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Oncology Final
Oncology
118
Medical
Graduate
02/27/2010

Additional Medical Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
Cell Cycle Nonspecific classes
Definition

Alkylating agents (chlorambucil, cyclophosphamide, busulfan, ifosfamide, meclorethamine, melphalan, thiotepa)

Antracycline Antibiotics (doxorubicin [Adriamycin], daunorubicin, idarubicin)

Other Antibiotics (dactinomycin, mitomycin, mitoxantrone)

Nitrosureas (carmustine, lomustine, streptozocin)

Miscellaneous Alkylator-like agents (altretamine, carboplatin, cisplatin, dacarbazine, procarbazine)

Term
Cell Cycle Specific agents
Definition

Antimetabolites (methotrexate, 5-FU, floxuridine, thioguanine, 6-MP, cytarabine, fludarabine, cladribine, pentostatin, gemcitabmine)  - S phase

 

Bleomycin, Etoposide, Teniposide - G2 phase

 

steroids, asparaginase - G1 phase

Term
Major side effects of alkylating agents (ex: meclorethamine, cyclophosphamide [Cytoxan], melphalan, chlorambucil, Nitrosureas, etc)
Definition

hematopoeitic toxicity

GI tox

Gonadal tox

Carcinogenesis

Term
Monofunctional alkylating agents
Definition

dacarbazine

procarbazine

temozolomide

Term

Pyrimidine antimetabolites end in what suffix?

 

Purine antimetabolites end in what suffix?

 

What phase of the cell cycle do antimetabolites work in?

Definition

pyrimidines end in "-abine"

(ex: cytarabine [Ara-C], capecitabine [Xeloda], gemcitabine [Gemzar], fludarabine [Fludara], and 5-FU is the exception)

 

purines end in "-purine"

(ex: 6-mercaptopurine, 6-thioguanine is an exception)

 

Antimetabolites work in the S phase of the cell cycle

Term
Name the toxicities of Cisplatin vs Carboplatin vs Oxaliplatin
Definition

Cisplatin - Nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity, ototoxicity, N/V

 

Carboplatin - Myelosuppression, N/V

 

Oxaliplatin - Neurotoxicity, N/V

Term
T or F: 90% of platinum agent cytotoxicity results from intrastrand crosslinks
Definition
True (only 10% of the crosslinks are intERstrand)
Term
What kind of solution does cisplatin normally come in and why?
Definition
Always comes in a saline solution to keep the Cl- groups attached (because once these groups leave the agent is active)
Term

The formation of platinum agent crosslinks are normally on the same strand. Is this usually...

A. G-G

B. G-C

C. A-T

D. A-A

Definition
Choice A. G-G
Term

For the microtubule targeting drugs match the drugs to the correct mechanism of action:

 

A. Vinca Alkaloids stabilize the microtubule structure by inhibiting depolymerization

B. Taxanes trigger depolymerization which disables the microtubules

C. Vinca Alkaloids trigger depolymerization which disables the microtubules

D. Taxanes stabilize the the microtubule structure by inhibiting depolymerization

E. Both A and B are correct

F. Both C and D are correct

Definition
F. Both C and D are correct
Term
What class of drugs are FATAL if given intrathecally?
Definition
vinca alkaloids (vincristine [Oncovin], vinblastine [Velban], venorelbine [Navelbine], vindesine [Eldisine])
Term
True or False: If giving paclitaxel (Taxol) with other drugs, give Taxol last
Definition
False. Give Taxol FIRST!!!
Term
Is premedication necessary with the taxanes?
Definition

Yes.

 

Give dexamethasone 20mg PO 12 and 6 hrs prior, benadryl and antiemetic with paclitaxel (Taxol)

 

Give dexamethasone 8mg PO BID 1 day before and 4 days after a dose of docetaxel (Taxotere)

Term
What are considered the cancers with solid tumors?
Definition

Breast cancer

Colorectal cancer

Prostate cancer

Lung cancer

Renal cancer

Term
What are considered the cancers with liquid tumors?
Definition

Lymphomas

Acute Myeloid Leukemia

Chronic Leukemia

Multiple Myeloma

Term

What agents are topoisomerase II inhibitors?

 

(Hint: there are only 2)

Definition

Etoposide (VePesid)

Teniposide (Vumon)

Term
What are the topoisomerase I inhibitors?
Definition

Camptothecin

Topotecan

Irinotecan (Camptosar)

Term
What kind of supercoils do topoisomerase inhibitors remove from the strand?
Definition
positive supercoils
Term

What agent can be used to prevent cardiac toxicity or treat extravasation with the Anthracyclines?

(ie with doxorubicin [Adriamycin], daunorubicin, etc) 

Definition
Use Dexrazoxane!!!!
Term
What is a rescue agent for Methotrexate?
Definition

Leucovorin!!!

 

MTX followed by leucovorin preferentially kills the cancer cell. It allows dose of MTX 10-100x that of the conventional dose

Term
How does 5-FU work?
Definition
Causes "dead end complex" by inhibiting thymidylate synthase, thus inhibiting formation of dUMP
Term
What drug interacts with 6-mercaptopurine?
Definition
Allopurinol!!! (Causes enhanced hematologic toxicity; if forced to use them both together, must reduce the 6-MP dose by 75%)
Term
What genes are considered anti-apoptotic?
Definition
BCL and BCL-XL
Term
What genes are considered pro-apoptotic?
Definition
Just Bax
Term
What are the tumor suppressor genes?
Definition

p53 (Guardian of the genome baby)

 

 Rb

 

BRCA-1 and BRCA-2

Term
What are the oncogenes?
Definition

Ras (signal transducer, part of MAP-k pathway)

 

C-myc (transcription factor)

 

BCR- ABL (enhances tyrosine kinase activity)

 

Term
What kind of cancer is a sarcoma?
Definition
Cancer of the connective tissue (bone, cartilage, fat)
Term
How many doublings does it take for a cancer to be clinically detectable?
Definition
30 doublings (this produces 1 x 10^9 cells, or 1 gram)
Term
What are the advantages and disadvantages of cell cycle specific drugs?
Definition

advantages- Specificity for cells in single phase of cell cycle; complete inhibition of enzymes at subclinical/clinical doses; plateau in cell survival with increasing drug dose; minimal risk of leukomogenesis or carcinogenesis

 

disadvantages - fewer target sites; little or no effect on slow growing/stem cells

Term
What are the monofunctional agents?
Definition

They all have a Z in the name:

 

dacarbaZine, procarbaZine, temoZolomide

Term
What drug can cause pulmonary fibrosis after long term use?
Definition
Chlorambucil (this is an alkylating agent)
Term

Where do postmenopausal women get most of their estrogen from?

 

What impact does this have on therapy?

Definition

most comes from the adrenal gland (androstenedione is converted by aromatase to estrone --> estradiol)

 

We can use aromatase inhibitors for them

(Anastrozole [Arimidex], Letrozole [Femara], Exemestane [Aromasin])

Use these drugs after progression following Tamoxifen therapy

Term
What is fulvestrant (Faslodex)?
Definition

This is a SERM (pure antiestrogen)

 

It is used in POST menopausal women with disease progression following antiestrogen therapy

Term

Where does most of the estrogen come from in PRE-menopausal women?

 

What does this mean for treatment?

Definition

Most comes from the ovaries.

 

Can do an ovariectomy + SERM (tamoxifen and toremifene)

 

Could also use LHRH agonists:

(Leuprolide [Lupron], Goserlin [Zoladex], Triptorelin [Trelstar])

Term

Name the 3 small molecule inhibitors

that target BCR-ABL

Definition

Imatinib (Gleevec)

 

Dasatinib

 

Nilotinib

Term

Name the 3 small molecule inhibitors

that target EGFR and HER2

Definition

Erlotinib

 

Lapatinib

 

Gefitinib

Term
Name the small molecule inhibitors that target Multi-TK (tyrosine kinases)
Definition

Sorafenib

 

Sunitinib

Term
How is the BCR-ABL gene formed?
Definition
When part of chromosome 9 is translocated to chromosome 22 and forms a new chromosome called the Philadelphia chromosome. BCR-ABL is an oncoprotein
Term
What are the important things to know about Imatinib (Gleevec)?
Definition

It is a 1st generation BCR-ABL inhibitor

 

It is a 3A4 inducer

Indications: CML and GIST (the Kit+ kind)

Adverse effects: fluid retention and edema

Interacts with anything 3A4

Term
What is important to know about Dasatinib?
Definition

It is a 2nd generation BCR-ABL inhibitor

 

Adverse effects: QT prolongation and sudden death

Term
HER-1 is also called what?
Definition
EGFR
Term
What is important to know about Erlotinib?
Definition

It is a HER-1 (EGFR) inhibitor

 

Only used in 2 cancers: NSCLC and metastatic pancreatic cancer

(Treat pancreatic cancer 1st with Gemcitabine, but if that does not work, then try Erlotinib)

 

Adverse effects : GI bleeding or perforations

Term
What is important to know about Lapatinib?
Definition

This targets HER-2

 

It is used in combo with capecitabine for breast cancer

 

Adverse effects: Cardiac tox (QT prolongation)

Term
True or False: Sunitinib and Sorafenib work on the VEGF receptor
Definition
TRUE
Term
What is important to know about Sunitinib?
Definition
Adverse effects: HTN and bleeding ****
Term
What is important to know about Sorafenib?
Definition

It is used for hepatocellular carcinoma and advanced renal cell carcinoma

 

Adverse effects: bleeding!!

Term
What is important to know about Interferon alpha?
Definition

It is a direct inhibitor of cancer cell proliferation

It enhances the cytotoxicity of T cell activity against cancer cells

It causes tumor cell cytostasis and apoptosis by interfering with the cell cycle regulation

 

Indications: AIDS related Kaposi sarcoma, Malignant melonoma

 

May potentiate risk of renal failure

in combo with IL-2

Adverse effects: DEPRESSION

 

Do not use INF-alpha when someone has AUTOIMMUNE hepatitis

Term
What is important to know about IL-2?
Definition

It is metabolized by the kidneys

 

Indications: METASTATIC renal cell carcinoma, and metastatic melonoma

 

Glucocorticoids reduce antitumor effectiveness of IL-2

 

Adverse effects: HYPOTENSION, Capillary Leak Syndrome

Term
Drugs that treat renal cell carcinoma:
Definition
IFN-alpha, IL-2, Sunitinib, Sorafenib
Term
Drugs that treat GIST:
Definition
Sunitinib, Imatinib (Gleevec)
Term
Drugs that treat hepatocellular carcinoma:
Definition
Just Sorafenib
Term

Match these drugs the their targets:

 

Alemtuzumab              EGFR

Gemtuzumab              CD20

Trastuzumab               HER-2

Cetuximab                  CD52

Bevacizumab              VEGF

Rituximab                  CD33 and calicheamicin

Definition

Alemtuzumab - CD52

Gemtuzumab - CD33 and calicheamicin

Trastuzumab - HER-2

Cetuximab - EGFR (EGF receptor)

Bevacizumab - VEGF

Rituximab - CD20

Term
There is a mnemonic for knowing what monocloncal antibodies are murine, chimeric and humanized. What is it?
Definition

those ending in:

 

"-Momab" are Murine

 

"-iximab" are chimeric

 

"-Zumab" are humaniZed

Term
What is important to know about Trastuzumab (Herceptin)?
Definition

It is a humaniZed monoclonal antibody (ends in "-Zumab")

It is specific for HER-2

Indication: adjuvant breast cancer and metastatic breast cancer (with paclitaxel)

 

MOA: uses ADCC (antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity)

 

Adverse reactions: cardiomyopathy, infusion reactions

Term
What is important to know about Cetuximab?
Definition

It is a chimeric monoclonal antibody (ends in "-ximab"

It is specific for EGFR (HER-1)

Indication: Head and neck cancer; colorectal cancer w/o kRAS mutation (combined with Irinotecan)

MOA- direct induction of cell apoptosis

 

Adverse reactions: Cardiopulmonary Arrest and Sudden DEATH

Term
What is important to know about Panitumumab?
Definition

It is a FULLY HUMAN monoclonal antibody

It is specific for EGFR (HER-1)

 

 

Term
What is important to know about Bevacizumab?
Definition

It is specific for VEGF (not the receptor!!!!)

 

It is indication for metastatic colorectal cancer, non-squamous NSCLC, metastatic breast cancer, glioglastoma, and metastatic renal cell carcinoma

 

Adverse reactions: GI perforation; wound healing complications; hemorrhage

 

** Do not administer as IV push or bolus bc it would cause infusion reactions

Term
What is important to know about Rituximab?
Definition

It is specific for CD20 (on B cells)

It is chimeric (ends in "-ximab")

Indicated for Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

needs premedication prior to dose

Adverse reactions: Tumor Lysis Syndrome, Infusion reactions

MOA- complement dependent cytotoxicity

Term
What is important to know about Alemtuzumab?
Definition

It is specific for CD52

Indicated for B cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia (B-CLL)

 

Adverse reactions: infusion reactions

Term
What is important to know about Gemtuzumab?
Definition

It is specific for CD33 (conjugated with cytotoxic chemo agent class Calicheamicins, found in WACO, TEXAS)

 

Indicated for Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) when first relapse >60 yrs old

Adverse reactions: Myelosupression (>99%), thrombocytopenia (>90%)

 

Premedicate with acetaminophen and diphenhydramine

Term
What does CRAB stand for and what disease is associated with it?
Definition

Associated with Multiple Myeloma (MM)

 

C - hyperCalcemia

R - Renal failure

A - Anemia

B - Bone metastasis

Term
What are the older regimens for Multiple Myeloma?
Definition

MP - melphalan/prednisone

VAD - vincristine/Adriamycin (doxorubicin)/ dexa.

TD - thalidomide / dexamethasone

DVD - lipo dexa/ vincristine / dexameth

D - high dose dexamethasone

Term
What are the newer regimens for Multiple Myeloma?
Definition

VTD - bortezomib[Velcade]/ thalidomide/ dexa

VD - bortezomib[Velcade]/ dexa

LD - lenalidomide/ dexa

MPT - melphalan/ pred/ thalidomide

MPV - melphalan/ pred/ bortezomib[Velcade]

Term
When is someone not a transplant candidate for Multiple Myeloma?
Definition
when they are >65 years old or have insufficient renal, liver, pulmonary or cardiac function
Term
What are the regimens for patients who are Transplant Candidates in multiple myeloma?
Definition

VTD - newer regimen consisting of bortezomib[Velcade]/ thalidomide/ dexa

Give Q21 days for 3 cycles

 

VD - newer regimen with bortezomib[Velcade]/ dexa

Give Q21 days for 4 cycles

 

or can use TD or DVD (older regimens) or low dose dexa

Term
What are the regimens for multiple myeloma patients that are NOT transplant candidates?
Definition

Give in 6 week cycles (instead of every 3 weeks)

 

Choice is Mephalan based

 

can use MPV - newer regimen with melphalan/pred/bortezomib[Velcade]

(**Note: adverse cytogenetics like 13q deletion, advanced age, and renal fxn had no effect on efficacy of V

 

May also use MPT, or MP (not as good as MPT)

 

Term
What is important to know about bortezomib (Velcade)?
Definition

It is a proteasome inhibitor with chymotrypsin like activity; it arrests the cell cycle and induces apoptosis

 

Use in multiple myeloma after two treatment failures. It is not first line therapy.

Do not give a new dose within 72 hrs of the last dose

 

DO NOT GIVE IF ALLERGIC TO BORON OR MANNITOL!!!

 

Adverse effects: mainly neuropathy (serious)

Term

How do you treat a multiple myeloma patient who has had a relapse >6 months later

 

vs.

 

a patient who had a relapse within 6 months (ie refractory multiple myeloma)?

Definition

For a patient relapsing >6months later, repeat the primary chemo regimen

 

 

For a patient with refractory, use:

bortezomib +/- Doxil (a pegylated form of doxorubicin)

or lenalidomide + dexa

 

other options for refractory: (thalidomide +/- dexa; dexa pulse or high dose; Arsenic trioxide + Vit C)

Term
What is the sister of thalidomide?
Definition
Lenalidomide
Term
What is the supportive care for the multiple myeloma patient? (include info for bone disease, anemia and infection)
Definition

Bone Disease: Use pamidronate (Aredia) or Zoledronic acid (Zometa, Reclast etc)

 

Anemia: Use Epoetin (40,000 units SC weekly), darbepoetin (200 mcg SC Q 2 weeks) and/or iron supplementation

 

Infection: give pneumococcal vaccine and Hib vaccine

Term
Dexamethasone is the most potent glucocorticoid. What is the mg equivalence to 5 mg of prednisone?
Definition
0.75 mg dexa = 5 mg prednisone
Term
For extravasation risk, what is treated with HOT packs?
Definition

Vinca alkaloids

 

(vincristine, vinblastine etc)

Term
What is the median age of diagnosis for Acute Myeloid Leukemia?
Definition
68 years old
Term
Name some of the cytogenetics associated with Acute Myeloid Leukemia
Definition

AML-M2:  t(8;21)  (seen in 40% of cases)

AML-M3:  t(15;17)  (seen in 98% of cases)

AML-M4:  inv(16)  (seen in 40% of cases)

 

Term
How would someone with AML present?
Definition

Leukocytosis

High LDH

 

anemia

Term
What is the WHO classification for AML?
Definition
20% blasts in blood or bone marrow
Term
What is considered to be a complete response to AML treatment?
Definition

ANC >1500

 

Plt >100,000

 

BM >20% cellularity with <5% blasts and no Auer rods

Term
What information would a clinician want to have before initiating treatment for a patient with AML?
Definition

1) Age (>60 yrs old have much worse outcomes)

 

2) cytogenetics (good cytogenetics include [t15;17], [t8;21], [inv16/t16;16], and t11;variable.)

 

3) peformance status (a good performance status is <3; after that mortality increases significantly)

 

4) comorbidities (diabetes, CHF, hyperlipidemia- these may affect performance status and how closely we monitor the patient)

Term
What is the goal of induction therapy for AML? What regimen do you recommend?
Definition

Goal for induction therapy in AML is to eradicate malignant clone and restore normal hematopoiesis

 

Use the 7+3 regimen

(consists of 7 days of Cytarabine and 3 days of either idarubicin, daunorubicin, mitoxantrone)

Term
Outline how to use Consolidation therapy for AML
Definition

First look at age!!!!

 

Age <60 will use 7+3 regimen (HiDAC). A major side effect is cerebellar toxicity (difficulty speaking);

May also use Stem Cell Transplantation [allogenic- HLA matched; autologous- does not have HLA match)

 

Age >60 will use 5+2 (aka reduced dose cytarabine)

If elderly person goes into relapse, use Gemtuzumab (works on CD33 and uses other chemo drug calicheamicin)

Term
What are the complications of treatment with AML consolidation in relapse (gemtuzumab)?
Definition

Tumor Lysis Syndrome

Transfusion dependent thrombocytopenia, anemia

GI toxicity

Febrile neutropenia

DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulopathy)

Term

When is prophylaxis necessary for AML?

What are the options for prophylaxis?

Definition

It is necessary for AML patients that have ANC <500, especially if elderly (age >60)

 

Use G-CSF (Filtrastim) or GM-CSF (Sargramostim)

 

If long duration of neutropenia, may use antibiotics, antifungals or antivirals (inconclusive evidence)

Term
What is the difference of AML-M3 compared to the other kinds of AML?
Definition

This is called APL (acute promyelocytic leukemia)

 

It presents in YOUNGER patients, DIC is common, and there are lower WBCs and platelet counts

Term
What is considered a High Risk APL (AML-M3) patient?
Definition

A patient with WBC >10,000

 

 

[Note: Low risk is WBC <10,000 and Plt >40,000, while intermediate risk is WBC <10,0000 and Plt <40,000)

Term
What is induction therapy for the AML-M3 (APL) patient?
Definition

Use ATRA + idarubicin

[Note: ATRA stands for all-trans retinoic acid]

 

If WBC remains >10,000, begin prophylactic dexamethasone 10 mg BID to prevent retinoic acid syndrome

 

When ATRA is used, 90-95% of patients achieve a favorable response

Term

When is consolidation used for AML-M3 (APL) patients?

 

What is used in each cycle?

Definition

Consolidation is used 1-2 weeks after recovery

 

Cycle 1: Idarubicin + ATRA

 

Cycle 2: mitoxantrone + ATRA

 

Cycle 3: Idarubicin

Term

What is the maintenance therapy for AML-M3 (APL patients that are at low risk?

(low risk = WBC <10,000 and Plt >40,000)

Definition

Maintenance can be started when WBC are <3,000 and Plt >75,000

 

Treat with ATRA x 15 days Q 3 months or

6-MP daily [**drug interaction w/ allopurinol] or

MTX weekly

 

all of that for 2 years!!!!

 

Term
What is RAS and what do you do if it develops while a patient is receiving treatment for AML-M3 (APL)?
Definition

RAS is Retinoic Acid Syndrome

Sxs include edema and weight gain, fever, pleural and pericaridal effusions, hypotension and renal failure

 

If RAS develops, d/c ATRA and give dexamethasone 10 mg IV Q12 H x 3 or more days

Term
Name all the most important info about ALL (acute lymphocytic leukemia)
Definition

Cancer of the YOUNG!!! Leading cause of cancer death in patients <35

Median age of diagnosis is 10 years old

More common in males and twice as common in Caucasians

 

ALL- L1 is the Childhood type (and the most common)

(ALL-2 is adult, ALL-3 is Burkitt-like)

Term
What are the high risk Relapse Factors for ALL?
Definition

L2, L3 (adult and Burkitt type)

BCR-ABL (philadelphia) chromosome

abnormal cytogenetics

WBC >50,000

Male

African American

CNS leukemia

absence of mediastinal mass

Age <1 yr or >10 yrs

14 days to remission, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy

Term
What are the 4 components of ALL treatment?
Definition

Combination chemo is the mainstay!!!

 

1) Remission induction

2) Consolidation/intensification

3) Maintenance

4) CNS prophylaxis

 

The standard 4 drug regimen is: prednisone, vincristine, L-asparaginase, +/- daunorubicin

Term
What is important to know about CNS prophylaxis for ALL patients?
Definition

Intrathecal chemo provides the BEST protection with the least morbidity

 

Give this during induction, consolidation and maintenance

 

Adults should receive IT methotrexate

 

******Make sure that this is not mistaken with vincristine. If that is given IT the patient will DIE ***

Term
Name the main vesicants
Definition

Doxorubucin [Adriamycin] and the other anthracyclins

Vincristine and the other Vinca alkaloids

Dactinomycin (antibiotic)

Mitomycin (antibiotic/alkylating agent)

Mechlorethamine (alkylating agent)

 

Term

What is the treatment for etravasation of anthracyclines?

(doxorubicin [Adriamycin], daunorubicin etc)

Definition

DMSO (dimethyl sulfoxide)

allow to air dry with no occlusive dressings

cold compress

 

Dexrazoxane is being studied right now.

Do not administer dexrazoxane to a patient currently receiving DMSO

Term
What is the extravasation treatment for Mechlorethamine (an alkylating agent)?
Definition

Antidote is Sodium Thiosulfate

Use a cold compress

Term
What is the extravasation treatment for Mitomycin (an antibiotic/alkylating agent)?
Definition

Use DMSO

Use cold compress

Term
What is the extravasation treatment for vinca alkaloids?
Definition

Antidote is hyaluronidase

Use a HOT compress

Term

Name the most important things about Hypercalcemia and cancer

 

What cancers most commonly cause hypercalcemia?

How do you calculate corrected calcium?

What are the 4 primary sxs of hypercalcemia?

What are the main treatment option?

Definition

Most common cancers causing hypercalcemia: Breast cancer, Multiple Myeloma, Lung cancer

 

Corrected Ca = measured Ca + 0.8 (4 - albumin)

Use this only when albumin is <3.5

 

Symptoms:

GI (Nausea); Renal (Polyuria); Neurologic (Fatigue, muscle weakness); Cardiac (Shortened QT interval)

 

Treatment options:

oral fluids

hydration (NS) +/- furosemide

Bisphosphonates  (inhibit osteoclast activity)

Calcitonin (for Ca>16 or life-threatening)

Term

What cancers have the highest risk of Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS)?

 

[It is an oncologic emergency!!]

Definition

Burkitt's lymphoma

lymphoblastic lymphoma

T cell ALL

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)

Term
What are the lab findings with TLS (tumor lysis syndrome)?
Definition

hyperuricemia

hyperkalemia

hyperphophatemia

HYPOcalcemia (opposite of phosphate)

uremia

Term

What are the prevention strategies

 

vs

 

treatment strategies for tumor lysis syndrome?

Definition

Prevention: hydration, alkalinize urine (pH>6.5-7), use Rasburicase or allopurinol; monitor closely

 

Treatment: Rasburicase only (cannot use allopurinol in this case because the uric acid is already formed)

Term
What cancers are common causes of superior vena cava syndrome?
Definition

lung cancer (75-80%)

SCLC

Lymphoma (10-15%)

Head and Neck cancer

Term
What are the treatment options for superior vena cava syndrome?
Definition

Radiation is first line bc it will shrink the tumor quickly

Chemo is good but takes longer to work

 

 

[Note: supportive measures include bed rest, oxygen, corticosteroid, diuretics, low salt diet]

Term
85% of spinal cord compression is from:
Definition
vertebral metastases
Term
What is the treatment options for spinal cord compression?
Definition

dexamethasone (to reduce edema and delay onset of paraplegia); helps within hours

 

Radiation is the treatment of choice - shrinks tumor

surgery for severe cases

chemo takes longer to work

Term
What chemo drug is most important to remember for acute or delayed emesis?
Definition
Cisplatin
Term
What is the easiest way to remember emesis risk factors?
Definition

People that go to the VA are the least likely to have problems with chemo emesis. That is because they are typically: older and male

 

risk factors are: younger, women, dose, rate, combo therapy, intrinsic emetogenicity of the drug

Term

Prevention of acute emesis for High Risk (Level 5) chemotherapy:

 

[ie, Cisplatin regimen, which is >90% incidence]

 

What about for delayed emesis (still High Risk)?

Definition

Acute:

Aprepitant (blocks NK1 receptor)

5-HT3 antagonist (ex: Ondansetron)

dexamethasone

 

Delayed:

Apreptitant + dexa

of 5-HT3 + dexa

or metoclopramide + dexa

Term
What do you give for breakthrough emesis?
Definition

Prochlorperazine (typical antipyschotic)

Promethazine (H1 antagonist)

Metoclopramide (D2 receptor antagonist)

Lorazepam (benzodiazepine)

dexamethasone (glucocorticoid)

ondansetron (5-HT3 receptor antagonist)

haloperidol (typical antipyschotic)

etc

Term
How is febrile neutropenia defined?
Definition

Single temperature >101 F (38.3 C)

 

temp greater than 100.4 F (38 C) for >1 hour

 

 

ANC <500 or

ANC <1000 predicted to go <500

Term
What is the formula for calculation ANC?
Definition

ANC = WBC x (segs% + bands%)

 

Example:

So typically people will write WBC in the lab as 2.4. You must put this in the equation as 2400.

And also if there are 45% segs and 5% bands you have to put it in the equation as 0.45 + 0.05

 

ANC = 2400 x (0.45 + 0.05) = 1200

Term
What is the most common infecting pathogen of febrile neutropenia?
Definition

Gram positive pathogens!!!

(mainly coagulase-negative staphylococci, followed by staph aureus, etc)

 

[Note: gram positive bacteremia actually has a lower mortality rate than gram negative bacteremia, 6% vs 10% respectively]

Term
What is the most important way to prevent infection of febrile neutropenia?
Definition
HAND WASHING
Term
What may be the only indication a person has febrile neutropenia? Why?
Definition

FEVER!!!!!!!

 

If the person does not have an immune system they would not be able to mount an inflammatory response like having sputum etc

Term
What are high risk factors for febrile neutropenia?
Definition

inpatient at time of fever

significant comorbid conditions/clinically unstable

anticipated severe neutropenia <100 for >7 days

SCr >2, LFTs >3x normal

uncontrolled/progressive cancer

pneumonia or other complex infection upon presentation

MASCC Risk Index Score <21

Term
True or False: Monotherapy is not as effective as combination therapy for febrile neutropenia treatment
Definition
False!! No study has shown monotherapy to be better or worse than combination therapy
Term
How do you get estrogen deprivation in PREmenopausal women?
Definition

ovariectomy + tamoxifen leads to complete estrogen blockade

 

Or even LHRH agonists (Leuprolide, Goserelin, Triptorelin)

Term
How do you get estrogen deprivation in POSTmenopausal women?
Definition
Can have adrenalectomy and/or use aromatase inhibitors (anastrozole[Arimidex], letrozole[Femara], exemestane[Aromasin])
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