A. Burkholderia pseudomallei B. Acinetobacter baumannii C. Burkholderia mallei
Definition
B. Acinetobacter baumannii
Term
Colony morphology: Larte, flat, beta-hemolytoc colonies with metallic sheen on sheep blood agar-- Clear, colorless colonies on MacConkey agar-- Blue- green colonies on MacConkey agar
Gram negative bacilli
Biochemical identification: Oxidase +, Motile, Lactose –, Growth at 42°C
Clinical Significance: Swimmer’s ear, Eye infections, Respiratory tract infections, especially in parents with cyctic fibrosis, Burn wound infections, Nosocomial infections
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia C. Burkholderia cepacia D. Burkholderia mallei
Definition
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Term
Colony morphology:Opalescent (ground-glass) or breadcrumb like colonies on KVLB agar, No growth on BBE agar
Long, thin, filamentous, gram-negative bacilli with tapered ends
antimicrobial susceptability: may contain the gene mecA that encodes for oxacillin resistance
clinical significance: endocarditis, septicemia, meningitis, UTI
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis B. Staphylococcus aureaus c. staphylococcus saprophyticus d. staphylococcus lugdunensis
Definition
d. staphylococcus lugdunensis
Term
increased glucose in blood
a. hyperglycemia b. glucosuria c. ketonemia d. ketonuria
Definition
hyperglycemia
Term
Boutonneuse Fever
A. Rickettsia rickettsii B. Rickettsia akari C. Rickettsia conorii D. Rickettsia typhi E. Rickettsia prowazekii
Definition
C. Rickettsia conorii
Term
Brill-Zinsser disease
A. Rickettsia rickettsii B. Rickettsia akari C. Rickettsia conorii D. Rickettsia typhi E. Rickettsia prowazekii
Definition
E. Rickettsia prowazekii
Term
Murine typhus
A. Rickettsia rickettsii B. Rickettsia akari C. Rickettsia conorii D. Rickettsia typhi E. Rickettsia prowazekii
Definition
D. Rickettsia typhi
Term
>500 CD4 Tcells in HIV
A. Category A B. Category B C. Category C
Definition
a
Term
2 more more alleles at the same loci
Definition
polymorphic
Term
200-499 CD4 T Cells in HIV infection
A. Category A B. Category B C. Category C
Definition
b
Term
A 2 month old infant presented with history of chronic diarrhea and failure to thrive. The child's mother also revealed that the baby has suffered from thrush (Candida infections) since birth. Preliminary findings showed lymphopenia (<2,000), hypogammaglobulinemia, and physical findings showed a small thymus, no tonsils or lymph nodes. Which of the following immune deficiencies DOES the patient present?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome, or SCID is a very serious human immunodeficiency disorder. It is actually a group of congenital disorders in which both the humoral and cell-mediated portions of a patient's immune system are dysfunctional. Children with SCID are vulnerable to recurrent severe infections, retarded growth, and early death.
Term
A 5-year-old African American child with hepato-splenomegaly and skeletal abnormalities has the following lab results:
Beta-thalassemia major, also known as Cooley's anemia, has inherited two genes for beta thalassemia without a normal beta-chain gene. This disease is assoicated with a marked deficiency in beta chain production and in the production of normal Hb A. These patients exhibit increased amounts of iron due to the mutliple transfusions that keep them alive. There is also a striking increase in hemoglobin F and an elevation in hemoglobin A2.
Term
A decrease in which of the following in AIDS patients results in increased susceptibility to infection:
Definition
It is the CD 4+ cells that help aid our immune system in attacking foreign antigens by initiating the body's response. CD 8+ also help in the role of immunity by attaching to infected cells to initiate cell destruction. A decrease in HIV antibodies would not leave the host more suseptible to infection since the antibody is directed at the HIV virus only. Finally, a decrease in HIV antigens will also not cause a host to become more suseptible to infections.
Term
A defect in which of the following factors causes impaired platelet adhesion and aggregation?
Definition
In hemostasis, the adhesion of platelets to the collagen exposed on subendothelial cell surfaces is mediated by von Willebrand factor (vWF). vWF acts as a bridge between a specific glycoprotein complex on the surface of platelets and collagen on the subendothelial surface.
Term
A deficiency in which of the following coagulation factors will produce an abnormal prothrombin time (PT) test result, but will not affect the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) test result?
Definition
Factor VII is only involved in the extrinsic pathway so a deficiency will not be detected by the APTT test.
Factors X, V, and II are all factors in the common pathway. Deficiencies in any of these will affect both the APTT and the PT test results.
Term
A federal agency that is responsible for enforcing employment discrimination laws
TSCA ADA RCRA EEOC
Definition
EE0C
equal employment opportunity commission
Term
A hapten can BEST be described as
Definition
A determinant capable of stimulating an immune response only when bound to a carrier protein'
A hapten is a low molecular weight molecule that can elicit an immune response only when attached to a large carrier such as a protein.
Term
A hapten is only antigenic when it is coupled with which of the following:
Definition
The molecular weight of a hapten is by itself not sufficient to elicit an antibody response alone, but requires a protein to do so.
Term
A kidney graft would have the BEST chance of survival post-transplantation if it were:
A graft which is matched based on HLA and ABO typing is ideal. The mixed lymphocyte culture, or MLC, should be negative also to prevent graft vs. host disease in transplant procedures.
Term
A laboratory professional is going to perform a mixing study to differentiate between a factor deficiency and a coagulation inhibitor as the cause of a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) test result. The mixing study should be performed within what time frame following collection of the specimen?
Definition
4 hours
A mixing study should be performed within 4 hours of specimen collection.
Performing a mixing study will help to differentiate between a factor deficiency and a coagulation inhibitor as the cause of a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) test result.
A mixing study is performed by mixing the patient plasma that has a prolonged PT or aPTT with normal pooled plasma. A PT and/or aPTT is then retested on the mixed sample.
If the cause of the prolonged PT and/or aPTT is a factor deficiency, or multiple factor deficiencies, the normal pooled plasma will increase the factor levels to the point of correcting the prolonged test result. However, the addition of normal pooled plasma will not correct the prolonged test result if the cause is a coagulation inhibitor.
Term
A lymphokine can BEST be described as: A soluble mediator produced by granulocytes and affecting lymphocytes A soluble mediator produced by lymphocytes A soluble mediator produced by plasma cells An antibody that reacts with lymphocytes
Definition
Lymphokines are a type of cytokine that are produced by lymphocytes, usually T cells, to direct the immune system response by signaling between its cells. Lymphokines attract immune cells to an infected area and helps activate them to attack the foreign pathogens.
Term
A lymphokine can BEST be described as:
Definition
A soluble mediator produced by lymphocytes
Lymphokines are a type of cytokine that are produced by lymphocytes, usually T cells, to direct the immune system response by signaling between its cells. Lymphokines attract immune cells to an infected area and helps activate them to attack the foreign pathogens.
Term
A manual white blood cell count was performed by the hematology technologist. The cell counts for both sides were 99 and 164 respectively. All nine large squares were counted on each side. The dilution for this kit was pre-measured at 1:100. What should the technologist report as the white cell count?
Definition
cannot report
The white cell counts from one side of the hemacytometer to the other are too discrepant to report.
Term
A normal hemoglobin molecule is comprised of the following:
Definition
Four heme and four globin chains
Term
A small clot in a tube drawn for a CBC would have the MOST effect on which one of the following tests?
Definition
platelet count
Small clots are actually platelet clumps and fibrin strands. Therefore, the platelet count will be falsely decreased as hematology analyzers would not be able to count the individual platelets in the clump.
Term
A thick peptidoglycan is MOST often associated with which of the following types of bacteria? Gram-negative bacteria Gram-positive bacteria Both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria
Definition
Gram-positive bacteria retain the primary crystal violet stain that is applied in the Gram stain because of the cross-linking of the thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell walls. Their cell walls contain less lipids than that of a gram-negative bacteria, and this reduces the permeability of their cell wall to the organic solvents that are used as a decolorizer. When the counterstain is added, it may enter the gram-positive cell, but does not change the color of the cells.
Term
A traveler is being evaluated at a local hospital for gastrointestinal pain, fever and diarrhea. The patient has recently returned from a month-long visit to Southeast Asia. The patient has no recent history of sexual activity or IV drug use but did describe conditions of poor sanitation where they were visiting. If liver function test results were elevated and bilirubinuria was noted, which of the following would be the next logical test to order?
Definition
ELISA testing for Hepatitis A antigens in the stool
The correct response is option D: ELISA testing for Hepatitis A antigens in the stool. Hepatitis B, C and HIV are spread primarily through sexual contact or IV drug use and needle sharing. While it is possible to contract these viruses through other means, the patient history of visiting areas of low sanitation in Asia is more indicative of an enterically (fecal-oral) transmitted organism like Hepatitis A. The earliest detectable marker for Hepatitis A is the presence of viral antigens in the stool, which are most often tested for using ELISA methodology.
Term
ACP
Definition
Acid Phosphatase
Term
ACP is primarily found in
Definition
erythrocytes & prostate
Term
According to the 2010 ADA guidelines, HbA1C percent can be used as an assay to diagnose diabetes. true or false
Definition
true The 2010 ADA Clinical Practice Recommendations added measurement of HbA1C as a diagnostic assay for diagnosis of diabetes.
Term
Acute idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is MOST OFTEN associated with which of these populations?
Definition
Children 1 - 7 years of age
Term
Alanine aminotransferase
Definition
ALT
Term
All of the following may cause systemic mycoses EXCEPT: Actinomyces Israeli Nocardia brasiliensis Coccidioides immitis Nocardia asteroides Piedraia hortai
Definition
Piedraia hortai does not cause systemic mycosis, instead it causes a condition known as black piedra. This disease is characterized by formation of brown/black nodules which are attached to the hair shaft. Scalp hair is the most frequently infected area.
Term
All proteins are composed of amino acids linked by ________.
Definition
peptide bonds
Term
Ammonia is dependent of (renal/ liver) function
Definition
liver
Term
Amplifies tiny quantities of nucleic acid so that it can be detected by hybridization with nucleic acid probes
Definition
PCR
Term
An MCV is reported by the instrument as 82 fL. The MCV is flagged with a delta check alert as the previous MCV reported on this patient 12 hours earlier was 97 fL. What is a possible cause for this discrepancy?
Definition
Both specimens not from the same patient
When a significant change is observed in the MCV within a short period of time (eg, 24 hours), one possible explanation is that the specimens did not come from the same person. Delta checks are used in part to detect pre-analytical errors such as patient misidentification or specimen mix-ups.
A unit of transfused blood would not have caused the MCV to be lower.
Acute hemorrhage will not change the MCV significantly within a 24-hour period, even though other red cell parameters may change.
The electrolyte panel consists of potassium, sodium, chloride, carbon dioxide. These analytes are also typically ordered within other panels as well, including the basic metabolic and complete metabolic panels.
Term
An exchange transfusion has been ordered for a low birth weight infant. The physician has ordered irradiated Red Blood Cells for this purpose. Why is it necessary to irradiate the blood products for this patient? To prevent alloimmunization of the patient To prevent transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD) To kill bacteria and viruses present in the Red Blood Cells To allow the cells to have a longer half-life
Definition
The correct answer is to prevent TA-GVHD. This occurs when donor lymphocytes from transfused blood engraft in the recipient and cause disease. Usually TA-GVHD occurs 10-14 days post transfusion with clinical features of fever, skin rash, hepatitis, diarrhea and pancytopenia. It is fatal in more than 90% of cases. Irradiation is indicated for patients who are at high-risk for TA-GVHD, including low birth weight infants, hematopoietic progenitor cell (HPC) transplant recipients, patients receiving immunosuppressive therapies, and other immunocompromised patients.
Term
An osmometer can use any of the following principles except: Freezing point depression Vapor pressure Colloid osmotic pressure Electrostatic charge
Definition
The most common type of osmometer uses freezing point depression. It is also known as a cryoscope. Other types of osmometers can use either vapor pressure, or colloid osmotic pressure.
Term
Antenatal RhIg (1500 IU dose) is typically given at how many weeks gestation? 20 24 28 32 36
Definition
A 1500 IU dose of RhIg is typically given at 28 weeks gestation.
Term
Antibodies to which of the following are the most frequent cause of febrile transfusion reactions: Platelets Red cells Granulocytes Plasma proteins
Definition
granulocytes The most common type of febrile reaction occurs as the result of cytotoxic antibodies or leukoagglutinins (leukocyte antibodies).
Term
Apo B 48 is the major structural protein in
Definition
cholymicrons
Term
Apo-Al is the major structural protein of
Definition
HDL
Term
Apo-B 100 is the major structural protein of
Definition
LDL or VDL
Term
Asses the genome for mutational envents and confirm or implu drug resistance-- methods used for this is sequencing assays, nucleic acid amplification assays, nucleic acid hybridization assays, melting curve assays
A.NAAT B. FAT C. GAT D. PAT
Definition
GAT
Term
B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes are derived from:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
All lymphocytes originate, and are therefore derived from, hematopoietic stem cells via hematopoiesis. The stem cells eventually mature into common lymphoid progenitor cells. The progenitor cells then differentiate into their distinct lymphocyte types. B cells mature into B lymphocytes in the bone marrow, while T cells migrate to and mature in the thymus.
Term
Below is a urinalysis report on a 37-year-old woman seen in the ER with headache, hypertension, weight loss and mild edema:
Based on the urinalysis report above, the MOST probable diagnosis of this patient's condition is:
Definition
Both the clinical symptoms and laboratory findings point to acute glomerulonephritis. Acute glomerulonephritis is active inflammation in the glomeruli. In the chemical and microscopic urinalysis, signs of acute glomerulonephritis include red blood cells, white blood cells, proteinuria and casts. The casts are commonly cellular and are composed of cells that have leaked through the glomeruli where they develop into cylindrical forms inside of the tubule.
Term
Biosaftey #3
Colony morphology: No growth on culture media-- Specimen with these obligate intracellular parasites require tissue cultures
Gram negative coccobacilli
Biochemical identification: serological titers
Clinical significance: Q fever transmitted by ticks and aerosols
A. Orientia tsutsugamushi B. Coxiella burnettii C. Ehrlichia chaffeensis D. Anaplasma phayocytophilum
Definition
B. Coxiella burnettii
Term
Blackwater fever is associated with Chilomastic mesnili
Bordet-Gengou potato infusion agar has been the time-honored medium for the recovery of which one of the following organisms? Bordetella pertussis Corynebacterium diphtheriae Haemophilus influenzae Moraxella catarrhalis Neisseria meningitidis
Definition
Bordet-Gengou potato infusion agar has been the time-honored medium for the recovery of Bordetella pertussis. This bacterium requires media supplemented with charcoal, blood (20%), potato (starch) to absorb toxic substances in agar.
Term
Borrelia burdorferi
Definition
Lyme Disease
Term
Cancroid
a. Haemophilus ducrey b. Haemophilus influenza biotype aegyptius C. Haemophilus influenzae type B D. Pasteurella multocida
Definition
C. Haemophilus influenzae type B
Term
Chaga's disease is associated with Chilomastic mesnili
A. Vibrio cholerae B. Vibrio parahaemolyticu C. Vibrio vulnificus D. Vibrio alginolyticus
Definition
A. Vibrio cholerae
Term
Coarse basophilic stippling can be found in in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Hemolytic anemia may be associated with fine basophilic stippling due to precipitated RNA in polychromatophilic erythrocytes. It is not usually associated with coarse stippling. The other conditions above have coarse stippling in the setting of abnormal hemoglobin synthesis.
Term
Colony morphology-- clarge, round, raised, opaque colonies on sheep blood agar-- lactose fermenter on MacConkey agar
A.Fusobacterium nucleatum B. Provotella melaninogenicaC.Porphyromonas asaccharolyticus D. Clostridium perfringens
Definition
C.Porphyromonas asaccharolyticus
Term
Colony morphology: Shiny, opaque, non-hemolytic colonies on sheep blood agar-- Slow lactose fermenter on MacConkey agar
Gram negative bacilli that occur singly, in pairs, in short chains, or in filamentous forms
Biochemical identification: Oxidase +
Clinical significance:Gasteroenteritis from eating undercooked seafood.
A. Aeromonas hydrophilia B. Plesiomonas shigelloides C. Cardiobacterium hominis D. Eikenella corrodens
Definition
B. Plesiomonas shigelloides
Term
Colony morphology: Small granular, rounded, white, colonies with irregular margins on LJ media-- Slow grower; 3 weeks on LJ media with grown at 35-37°C-- Nonphotochromogen
Cystine-tellurite blood agar is recommended for the isolation of Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Cystine-tellurite blood agar is a differential and selective medium for the isolation of Corynebacterium diphtheriae. On this media, Corynebacterium diphtheriae produces black/gray colonies since the tellurite is reduced intracellularly to tellurium. The cystine-tellurite culture plates should be observed after 18 to 24 hours of incubation at 37 degrees Celsius in a 5% carbon dioxide-enriched atmosphere.
Term
Determining viral load is how one determines a positive diagnosis for HIV infection.
Definition
false
Determining viral load is a way to monitor already infected individuals with HIV and other viral diseases. The viral load can show how well treatments are working, show potential medication resistance, and also indicate relapses.
Term
Diseases associated with dysfunctions of polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs) include all of the following EXCEPT:
Definition
Gaucher 's Disease
Chediak-Higashi, chronic granulomatous disease, and myeloperoxidase deficiency are all dysfunctional neutrophil disorders. Gaucher's disease the most common lysosomal storage disease caused by insufficient activity of the lysosomal enzyme glucocerebrosidase that leads to the deposition of glucocerebroside in cells of the macrophage-monocyte system.
Term
During phagocytosis the neutrophilic granules release digestive enzymes into the vacuole to kill or destroy the phagocytized particle.
Definition
true
Neutrophils are phagocytes, which means they ingest harmful microorganisms or other foreign particles that enter the body. When these foreign bodies are engulfed, granules containing digestive enzymes and cytotoxic proteins are released into the phagocytic vacuole, and the foreign body is destroyed.
Term
Dwarf Tapeworm
Definition
Hemenolepis nana
Term
Each of the following has been shown to induce platelet aggregation except:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Aspirin has been shown to inhibit platelet function.
Term
Enzyme panel reactions cannot be used as the only source of rule-outs during antibody identification. Why is this? Enzyme panels only detect warm autoantibodies Enzyme panels only detect IgM antibodies All antigens on the panel cells are destroyed by enzymes Some antigens are destroyed and may not detect an antibody that is present
Definition
Some antigens are destroyed and may not detect an antibody that is present
Treating cells with enzymes will denature some of the antigens present on a panel. The antigens can no longer bind with the corresponding antibody once denatured. If antibodies to those denatured antigens are present, in the sample being tested, the panel will not detect the antibody.
Term
For the ANA test to be positive what must be present in the nucleus of the interphase cell? Strong staining Centromeres dsDNA A clearly discernible pattern
Definition
A clearly discernible pattern is correct.
The strength of the reaction doesn't matter, only that it is clearly discernible. Centromere and dsDNA are just some of the many different antigens, however, without the corresponding (cognate) antibodies from the patient sample there is no ANA pattern. Remember, to be ANA positive there must be a clearly discernible pattern in the nucleus of the interphase cells.
Term
Fresh Frozen Plasma is plasma frozen within _____ hours of collection and contains all coagulation factors.
Definition
8 hours
Term
Gram Negative, fastidious bacilli
colony morphology: circular, convex, and translucent grayish colonies on blood agar
A. Francisella tularensis B. Campylobacter jejuni C. Helicobacter pylori
Definition
C. Helicobacter pylori
Term
Gram Negative, fastidious bacilli
colony morphology: colonies may appear gray in color and slightly mucoid on campy blood agar at 42oC in a microaerophilic atmosphere containing 5% O2, 10% CO2, 85% N2
gram stain info: slender, gram negative curved bacilli that may appear S shaped or spiral
clinical significance: food poisoning by undercooked meat, gasteroenteritis, diarrhea
A. Francisella tularensis B. Campylobacter jejuni C. Helicobacter pylori
Definition
B. Campylobacter jejuni
Term
Gram Negative, fastidious bacilli
colony morphology: small, grayish colonies on blood agar-- no growth on MacConkey agar-- grey- white, raised colonies with smooth appearence on chocolate agar-- small, grayish colonies on glucose-cystine blood agar
biochemical identification: catalase +, nitrate +, urease +, non motile
A. Bacillus anthracis B. Bacillus cereus C. Listeria monocytogenes D. corynebacterium diptheriae E. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae F. Nocardia asteroids G. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
Definition
D. corynebacterium diptheriae
Term
Gram Positive, Aerobic Cocci
Colony Morphology: white, creamy, raised colony on blood agar/ non hemolytic on blood agar
biochemical identification: catalase +, non motile, partially acid fast
clinical significance: pulmonary infection- cutaneous infection (the pus may be pigmented and contain yellow to orange sulfur granules)
A. Bacillus anthracis B. Bacillus cereus C. Listeria monocytogenes D. corynebacterium diptheriae E. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae F. Nocardia asteroids G. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
Definition
F. Nocardia asteroids
Term
Gram Positive, Aerobic bacilli
colony morphology: large, flat grayish to lavender colonies producing a wide zone of beta hemolysis
Gram stain info: gram positive bacilli with spores
A. Bacillus anthracis B. Bacillus cereus C. Listeria monocytogenes D. corynebacterium diptheriae E. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae F. Nocardia asteroids G. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
Definition
B. Bacillus cereus
Term
Gram Positive, Aerobic bacilli
colony morphology: pinpoint, nonhemolytic colonies on sheep blood agar at 24 hours-- older colonies may appear alpha hemolytic
gram stain info: thin, gram positive bacilli that may form long filaments arranged in short chains
A. Bacillus anthracis B. Bacillus cereus C. Listeria monocytogenes D. corynebacterium diptheriae E. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae F. Nocardia asteroids G. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
Definition
E. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
Term
Gram Positive, Aerobic bacilli
colony morphology: small colonies on sheep blood agar that show a narrow zone of beta hemolysis
gram stain info: gram positive pleomorphic bacilli that may demonstrate rudimentary branching
biochemical identification: catalase +, nitrate -, H2S -, urease -, non motile, reverse CAMP test +
A. Bacillus anthracis B. Bacillus cereus C. Listeria monocytogenes D. corynebacterium diptheriae E. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae F. Nocardia asteroids G. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
Definition
G. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
Term
Gram- Negative, Aerobic cocci
colony morphology: colonies are grey to tan, flat, and smooth
gram stain: gram negative intracellular or sxtracellular diplococci
biochemical identification: oxidase +, beta lactimase +, produces acid from glucose in CTA sugars
clinical significance: opthalamia neomatorum in newborns
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Maraxella catarrhalis
Definition
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Term
Gram- Negative, Aerobic cocci
colony morphology: colonies are nonpigmented or grey to white, smooth and transparent
gram stain: gram negatice diplococci with adjacent end flattened resembling coffee beans
biochemical identification: oxidase +, produces acid from glucose and maltose in CTA sugars
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Maraxella catarrhalis
Definition
B. Neisseria meningitidis
Term
Gram- Negative, Aerobic cocci
colony morphology: colonies are small, round, white to gray, opaque, and smooth
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Maraxella catarrhalis
Definition
C. Maraxella catarrhalis
Term
Gram- Positive, Aerobic Bacilli
colony formation: large, non hemolytic colonies on sheep blood agar "medusa head" colonies
gram stain info: gram positive bacilli with spores that stain in bamboo pole arrangement
biochemical idenfitication: catalase +
clinical significance: anthrax
A. Bacillus anthracis B. Bacillus cereus C. Listeria monocytogenes D. corynebacterium diptheriae E. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae F. Nocardia asteroids G. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
Definition
A. Bacillus anthracis
Term
HBIG injections, blood transfusions, and transplants are reasons for a 3 day deferral, 2 week deferral, 4 week deferral, 6 week deferral, 8 week deferral, 6 month deferral, 12 month deferral, permanent deferral, 3 year deferral in regards to blood donation
Definition
12 month
Term
HDL is an _________ and is referred to as "good" cholesterol
A. allpha-fetoprotein
B. Alpha 1 Glycoprotein
C. Alpha- lipoprotein
D. Ceruloplasmin
Definition
C. Alpha- lipoprotein
Term
HDL is an alpha-liprotrotein and is referred to as (good or bad) cholesterol
Definition
good
Term
HDL is composed of what (two answers)
a. potassium
b. albumin
c. protein
d. cholesterol
Definition
protein & cholesterol
Term
HDL is referred to as (good or bad) cholesterol
Definition
good
Term
HHV 5
Definition
cytomegalovirus
Term
HHV3
Definition
chicken pox Varicella-zoster virus
Term
HHV6, HHV7, HHV8
Definition
herpes vital
Term
HSV-1
Definition
fever blisters
Term
HSV-2
Definition
genital herpes
Term
HTLV I predominantly infects the ______ lymphocytes
Definition
CD+4
Term
HTLV II predominantly infects the ______ lymphocytes
Definition
CD+4
Term
Hantavirises are generally transmitted by _____________.
A. Mosquito
B. kitty litter
C. ticks
D. aerosolized rodent
Definition
aerosolized rodent
Term
Hemoglobin H bodies can directly alter the:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
integrity of the RBC membrane
When unstable hemoglobin is formed, such as Hemoglobin H in alpha thalassemia intermedia, it precipitates close to the RBC membrane. The integrity of the membrane is compromised when macrophages remove the precipitated tetramers out of the cell, cells appearing "bitten" (schiztocytes).
Term
Hemoglobinuria and hemoglobinemia will be present in reactions where there is extravascular hemolysis. true or false
Definition
false In extravascular hemolysis, there is no release of free hemoglobin, and therefore no hemoglobinemia or hemoglobinuria. Sensitized red cells are removed from circulation by the monocytes and macrophages in reticuloendothelial system.
Term
Hemopexin is synthesized in
Definition
the liver
Term
Hemophilia B or Christmas disease is the result of a hereditary deficiency in which coagulation factor: Factor X Factor VIII Factor VII Factor IX
Definition
Hemophilia B is a sex-linked recessive disorder characterized by deficiency of Factor IX. It is much less common that Factor VIII deficiency.
Term
Hepatatis virus that is NOT parenteral
A
B
C
D
Definition
A
e is also an enteric transmission virus
Term
Hepatoglobin and ceruloplasmin is classified as
A. Alpha 1 glycoprotein
B. Alpha 2 globulin
C. Alpha 1 globulin
D. Alpha 2 macroglobulin
E. Beta globulin
F. gamma Globulin
Definition
B. Alpha 2 globulin
Term
How does the secondary immune response differ from the primary immune response?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
All of the above choices are correct when differentiating the secondary immune response differ from the primary immune response. In the secondary immune response:
IgG is the predominant antibody class produced in the secondary immune response
The antibody levels produced are higher in the secondary immune response
The lag phase (the time between exposure to antigen and production of antibody) is shorter in the secondary
The primary immune response typically does not involve specific IgG antibody
Term
How many types of HIV virus exist
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Definition
2
Term
Humsn immunodeficiency virus lymphocytes have what kind of receptors
A. gp120
B.CD2
C. CD4
D. CD8
Definition
CD4
Term
If a cocktail that includes detergents, enzymes, and salts is used for DNA isolation, which one of these ingredients will pull the DNA out from the sample?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
salts
If a cocktail that includes detergents, enzymes, and salts is used for DNA isolation, the salts will pull the DNA out from the sample. The detergents break down the membrane lipids and the enzymes remove the proteins.
Term
If a patient has Wilson's disease then they have decreased values of
A. hepatoglobin
b. ceruloplasmin
C. HDL
D. hemopexin
Definition
ceruloplasmin
Term
If a sodium citrate sample drawn for coagulation is noted to be filled an inch below the fill line (black line), then the specimen is considered:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
unacceptable for coagulation studies
In coagulation tesing, the sodium citrate tubes MUST be filled to the black line, meaning properly filled, to ensure the proper ratio of blood to anticoagulant inside of the tube; which should be 9:1. If the tube is not filled adequately, the specimen must be not be used for testing and a redraw should be requested.
Term
If an antinuclear antibody indirect immunofluorescence test shows a positive, speckled pattern, which would be the MOST appropriate additional test to perform?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Screen for Sm and RNP antibodies
In systemic lupus erythematosis, a speckled ANA pattern is noted. To help confirm this diagnosis, often anti-Sm and anti-RNP antibody tests are ordered; this detects immune response against extractable nuclear antigens.
Term
If the dilution is 1:100, and the average platelet count from both sides of the hemacytometer counting chamber in 2 mm2 is 68, what is the calculated platelet count?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
68,000/mm3
Term
IgG is a (monomer/ dimer/ pentamer)
Definition
monomer
Term
IgG, IgA, IgM are classified as
A. Alpha 1 glycoprotein
B. Alpha 2 globulin
C. Alpha 1 globulin
D. Alpha 2 macroglobulin
E. Beta globulin
F. gamma Globulin
Definition
F. gamma Globulin
Term
In real-time PCR procedures, fluorescence resonance energy transfer (FRET) is the process that allows for probes to emit fluorescence only after hybridization.
Select true or false
Definition
true
Term
In regards to HIV the Gag gene codes for what
Definition
p24
Term
In regards to HIV the Pol gene codes for what
Definition
p66
Term
In skin tests for allergy, a wheal and flare development is indicative of:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
immediate hypersensitivity
In skin tests for allergies, a skin eruption can follow an injection of an antigen. It is characterized by redness and swelling; this is caused by a release of histamine. This type of reaction typically occurs in stages. First, the appearance of an erythematous area at the site of injury. Next, the development of a flare surrounding the site. Third, a wheal forms at the site when fluid leaks under the skin.
Term
In which disorder may a mild anemia be present even with an increased red blood cell (RBC) count and normal adult hemoglobin electrophoresis?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Alpha thalassemia minor may show an increased RBC count and normal adult hemoglobin electrophoresis, even though the hemoglobin is decreased and anemia is present.
A.Closteridium tetani B.Closteriduim botulinum C.Actinomyces israelii D. Clostriduim difficile
Definition
B.Closteriduim botulinum
Term
JC Virus is an agent of what disease
Definition
Creutzfeldt- Jacob Disease
Term
LD is a (monomer, dimer, tetramer, pentamer)
Definition
tetramer
Term
LDL is an _________ and is referred to as "bad" cholesterol
A. allpha-fetoprotein
B. Alpha 1 Glycoprotein
C. Beta globulin
D. Ceruloplasmin
Definition
Beta globulin
Term
LDL is a (beta/ alpha) -lipoprotein and is referred to as (good/ bad) cholesterol
Definition
beta bad
Term
Menkes' syndrome is described as
A. excess storage of copper in organs
B. decreased amounts of glucose in blood
c. decreased absorption of copper
Definition
decreased absorption of copper
Term
Monoclonal antibodies are usually manufactured in vitro by using:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Hybridomas
Monoclonal antibodies are monospecific antibodies that are the same because they are made by one type of immune cell which are all clones of a unique parent cell, also called a hybrid cell line, which usually arise from a hybridoma. The fusion of a specific antibody-producing lymphocyte with a myeloma cell will multiply to become a source of pure monoclonal antibody. This is often used in the manufacturing process for monoclonal antibody reagents.
Term
Most common etiological agents for the common cold are the _______________. Account for approx. 30%-35% of the colds in adults
Definition
Rhinovirus
Term
Multiplexing is the process of assaying several different genes within the same PCR reaction.
Select true or false
Definition
true
Term
Name the Three alpha viruses (former group A arboviruses) can cause CNS disease in the US
Definition
o Venezulean equine encephalitis (VEE) viruses o Eastern equine encephalitis (EEE) viruses o Western Equine encephalitis (WEE) viruses
Term
Nephelometry involves the measurement:
Light absorption
Light transmission
Light scatter
Atomic absorption
Definition
Nephelometry is used to measure the light scattered by particles in a solution. It is useful for measuring protein levels in fluids, and antigen-antibody complexes.
Term
Oliguria is usually correlated with: Acute glomerulonephritis Diabetes mellitus Hepatitis Tubular damage
Definition
Acute glomerulonephritis is closely associated with oliguria, and occasionally, anuria
Term
Otitis media
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
C. Vibrio vulnificus
D. Vibrio alginolyticus
Definition
D. Vibrio alginolyticus
Term
Pappenheimer bodies are usually seen in patients who have:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
splenectomies
Pappenheimer bodies can be found in patients who have had a splenectomy since the spleen typically removes these cells from the peripheral blood. Therefore, if the spleen is no longer present, these cells can be found in peripheral smears.
Term
Patients with Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia demonstrate excessively increased concentrations of which of the following?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia is the result of lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma typically characterized by the production of a large amount of monoclonal IgM antibody.
Term
Pink Eye is associated with
a. Haemophilus ducrey
b. Haemophilus influenza biotype aegyptius
C. Haemophilus influenzae type B
D. Pasteurella multocida
Definition
b. Haemophilus influenza biotype aegyptius
Term
Pinta
Definition
Treponema carateum
Term
Polyspecific antihuman globulin (AHG) reagent used in antiglobulin testing should react with which one of the following? IgG and IgA IgM and IgA IgG and C3d IgM and C3d
Definition
Polyspecific antihuman globulin (AHG) reagent contains both anti-IgG and anti-C3d
Term
Prozone is usually found in: those tubes of titration which contain the least concentration of antibody the serum of a patient who has more than one antibody a patient sample in which the serum contains a high titer of antibody a patient sample in which the serum has been inactivated before titering the presence of ionic clouds
Definition
Prozone is a phenomenon in which titers of specific antigen and antibody do not agglutinate or precipitate visibly because of an excess in antibody. Therefore the correct answer is "a patient sample in which the serum contains a high titer of antibody".
Term
Prozone is usually found in:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
a patient sample in which the serum contains a high titer of antibody
Prozone is a phenomenon in which titers of specific antigen and antibody do not agglutinate or precipitate visibly because of an excess in antibody. Therefore the correct answer is "a patient sample in which the serum contains a high titer of antibody".
Term
Retroviruses transcribe (RNA/DNA) to (RNA/DNA)
Definition
Retroviruses transcribe RNA to DNA
Term
Reverse typing is done using known antisera to detect ABO antigens present on the patient's red blood cells. true or false
Definition
false everse typing is performed using reagent red cells with known antigens to detect ABO antibodies present in the patient's serum
Term
Reye's syndrome is characterized by an increase in
a. monosodium urate
b. creatinine
c. ammonia
d. uria
Definition
ammonia
Term
Rickettsialpox
A. Rickettsia rickettsii
B. Rickettsia akari
C. Rickettsia conorii
D. Rickettsia typhi
E. Rickettsia prowazekii
Definition
B. Rickettsia akari
Term
Rockey mountain spotted fever
Rickettsia rickettsii
Rickettsia akari
Rickettsia conorii
Rickettsia typhi
Rickettsia prowazekii
Definition
Rickettsia rickettsii
Term
Serotonin is synthesized by
delta cells of pancreas
argentaffin cells
alpha cells of pancreas
beta cells of pancreas
Definition
argentaffin cells
Term
Smoothly swarming but slow growing colonies on anaerobic blood agar
Large, gram- positive bacilli with swollen round terminal spores
The 5' end of a DNA strand is distinguished by a phosphate while the 3' end is distinguished by a OH group
Term
The Epstein-Barr Virus is associated with which of the following conditions:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Though the Epstein-Barr virus is usually associated with infectious mononucleosis, it can also cause human cancer, including Burkitt's lymphoma. The virus combines with acquired genetic mutations to produce disease.
Term
The M:E ratio represents the ratio of:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
he M:E ratio stands for the Myeloid:Erythroidratio. This represents the relationship of myeloid cells and erythroid cells.
Term
The antibody MOST frequently present in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is directed against:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
nuclear antigen
The anti-nulear antigen test, or ANA test, is a test used to screen for autoimmune diseases, especially systemic lupus erythematosus. It determines whether auto-antibodies to cell nuclei are present. In 97% of cases diagnosed as SLE, patients have a positive ANA test.
Term
The antigen marker most closely associated with transmission of HBV infections is:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
The presence of HBeAg connotes infectivity.
Term
The assay which is most helpful in identifying specific allergens is:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
RAST tests, or Radioallergosorbent tests, are used to screen for an allergy to a specific substance or substances if a person presents with allergy-like symptoms
Term
The basic unit of proteins are ________ linked by peptide bonds
A. Amino Acids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Lipids
Definition
A. Amino Acids
Term
The best way to evaluate single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) is by melting curve analysis
Select true or false
Definition
true
Term
The diagnostic value of the reticulocyte count in the evaluation of anemia is that it determines the:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Reticulocytes counts can help determine how well the bone marrow is responding and its potential to make new RBCs. For example, an increased retic count could show the physician that the medication given to a patient to treat his/her anemia is working since the bone marrow is releasing new, young RBCs (reticulocytes).
Term
The greatest risk for the manifestation of anomalies in maternal rubella infection during gestation is the:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
first trimester
Infection early in the pregnancy is the most dangerous time period for the manifestation of anomalies due to rubella. In fact, defects are rare when infection occurs after 20 weeks gestation.
Term
The hepatitis B virus vaccine was administered to MLS students during Orientation.Which type of immunity is expected to develop and provide long-term protection?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
active
The hepatitis B vaccine is a series of immunizations consisting of three injections of the hepatitis B antigen. The antigen causes the recipient of the injection to make antibodies against the antigen, hence why this is an example of active immunity
Term
The incidence of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) due to anti-D would be expected to be rarest in which population? Asians Australians Europeans North Americans
Definition
Recognizing that considerable diversity exists in populations, of those listed, Asians have the highest frequency of being D positive and therefore are unable to produce anti-D.
Term
The mediator cells that bind MOST to IgE antibodies are:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Basophils
Allergen-specific IgE, synthesized in response to allergens, becomes fixed to receptors on cellular membranes, especially those of basophils. If these receptor-bound IgE molecules are aggregated on re-exposure to specific allergen, both mast cells and basophils produce mediators that result in the allergic response. IgE-antigen interaction at the cell surface causes degranulation of cells and release of substances including: histamine, SRS-A, platelet activator, a kallikrein, and an eosinophil chemotactic factor. Basophils are the principal cells that bind IgE antibody while their number of receptor sites is proportional to serum IgE levels. Eosinophils are drawn to the site by the basophil chemotaxis mechanism, but are not the main cell which binds the IgE antibody.
A positive spot test shows agglutination of horse erythrocytes when added to patient serum previously absorbed with guinea pig kidney, but not when added to patient serum previously absorbed with beef erythrocyte stroma. The test is generally simple, sensitive, and specific, but false negative are common in young children with mononucleosis.
Term
The most immature neutrophil found in normal peripheral blood is:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
The band neutrophil is the earliest neutrophil precursor that is found in normal peripheral blood. Other precursor cells such as blasts, promyelocytes, myelocytes, and metamyelocytes should not be found in nornal peripheral blood.
Term
The part of the immunoglobulin molecule that may be kappa or lambda chains is:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
light chains
Light chains must always be either the kappa or lambda types in the formation of an antibody
Term
The part of the molecule responsible for differences among immunoglobulin classes is:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
heavy chains
Antibodies are differentiated based on their heavy chains; different heavy chains create different isotypes. Humans have five different isotypes of immunoglobulins.
Term
The primary purpose of neutrophil granules is to:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
provide microbicidal action
Neutrophil granules provide enzymes for hydrolytic substrate break-down, kill ingested bacteria, and secrete their contents to regulate different physiological and pathological processes, including inflammation
Term
The properties of an antibody class are defined by the:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Fc end of the molecule
The portion of antibodies where the C terminal region of each glycoprotein chain is located, is called the Fc portion. The Fc portion has a constant amino acid sequence that defines the class and subclass of each antibody. The Fc portion is responsible for the biological activity of the antibody. Depending on the class of antibody, some of the functional activities of the Fc portion of antibodies include activating the complement pathway and binding to natural killer cells, phagocytosis, basophils, etc.
Term
The purpose of C3a, C4a, C5a, the split-products of the complement cascade, is to:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
cause increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, and release of histamine from basophils
The purpose of C3a, C4a, C5a, the split-products, of the complement cascade is to cause increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, and release of histamine from basophils. C3a, C4a and C5a, bioactive fragments of the complement components C3, C4 and C5, respectively play a key role in mediation of immunologically provoked inflammatory responses. C4a production results from classical pathway activation while, C3a and C5a are produced by the activation of the classical pathway and/or the alternative pathway.
Term
The rate of appearance of NADPH is proportional to the amount of glucose present in the sample most sensitive enzymatic method; more accurate; less interfering substances
Definition
hexokinase
Term
The rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis is PRIMARILY which type of immunoglobulin?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
IgM
Rheumatoid Factor (RF) is an antibody against the Fc portion of IgG molecules. It is primarily, of the IgM class and can less commonly be IgG or IgA. These circulating antibody complexes are found in the synovial tissue and synovial fluid and tend to cause systemic problems. In the laboratory, routine latex agglutination test would typically detect only IgM RF since most IgG and IgA antibodies are non-agglutinating.
Term
The shelf-life of whole blood collected in CPDA-1 is: 7 days 28 days 35 days 48 days
Definition
The shelf life of whole blood collected with CPDA-1, or citrate-phosphate-dextrose-adenine, has a storage life of 35 days
Term
The term TITER ( as it applies to the measurement of antibodies) is best defined as:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Reciprocal of maximum reactive dilution
A specimen with a last reacting tube containing a 1:100 dilution, would be said to have a titer of 100
Term
The use of non-specific fluorescent dyes is the most specific method of measuring amplicons in real-time PCR.
Select true or false
Definition
false
Non-specific fluorescent dyes can bind to both the product and the primers, resulting in lack of specificity. The use of DNA probes is more specific.
Term
This anylitical method uses a reagent to react with peptide bonds in proteins
A. kjeldahl
B. refractometry
C. dye binding
D. biuret
Definition
D. biuret
Term
This gamma globulin fixes complement
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE
Definition
IgG
Term
This protein is an acute phase reactant and its function is inhibition of the protease neutrophil elastase
a. alpha 1 antitrypsin
b. albumin
c. hepatoglobin
D. Beta globulins
Definition
alpha 1 antitrypsin
Term
This retrovirus us associated with adult T-Cell leukemia/ lymphoma syndrome (ALT) and the chronic demylenating syndrome tropical spastic parapheresis (TSP)
Definition
HTLV I
Term
Transferrin is a (positive or negative) acute phase reactant
Definition
negative
Term
Treponema is associated with what illness
Definition
syphillis
Term
What element in the body differentiates proteins from carbohydrates and lipids?
A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
Definition
C. Nitrogen
Term
What is NOT a molecular method for viral diagnosis
LCR
TMA
SDA
GAT
NASBA
Definition
GAT
Term
What is the BEST type of microscopy for performing manual platelet counts?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Phase contrastmicroscopy can help to better define the outline of the platelets over regular light microscopy, making them easier to count and allowing for more accurate results. Dark-field and electron microscopes are not used for platelet counting.
Term
What is the MOST likely cause when clinical signs indicate HIV infection, but antibody tests are negative?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
patient is in the "window phase" before antibody production
When clinical signs indicate HIV infection, but antibody tests are negative, a patient can be in the "window phase" before antibody production. This means that the HIV viral antigens have yet not produced an immune response great enough for laboratory studies to detect anti-HIV antibodies. This window period can last up to 6 months after infection.
Term
What is the MOST likely identity of an acid-fast bacilli that showed buff colored, dry, heaped colonies; niacin, nitrate, and urease positive; and took 23 days at 35ºC to grow? Mycobacterium avium Mycobacterium kansasii Mycobacterium bovis Mycobacterium tuberculosis Mycobacterium leprae
Definition
The correct answer which best fits the characteristics in this question is Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Term
What is the first step of the PCR reaction?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
The steps in the PCR process are:
Denaturation (Turning double stranded DNA into single strands.)
Annealing/Hybrization (Attachment of primers to the single DNA strands.)
Extension (Creating the complementary strand to produce new double stranded DNA.)
Term
What is the function of LDL?
A. bind hemoglobin
B. inhibit trypsin, thrombin, and plasmin
c. transport cholesterol from the liver to the tissue
D. transports cholesterol from the tissue back to the liver to be broken down
Definition
c. transport cholesterol from the liver to the tissue
Term
What is the function of hepatoglobin?
A. bind hemoglobin
B. inhibit trypsin, thrombin, and plasmin
c. transport cholesterol from the liver to the tissue
D. transports cholesterol from the tissue back to the liver to be broken down
Definition
A. bind hemoglobin
Term
What is the function of pre albumin?
Definition
it is the transport mechanism for thyroid hormones
Term
What is the mechanism of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)? Antibodies directed against platelet factor 4 (PF-4) and heparin complex Administration of toxic doses of heparin that destroy platelets Abrupt cessation of heparin therapy
Definition
HIT is a complication that may occur in some patients receiving heparin therapy. When heparin is administered to these patients, it forms an immune complex with platelet factor 4 (PF-4) that is released from the alpha granules in platelets. The body's immune system recognizes this complex as a foreign substance and forms an antibody against it. The antibody binds to this complex and the platelets are destroyed.
HIT is not the result of administration of toxic doses of heparin. The dosing is correct; the thrombocytopenia is the result of the patient's immune response to the heparin.
Abrupt cessation of heparin therapy will not cause thrombocytopenia. If a patient is diagnosed with HIT, heparin therapy should be stopped immediately and replaced with a different anticoagulant therapy if necessary.
Term
What is the method of analysis for measuring the nitrogen content?
Definition
Kjeldahl
Term
What is the most serious complication of West Nile Virus?
Definition
Encephalitis
Term
What is the protein in the highest concentration?
a. Alpha 1- globulins
b. albumin
c. hepatoglobin
D. Beta globulins
Definition
b. albumin
Term
What is used for antiviral susceptibility testing?
A. flourescent antibody testing
B. ligase chain reaction
C. PAT
D. FAT
Definition
PAT
Term
What may prevent the detection of lupus anticoagulant in a plasma sample if the blood used for testing is not centrifuged for a sufficient time?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Increased platelets in the plasma could prevent the detection of lupus anticoagulant (antiphospholipid antibody).
Platelet membranes contain a high content of lipids that can cause the antiphospholipid antibody to bind to the platelet membrane, thereby removing it from the plasma so that it is not detected. Blood specimens should be centrifuged for a sufficient time to ensure a residual platelet concentration of less than 10 x 109/L.
Residual red or white blood cells do not contain a high content of lipids in their membranes and would not specifically affect the lupus anticoagulant test.
Term
What other hemoglobin gene loci occur on the same chromosome as the beta chain loci?
More than one answer is correct. alpha delta gamma zeta
Definition
delta & gamma Globin chain loci are found on:
chromosome 11 (beta, delta, epsilon, and gamma) chromosome 16 (alpha, and zeta)
Term
What type of follow-up testing is recommended for a Speckled ANA pattern?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Testing for antibodies to the extractable nuclear antigens (ENA)
Speckled ANA patterns are usually followed-up with testing for antibodies to the extractable nuclear antigens (ENA). Frequently this includes: Sm (Smith), U1-RNP, SSA/Ro, SSB/La, and Scl-70.
Testing for dsDNA antibodies is usually done on homogeneous ANA patterns. However, some labs will suggest both dsDNA and ENA testing if the speckled pattern is greater than 1:160.
Term
When a group O patient’s serum is not compatible with O cells, and the auto control is negative, what is the MOST likely cause? the patient is chimera cold auto-antibodies the patient is a Bombay phenotype the patient is an A2 warm auto-antibodies
Definition
he Bombay phenotype occurs when two hh genes (or two inactive alleles of H or FUT1) are inherited at the H locus. These individuals cannot produe fucosyltransferase to produce H, A, or B antigens. Consequently, they produce anti-H, anti-A, and anti-B antibodies. On initial testing, Bombay red cells appear to be group O. However, their serum reacts with antibody screening cells and all normal group O cells because of the presence of anti-H.
Term
Where is T4 produced?
Definition
thyroid gland
Term
Which Hepatits virus involves DNA?
Definition
Hepatitis B
Term
Which anylitical method measures nitrogen content?
A. kjeldahl
B. refractometry
C. dye binding
D. biuret
Definition
A. kjeldahl
Term
Which anylitical method measures the refractive index?
A. kjeldahl
B. refractometry
C. dye binding
D. biuret
Definition
B. refractometry
Term
Which branch of the immune system has an immediate response on first exposure to a foreign antigenic stimulus? Cell Mediated Specific Humoral Innate
Definition
The innate immunity system is inherent and nonspecific; meaning that all pathogens are attacked similarly. The skin, mucus in respiratory tracts, acid pH, and others are all examples of the innate immunity system that the body has to prevent infection upon first exposure.
Term
Which class of antibody is able to agglutinate RBC’s after anti-human globulin is added?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
IgG
Anti-human globulin (AHG) is created to bind with IgG antibodies at the Fc portion of the antibodies. AHG will bind to both bound and unbound IgG antibodies. When IgG is bound to RBCs, the AHG reagent will allow visible agglutination to occur.
Term
Which electrophoresis method first creates a pH gradient across the gel before migration of proteins? isoelectric focusing routine serum electrophoresis capillary electrophoresis two-dimensional electrophoresis
Definition
In isoelectric focusing, the ampholytes migrate first and create a pH gradient across the gel. Then the proteins migrate to the pH area that matches their isoelectric point.
Term
Which hepatitis viruses are transmitted enteric?
Definition
Hepatits A & E
Term
Which immune elements are involved in a POSITIVE TB skin test?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
T cells and macrophages
When the tuberculosis (TB) skin test is performed, the T-lymphocyte cells with receptor sites for tuberculosis antigens will produce a positive test result. The T-lymphocytes secrete cytokines which attract macrophages to the site of the skin test. Together these cells cause the swelling pattern to occur in the characteristic positive skin test.
Term
Which immunoglobulin class is able to cross the placenta from the mother to the fetus? IgA IgD IgE IgG IgM
Definition
Immunoglobulins of the IgG class are able to cross the placenta since they circulate as monomers; thus they are small in size. The other types of immunoglobulins are too large to cross the placental barrier, for example, IgM is a pentamer.
Term
Which infectious disease test is used for the confirmation of syphilis?
Definition
FTA-ABS
Term
Which infectious disease test is used to detect chagas disease
Definition
T.Cruzi anti-trypsonoma cruz
Term
Which infectious disease test is used to detect exposure to Hepatitis C virus
Definition
Anti-HCV
Term
Which infectious disease test is used to detect for a retrovirus that may cause a rare form of leukemia and nervous system degeneration
A. AIDS
B. HTLV
C. chagas
D. T. Cruzi
Definition
HTLV I/II
Term
Which infectious disease test is used to detect previous exposure to hepatitis B virus and also a "surrogate" test for Non-A, Non-B, Non-C hepatitis for which there is no specific test yet
Definition
Anti-HBc
Term
Which infectious disease test is used to detect syphillis
Definition
PRP
Term
Which infectious disease test is used to detect the virus that causes AIDS
Definition
Anti-HIV 1/2
Term
Which is NOT a parasitic agent transferred through blood plasmodium spp. trypsonoma cruz yersinia enterocoliti babesia microti
Definition
yersinia enterocoliti it is a bacterial agent
Term
Which is not an application of real-time PCR?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Term
Which is not an organic cofactor (coenzyme) NAD, Vitamin, calcium
Definition
Term
Which is the main limitation of standard PCR that is not a limitation of real-time PCR?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Inability to quantitate DNA product due to endpoint analysis only
The main limitation of standard PCR is the inability to quantitate the DNA product due to reliance on endpoint analysis. The final yield of a product is not always equal to the estimated exponential growth per cycle. Therefore, quantitation is not possible with endpoint analysis. Real-time PCR overcame this limitation
Term
Which method remains the “gold standard” for ANA detection?
Definition
Slide-based immunofluorescent assay (IFA) or Colorzyme®
Slide-based ANA tests using HEp-2 or HEp-2000® cells are the gold standard. Dozens of different antibodies can be detected using slide-based assays. Solid phase assays such as bead and ELISA assays lack sensitivity, resulting in an unacceptable number of false negative results.
RIAand Lateral flow are not methods used for ANA testing.
Term
Which of the following conditions can produce a normal APTT and a prolonged PT?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Only the factor VII would cause and increase only in the PT result as factors IX and VIII are tested only in the aPTT test and factor X is tested for in both tests.
Term
Which of the following conditions is associated with elevated serum uric acid levels: Cushing's syndrome Pancreatitis Hyperthyroidism Gout
Definition
Gout is a disease manifested by the deposition of crystalline uric acid in joints and soft tissues, with secondary inflammation and pain.
Term
Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with autoantibodies?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
HDN is associated with alloantibodies from the mother's bloodstream directed against the baby's red cell antigens.
Term
Which of the following factors is not involved in the initial contact phase of the intrinsic pathway:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Factor X
Fitzgerald and Fletcher Factors are required to complete activation of Factor XII during the contact phase
Term
Which of the following fungal infections is endemic in the southwestern US desert regions? Histoplasmosis Blastomycosis Coccidioidomycosis Sporotrichosis
Definition
Coccidioidomycosis is strictly endemic in the southwestern US desert regions.
The geographic distribution of blastomycosis in the United States tends to be centered more in the upper Mississippi river drainage system and adjacent tributaries.
Histoplasmosis is more concentrated in the lower Mississippi river valley and adjacent tributaries and, sporotrichosis has a broad geographic distribution, sparing only the higher western mountainous regions.
Term
Which of the following is NOT true about hybridization in PCR procedures?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Hybridization can occur between a strand of DNA and a strand of RNA.
Complementary bases link by hydrogen bonds to create the DNA double helix. The process of complementary single strands of DNA to form into double stranded DNA is called hybridization or annealing.
Term
Which of the following is a common clinical symptom that is directly related to thrombocytopenia? Shortness of breath Joint pain Petechiae Fever
Definition
If the platelet count reduces to less than 30 x 109/L, petechiae may be observed. Petechiae are small pinpoint hemorrhages that indicate bleeding from subcutaneous blood vessels into intact skin.
The remaining symptoms would not be directly related to thrombocytopenia. Shortness of breath and joint pain may occur with coagulation factor abnormalities where the bleeding is internal into deeper tissues and joints.
Fever may be present, but it would not be directly related to thrombocytopenia.
Term
Which of the following is most responsible for increasing the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR):
Definition
Increase fibrinogen is most responsible for increasing the ESR. Alpha-2, beta, and gamma globulins have a lesser effect. Albumin retards sedimentation. Cholesterol increases sedimentation, but to a lesser extent. Fibrinogen and other similar proteins decrease the zeta potential or negative charge of red cells, allowing them to come closer together, and sediment more rapidly.
Term
Which of the following is responsible for causing graft-versus-host reactions:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
lymphocytes
Graft-versus-Host reactions are caused by the engrafting of immunocompetent T lymphocytes into a severely immunosuppressed recipient. They can be prevented by gamma irradiation of cellular blood components.
Term
Which of the following is the “activation unit” in the classical complement pathway?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
The combination of complement C4, C2 and C3 that binds to the antigen-antibody complex in the initial reaction step in the classical pathway of complement activation is called the activation unit.
Term
Which of the following is true concerning atherosclerosis?
Atherosclerosis is the same as arteriosclerosis.
Atherosclerosis is the deposition of plaques containing cholesterol and lipids on the innermost layer of the walls of large and medium-sized arteries.
Atherosclerosis is the main outcome that is assessed in risk marker studies.
Most humans do not have significant atherosclerosis.
Definition
The deposition of plaques containing cholesterol and lipids on the innermost layer of the walls of large and medium-sized arteries is the defintion of atherosclerosis. Arteriosclerosis is a more general term that describes a thickening and loss of elasticity of the walls of the arteries (hardening of the arteries). Atherosclerosis is a type of arteriosclerosis but is not synonymous with it. Atherosclerosis is not the most common outcome for risk marker studies because it can be hard to measure. Infarcts, cardiac procedures, death, and 'events' are more common. Most humans have visible or measureable atherosclerosis by early middle age.
Term
Which of the following is used as an indicator of inflammation?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
C-Reactive Protein (CRP) is used as an indicator of inflammation.
RPR, or rapid plasma reagin, is a technique utilized for syphilis testing. Complement is not an indicator of inflammation; instead it plays a role in our immune system. Alpha fetoprotein is a protein made by the fetus and is also used for liver cancer screening.
Term
Which of the following kappa / lambda ratios is found in normal serum:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
The normal kappa/lambda ratio in serum is 2:1. A kappa/lambda ratio outside of 2:1 is an indication of monoclonal gammopathies.
Term
Which of the following laboratory tests of hemostatic function is a screening test used to assess the functionality of both the intrinsic and common pathways?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
aPTT
the intrinsic and common pathways can be analyzed by utilizing the aPTT test.
Term
Which of the following proteins has the FASTEST electrophoretic mobility? albumin alpha-1 globulins beta globulins gamma globulins alpha-2 globulins
Definition
The serum proteins can be separated into five fractions by serum protein electrophoresis. In order of decreasing electrophoretic mobility these fractions are the: serum albumin, alpha-1 globulins, alpha-2 globulins, beta globulins, and gamma globulins.
Term
Which of the following statements about the HBV vaccine is INCORRECT? The vaccine is effective in 90% of cases. Employers may require a fee to administer the vaccine. Side effects are rare and minimal. The vaccine is administered over a six-month period.
Definition
Employers must offer the HBV vaccine free of charge to employees.
Term
Which of the following sugars has been fermented by a gram-negative rod that has produced an alkaline slant and an acid butt on triple sugar iron agar (TSI).? lactose sucrose glucose glucose and sucrose
Definition
glucose lkaline over acid, or K/A, in TSI reactions is associated with the fermatation of glucose alone and the utilization of peptone.
Term
Which of the following tests would be used to directly document the presence of a specific organism in a clinical specimen: ELISA test Hemagglutination test Hemagglutination inhibition test Direct fluorescent antibody test
Definition
A direct fluorescent antibody test (DFA) can be used, for example, to detect antigens of Legionella, Bordetella, Neisseria, and Treponema in appropriate clinical specimens. However DFA can detect only antigens, not antibodies.
Term
Which of the following would NOT be included in a hemolytic transfusion reaction investigation? ABO/Rh check of post-transfusion sample Leukocyte antigen studies Direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on post-transfusion sample Clerical check
Definition
Leukocyte antigen studies would NOT be included in a hemolytic transfusion reaction investigation.
The remaining procedures must be performed as part of the initial reaction investigation. A post-transfusion specimen should be sent to the laboratory for work-up. A clerical check should be performed to investigate possible errors in specimen labeling, blood product issuance, or patient identification. The plasma must be examined for hemolysis. A direct antiglobulin test (DAT) must be performed. The patient's ABO, Rh, and antibody screen should be repeated and confirmed. The blood product ABO/Rh can also be confirmed.
Term
Which of the following would be considered most significant as it relates to serological testing:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Rise of antibody titers is diagnostic
Serological diagnosis of active or recent infection generally requires the demonstration of IgM antibody, or the demonstration of a fourfold rise in the titer of specific IgG antibody.
Term
Which of the following would best describe what you might observe after a traumatic CSF tap:
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Significantly more RBCs found in tube #1 vs. tube #3
Term
Which of these is NOT a Systemic Autoimmune Rheumatic Disease (SARD)?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
While multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease it is not one of the SARDs.
Term
Which of these nitrogenous bases is present in deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), but not in ribonucleic acid (RNA)?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
hymine is present in DNA, but not in RNA. Uracil is present in RNA, but not in DNA
Term
Which one of the following blood group antigens is not expressed, or only weakly expressed on cord blood cells? K Jka M Leb ABO
Definition
Newborns are phenotypically Le(a-b-).
Term
Which one of the following is not descriptive of the different branches of the immune system? Cell-Mediated Extrinsic Humoral Innate Non-specific
Definition
Cell mediated, humoral, innate, and non-specific are all branches of the immune system. Extrinsic is a branch of the coagulation cascade.
Term
Which one of the following statements concerning endocytosis is NOT TRUE?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Endocytosis is the process by which phagosomes are released by the cell to expel the macromolecules inside
The statement that is not true concerning endocytosis is, "Endocytosis is the process by which phagosomes are released by the cell to expel the macromolecules inside." This is the process known as exocytosis, which is the reverse process of endocytosis.
Endocytosis is the process by which cells absorb molecules by engulfing them. It is used by all cells of the body because most substances important to them are large polar molecules that cannot pass through the hydrophobic plasma or cell membrane.
All of the remaining answer choices are true concerning endocytosis:
Cells may employ endocytosis to ingest large polar molecules from extracellular fluid.
In endocytosis, the cell membrane extends outward until it surrounds the material that will be ingested.
Endocytosis is a natural process of intracellular digestion for nutrition.
Term
Which one of the following statements concerning phagocytosis is FALSE?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Cells do not only phagocytize bacteria, the can phagocytize other cells, cellular remnants, and other waste products as well.
Term
Which one of the following would not be considered an anatomic barrier of the innate immune system?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
T lymphocytes
Term
Which protein migrates ahead of albumin on HRE?
a. Alpha 1- globulins
b. prealbumin
c. hepatoglobin
D. Beta globulins
Definition
b. prealbumin
Term
Which real-time PCR quantification method is only effective if the amplification efficiency of both target and reference samples are equal?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
comparitice threshold method
The comparative threshold method or Ct involves comparing the Ct of samples against non-treated RNA samples. The Ct or threshold cycle is the cycle in which the fluorescence crosses the point where enough amplicons have been generated. In order for this method to be effective the amplification efficiency of both target and reference samples needs to be equal, if not the standard curve method should be used.
Term
Which two stages of cell division are the most important for reading ANAs?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Interphase and metaphase
Interphase and Metaphase is the correct answer.
While it is necessary to recognize all stages of cell division, the two most important are interphase and metaphase. In order for the ANA to be positive there must be a clearly discernible pattern in the nucleus of the interphase cells. Metaphase mitotic cells are used to assist in identification of the ANA pattern.
Term
Which type of electrophoresis is used to separate larger DNA fragments (>50 kb)? electroimmunoassay electrophoresis capillary electrophoresis isoelectric focusing pulsed field electrophoresis
Definition
Fragments of DNA > 50 kb will not separate in most types of electrophoresis due to their large size. Special techniques are required; pulsed field electrophoresis is one type of electrophoresis that will separate these larger fragments.
Term
Why are ANA positive samples titered?
More than one answer is correct.
To determine just how ill the patient is. To determine how much antibody is present in the sample. To look for multiple ANA patterns.
Definition
There are two main reasons for titering ANA samples: to determine the amount of antibody present and to look for multiple ANA patterns.
In the case of ANA testing the titer does not reflect disease severity. The higher the titer the more likely the patient has one of the systemic autoimmune rheumatic diseases (SARDs), however, titer levels do not necessarily change with disease activity or severity.
Often one ANA pattern will mask over, or hide, another pattern. Titering can facilitate the detection of multiple patterns, alerting the clinician to possible disease associations and relevant follow-up testing.
Term
Wilson's Disease is described as
A. excess storage of copper in organs
B. decreased amounts of glucose in blood
c. decreased absorption of copper
Definition
excess storage of copper in organs
Term
Within the kidneys, the _____ reabsorb potassium
a. distal convoluted tubules
b. extra cellular fluid
c. loop of henle
d. proximal convoluted tubules
Definition
d. proximal convoluted tubules
Term
Within the kidneys, the ______ secrete potassium
a. distal convoluted tubules
b. extra cellular fluid
c. loop of henle
d. proximal convoluted tubules
Definition
. distal convoluted tubules
Term
Yaws
Definition
Treponema pertenue
Term
Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome
Definition
excess gastrin excess HCl production
Term
___ is an enzyme that converts soluble fibrinogen into soluble fibrin
a. amylase
b. coagulase
c. DNase
d. catalase
Definition
coagulase
Term
____ is a protein synthesized in the liver and is an acute phase reactant. Its function is to form a fibrin clot
Definition
fibrinogen
Term
____ is an alpha 1-globulin that is synthesized by the yolk sac and liver and protects the fetus from immulogic attack
A. allpha-fetoprotein
B. Alpha 1 Glycoprotein
C. Alpha- lipoprotein
D. Ceruloplasmin
Definition
A. allpha-fetoprotein
Term
____ is the final breakdown product of purine metabolism in humans
Definition
uric acid
Term
____ protein function is to act as a opsonin facilitating phagocytosis
Definition
c-reactive
Term
_____ are products of incomplete fat breakdown
a. cuproc ions
b. ketones
c. creatine
d. glycosylated hemoglobin
Definition
ketones
Term
_____ cofactors are activators. Calcium, iron, and magnesium are examples.
a. organic
b. inorganic
Definition
inorganic
Term
_____ is NOT an enzyme deficiency. It is caused by an amino acid transport system defect which leads to an accumulation of cysteine
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Tyrosinemia
C. Alkapotonuria
D. cystinuria
Definition
D. cystinuria
Term
_____ is a copper staining protein that is an acute phase reactanting Alpha 2 globulin.
A. Hepatoglobin
B. Transferrin
C. Ceruloplasmin
Definition
Ceruloplasmin
Term
_____ is the final breakdown product of purine metabolism in other mammals
a. ammonia
b. uric acid
c. creatinine
d. allantoin
Definition
allantoin
Term
_____ is the only hormone that decreases glucose
a. glucagon
b. epinephrine
c. insulin
d. cortisol
Definition
insulin
Term
_____ metabolizes to metanephrine which is metabolized to VMA
a. dopamine
b. norepinephrine
c. epinephrine
d. thyroxine
Definition
epinephrine
Term
_____ migrates ahead of albumin on HRE
Definition
pre albumin
Term
_____ viruses transcribe RNA to DNA
A. Rhinovirus
B. Hantavirus
C. Retrovirus
D. Ocovirnae
Definition
Retrovirus
Term
______ are the breakdown products of nucleic acid catabolism && allantoin is the final breakdown product of ______ metabolism in other mammals
Definition
purine
Term
______ catalyzes the breakdown of starch and glycogen into monosaccharides
Definition
amylase
Term
______ cofactors are coenzymes
a. organic
b. inorganic
Definition
organic
Term
______ is a copper staining, Alpha- 2-globulin protein synthesized in the liver with its function consisting of peroxidase activity
Definition
ceruloplasmin
Term
______ is a glucorticoid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex and regulates glucose
A. Calcitonin
B. glucagon
C. Cortisol
D. Insulin
Definition
cortisol
Term
______ is a hormone that causes secretion of HCl in stomach
Definition
gastrin
Term
______ test is used to detect reducing sugars in the urine
Definition
clintest
Term
_______ is performed to determine the cause of hypoglycemia
a. clintest
b. western blot
c. c-peptide testing
d. glucose dehydrogenase enzyme test
Definition
c-peptide testing
Term
_______ is synthesized in the liver during protein catabolism and is a major excretory product of protein metabolism
a. monosodium urate b. creatinine c. ammonia d. uria
Definition
urea
Term
_______ reagent is used in clintest copper reduction
a. biuret
b. benedicts
c. rickets
d. hexokinase
Definition
benedicts
Term
_______ reagent is used in the Clintest test. ________ reagent is an alkaline copper solution
Definition
benedicts
Term
________ Is an enzyme difficiency of tyrosine aminotransferase which leads to ana ccumulation of tyrosine
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Tyrosinemia
C. Alkapotonuria
D. cystinuria
Definition
B. Tyrosinemia
Term
________ are products of incomplete fat breakdown that has 3 bodies 1. acetone 2. acetoacetic acid 3. B hydroxybutyric acid sodium nitroprusside is the reagent used to measure this carbohydrate
Definition
ketone
Term
________ is an enzyme deficiency of homogenistic oxidase which leads to an accumulation of homogenistic acid
note: the urine darkens upon standing
Definition
Alkapeonuria
Term
________ is an enzyme deficiency of homogenistic oxidase which leads to an accumulation of homogenistic acid.
Noteworthy: the urine darkens upon standing
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Tyrosinemia
C. Alkapotonuria
D. cystinuria
Definition
C. Alkapotonuria
Term
________ is an enzyme deficiency of phenylalanine hydrolase which leads to an accumulation of phenylalanine hydrolase in the blood and phenylpyruvic acid in urine.
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Tyrosinemia
C. Alkapotonuria
D. cystinuria
Definition
A. Phenylketonuria
Term
________ is an enzyme deficiency of tyrosine aminotransferase which leads to an accumulation of tyrosine
Definition
Tyrosinemia
Term
_________ is an enzyme deficiency of phenylalanine hydrolase which leads to an accumulating of phenylalanine hydrolase in the blood & phenylpyruvic acid in urine
Definition
Phenylketonuria
Term
_________ kinetics occurs when the reaction rate is directly proportional to the substrate concentrate
Definition
first- order kinetics
Term
__________ is characterized by increased amounts of ammonia in children that is associated with salicylate ingestion and is frequently preceded by a viral infection
Definition
Reyes Syndrome
Term
___________ kinetics occurs when the reaction rate depends on the enzyme concentration
Definition
zero order kinetics
Term
____________ is a large protein, synthesized in the liver and it inhibits trypsin, thrombin, and plasmin
Definition
Alpha-2-Macroglobulin
Term
a Bilirubin detecting reagent strip utilizes
diazo reaction
biuret
griess's reaction
p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde (Ehrlich)
Definition
diazo reaction
Term
a CNS amoeba with a clinical significance of promary ameobic meningoencephalitis
Entamoeba histolytica
Blastocystits hominis
Endolimax nana
Naegleria floweri
Definition
Naegleria floweri
Term
a GI amoeba whose cyst phase consists of a splinter shaped chromatoidal body-- has a clinical significance of amebiasis
Entamoeba histolytica
Entamoeba coli
Endolimax nana
Entamoeba hartmanni
Definition
Entamoeba coli
Term
a GI amoeba with sausage shaped chromatoidal bodies in cyst's cytoplasm and a clinical significance of amebic dysentery
Entamoeba histolytica
Entamoeba coli
Endolimax nana
Entamoeba hartmanni
Definition
Entamoeba histolytica
Term
a central nervous system amoeba that infects a person when a trophozoite enters through a nasal passage and causes meningoencephalitis iodamoeba butschii chilomastic menili Naegleria floweri
Definition
Naegleria floweri
Term
a dimorphic fungi associated with Darling's disease very common infectious disease spores found in high concentration of chicken houses, caves inhibited by bats, starling roots, and peigon coops
A. blastomyces dermatitidis
B. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
C. Coccidioides immitis
D. Histoplasma Capsulatum
Definition
Histoplasma capsulatum
Term
a dimorphic fungi associated with Gilchrist's disease
A. blastomyces dermatitidis
B. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
C. Coccidioides immitis
D. Histoplasma Capsulatum
Definition
blastomyces dermatitidis
Term
a federal law that defines the minimum wage, over time, and other requirements related to how certain empolyees are to be paid
TSCA
FLSA
RCRA
EEOC
Definition
FLSA
fair labor standards act
Term
a hormone secreted from the adrenal medulla that produces catecholamines-- metabolized to metanephrine which is metabolized to vanillymandelic acid (VMA)
Definition
Epinephrine
Term
a hormone secreted from the adrenal medulla that produces catecholamines-- metabolized to normethanephrine which is metabolized to vanillymandelic acid (VMA)
Definition
norepinephrine
Term
a long chain polyunsaturated fatty acids
a. glycolipids
b. prostaglandins
c. apolipoproteins
d. phospolipids
Definition
prostaglandins
Term
a parasitic flagellate that infects when a cyst is ingested through contaminated water Giardia lambilia trichomonad vaginalis Naegleria floweri
Definition
Giardia lambilia
Term
a parasitic infection obtained when ingestion of oocysts occurs through undercooked pork or cleaning of kitty litter. causes toxoplasmosis but is typically asymptomatic cryptosporidium parvum Naegleria floweri Taxoplasma gondii
Definition
Taxoplasma gondii
Term
a plasmodium parasite that is spread through ingestion of oocysts in fecal contaminated food or water and causes cryptosporidiosis
Guardia lambilia
cryptosporidium parvum
Naegleria floweri
Definition
cryptosporidium parvum
Term
a single complete infectious unit
a. viron
b. dna
c. rna
d. illness
Definition
viron
Term
a single complete infectious unit (particle
Definition
viron
Term
achlorhydria
Definition
excess gastrin no HCl production
Term
adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is produced by
a. beta cells of islets of langerhans
b. alpha cell of the pancreas
c. adrenal medulla
d. adrenal cortex
e. anterior pituitary
f. thyroid gland
g. delta cells of the pancreas
Definition
anterior pituitary
Term
advantages of ______ donation: decrease in transfusion- transmitted infectious agents prevention of alloimmunization provides comparable blood for patients with rare blood groups or antibodies disadvantages: contamination during processing preoperative anemia inconvenience, waster, and increased cost blood may be transfused unnecessarily
Definition
autologous
Term
alpha-1- antitrypsin is an __________ reactant
Definition
acute phase reactant
Term
alpha-fetoprotein is synthesized in
Definition
the liver & by the yolk sac
Term
amphitrichous
Definition
single flagella at each pole
Term
amplifies tiny quantities of nucleic acid so that is can be detected by hybridization with nucleic acid probes
A. PCR
B. ELISA
C. EIA
D. RPR
Definition
PCR
Term
anerobes that grown in the presence of limited oxygen
anarobes
obligate
facultative
aerotolerant
capnophile
Definition
facultative
Term
are filled and allowed to drain by gravity.
A. Transfer/ Volumetric pipette
B. Measuring/ graduated pipette
C. To Contain pipette
D. To deliver pipette
E. Blow out pipette
Definition
D. To deliver pipette
Term
are high speed centrifuges (up to 150,000 rpm). a small air deiven________ has been used to separate cholymicrons from serum.
A. Tabletop centrifuges
B. Microcentrifuges
C. high-speed centrifuges
D. Ultracentrifuges
Definition
ultracentrifuges
Term
are primarily used in the clinical laboratory to separate cells from serum or plasma
A. Tabletop centrifuges
B. Microcentrifuges
C. high-speed centrifuges
D. Ultracentrifuges
Definition
tabletop centrifuges
Term
are small centrifuges used to centrifuges small, plastic, conical-shaped containeds with an intergral snap cap
A. Tabletop centrifuges
B. Microcentrifuges
C. high-speed centrifuges
D. Ultracentrifuges
Definition
microcentrifuges
Term
are uniform in diameter with a tapered delivery tip
A. Transfer/ Volumetric pipette
B. Measuring/ graduated pipette
C. To Contain pipette
D. To deliver pipette
E. Blow out pipette
Definition
measuring/ graduated pipette
Term
aspirin ingestion is a reason for a 3 day deferral, 2 week deferral, 4 week deferral, 6 week deferral, 8 week deferral, 6 month deferral, 12 month deferral, permanent deferral, 3 year deferral
Definition
3 day
Term
asymptomatic HIV infection
A. Category A
B. Category B
C. Category C
Definition
a
Term
asymptomatic after diagnosis of malaria soeiatane are reasons for 3 day deferral, 2 week deferral, 4 week deferral, 6 week deferral, 8 week deferral, 6 month deferral, 12 month deferral, permanent deferral, 3 year deferral in regards to blood donation
Definition
3 year
Term
at pH 8.6, all proteins carry a net (positive or negative) charge
Definition
negative
Term
atrichous
Definition
NO FLAGELLA
Term
babesiosis is associated with
Trichomanas vaginalis
Babesia microti
cryptosporidium parvum
Plasmodium falciparum
Definition
Babesia microti
Term
beef tapeworm
Definition
Taenia saginata
Term
beef tapeworm
Schistosoma japonicum
Diphyllobothrium latum
Taenia saginata
Fasciola buski
Definition
Taenia saginata
Term
bicarbonate is regulated by
a. lungs
b. kidneys
c. heart
d. thyroid
Definition
kidneys
Term
bile duct obstruction is an example of
pre-hepatic jaundice
hepatic jaundice
post-hepatic jaundice
Definition
post hepatic jaundice
Term
broad fish tapeworm
Schistosoma japonicum
Diphyllobothrium latum
Fasciola hepatica
Fasciola buski
Definition
Diphyllobothrium latum
Term
calcium and ______ are inversely proportional
Definition
phosphorous
Term
cannot grow in the presence of atmospheric oxygen
anarobes
obligate
facultative
aerotolerant
capnophile
Definition
obligate
Term
carbon dioxide is regulated by
a. kidneys
b. lungs
c. heart
d. adrenal medulla
Definition
lungs
Term
caused by "true yeast" spread via inhalation of spores into solid from bird droppings-- pneumonia like sickness. specimen obtained from CSF cryptococcus neoformans cancidia albicans pseudallescheria boydii
Definition
cryptococcus neoformans
Term
caused by dimorphic fungi associated with southern american blastomycosis
A. Microsporum canis
B. Piedra hortae
C. paracoccididioides brastiliensis
D.Tricophyton Verrucosum
Definition
paracoccididioides brastiliensis
Term
caused by yeast like fungi cryptococcus neoformans cancidia albicans pseudallescheria boydii
Definition
cancidia albicans
Term
caused by yeast like fungi-- possess characteristic "hockey stick" germ tubes that project from corner
cancidia albicans
cryptococcus neoformans
geotrichum candidum
pseudallescheria boydii
Definition
Geotrichumcandidum
Term
chicken pox
Definition
varicella-zoster virus
Term
chineese liver fluke
Schistosoma japonicum
paragonimus westermani
clonorchis sinensis
Fasciola buski
Definition
clonorchis sinensis
Term
cholesterol is synthesized in the
a. kidney
b. liver
c. lung
d. ear
Definition
liver
Term
cold loving organism
optimum
psychrophilic
mesophilic
thermophilic
Definition
psychrophilic
Term
cold-- is used to stain acid fast organisms in tissue
Definition
Kinyoun acid fast stain
Term
colony morphology: colonies are grey to white, translucent, round and convex-- either alpha-hemolytic or non hemolytic
gram stain: gram positive cocci that appear in chains
biochemical identification: calatase -, bile esculin +, PYR -,
Clinical significance: normal oral and fecal flora, wound infections, UTI, absesses
A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Streptococcus agalaciae C. Streptococcus pnemoniae D. Streptococcus equinis
Definition
D. Streptococcus equinis
Term
colony morphology: colonies are medium-size, flat and creamy-- pinpoint zone of beta hemolysis
gram stain: gram positive cocci appears in chains or pairs
A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Streptococcus agalaciae C. Streptococcus pnemoniae D. Streptococcus equinis
Definition
C. Streptococcus pnemoniae
Term
composed of three fat acids & glycerol-- broken down by lipase
Definition
triglycerides
Term
conclusion of pregnancy is reason for a 3 day deferral, 2 week deferral, 4 week deferral, 6 week deferral, 8 week deferral, 6 month deferral, 12 month deferral, permanent deferral, 3 year deferral in regards to blood donation
Definition
6 week
Term
congenital syphillis
Definition
Treponema pallidum
Term
contain a polar hydrophillic and a nonpolar hydrophobic fatty acid
a. glycolipids
b. prostaglandins
c. apolipoproteins
d. phospolipids
Definition
phospolipids
Term
conversion of glucose to glycogen
glycogenesis
glycolysis
glucogenesis
glycogenolysis
Definition
glycogenesis
Term
cortisol is produced by
a. beta cells of islets of langerhans
b. alpha cell of the pancreas
c. adrenal medulla
d. adrenal cortex
e. anterior pituitary
f. thyroid gland
g. delta cells of the pancreas
Definition
adrenal cortex
Term
costs that change with production vaule is defined as
prime costs
fixed costs
conversion costs
variable costs
Definition
variable cost
Term
costs that must be incurred jjust to keep the lab operational is defined as
prime costs
ready to serve costs
conversion costs
variable costs
Definition
ready to serve costs
Term
creatinine is proportional to the infividuals
a. body mass
b. muscle mass
c. blood pressure
Definition
muscle mass
Term
decreased amounts of glucose in blood is a characteristic of
a. Gierke's disease
b. Reye's syndrome
c. tanger disease
d. griess's reaction
Definition
Gierke's disease
Term
deferral period mandated between donations 3 day deferral, 2 week deferral, 4 week deferral, 6 week deferral, 8 week deferral, 6 month deferral, 12 month deferral, permanent deferral, 3 year deferral in regards to blood donation
Definition
8 week
Term
delta cells of the pancreatic islets produce
Definition
somatostatin
Term
dimorphic fungi associated with San Joaquin Valley Fever
Nocardia brasiliensis Coccidioides immitis Nocardia asteroides Piedraia hortai
Definition
Coccidioides immitis
Term
dog tapeworm
Hemenolepis nana
Hemenolepis diminuta
Taenia saginata
Echinoococcus granulosus
Definition
Echinoococcus granulosus
Term
donation for a specific patient
Definition
directed donor
Term
donation for self use
Definition
autologous
Term
donation that is separated into several components
Definition
aphaeresis
Term
dwarf tapeworm
Hemenolepis nana
Diphyllobothrium latum
Taenia saginata
Taneia solium
Definition
Hemenolepis nana
Term
electrons illuminate a specimen and create an enlarged image.
A. Bright field microscopy
B. Dark-field microscopy
C. electron microscopy
D. Flouresncet microscopy
E. Phase contrast microscopy
F. Polorized microscopy
Definition
electron microscope
Term
epinephrine is produced by
a. beta cells of islets of langerhans
b. alpha cell of the pancreas
c. adrenal medulla
d. adrenal cortex
e. anterior pituitary
f. thyroid gland
g. delta cells of the pancreas
Definition
adrenal medulla
Term
estrogen (lowers/ elevates) LDL
Definition
lowers
Term
eye worm
Definition
loa loa
Term
flagella all over
atrichous
monotrichious
amphitrichious
lophotrichious
peritrichious
Definition
peritrichious
Term
flagellate responsible for African Sleeping sickness
Chilomastic mesnili
Trichomanas vaginalis
Trypanosoma
Naegleria floweri
Definition
Trypanosoma
Term
flagellate that infects through sandflies and other insect vectors
Chilomastic mesnili
Trichomanas vaginalis
Trypanosoma
Leishmania
Definition
Leishmania
Term
fluorochrome -- acid fast bacilli appear yellow orange
Definition
Auramine-Rhodamine
Term
food poisoning
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
C. Vibrio vulnificus
D. Vibrio alginolyticus
Definition
B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Term
full blown aids
A. Category A
B. Category B
C. Category C
Definition
c
Term
gamma-globulin involved in primary response what is a cold reacting antibody
Definition
IgM
Term
gamma-globulin that is a pentamer
Definition
IgM
Term
genome, DNA or RNA
a. nucleocapsid
b. envelope
c. nucleic adid
d. capsomere
Definition
nucleic acid
Term
german measeles
Definition
Rubella Virus
Term
german measels
a. eastern equine encephalitis
b. rhinovirus
c. rubella
d. western equine encephilitis
Definition
rubella
Term
giant/ bizzarre platelets may be present
acute megakaryocytic leukemia
essential idiopathic thrombocythemia
polycythemia vera
abnormal distribution
Definition
essential idiopathic thrombocythemia
Term
gives the EPA the authority to control hazardous waste from the "cradle-to-grave". This includes the generation, transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous waste
TSCA
ADA
RCRA
EEOC
Definition
RCRA
Resource Concervation & recovery Act
Term
glucagon is produced by
a. beta cells of islets of langerhans
b. alpha cell of the pancreas
c. adrenal medulla
d. adrenal cortex
e. anterior pituitary
f. thyroid gland
g. delta cells of the pancreas
Definition
alpha cells of the pancreas
Term
glucose is stored as ________ in the liver
Definition
glycogen
Term
glycogen synthesis
glycogenesis
glycolysis
glucogenesis
glycogenolysis
Definition
glycogenesis
Term
glycogen synthesis; conversion of glucose to glycogen
Definition
glycogenesis
Term
gram positive, aerobic bacilli
colony morphology: small, white colonies with narrow zone of beta- hemolysis on blood agar at 37oC
clinical significance: normal vaginal flora, meningitis
A. Bacillus anthracis B. Bacillus cereus C. Listeria monocytogenes D. corynebacterium diptheriae E. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae F. Nocardia asteroids G. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
Definition
C. Listeria monocytogenes
Term
group b strep
Definition
Streptococcus agalaciae
Term
group d strep
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus agalaciae
C. Streptococcus pnemoniae
D. Streptococcus equinis
Definition
D. Streptococcus equinis
Term
grow in the presence of atmospheric (free) oxygen
anarobes
obligate
facultative
aerotolerant
capnophile
Definition
anarobes
Term
grows best at 35-35oC
optimum
psychrophilic
mesophilic
thermophilic
Definition
mesophilic
Term
growth hormones are produced by
a. beta cells of islets of langerhans
b. alpha cell of the pancreas
c. adrenal medulla
d. adrenal cortex
e. anterior pituitary
f. thyroid gland
g. delta cells of the pancreas
Definition
anterior pituitary
Term
growth is inhanced by increased CO2
anarobes
obligate
facultative
aerotolerant
capnophile
Definition
capnophile
Term
have a bulb in the middle of the pipette with a tapered delivery tip.
A. Transfer/ Volumetric pipette
B. Measuring/ graduated pipette
C. To Contain pipette
D. To deliver pipette
E. Blow out pipette
Definition
A. Transfer/ Volumetric pipette
Term
heat loving organism
optimum
psychrophilic
mesophilic
thermophilic
Definition
thermophilic
Term
hemolysis (does or does not) interfere with ALT
Definition
does not
Term
hemolytic disease is associated with
pre-hepatic jaundice
hepatic jaundice
post-hepatic jaundice
Definition
pre hepatic jaundice
Term
hemophiliacs, AIDS, HIV, Hepatitis after age 11 patients have a donation deferral period of 3 day deferral, 2 week deferral, 4 week deferral, 6 week deferral, 8 week deferral, 6 month deferral, 12 month deferral, permanent deferral, 3 year deferral in regards to blood donation
Definition
permanent deferral
Term
hepatitis virus that involves DNA
A
B
C
D
Definition
B
Term
hot-- acid fast bacteria stain red and retain purple dye (carbolfuschsin) methylene blue is counter stain
Definition
Diehl-Neelsen acid fast stain
Term
how is Von Willebrand's disease treated?
fresh frozen plasma
platelet transfusion, splenomegaly, and corticosteroids
plasmapharesis
DDAVP & cryoprecipated AHF
Definition
DDAVP & cryoprecipated AHF
Term
how is idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura treated?
fresh frozen plasma
platelet transfusion, splenomegaly, and corticosteroids
plasmapharesis
DDAVP & cryoprecipated AHF
Definition
platelet transfusion, splenomegaly, and corticosteroids
Term
how is thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura treated?
fresh frozen plasma
platelet transfusion, splenomegaly, and corticosteroids
plasmapharesis
DDAVP & cryoprecipated AHF
Definition
plasmapharesis
Term
human oncogenetic retrovirus that causes adult T-Cell leukemia/ lymphoma that can be aquired from semen or blood cells
A. HIV
B. HTLV1
C. HTLV2
D. HSV
Definition
HTLV1
Term
hyperthyroidism is associated with
a. graves disease
b. hashimotos disease
c. cushings
d. addison's disease
Definition
a. graves disease
Term
hypocortisolism- decreased cortisol production is associated with
a. graves disease
b. hashimotos disease
c. cushings
d. addison's disease
Definition
d. addison's disease
Term
hypothyroidism is associated with
a. graves disease
b. hashimotos disease
c. cushings
d. addison's disease
Definition
b. hashimotos disease
Term
improving the contrast of unstained, transparent specimens. Uses a carefully aligned light source to minimize the quality of directly transmitted (unscattered) light entering the image plane, collecting only the light scattered by the sample
A. Bright field microscopy B. Dark-field microscopy C. electron microscopy D. Flouresncet microscopy E. Phase contrast microscopy F. Polorized microscopy
Definition
dark field microscopy
Term
in acute myocardial infarction AST begins to rise within_____ hours/ days. (4-8 hours, 6-8 hours, 24 hours, 12-24 hours, 48-72 hours, 5, days 10 days)
in acute myocardial infarction AST returns to normal within_____ hours/ days. (4-8 hours, 6-8 hours, 24 hours, 12-24 hours, 48-72 hours, 5, days 10 days)
Definition
5 days
Term
in acute myocardial infarction CKMB begins to rise within_____ hours/ days. (4-8 hours, 6-8 hours, 24 hours, 12-24 hours, 48-72 hours, 5, days 10 days)
Definition
4-8 hours
Term
in acute myocardial infarction CKMB peaks _____ hours/ days. (4-8 hours, 6-8 hours, 24 hours, 12-24 hours, 48-72 hours, 5, days 10 days)
Definition
12-24 hours
Term
in acute myocardial infarction CKMB returns to normal within_____ hours/ days. (4-8 hours, 6-8 hours, 24 hours, 12-24 hours, 48-72 hours, 5, days 10 days)
Definition
48-72 hours
Term
in acute myocardial infarction LD begins to rise within_____ hours/ days. (4-8 hours, 6-8 hours, 24 hours, 12-24 hours, 48-72 hours, 5, days 10 days)
Definition
12-24 hours
Term
in acute myocardial infarction LD peaks at _____ hours/days. ((4-8 hours, 6-8 hours, 24 hours, 12-24 hours, 48-72 hours, 5, days 10 days)
Definition
48-72 hours
Term
in acute myocardial infarction LD returns to normal within_____ hours/days. (4-8 hours, 6-8 hours, 24 hours, 12-24 hours, 48-72 hours, 5, days 10 days)
Definition
10 days
Term
in urinalysis, a protein reagent strip measures
a. ketones
b. albumin
c. glucose
d. pH
Definition
albumin
Term
increase platelets is normal response to blood loss (surgery)
reactive thrombocytosis
acute megakaryocytic leukemia
essential idiopathic thrombocythemia
polycythemia vera
abnormal distribution
Definition
reactive thrombocytosis
Term
increased cortisol production is associated with
a. graves disease
b. hashimotos disease
c. cushings
d. addison's disease
Definition
c. cushings
Term
increased glucose in blood
Definition
hyperglycemia
Term
increased glucose in urine
Definition
glucosuria
Term
increased glucose in urine
a. hyperglycemia
b. glucosuria
c. ketonemia
d. ketonuria
Definition
glucosuria
Term
increased ketones in blood
Definition
ketonemia
Term
increased ketones in blood
a. hyperglycemia
b. glucosuria
c. ketonemia
d. ketonuria
Definition
ketonemia
Term
increased ketones in urine
Definition
ketonuria
Term
increased ketones in urine
a. hyperglycemia
b. glucosuria
c. ketonemia
d. ketonuria
Definition
ketonuria
Term
inorganic cofactor
Definition
activators
Term
insulin is produced by
a. beta cells of islets of langerhans
b. alpha cell of the pancreas
c. adrenal medulla
d. adrenal cortex
e. anterior pituitary
f. thyroid gland
g. delta cells of the pancreas
Definition
a. beta cells of islets of langerhans
Term
insulin secreting tumor
Definition
insulinoma
Term
intestinal flagellate responsible for traveler's diarehha
Entamoeba histolytica
Blastocystits hominis
Giardia lambilia
Naegleria floweri
Definition
Giardia lambilia
Term
intestinal roundworm
Definition
ascaris lumbricoides
Term
iron is stored as ____ in tissue
Definition
hemosiderin
Term
is a complex of three proteins found in striated cardiac muscles (TnT, Tnl, TnC)
Definition
Troponin
Term
is a four fold or greater rise in antibody titer between paired acute and convalescent sera documents a recent infection
strand displacement amplification
IgG testing
IgM testing
indirect method
Definition
IgG
Term
is a nonprotein molecule necessary for enzyme activity
Definition
cofactor
Term
is a numan oncogenetic retrovirus that causes adult T-Cell leukemia/ lymphoma (ATLL or ATL) Can be acquired from semen or blood cells
Definition
HTLV-1
Term
is a platelet dysfunction of glycoprotein IIB/ IIIa defect
may- hegglin anomaly
von willebrand's disease
glanzmann's thrombashenia
gray platelet syndrome
Definition
glanzmann's thrombashenia
Term
is a preservative that is a substrate for RBC ATP synthesis
citrate
adenine
phosphorous
dextrose
Definition
adenine
Term
is a preservative that prevents an excessive drop in pH
Definition
phosphate
Term
is a preservative that supports ATP generation by glycolysis
A. phosphate
B. adenine
C. citrate
D. Dextrose
Definition
dextrose
Term
is a product of hemoglobin degradation
a. proteins
b. ketones
c. bilirubin
d. nitrite
Definition
bilirubin
Term
is a retrovirus associated with hairy cell leukemia and predominantly infects CD+8 Lymphocytes
Definition
HTLV II
Term
is a storage pool disease with abnormal platelet function and aggregation
may- hegglin anomaly
von willebrand's disease
glanzmann's thrombashenia
gray platelet syndrome
Definition
gray platelet syndrome
Term
is an ADAMTS13 deficiency
heparin induced thrombocytopenia
bernard soilier syndrome
thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura
idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura
Definition
thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura
Term
is an anticoagulant that prevent coagulation by chelating calcium
adenine
phosphorous
citrate
dextrose
Definition
citrate
Term
is an autosomal dominant disease characterized by abnormal platelet adhesion- factor 8 deficiency
may- hegglin anomaly
von willebrand's disease
glanzmann's thrombashenia
gray platelet syndrome
Definition
von willebrand's disease
Term
is an autosomal dominant inheritance with dohle-like inclusions in the cytoplasm of neutrophils
bernard-coulier syndrome
may- hegglin anomaly
von willebrand's disease
glanzmann's thrombashenia
Definition
may- hegglin anomaly
Term
is an inactive form of an enzyme
Definition
proenzyme
Term
is produced by the adrenal cortex and regulates glucose
a. calcitonin
b. T3
c. cortisol
d. androgens
Definition
cortisol
Term
is reaponsible for regulating and ensuring the safe and secure movement of hazardous materials to industry and consumers by all modes of transportation (including pipeline)
TSCA
ADA
RCRA
PHMSA
Definition
PHMSA
pipeline and hazardous materials saftey administration
Term
is the most specific enzyme reacting only with B-D-Glucose. assay measures the change in absorbance which is proportional to the amount of glucose in the sample
A. Ketoglutarate
B. Glucose oxidase
C. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
D. gluterase
Definition
glucose Oxidase
Term
is the simplest of all light microscopy techniques
A. Bright field microscopy
B. Dark-field microscopy
C. electron microscopy
D. Flouresncet microscopy
E. Phase contrast microscopy
F. Polorized microscopy
Definition
Bright field
Term
ketones are break down products of
a. glucose
b. purines
c. lipids
d. potassium
Definition
lipids
Term
labor and materials costs that are necessary to produce a billable resultare defined as
prime costs
fixed costs
conversion costs
variable costs
Definition
prime costs
Term
lactate is regulated by
Definition
the liver
Term
lactose is
a. glucose+ glucose
b. glucose+ galactose
c. glucose + fructose
d. glucose + starch
Definition
glucose+ galactose
Term
large intestinal fluke
Schistosoma japonicum
paragonimus westermani
Fasciola hepatica
Fasciola buski
Definition
Fasciola buski
Term
largest immunoglobulin
Definition
IgM
Term
least abundant immunoglobulin
Definition
IgE
Term
leprosy
A. Addison's disease
B. Von Willebrand Disease
C. Hansen disease
D. Willson's disease
Definition
Hansen disease
Term
light is provided from the bottom and is transmitted through the thing section of birefringent specimen on a microscope slide
A. Bright field microscopy
B. Dark-field microscopy
C. electron microscopy
D. Flouresncet microscopy
E. Phase contrast microscopy
F. Polorized microscopy
Definition
polorized microscopy
Term
liver damage is an indication of
pre-hepatic jaundice
hepatic jaundice
post-hepatic jaundice
Definition
hepatic jaundice
Term
loa loa is transmitted by
ingestion of larvae
deer fly
black fly
tstest fly
Definition
deer fly
Term
lysis of glycogen to glucose for use as an energy source
glycogenesis
glycolysis
glucogenesis
glycogenolysis
Definition
glycogenolysis
Term
malaria thats transmitted by mosquitos is associated with
Chilomastic mesnili
Trichomanas vaginalis
Plasmodium vivax
Leishmania
Definition
Plasmodium vivax
Term
maltose is
a. glucose+ glucose
b. glucose+ galactose
c. glucose + fructose
d. glucose + starch
Definition
glucose+ glucose
Term
measles, mumps, polio, typhoid, yellow fever are reasons for a 3 day deferral, 2 week deferral, 4 week deferral, 6 week deferral, 8 week deferral, 6 month deferral, 12 month deferral, permanent deferral, 3 year deferral in regards to blood donation
Definition
2 week
Term
measure the appearance of glucose produced
a. amyloclastic
b. saccharogenic
c. chromogenic
d. chronometric
Definition
b. saccharogenic
Term
measures the amount of time to the end point
a. amyloclastic
b. saccharogenic
c. chromogenic
d. chronometric
Definition
. chronometric
Term
measures the color produced couples to a dye
a. amyloclastic
b. saccharogenic
c. chromogenic
d. chronometric
Definition
c. chromogenic
Term
measures the dissapearance of starch
a. amyloclastic
b. saccharogenic
c. chromogenic
d. chronometric
Definition
a. amyloclastic
Term
megakaroblasts are seen in the PBS
reactive thrombocytosis
acute megakaryocytic leukemia
essential idiopathic thrombocythemia
polycythemia vera
abnormal distribution
Definition
acute megakaryocytic leukemia
Term
metabolism of glucose to lactic acid for energy
Definition
glycolysis
Term
metabolism of glucose to lactic acid for energy
glycogenesis
glycolysis
glucogenesis
glycogenolysis
Definition
glycolysis
Term
metabolized to HVA
a. dopamine
b. norepinephrine
c. epinephrine
d. thyroxine
Definition
dopamine
Term
metabolized to normethanephrone which is metabolized to VMA
a. dopamine
b. norepinephrine
c. epinephrine
d. thyroxine
Definition
b. norepinephrine
Term
method for making platelets is characterized by collecting from a single donor and is equivalent to 4-6 random platelets
Definition
aphaeresis
Term
monotrichious
Definition
single flagella at one pole
Term
most abundant cation in the extra cellular fluid
Definition
sodium
Term
most abundant immunoglobin
Definition
IgG
Term
most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis
Definition
Streptococcus Pyrogenes
Term
most common etiological agent for the common cold
a. kobuvirus
b. Rhinovirus
c. Hepatovirus
d. Saprovirus
Definition
Rhinovirus
Term
most common tapeworm in US
Hemenolepis nana
Diphyllobothrium latum
Taenia saginata
Taneia solium
Definition
Hemenolepis nana
Term
most commonly acquired spirochete disease in the US
Definition
Treponema pallidum
Term
most uric acid in plasma is present as
a. uric acid
b. monosodium urate
c. alkaline picrate
d. phosphototungstic acid
Definition
b. monosodium urate
Term
most uric acid in plasma is present as ________ urate. _______ Urate precipitates in acid urine as uric acid crystals
Definition
monosodium urate
Term
must be rinsed with appropriate solvent after the initial liquid has been drained from these pipets
A. Transfer/ Volumetric pipette
B. Measuring/ graduated pipette
C. To Contain pipette
D. To deliver pipette
E. Blow out pipette
Definition
to contain
Term
name the Lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme associated with the tissue source: erythrocytes
a. LD1/LD2
b. LD3
c. LD4
d. LD5
Definition
LD1/ LD2
Term
name the Lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme associated with the tissue source: heart
a. LD1/LD2
b. LD3
c. LD4
d. LD5
Definition
LD1/LD2
Term
name the Lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme associated with the tissue source: liver
a. LD1/LD2
b. LD3
c. LD4
d. LD5
Definition
LD4
Term
name the Lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme associated with the tissue source: lung
a. LD1/LD2
b. LD3
c. LD4
d. LD5
Definition
LD3
Term
name the Lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme associated with the tissue source: skeletal muscle
a. LD1/LD2
b. LD3
c. LD4
d. LD5
Definition
LD5
Term
nitrite is measured in urine with
diazo reaction
biuret
griess's reaction
clintest
Definition
griess's reaction
Term
no flagella
atrichous
monotrichious
amphitrichious
lophotrichious
peritrichious
Definition
atrichous
Term
on a color coded saftey square whad does yellow stand for?
A. Specific hazard
B. reactivity hazard
C. Health hazard
D. fire hazard
Definition
b reactivity hazard
Term
on a color coded saftey square what does blue stand for?
A. Specific hazard
B. reactivity hazard
C. Health hazard
D. fire hazard
Definition
health hazard
Term
on a color coded saftey square what does red stand for?
A. Specific hazard
B. reactivity hazard
C. Health hazard
D. fire hazard
Definition
fire
Term
or the ANA test to be positive what must be present in the nucleus of the interphase cell?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
A clearly discernible pattern is correct.
The strength of the reaction doesn't matter, only that it is clearly discernible. Centromere and dsDNA are just some of the many different antigens, however, without the corresponding (cognate) antibodies from the patient sample there is no ANA pattern. Remember, to be ANA positive there must be a clearly discernible pattern in the nucleus of the interphase cells.
Term
organic cofactor
Definition
coenzyme
Term
organisms do not grow well but survive in the presence of atmospheric oxygen
anarobes
obligate
facultative
aerotolerant
capnophile
Definition
aerotolerant
Term
parasite responsible for river blindness
Necator americanus
onchocerca volvulus
Strongyloides stercoralis
echinoococcus granulosus
Definition
onchocerca volvulus
Term
peritrichious
Definition
flagella all over the organism
Term
pinworm
Definition
Enterobius vermicularis
Term
pinworm
Hemenolepis nana
Enterobius vermicularis
Taenia saginata
Echinoococcus granulosus
Definition
Enterobius vermicularis
Term
pork tapeworm
Definition
Taenia solium
Term
pork tapeworm
Schistosoma japonicum
Diphyllobothrium latum
Taenia saginata
Taneia solium
Definition
Taneia solium
Term
potential bioterrorism agent that causesTularemia, Rabbit fever, water-rabbit trapper' disease
Definition
Francisella tularensis
Term
production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources
Definition
glucogenesis
Term
production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources
glycogenesis
glycolysis
glucogenesis
glycogenolysis
Definition
glucogenesis
Term
progesterone (lowers/ elevates) triglycerides and VLDL
Definition
lowers
Term
proteins associated with all or part of the actual viron
a. structural protein
b. nonstructural protein
c. lipoprotein
d. cholymicron
Definition
structural protein
Term
proteins that are not a physical part of the viron
a. structural protein
b. nonstructural protein
c. lipoprotein
d. cholymicron
Definition
nonstructural protein
Term
proteins that are not physical part of the virion
Definition
nonstructural protein
Term
purines are the breakdown products of ________
a. amino acid catabolism
b. muscle contraction
c. nucleic acid catabolism
Definition
nucleic acid catabolism
Term
pyruvate converts to __________ in the absence of oxygen
Definition
lactate
Term
rat tapeworm
Hemenolepis nana
Hemenolepis diminuta
Taenia saginata
Taneia solium
Definition
Hemenolepis diminuta
Term
reach speeds between 17,000 & 30,000 rpm
A. Tabletop centrifuges
B. Microcentrifuges
C. high-speed centrifuges
D. Ultracentrifuges
Definition
high speed centrifuges
Term
refers to the amount of iron that can be bound by saturating the binding proteins
Definition
TBIC
Term
results when amylase combines with immunoglobulins to form a complex that is too large to be filtered across the glomerulus
Definition
macroanylasemia
Term
results when amylase combines with immunoglobulins to form a complex that is too large to be filtered across the glomerulus
a. lesionnaires' disease
b. macroanylasemia
c. reye's disease
d. anaplasmosis
Definition
macroanylasemia
Term
rubella, chicken pox, chemotherapy are reasons for a 3 day deferral, 2 week deferral, 4 week deferral, 6 week deferral, 8 week deferral, 6 month deferral, 12 month deferral, permanent deferral, 3 year deferral in regards to blood donation
Definition
4 week
Term
sample illumination is via transmitted white light-- illuminated from below and observed from above.
A. Bright field microscopy
B. Dark-field microscopy
C. electron microscopy
D. Flouresncet microscopy
E. Phase contrast microscopy
F. Polorized microscopy
Definition
bright field microscopy
Term
separation of blood components is accomplished by centrifuge of whole blood at a high rpm _____ spin, ________ time
Definition
heavy longer
Term
separation of blood components is accomplished by centrifuge of whole blood at a low rpm _____ spin, ________ time
Definition
light short
Term
septicemia
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
C. Vibrio vulnificus
D. Vibrio alginolyticus
Definition
C. Vibrio vulnificus
Term
serotonin is metabolized to
Definition
5-HIAA
Term
sheep liver fluke
Definition
Fasciola hepatica
Term
sheep liver fluke
Schistosoma japonicum
paragonimus westermani
Fasciola hepatica
Fasciola buski
Definition
Fasciola hepatica
Term
silent gene
Definition
amorph
Term
single flagella at each pole
atrichous
monotrichious
amphitrichious
lophotrichious
peritrichious
Definition
amphitrichious
Term
single flagella at one pole
atrichous
monotrichious
amphitrichious
lophotrichious
peritrichious
Definition
monotrichious
Term
small shifts in the light passing through a transparent speciment differences show a refractive index as difference in contrast.
A. Bright field microscopy
B. Dark-field microscopy
C. electron microscopy
D. Flouresncet microscopy
E. Phase contrast microscopy
F. Polorized microscopy
Definition
phase contrast microscopy
Term
states that a concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the amount of radient energy absorbed or inversely proportional to the logarithm of the transmitted radient energy
A. Boger-lambert law
B. Beer's Law
c. Poiseuille's law
Definition
beer's law
Term
stomatostatin is produced by
a. beta cells of islets of langerhans
b. alpha cell of the pancreas
c. adrenal medulla
d. adrenal cortex
e. anterior pituitary
f. thyroid gland
g. delta cells of the pancreas
Definition
delta cells of the pancreas
Term
sucrose is
a. glucose+ glucose
b. glucose+ galactose
c. glucose + fructose
d. glucose + starch
Definition
glucose + fructose
Term
symptomatic HIV infection
A. Category A
B. Category B
C. Category C
Definition
b
Term
taking accutane, proscer, propecia are reasons for a 3 day deferral, 2 week deferral, 4 week deferral, 6 week deferral, 8 week deferral, 6 month deferral, 12 month deferral, permanent deferral, 3 year deferral in regards to blood donation
Definition
4 week
Term
temperature at which an organism grows best
optimum
psychrophilic
mesophilic
thermophilic
Definition
optimim
Term
the A antigen immunodominant sugar is
Definition
N-accetylgalactossamine
Term
the B antigen immunodominant sugar is
Definition
D-Galactose
Term
the H antigen immunodominant sugar is
Definition
L-Fucose
Term
the complement protein anaphylatoxin's function is to
a. increase phagocytosis
b. increase vascular permeability
c. lyses cells
d. binds free heme
Definition
increase vascular permeability
Term
the complement protein anaphylatoxin's function is to
a. increase phagocytosis
b. increase vascular permeability
c. lyses cells
d. binds free heme
Definition
increase vascular permeability
Term
the complement protein cytolysin's function is to
a. increase phagocytosis
b. increase vascular permeability
c. lyses cells
d. binds free heme
Definition
lyses cells
Term
the complement protein opsonin's function is to
a. increase phagocytosis
b. increase vascular permeability
c. lyses cells
d. binds free heme
Definition
increase phagocytosis
Term
the difference between the anions and cations is
a. ion selective
b. anion gap
c. cation gap
d. poludipsia
Definition
anion gap
Term
the function of Transferrin is to transport ____.
Definition
iron
Term
the function of lipoproteins is
Definition
to transport lipids
Term
the individual identical structural units composing the protein coat of a virion
Definition
capsomers
Term
the individual identical structural units composing the protein coat of a viron
a. capsid
b. peplomer
c. capsomere
d. envelope
Definition
capsomere
Term
the major federal law governing toxic substnace is the
TSCA
ADA
RCRA
EEOC
Definition
TSCA
toxic substance Control act
Term
the major structural protein in cholymicrons
Apo Al
Apo-B-100
Apo-B-48
Apo Al 7
Definition
Apo-B-48
Term
the major structural protein of HDL
Apo Al
Apo-B-100
Apo-B-48
Apo Al 7
Definition
Apo Al
Term
the major structural protein of LDL or VLDL
Apo Al
Apo-B-100
Apo-B-48
Apo Al 7
Definition
Apo-B-100
Term
the modified cellular membrane than encloses the nucleocapsid of certain viruses
a. envelope
b. viron
c. capsid
d. DNA
Definition
envelope
Term
the most important (prevalent) pathogen in mycology is from what species?
Definition
Candida
Term
the only hormone that decreases glucose
Definition
insulin
Term
the performance of a test on a patient specimen only after a particular analyte is abnormal or outside of a predetermined range. It includes follow-up testing automatically initiated when certain test results are observed in the lab-- it is used to clarify or elaborate on primary test results.
A. Waived Testing
B. Reflex testing
C. C-peptide testing
Definition
reflex testing
Term
the platelet rich method for making platelets is characterized by a _____ (hard/ soft) spin for RPR followed by a (hard/ soft) spin to concentrate the platelets
Definition
soft spin hard spin
Term
the primary structure of proteins consists of _______.
Definition
amino acid sequence
Term
the protein _____'s function is to bind to free heme
Definition
hemopexin
Term
the protein coat or shell surrounding the nucleic acid core of a viron
a. capsid
b. capsomere
c. envelope
d. peplomer
Definition
capsid
Term
the protein coat or shell surrounding the nucleic acid core of a vision Nucleic acid- genome, either DNA or RNA
Definition
capsid
Term
the reacction rate depends on the enzyme concentration
a. first order kinetics
b. zero order kinetics
c. thermodynamics
Definition
zero order kinetics
Term
the reaction rate is directly proportional to the substrate concentrate
a. first order kinetics
b. zero order kinetics
c. thermodynamics
Definition
first order kinetics
Term
the reagent strip used to detect urobilinogen is
diazo reaction
biuret
griess's reaction
p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde (Ehrlich)
Definition
p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde (Ehrlich)
Term
the structure composed of the protein coat and enclosed viral nucleic acid
Definition
Nucleocapsid
Term
the structure composed of the protein coat and enclosed viral nucleic acid
a. capsid
b. capsomere
c. viron
d. nucleiocapsid
Definition
nucleiocapsid
Term
this beta globulin's function is to bind free heme
A. hepatoglobin
b. ceruloplasmin
C. HDL
D. hemopexin
Definition
hemopexin
Term
this condition can occur when there is an increase in ammonia. it commonly occurs in children preceded by a viral infection. it is associated with salicylate ingestion
a. lesch-nyhan syndrome
b. gout
c. Reye's syndrome
d. gierke's disease
Definition
Reye's syndrome
Term
this disease is characterized by: hypercupremia, it is a copper transport decent where there is a over load of copper in the liver, patient has copper deposits in the cornea known as kayser-fleischer rings
Definition
Wilson's disease
Term
this disease is characterized by: hypocurpremia, kinky blonde hair, failure to thrive, copper transport disorder, recessive sex-linked disorder affecting males
Definition
Menses syndrome
Term
this electrolyte mostly determines the osmolality of plasma
a. sodium
b. potassium
c. calcium
Definition
sodium
Term
this enzyme is the only enzyme that is clinically significant when decreased- indicates insecticide poisoning
A. pseudocholinesterase
B. Gamma- glutamyltransferase
C. acid phosphatase
D.alanine aminotransferase
Definition
pseudocholinesterase
Term
this flagellate has a pear-shaped undulating membrane w/ a clinical significance of urethritis, vaginitis, and trichomoniasis
Chilomastic mesnili
Trichomanas vaginalis
Giardia lambilia
Naegleria floweri
Definition
Trichomanas vaginalis
Term
this gamma globulin attaches to mast cells and basophils
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE
Definition
IgE
Term
this gamma globulin has a J piece & is a secondary component
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE
Definition
IgA
Term
this gamma globulin is a monomer in serum but a dimer in secretions
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE
Definition
IgA
Term
this gamma globulin is a pentamer and is involved in the primary response
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE
Definition
IgM
Term
this gamma globulin is affected during allergies
Definition
IgE
Term
this gamma globulin is the largest
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE
Definition
IgM
Term
this gamma globulin is the most abundant immunoglobulin
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE
Definition
IgG
Term
this hormone's function increases reabsorption of calcium from bone
Definition
PTH Parathyroid hormone
Term
this intestinal flagellate has a lemon shaped cyst stage with a nipple protrusion and is an opportunistic pathogen in immunocompromised patients
Chilomastic mesnili
Blastocystits hominis
Giardia lambilia
Naegleria floweri
Definition
Chilomastic mesnili
Term
this is a transplacental parasite
A.Toxoplasma gondii
B.Fasciola buski
C.Schistoma haematobium
D. Diphyllobothrium latum
Definition
®Toxoplasma gondii
Term
this labor law prohibits discrimination based on a # of classifications of disabilities
TSCA
ADA
RCRA
EEOC
Definition
ADA
americans with disabilities
Term
this lipid's functions include manufacture and repair of cell membrane synthesis of bile acids and vitamin D precursor of steroid hormones such as progesterone, cortisol, aldosterone, estrogen, testosterone
Definition
cholesterol
Term
this parasite has a target host of white tailed deer
Trichomanas vaginalis
Babesia microti
cryptosporidium parvum
Plasmodium falciparum
Definition
Babesia microti
Term
this parasite is a blood fluke
Schistosoma japonicum
paragonimus westermani
cryptosporidium parvum
Fasciola buski
Definition
Schistosoma japonicum
Term
this parasite is a intestinal fluke
Schistosoma japonicum
paragonimus westermani
cryptosporidium parvum
Fasciola buski
Definition
Fasciola buski
Term
this parasite is a lung fluke
Schistosoma japonicum
paragonimus westermani
cryptosporidium parvum
Fasciola buski
Definition
paragonimus westermani
Term
this parasite is associated with kitty litter
Toxoplasma gondii
Babesia microti
cryptosporidium parvum
Plasmodium falciparum
Definition
Toxoplasma gondii
Term
this parasite is spread by the tstest fly or reduviid bug
Chilomastic mesnili
Trichomanas vaginalis
Trypanosoma
Naegleria floweri
Definition
Trypanosoma
Term
this pipette is easily identified by two frosted bands near the mouth piece of the pipette
A. Transfer/ Volumetric pipette
B. Measuring/ graduated pipette
C. To Contain pipette
D. To deliver pipette
E. Blow out pipette
Definition
blow out pipette
Term
this protein's function is to regulate muscle contraction and is a sensitive inficator of acute myocardial infatction
a. troponin
b. fibrinogen
c. transferrin
Definition
troponin
Term
this virus is a "mucus loving virus" and is responsible for major respiratory pathogens
A. Orthomyxoviridae
B. Paramyxoviridae
C. Rhabdoviridae
D. Arenaviridae
Definition
Paramyxoviridae
Term
this virus is characterized with fever, muscle aches and interstitial pulmonary edema which can rapidly progress to respiratory failure and death--lungs is the target organ
A. California Encephalitis
B. Reactive Neutrophilia
C. Hantavirus
D. HTLV
Definition
Hantavirus
Term
this virus is spread through oral transmissions caused by infectious mononucleosis, Burkitt's lymphoma, B cell lymphoma
hhv-4
Definition
Epstein Barr Virus
Term
those costs necessary to produce a billable result without considering cost of materials are defined as
prime costs
fixed costs
conversion costs
variable costs
Definition
conversion costs
Term
threadworm
Definition
strongyloides stercoralis
Term
threadworm
Necator americanus
Ascaris lumbricoides
Strongyloides stercoralis
echinoococcus granulosus
Definition
Strongyloides stercoralis
Term
thyroid hormones (lowers/ elevates) LDL
Definition
elevates
Term
thyroxine (T4) is produced by
a. beta cells of islets of langerhans
b. alpha cell of the pancreas
c. adrenal medulla
d. adrenal cortex
e. anterior pituitary
f. thyroid gland
g. delta cells of the pancreas
Definition
thyroid gland
Term
transferrin is categorized as (alpha/ beta) globulin
Definition
Beta
Term
transferrin, hemopexin, fibronigen, and c reactive protein is classified as
A. Alpha 1 glycoprotein
B. Alpha 2 globulin
C. Alpha 1 globulin
D. Alpha 2 macroglobulin
E. Beta globulin
F. gamma Globulin
Definition
E. Beta globulin
Term
true or false
clintest detects galactose
Definition
true
Term
tuft of flagella at one or both poles
atrichous
monotrichious
amphitrichious
lophotrichious
peritrichious
Definition
lophotrichious
Term
type of donation for the general population
Definition
allogenic
Term
urobilinogen is produced in
the liver
the kidneys
the lungs
the intestines
Definition
the intestine
Term
virus specific subunits localized in a host cellular membrane
a. naked virus
b. nucleic acid
c. capsomere
d. peplomer
Definition
peplomer
Term
virus without envelopes
Definition
naked virus
Term
virus without envelopes
a. viron
b. capsid
c. naked virus
d. dna
Definition
naked virus
Term
virus-specific subunits localized in a host cellular membrane
Definition
peplomers
Term
what are sugar containing lipids?
a. apoliprproteins
b. HDL
c. glycolipids
d. progesterone
Definition
glycolipids
Term
what are triglycerides broken down by?
a. amylase
b. fructose
c. lipase
d. maltose
Definition
lipase
Term
what catalyzes the breakdown of starch and glycogen into monosaccharides
a. maltose
b. amylase
c. lipase
c. glycylglycine
Definition
amylase
Term
what does the acronym HRE stand for?
Definition
high-resolution electrophoresis
Term
what element differentiates proteins from carbohydrates & lipids?
Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Sulfur
Definition
Nitrogen
Term
what gamma-globulin is a monomer in serum but a dimer in secretion
Definition
IgA
Term
what gamma-globulin is a warm reactive antibody involved in the secondary response that fixes complement
Definition
IgG
Term
what is NOT a alpha 1- globulin?
A. allpha-fetoprotein
B. Alpha 1 Glycoprotein
C. Alpha- lipoprotein
D. Ceruloplasmin
Definition
D. Ceruloplasmin
Term
what is NOT a confirmatory test for diagnosing Treponema FTA-ABS, RPR, MHA-TP, TP-PA
Definition
RPR
Term
what is NOT a function of T Helper cells
A. help activate B cells to secrete antibodies
B. activate macrophages to destroy ingested microbes
C. cytotoxic T cells to kill infected target cells
d. phagocytosis
Definition
phagocytosis
Term
what is NOT an HIV gene?
A. Gag gene
B. Env gene
C. CD gene
D. Pol gene
Definition
CD Gene
Term
what is NOT an inorganic cofactor
a. calcium
b. NAD
c. iron
d. magnesium
Definition
NAD
Term
what is group B strep?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus agalaciae
C. Streptococcus pnemoniae
D. Streptococcus equinis
Definition
B. Streptococcus agalaciae
Term
what is group a strep
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus agalaciae
C. Streptococcus pnemoniae
D. Streptococcus equinis
Definition
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
Term
what is not a funtion of water
a. transport nutrients to cells
b. determines cell volume
c. removes waste products
d. acts as body coolant
e. regulates bicarbonate
Definition
regulates bicarbonate
Term
what is not an organic cofactor
a. NAD
b. iron
c. Vitamins
Definition
iron
Term
what is the clinical significance of excess gastrin with excess HCl production?
a. addison's disease
b. zollinger-ellison syndrome
c. achlorhydria
d. cushings
Definition
zollinger-ellison syndrome
Term
what is the clinical significance of excess gastrin with no HCl production?
a. addison's disease
b. zollinger-ellison syndrome
c. achlorhydria
d. cushings
Definition
achlorhydria
Term
what is the confirmatory test for syphilis?
A. Western Blot
B. FTA-ABS
C. RPR
D. VDRL
Definition
B. FTA-ABS
Term
what is the final breakdown product of purine metabolism in humans
a. ammonia
b. uric acid
c. creatinine
d. allantoin
Definition
uric acid
Term
what is the function of Alpha 2 macroglobulin?
A. bind hemoglobin
B. inhibit trypsin, thrombin, and plasmin
c. transport cholesterol from the liver to the tissue
D. transports cholesterol from the tissue back to the liver to be broken down
Definition
B. inhibit trypsin, thrombin, and plasmin
Term
what is the function of HDL?
A. bind hemoglobin
B. inhibit trypsin, thrombin, and plasmin
c. transport cholesterol from the liver to the tissue
D. transports cholesterol from the tissue back to the liver to be broken down
Definition
D. transports cholesterol from the tissue back to the liver to be broken down
Term
what is the function of seratonin?
A. bind hemoglobin
B. inhibit trypsin, thrombin, and plasmin
c. bind to platelets and is released during coagulation
D. transports cholesterol from the tissue back to the liver to be broken down
Definition
c. bind to platelets and is released during coagulation
Term
what is the function of the PRL hormone?
a. to act on the distal convoluted dubules to increase water absorption
b. initiate and maintain lactation
c. to act on the uterus to stimulate uterine contractions
d. lower serum calcium
Definition
b. initiate and maintain lactation
PRL= prolactin
Term
what is the function of the antidiuretic hormone?
a. to act on the distal convoluted dubules to increase water absorption
b. initiate and maintain lactation
c. to act on the uterus to stimulate uterine contractions
d. lower serum calcium
Definition
a. to act on the distal convoluted dubules to increase water absorption
Term
what is the function of the oxytocin hormone?
a. to act on the distal convoluted dubules to increase water absorption
b. initiate and maintain lactation
c. to act on the uterus to stimulate uterine contractions
d. lower serum calcium
Definition
to act on the uterus to stimulate uterine contractions
Term
what is the largest lipoprotein particles?
a. triglycerides
b. chylomicrons
c. HDL
d. LDL
Definition
chylomicrons
Term
what is the major extracellular anion?
a. sodium
b. potassium
c. chloride
d. cholesterol
Definition
chloride
Term
what is the major intracellular cation?
a. sodium
b. potassium
c. nitrogen
Definition
potassium
Term
what is the most abundant cation in the ECF (extra cellular fluid)
a. sodium
b. potassium
c. carbon
d. nitrogen
Definition
sodium
Term
what is the most common HIV confirmatory test?
A. Latex agglutination
B. PCR
D. Western Blot
D. VDRL
Definition
Western Blot
Term
what is the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus agalaciae
C. Streptococcus pnemoniae
D. Streptococcus equinis
Definition
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
Term
what is the most common intestinal tapeworm in US?
Definition
Dwarf tapeworm Hemenolepis nana
Term
what is the most common isolate found in RBC units?
Definition
Yersinia enterocolitica
Term
what is the most common isolate found in RBC units?
Bacillus cereus
citrobacter freundii
yersinia enterocolitica
propionibacterium acnes
Definition
yersinia enterocolitica
Term
what is the only test for CSF in looking for syphillis
Definition
VDRL
Term
what is the precursor of steroid hormones?
ketones
cholesterol
albumin
calcium
Definition
cholesterol
Term
what is the protein in the highest concentration?
Definition
albumin
Term
what is the smallest lipoprotein?
a. triglycerides
b. chylomicrons
c. HDL
d. LDL
Definition
HDL
Term
what is the test for Hepatitis B virus?
A. Anti-HBc
B. HBsAG
C. Anti-HCV
D.HBeAG
Definition
HBsAG
Term
what method do you use to test for diptheria toxin production?
A. biurate test
B. Elek method
c. c-peptide testing
d. glucose dehydrogenase enzyme test
Definition
B. Elek method
Term
what species of is Lyme disease transmitted?
A. Ixodes scapularis
B. Amblyomma americanum
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
d. Rickettsia rickettsii
Definition
A. Ixodes scapularis
Term
when taking avodart you have a 3 day deferral, 2 week deferral, 4 week deferral, 6 week deferral, 8 week deferral, 6 month deferral, 12 month deferral, permanent deferral, 3 year deferral in regards to blood donation
Definition
6 month
Term
where is albumin synthesized?
Definition
liver
Term
where is seratonin synthesized?
a. beta cells of islets of langerhans
b. argentaffin cells
c. adrenal medulla
d. adrenal cortex
e. anterior pituitary
f. thyroid gland
g. delta cells of the pancreas
Definition
argentaffin
Term
where is sodium reabsorbed?
a. glomerulus
b. loop of henle
c. kidney tubules
Definition
kidney tibules
Term
which acid fast bacteria stain is used to stain bacilli that appear yellow orange-- referred to as flurochrome
Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast stain
Kinyoun acid fast stain
Auramine-rhodamine acid fast stain
Definition
Auramine-rhodamine acid fast stain
Term
which acid fast bacteria stain is used to stain tissue-- referred to as cold
Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast stain
Kinyoun acid fast stain
Auramine-rhodamine acid fast stain
Definition
Kinyoun acid fast stain
Term
which acid fast bacteria stain red and retain purple dye. referred to as hot
Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast stain
Kinyoun acid fast stain
Auramine-rhodamine acid fast stain
Definition
Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast stain
Term
which alpha lipoprotein is referred to as "GOOD" cholesterol?
a. LDL
b. HDL
c. VDL
Definition
HDL
Term
which assay ,measures the amount of time to the end point?
which hormone is not released from the hypothalamus? TRH (thyrotropin releasing hormone) PCH (parathyroid hormone) GRH (gonadotropin releasing hormone) PIF (prolactin inhibiting factor)
Definition
PCH
Term
which hormone is produced by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas
A. Stomatostatin
B. Cortisol
C. Insulin
D. epinepherine
Definition
insulin
Term
which is infectious disease is associated with Treponema pallidum
Definition
syphilis
Term
which is not a protein hormone
ACTH (adrenocortitropic hormone)
PTH (parathyroid hormone)
thyroxine
Definition
thyroxine
Term
which is not a steroid hormone?
cortisol
testosterone
ACTH (adrenocortitropic hormone)
estrogen
Definition
ACTH (adrenocortitropic hormone)
Term
which is not an amine hormone
ACTH (adrenocortitropic hormone)
thyroxine hormone
epinephrine
Definition
ACTH (adrenocortitropic hormone)
Term
which is not an inorganic cofactor (activator) NAD, calcium, Iron, magnesium
Definition
NAD
Term
which isoenzyme corresponds with the Heart in relation to Lactate Dehydrogenase? (LD1, LD2, LD3, LD4, LD5)
Definition
LD1/ LD2
Term
which isoenzyme corresponds with the erythrocytes in relation to Lactate Dehydrogenase? (LD1, LD2, LD3, LD4, LD5)
Definition
LD1/ LD2
Term
which isoenzyme corresponds with the liver in relation to Lactate Dehydrogenase? (LD1, LD2, LD3, LD4, LD5)
Definition
LD4
Term
which isoenzyme corresponds with the lung in relation to Lactate Dehydrogenase? (LD1, LD2, LD3, LD4, LD5)
Definition
LD3
Term
which isoenzyme corresponds with the skeletal muscle in relation to Lactate Dehydrogenase? (LD1, LD2, LD3, LD4, LD5)
Definition
LD5
Term
which tissue source is related to CKBB
Definition
brain tissue
Term
which tissue source is related to CKMB
Definition
Heart muscle
Term
which tissue source is related to CKMM
Definition
Skeletal Muscle
Term
which type of diabetes is dependent on exogenous insulin?
type 1
type 2
Definition
1
Term
which type of hemolysis has clear, colorless area on blood agar
alpha
beta
gamma
Definition
beta
Term
which type of hemolysis has greening of blood agar
alpha
beta
gamma
Definition
alpha
Term
which type of hemolysis has no hemolysis on blood agar
alpha
beta
gamma
Definition
gamma
Term
which type of strep is this: antibodies produced-- anti-streptolysin o, anti-DNase, anti-hyaluronidase with a four fold rise in titer stereotyped based on the cell wall component known as the M protein
Definition
Streptococcus Pyrogenes
Term
you can donate 2 RBCs every _____ weeks/ days
8 weeks, 16 weeks, 4 weeks, 2 days, 7 days
Definition
16 weeks
Term
you can donate single platepheresis in _____ weeks/ days intervals
8 weeks, 16 weeks, 4 weeks, 2 days, 7 days
Definition
2 day
Term
In which of the following conditions is NOT Hgb D elevated?
Hemoglobin D disease
Hemoglobin SD disease
Hemoglobin D/ beta-thalassemia
Hemoglobin CD disease
Definition
Hemoglobin CD disease
Hemoglobin D is an inherited autosomal recessive variation of Hb A that occurs in the β-globin protein chain of Hb A. The formation of Hb D occurs by substitution of glutamic acid for glutamin at codon 121 of the β-chain. Hemoglobin D disease, also known as Hb DD, occurs when two copies of the Hb D variant gene are inherited. It is also possible to inherit a condition known as Hb D/beta-thalassemia (Hb D/β-thal).
Hemoglobin CD disease does not exist and alpha thalassemia would not show an increase in hemoglobin D.
Term
On a Cytospin preparation from a pleural fluid, 50% of the cells have the following characteristics:
- uniform, regular arrangement - some cells resemble a "fried egg" - multiple nuclei - smooth nuclear outline and homogeneous chromatin - when present in clumps, there are clear spaces between the cells ("windows")
How should these cells be classified?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Mesothelial cells have a few key morphological features that aid in identification; notablly the "fried egg" appearance.
Term
Jane Doe is a 39-year-old female who felt tired for several months, had pain in the joints of her fingers, and recently developed a dermatitis following exposure to the sun. The following test results were obtained on a blood sample drawn during the initial evaluation:
Based on the clinical and laboratory findings, what disease should be suspected?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
SLE
The ANA titer is usually less than 1:160 in diseases other than SLE, so that the possibility of SLE is increased in patients with higher titers. A speckled pattern is commonly found in patients with SLE indicating binding to a variety of nonhistone, small ribonucleoprotein (RNP) particles. A high crp level indicates that inflammation is occuring, as in SLE for example, but does not indicate the location or cause of the inflammation. Decreased complement levels also are associated with autoimmune diseases. Both C3 and C4 levels are typically depressed in SLE
Term
is an abnormal color, usually yellow, orange, or pink, in the supernatant of the CSF sample. It may indicate that a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) has occurred
Jaundice
Xanthochromia
icterus
normal CSF
Definition
Xanthochromia
Xanthochromia is an abnormal color, usually yellow, orange, or pink, in the supernatant of the CSF sample. It may indicate that a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) has occurred.
Jaundice and icterus both describe a yellowing of the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes. Blood plasma/serum that is deep yellow is also described as icteric.
Term
A white blood cell stained with Wright’s stain has the following characteristics:
Round eccentric nucleus with clumped chromatin pattern
1:1 nucleus to cytoplasm ratio
Basophilic cytoplasm
Crescent-shaped clear area next to nucleus
What is the MOST likely identification of this cell?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
plasma cells, which produce immunoglobulin, characteristically show a "halo" next to the nucleus, which is a cresent shaped lighter colored region of the cytoplasm. The eccentric nucleus and the 1:1 nucleus to cytoplasm ratio with basophilic cytoplasm are also typical characteristics of plasma cells. Plasma cells are seen in most commonly in patients with conditions such as multiple myeloma, plasmacytoma, plasma cell leukemia, Waldenström macroglobulinemia, and malignant neoplasms.
Term
Which of the following tests are NOT suitable for quantifying the size of fetomaternal hemorrhage (FMH)?
Kleihauer-Betke test
flow cytometry
rosette test
Definition
The rosette test is suitable to screen for FMH but not quantify
Term
The ability to produce anti-D varies significantly among Rh negative individuals.
Select true or false
Definition
true
The immune response to the D antigen does vary significantly among Rh negative persons.
For example, some Rh-negative individuals produce anti-D after exposure to as little as 0.1 mL of D-positive red cells, yet almost one third of Rh-negative people do not produce anti-D, regardless of volume or number of exposures.
Term
Which one of the following general descriptions concerning Brucella species is FALSE?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
Spores produced under anaerobic conditions
Brucellae are non-spore forming organisms. They do faintly stain as a gram negative coccobacilli, they do not have a flagella, and they are non-motile on all media.
Term
The sickling phenomenon observed in erythrocytes containing hemoglobin S may be induced by which of the following?
Please select the single best answer
Definition
reducing agents
Reducing agents actually induce the sickling phenomenon in RBCs when they contain hemoglobin S. Emulsifying agents, hemolytic agents, oxidizing agens or proteolytic agents will not cause hemoglobin S to form sickled RBCs.
Term
What is the quality control positive for catalase testing?
