliva can be used to reliably measure blood alcohol content. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In gene therapy to repair irradiated salivary glands, what gene is transferred? |
|
Definition
| - aquaporin-1 (for protein that forms pores that translocate water from inside gland to outside) |
|
|
Term
| What enzyme in saliva is inhibitory to HIV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does saliva contribute to remineralization of enamel? |
|
Definition
| - it is supersaturated with Ca (more than can be dissolved under normal circumstances) |
|
|
Term
| Which salivary glands are responsible for the majority of mucin production? |
|
Definition
| - minor salivary glands (70%) |
|
|
Term
| Which salivary gland does not produce mucin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which organic components of saliva are responsible for buffering? |
|
Definition
- carbonic anhydrases
- histatins |
|
|
Term
| What are the amino acids largely responsible for the protein core of mucin? |
|
Definition
| - serine and threonine (30-40%) |
|
|
Term
| The binding of salivary agglutinin to enamel or bacteria is mediated by what ion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At a high ratio to cells, salivary agglutinin __ (blocks or mediates) attachment and __ (blocks or mediates) aggregation. |
|
Definition
- blocks attachment
- mediates aggregation |
|
|
Term
| What 2 bacteria does salivary amylase inhibit? |
|
Definition
- neisseria gonorrhoeae
- legionella |
|
|
Term
| How is lysozyme antibacterial? |
|
Definition
- it hydrolyzes glycoproteins on the surface of bacterial cells, opening the cell
- it activates enzymes in bacterial cell that break DNA, RNA |
|
|
Term
| How is salivary lactoferrin antibacterial? |
|
Definition
bacteriostatic - deprives bacteria of iron by binding it
bactericidal - cell membrane interaction |
|
|
Term
| Salivary histatins are __ at pH 7 and __ at pH 5 against which pathogens? |
|
Definition
pH 7 - bacteriostatic
pH 5 - bactericidal
- against s. mutans and candida |
|
|
Term
| Most proline rich proteins are secreted by which salivary gland? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What salivary enzyme is derived from white blood cells (not secreted by glands)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Salivary peroxidase reacts __ from bacteria and host cells with __ from food or cigarrette smoke to make __. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 benefits of the salivary peroxidase reaction? |
|
Definition
- maintains low levels of H2O2
- inhibits bacterial growth, metabolism
- oxidizes toxic substances |
|
|
Term
| What else besides clamps can be used to stabilize a dam? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are thicker gauged dams used for? Thinner? |
|
Definition
thick - gingival retraction in restorative procedures
thin - endodontics |
|
|
Term
| What teeth correspond with what dental dam hole punches? |
|
Definition
5 - anchor tooth
4 - molars
3 - premolars and canines
2 - max incisors
1 - man incisors |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- top of dam and top of frame even
- punch holes
- insert winged clamp
- place into mouth all at once
- dam stretched over clamp wings inside mouth
|
|
|
Term
| Modified Winged Technique |
|
Definition
- dam stretched over bow of wingless clamp outside of mouth
- frame attached to dam after placement of clamp on tooth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- for fixed bridges, veneers, mixed dentition (when interseptal damming not an option)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- general field isolation
- 2 holes punched and slit cut b/t them
- stretched over field and isolated w/ wedjets |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- general field isolation
- perio
- 3 holes punched, slit cut b/t anteriormost holes
- posterior hole w/ interseptal dam around clamp
- anchored w/ wedjets in anterior |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- general field isolation
- anterior teeth
- slit b/t 1st 2 holes
- mesial interseptal dam thru contacts
- wedjets on each end |
|
|
