Term
CN I
Olfactory
How do you test it
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Definition
| Treat or alcohol find it/avoid it |
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Term
CN II
Sensory/motor?
How do you test it? (three ways) what other CNN are involved
What regulates this reflex in the brain?
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Definition
Sensory only
1. Dropping cotton ball and watch for visual tracking
Cover one eye and test each eye separately watch for tracking
Rostral colliculous of the midbrain
2. Menace response (learned) CN 2 afferent, CN 7 efferent blink
3. PLR CN 2, CN 3 (miosis) |
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Term
| If testing hearing in the dog and cat, what part of the brain regulates sound |
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Definition
| midbrain caudal colliculous |
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Term
What part of the CNS coordinates the menace response when testing CN 2 and 7
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Definition
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Term
| How do you test for CNN 3,4,6,8 together at one time? |
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Definition
| Physiological nystagmus - looks for the occulomotor CN 3 to catch up with the head being turned from side to side indicating normal vestibular center, extraocular muscles 3,4,6 |
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Term
What CNN control wish extraoccular muscles
Which CNN control intraocular muscles |
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Definition
Lateral rectus 6
Dorsal oblique 4
all others 3 including ventral oblique |
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Term
how do you tes CNN 5 and 7
Trigeminal and facial
sensory /motor/parasympathetic?
What branches of 5 are involved? |
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Definition
CN 5 S/M
CN 7 S/M/Parasympathetic
Touch 5, blink 7 (eye closure)
Touch the maxillary muzzle and there should be blink response (5 opthalmic branch)
Touch medial and lateral canthus and there is a blink
Lightly pink the inside of the ear pinna (sensory/motor 7) and should see an little ear twitch
Pinch the maxillary lip and he should pull lip away 5,7
Pinch the mandibular lip same should occure 5 mandibular branch of trigeminal
if animal bites or opens and closes mouth then you have seen the muscles of mastication in action
Corneal test saline soaked swab touch cornea blinks 5 sensory, 7 blink |
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Term
Testing CNN 5,6,7 together
what test is done and what are the roles of 5,6,7 |
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Definition
Corneal reflex - saline swab, touch cornea, blink reflex
Sensory from CN 5 opthalmic
Motor blink from 7
Retractor bulbi 6 pulling the eye back |
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Term
How to test CNN 9, 10
m/s? |
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Definition
9 glossopharyngeal S, M, P
10 vagus S, M, P
Stimulate the larynx
Finger gag reflex
Cough
Moist towel wipe nose and he should lick & swallow |
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Term
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Definition
Hypoglossal M
Look for tongue symmetry
movement
moisten the nose and movement of tongue to lick |
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Term
| What other tests can you perform to test PC |
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Definition
Normal PC support body
postural thrust holding the pet up on hear legs and pulling them backwards to see if they can put their legs back under the center of gravity
Visual and blind pacing |
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Term
How test the biceps femoris reflex
Nerve tested?
Location?
Spinal segment?
Response?
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Definition
1. Femoral n. (extensors) so semi flex the stifle
2. L4-L6
3. Patellar tendon (distal patella to tibia)
or you can stimulate the coxofemoral, or tibial by placing two gingers over the tap point and tap. Not a true reflex though. So try not to focus on those. |
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Term
How to test the gastrocnemius reflex?
What nerve?
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Definition
1. Sciatic n. flexor of stifle , extensor of hock
2. L6 (L7 - S1) -S2
Tap the gastroc tendon and the semi's muscles should contract
Semitendonosis,membranosis |
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Term
The withdrawl reflex does tests what?
what nerve?
Spinal Segment?
thoracic vs Pelvic limbs |
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Definition
Pelvic: Sciatic n. from L7 - S2
Throacic: Brachial plexus C5-T1
Noxtious stimuli : Pinching toe and leg is pulled away |
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Term
| across extensor reaction indicates____ |
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Definition
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Term
How do you test the biceps brachii reflex?
What nerve & spinal segment is involved?
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Definition
Musculocutaneous n.
C5-8
Biceps are flexors for you want to extend the front limb and place finger over insertion of the tendon then Tap the finger/insertion of the biceps tendon and watch for reflex and toe extention |
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Term
How do you test the triceps reflex?
what nerve and spinal segment is involved? |
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Definition
Radial n.
C7-T1
Pull the antebrachium forward flexing it and slighly abduct it from the body for maximum tension of the triceps tendon. As you tap the tendon without fingers used one of the tricep bellies sould contract. |
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Term
what is the cutaneous trunci reflex
what nerve and spinal segment is involved? |
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Definition
pinching the skin on the side of the spine should cause both sides to twitch.
lateral thoracic n.
C8-T1 |
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Term
Perineal reflex
nerve
spine segment |
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Definition
pinch scrotum or vulva or touch perianal region and there will be a wink
pudendal n. S1-S3 |
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Term
| Positional strabismus is a dysfunction fo CN__ |
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Definition
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Term
| what is panniculus response |
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Definition
| skin twitch of the back when touched |
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Term
| What are the basic typical signs of UMN disease |
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Definition
Paresis and paralysis associated with increased extensor tone and normal or exaggerated reflexes. Loss of descending inhibition of LMN produces these signs.
Cross extensor reflex |
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Term
| Propreceptive pathways are locate where |
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Definition
| dorsal and dorsolateral horns of the grey matter |
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Term
| The 1st signs noticed with a compressive lesion in the spine |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
1. loss of tone
2. Paresis
3. loss of reflexes |
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Term
| Normal or exaggerated reflexes of all limbs indicates a lesion above |
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Definition
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Term
| How do you RO brain stem disease |
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Definition
| examin CNN, if normal then brain stem is oK |
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Term
| Loss of CP in pelvic limbs and normal in thoracic limbs indicates a lesion |
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Definition
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Term
| musculocutaneous n. is sensory to |
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Definition
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Term
| The radial nerve provides sensory to |
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Definition
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Term
| Ulnar n. suppolies sensory to |
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Definition
| lateral aspect of digit 5 |
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Term
| Saphenous n. supplies sensory to |
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Definition
| medial aspect of the crus |
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Term
| Peroneal n. supplies sensory to the |
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Definition
| dorsal aspect of digits 2,3,4 |
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Term
| Tibial n. supplies sensory to |
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Definition
| plantar aspect of digits 3,4 |
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Term
Paresis implies
Para- implies
Plegia implies |
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Definition
weakness
pelvic limb
paralyzation |
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Term
PLR is CNN _____
Menace is CNN ____ |
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Definition
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Term
| Upper eye lid and cornea is innervated by CN |
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Definition
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Term
| the muzzle and ventral eye lid has sensory innervations from CN |
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Definition
5
maxillary and mandibular branch of trigeminal |
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Term
| Palpebral response is frm CNN ____ |
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Definition
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Term
| what type of strabismus is most common and what CN is involved |
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Definition
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Term
what CN innervate lacrimal glands
and sublinual and mandibular salivary glands |
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Definition
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Term
| the auricular palpebral reflex is due to CN __ |
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Definition
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Term
| Vestibular ocular reflex involves CNN ______ |
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Definition
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Term
| Pharyngeal and middle ear sensation is due to CN |
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Definition
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Term
| Parasympathetic innervation to the zygomatic and parotid salivary glands is via CN ___ |
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Definition
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Term
| a deficit in these two CNN will cause dysphagia, swallowing, and lack of gag reflex |
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Definition
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Term
| laryngeal function deficit and dysphonia is by deficit in CNN |
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Definition
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Term
| 3 muscles innervated by CN 11 (acessory) |
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Definition
| Trapezius, sternocephalicus, brachocephalicus |
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Term
| which CN are sensory only |
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Definition
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Term
| which 5 CNN are Motor only |
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Definition
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Term
| Which 5 CNN are sensory and motor |
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Definition
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Term
| which CNN have parasympathetic |
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Definition
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Term
| If an aniaml is presenting blind in 1 eye, where is the lesion most likely |
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Definition
| before chiasm, after that it decussates |
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Term
| a ventrolateral strbismus is a deficit in CN |
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Definition
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Term
| medial strabismus is a deficit in CN |
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Definition
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Term
| most of the masticatory muscles are innervated by CN 5, except the digastricus which is innervated by ___ |
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Definition
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Term
| most of the masticatory muscles are innervated by CN 5, except the digastricus which is innervated by ___ |
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Definition
7
caudal belly and buccinator |
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Term
| dropped jaw indicates a deficit in CN |
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Definition
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Term
| what is the urinary bladder like if there is an UMN vs LMN lesion |
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Definition
UMN L4-L7 tonic hard to express
LMN sacral spine pudendal or pelvic n. large flacid easy to express |
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Term
| is decreased tone and muscle atrophy a sign of UMN or LMN |
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Definition
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Term
| what si the hammer called used to test reflexes |
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Definition
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Term
withdrawl reflex of the pelvic limb tests what nerves 2
in the thoracic limbs this is controlled by the nerves |
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Definition
femoral, sciateic
brachial plexus |
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Term
Spinal Segments
C1-C5
C6-T2
T3-L3
L4-S2
S1-S3
Caudal nerves |
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Definition
UMN all limbs
LMN thoracic, UMN pelvic
Normal Thoracic, LMN pelvic
Partial UMN Pelvic, absent perneal reflex
Atonic tail |
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Term
What is decerebrate rigidity is what
common lesions occure where |
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Definition
comatose with all 4 limbs hypertonic
midbrain or pons |
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Term
Decerebellate rigidity is what
Lesion is where |
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Definition
not comatose, can move limbs, but thoracic limbs are extended wiht lateral
acute lesion of cerebellum |
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Term
if there is a lesion to the rostral lobe of the cerebellum then you will see what in the patient
If its in the entire cerebellum you see...
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Definition
opsthotonus
all limbs extended |
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Term
what si schiff sherington
indicates damage where? |
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Definition
Paraplegic (paralysed rear legs) with normal forlegs, but excessivly hypertonic so extended when lying lateral
severe damage anywhere from T3-L7
depending on lesion location may have UMN or LMN deficits and no deep pain perception |
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Term
| Signs indicating lesion above foramen magnum 5 |
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Definition
Seizure
Mentation change
CN def.
Head tilt
Postural def. |
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Term
| a hopping deficit could indicate 3 things |
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Definition
| CP def., motor def. or cerebellar lesion |
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Term
| name 5 metabolic diseases that can cause seizures |
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Definition
Hypoglycemia
PSS increase urea
Renal Dz increased urea
Electrolyte hypocalcemia |
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Term
| what is a nutritional deficency that causes seizures |
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Definition
| Thiamine def. in cats from eating too much fish (thiaminase) |
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Term
| name two drugs that can cause seizures |
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Definition
Metronidazol (cats)
5_HT precursor to seratonin |
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Term
| Name 6 toxins leading to seizures |
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Definition
strycnine
metaldehyde
organophosphates, carbamates
chloronated hydrocarbons
lead
moldy walnut |
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Term
What are intracranial causes for seizures
4 |
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Definition
hydrocephalus
arachnoid cysts
neoplastic meningioma, oligodendroglioma
2* neoplasia paraneoplastic syndrome
hemangiosarcoma, mammary carcinoma, melanomas |
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Term
| Infectious cause of seizures 5 |
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Definition
Bacteria
Fungal
Viral - distemper RV, FIP
Protazoal: Toxoplasmosis
Paracytic - larval migrans |
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Term
| lnflammatory causes of seizures |
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Definition
Granulomatous meningioencephalitis
necrotising encephalopathy |
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Term
| two metabolic causes of seizures caused by vascular disease |
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Definition
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Term
In CENTRAL vestibular disease what are the signs when looking at
1. the eyes
2. Mental state
3. CN ___ deficit
4. Will GP be normal? |
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Definition
1. Spontaneous nystagmus - vertical or positional and direction changes with positions
2. obtunded, stuporus
3. CN 7 sympathetic to eye
4. low GP placing ipsilateral side |
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Term
In PERIPHERAL vestibular Dz what are the signs when looking at:
1. eyes
2. face in general
3. GP/ postural reactions will be normal or not? |
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Definition
1. Spontaneous nystagmus
2. horners CN 7 or facail paralysis
3. normal GP and postural response |
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Term
In vestubular disease the head tilt will be ____ the lesion
when will is occure the other away from the lesion? |
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Definition
| towards except in central or paradoxical vestibular disease where the head will tilt opposite to other signs |
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Term
Positional nystagmus is unique to vestibular dz
when do you see it |
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Definition
| when head it tilted upwards, ventrolateral strabisumus |
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Term
A dog presents with head tilt to the right and has GP deficits on the right side and right hemiparesis ....
is this central or peripheral vestibular Dz? |
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Definition
| Peripheral vestibular disease presents with normal GPs and No paresis so this would be a central lesion |
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Term
| Hypothyroidism can lead to this neurologaical disease in dogs |
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Definition
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Term
| what is the brainstem auditory evoked response (BAER) used for |
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Definition
| helps to localize vestibular dz to peripheral or central Dz |
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Term
| 2 medications that can cause vestibular disease |
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Definition
Metronidazole
Aminoglycosides |
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Term
| Omeprazol (proton pump inhibitor -Prilosec) does what to CSF |
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Definition
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Term
| what are the UMN signs in the urinary bladder compared to LMN signs |
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Definition
UMN
- bladder hyperreflexic
-fills and contracts, but not completely leading to UTI, detrusor damage from stretching
-this is a hard to express bladder with a hyper-reflexic anus
LMN
- incontinent always dribbling
- easy to expresss
- lesion S1-S3
- cauda equina
- Hyporeflexive anus - poop falls out |
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Term
| This breed is associated with degenerative myelopathy....what diseases fall into this catagory |
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Definition
G. Shepards
Degeneration of white matter
Type 2 disc Dz buldging of annulus fibrosus
Spina bifida
lumbosacral stenosis (cauda equina syndrome)
Hemivertibrae
Caudal Cervical vertebral instability (dobermans) - wobblers |
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Term
Cauda equina syndrome is caused by.....
Characterized by what signs seen on imaging (4)
What is causing the pain and lameness seen on exam? |
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Definition
Degenerative lumbosacral stenosis (DLSS) is a common cause of compression of the cauda equina and seventh lumbar nerve roots in dogs.
lumbosacral intervertebral disc (IVD) protrusion
Subluxation of the facet joints
Thickening of the joint capsules
Hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum
Abaxial disc protrusion and spondylosis can be a significant cause of pain and lameness whilst lower motor neuron deficits are less common. |
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Term
what is spina bifida
what syndrome is it associated with?
What are the signs on PE?
what breeds cat/dog |
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Definition
incomplete fusion of dorsal vertebral arches (lumbosacral area)
Cauda equina (compression of the CE and 7th lumbar nerve root)
Fecal/urinary incont.
Rear limb ataxia and paresis
Manx cats and curled tailed dogs like the pug and bull dog |
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Term
| Discospondylitis is commonly caused by 3 bacteria |
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Definition
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Term
What is granulomatus menegioencephalitis
Causes what?
Seen mostly in what breeds of dog? |
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Definition
Granulomatous inflammation involves infiltration by cells called mononuclear cells. These cells normally engulf and destroy debris. In GME, these cells form cuffs around the blood vessels of the brain and spinal cord (mostly in the white matter). The cuffs join at adjacent vessels forming actual masses/nodules.
The classical patient is a middle-aged small-breed dog of either gender. What sort of neurologic signs are seen depend totally on what area of the nervous system is involved. Seizures, neck pain, drunken gait, walking in circles, blindness, listlessness, tilted head, facial abnormalities, and weakness can be seen. This does not leave out much in the way of neurologic symptoms. |
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Term
| What aer the 3 types of granulomatus meningioencephalitis GME and which is most commmon? |
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Definition
3 types of GME: focal (limited to one location in the nervous system); disseminated or multifocal (involving many locations in the nervous system); and ophthalmic (involving the optic nerve/eye). A patient may have more than one type. The disseminated form is the most common.
The focal type of GME typically has a slower onset (3-6 months) while the disseminated form is more rapid (2-6 months). Obviously, the disseminated form has a larger variety of signs within the same patient. The ophthalmic form most commonly shows up as sudden, generally permanent blindness. It can affect one or both eyes. The disseminated form has a particularly poor prognosis; in one study the median survival time after diagnosis was 8 days, a testament to the rapid progression and severity of this condition. |
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Term
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Definition
| Tapping of the cerebrospinal fluid (spinal tap) is very helpful in the diagnosis of GME. General anesthesia is required to tap fluid from the nervous system and the procedure is not entirely without risk. Still, the cells of GME should be findable in the fluid if they are present in the brain. Prior administration of cortisone-type medication may reduce the cells found in the tap and must be considered in the interpretation of the tap. |
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Term
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Definition
Tapping of the cerebrospinal fluid (spinal tap) is very helpful in the diagnosis of GME. General anesthesia is required to tap fluid from the nervous system and the procedure is not entirely without risk. Still, the cells of GME should be findable in the fluid if they are present in the brain. Prior administration of cortisone-type medication may reduce the cells found in the tap and must be considered in the interpretation of the tap.
Confirm with MRI |
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Term
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Definition
Immune-suppression with corticosteroids (such as prednisone) remains the center of therapy for GME. Once the disease is controlled, one may begin to gradually drop the steroid dose until the minimum dose required to control the disease is reached. This process can be expected to require 4 months or so. It is unusual for a patient to be able to fully discontinue medication but at least stronger immune-suppressive agents are rarely required.
A chemotherapy agent called procarbazine has been combined with prednisone to improve the legnth of GME remission. Other immunomodulatory drugs if Pred is not tolerated |
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