Term
| What system of organization/structure are most hospitals? |
|
Definition
| Professional bureaucracies |
|
|
Term
Key components of
Bureaucracy |
|
Definition
*Departmentalization of tasks/labor *Specialization of function(s)
*WORK IS STANDARDIZED
*Formal systems of communication
*Adherence to fixed rules
*Heirarchy of command/authority |
|
|
Term
Although the term Bureaucracy now has a negative connotation, Max Weber had originally proposed the term to define the ideal, intentionally rational, most efficient form of organization.
TRUE OR FALSE? |
|
Definition
| TRUE - the design is intended to foster an organization's survival and success |
|
|
Term
This type of theory when applied to organizations is built around 4 elements:
1. Division and specialization of labor
2. Organizational structure
3. Chain of command
4. Span of control |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The components of this theory's framework include input, throughput, and output |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This type of care is conducted in physician's offces, ER's, PH clinics and is considered the patient's first encounter with the health care system:
A) Acute care
B) Primary care
C) Fast-acting care
D) Functional care |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Retail medicine and Logic model are models of what type of care? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most hospitals are _______ care facilities (short-term or episodic) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This type of care is the intermittent, temporary delivery of health care in the home by skilled or unskilled providers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As the population ages and the elderly account for more and more of the nation's citizens, this type of care is on the rise and will keep growing... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 types of managed-care organizations that exist? |
|
Definition
1. HMO (Health maintenance organizations)
2. PPO (Preferred provider organizations)
3. POS (Point-of-service plans) |
|
|
Term
In this type of managed-care organization, a fixed monthly fee called CAPITATION is charged to the enrollees?
A) ACO
B) POS
C) PPO
D) HMO |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This type of managed care organization contracts with independent practioners to provide enrollees discounted rates; if the enrollee chooses to go outside this contracted network of providers they will have to pay significant co-pays |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A HMO-PPO Hybrid, this managed care system allows enrollees to go outside their network of contracted physicians but the enrollees may incur additional costs in copays, deductibles or premiums |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Effective Jan. 2012, _______ _______ organizations have been able to contract with Medicare to provide care for Medicare recipients...usu. made up of a group of providers that provide care to a specified group of patients |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This type of plan projects the organization's goals and activities into the future; guides the direction the organization is to take:
A) Vision strategy
B) Business plan model
C) Strategic planning
D) Chaos theory |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The 4 components that are the basis for an organization's STRATEGIC PLAN? |
|
Definition
1. Philosophy - written statement that reflects the organizational values, vision and mission
2. Values - the beliefs and attitudes esteemed by the organizational leaders
3. Vision statement - describes the goal to which the organization aspires; designed to inspire and motivate employees to achieve a desired state of affairs.
4. Mission - a broad, general statement of the organization's reason for existence - necessary first step in strategic planning |
|
|
Term
What is the necessary first step in designing a strategic plan?
A) Writing the Value Statement
B) Creating a Policy and Procedures manual
C) Consulting Plato as the basis for the organization's philosophy
D) Identifying/Writing the Mission Statement |
|
Definition
| D) Identifying/Writing the Mission Statement |
|
|
Term
| What is a SWOT and when is it done? |
|
Definition
A SWOT is and analysis of an organization's:
S - Strengths
W - Weaknesses
O - Opportunities
T - Threats
*It is one of the first steps in strategic planning. |
|
|
Term
| Physicians, administrators, nurses, ancillary and support staff and community representatives are all considered _____ _________, that should be interviewed/consulted when creating a strategic plan? |
|
Definition
Key Stakeholders
(Hello, remember me? I'm public health & I'm back to haunt you ;) |
|
|
Term
Strategic planning is a fixed task that must be done within 6 months and will not change whether goals are met or not
True
or
False |
|
Definition
| FALSE - Strategic planning is an ONGOING process with continual evaluation of goal completion and resource utilization. |
|
|
Term
| Systems involving ________ __________ & ________ __________ create organizational environments that reward decision making, creativity, independence, and autonomy |
|
Definition
Participatory Management
&
Shared Governance |
|
|
Term
| Model of Nursing also known as TASK nursing in which a group of patients are broken down into tasks that are assigned to RNs, LPNs or UAP's... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In this model of nursing, a main advantage is that the staff become very efficient and effective at performing their regular assigned tasks:
A) Team Nursing
B) Primary Nursing
C) Total Patient Care
D) Functional (Task) Nursing |
|
Definition
| D) Functional Task Nursing |
|
|
Term
| Uneven continuity, lack of holistic understanding of the patient, and problems with follow up are all disadvantages of what type of nursing model? |
|
Definition
| Functional (Task) Nursing |
|
|
Term
| To be effective, this type of nursing model requires that all team members have good communication skills |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a KEY ASPECT of TEAM NURSING? |
|
Definition
| The Nursing Care Conference, where the team leader reviews all team members each patient's plan of care and progress |
|
|
Term
| Under this system, a team of nursing personnel provides total patient care and has a holistic perspective of the needs of each patient.. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Problems in ______ and _______ are the most common reasons why team nursing is less effective than it theoretically could be |
|
Definition
Delegation
&
Communication |
|
|
Term
This was the original model of nursing care also known as CASE METHOD?
A) Total Patient Care
B) Primary Nursing
C) Team Nursing
D) Functional Nursing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main disadvantage of Total Patient Care? |
|
Definition
| RN's spend some time doing tasks that could be done more COST-EFFECTIVELY by less skilled persons; this inefficiency adds to the EXPENSE of using total patient care system. |
|
|
Term
| What is the core principle of PRIMARY NURSING? |
|
Definition
| Decentralized decision making by staff nursing, with responsibility and authority for nursing care allocated to staff nurses at bedside |
|
|
Term
This type of nurse designs, implements, and is accountable for the nursing care of patients in the patient load for the duration of the patient's stay on the unit:
A) A-type personality nurse
B) Primary nurse
C) Licensed practical nurse
D) Charge nurse |
|
Definition
B) Primary nurse
*Primary nursing was designed to place the registered nurse back at bedside and care is given by that nurse or associate nurses (other RN's) |
|
|
Term
What model of nursing ADVANCED the professional practice of nursing significantly because it provided the following components:
* A knowledge-based practice model
* Decentralization of nursing care decisions, authority, and responsibility to the staff nurse
* 24 hour accountability for nursing care activities by one nurse
* Improved continuity and coordination of care
* Increased nurse, patient, and physician satisfaction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe 5 disadvantages of
PRIMARY NURSING |
|
Definition
1. It requires excellent communication between the primary nurse and associate nurses.
2. Primary nurses must be able to hold associate nurses accountable for implementing the nursing care as prescribed.
3. Because of transfers to different units, critically ill patients may have several primary care nurses, disrupting the continuity of care
4. Staff nurses are neither compensated nor legally responsible for patient care outside their hours of work
5. Associates may be unwilling to take direction from the primary nurse. |
|
|
Term
Who is responsible for identifying, coordinating, and monitoring the implementation of services needed to achieve desired patient care outcomes within a specified period of time?
A) Primary Nurse
B) Hospitalist
C) Case Manager
D) Maintenance Supervisor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A CASE MANAGER must analyze these events when a patient does not receive quality care, are not discharged on the planned date, and/or interventions on a critical pathway are not performed:
A) Variances
B) Incidents
C) No-no's
D) Disturbances |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term refers to the expected outcomes and care strategies developed by the collaborative practice team and is the tool that provides direction for managing the care of a specific patient during a specified time period? |
|
Definition
CRITICAL PATHWAYS
a.k.a.
CARE MAPS |
|
|
Term
The 3 H's that will determine if a patient qualifies for case management?
(Only 1 of any the H's is necessary to justify the employment of case management) |
|
Definition
The patient diagnosis is:
1. HIGH-VOLUME (cases that occur frequently, ie.total hip replacement on an orthopedic floor)
2. HIGH-COST (Specialized care, long-stays)
3. HIGH-RISK (Patients with complications, ventilation support, Pt's in ICU longer than 2 days) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Leader - anyone who uses interpersonal skills to INFLUENCE others to accomplish a specific goal
vs.
Manager - an individual EMPLOYED by and organization who is responsible and ACCOUNTABLE for efficiently accomplishing the goals of an organization. |
|
|
Term
Who created the
FORCE-FIELD MODEL OF CHANGE
theory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of leadership is based on the concepts of CHAOS theory; reality is constantly shifting, if one part of the system changes then the whole system changes - managers assume more of an influential facilitative role, rather than one of control and share information with all:
A) Shared leadership
B) Transformational leadership
C) Quantum leadership
D) Transactional leadership |
|
Definition
C) Quantum leadership
*Type of leadership that demands a different way of looking at work and leadership, CHANGE IS EXPECTED & leadership becomes a SHARED ACTIVITY |
|
|
Term
| What type of leadership is a nurse manager displaying if he/she promises a staff nurse the week of Christmas off if they will work overtime for the next 3 days? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __________ LEADERSHIP is based on social exchange; leaders use incentives to enhance employee loyalty and performance. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A charge nurse is able to convince 3 staff nurses to attend a continuing education seminar on their days off (even though they will not be compensated and have already met their credits). She does this by appealing to their conscious; detailing the ways in which they may improve the care & outcomes of their patients. What type of leadership is she displaying?
A) Quantum Leadership
B) Transactional Leadership
C) Transformational Leadership
D) Shared Leadership |
|
Definition
| C) Transformational leadership - these leaders focus on merging the motives, desires, values, and goals of leaders and followers into a common cause; these leaders appeal to individuals' better selves rather than these individuals' self-interests. |
|
|
Term
This type of leadership has the essential elements of relationships, dialogues, partnerships, and boundaries; it assumes that the notion of a single nurse as the wise and heroic leader is unrealistic and a group of individuals at various levels in the organization must be responsible for the organization's fate and performance:
A) Shared Leadership
B) Transformational Leadership
C) Transactional Leadership
D) Quantum Leadership |
|
Definition
A) Shared Leadership
*The application of shared leadership assumes that a well-educated, highly professional, dedicated workforce is comprised of MANY LEADERS |
|
|
Term
1. Servant leadership is based on what premise?
2. What 3 characteristics do servant leaders embody? |
|
Definition
1. Servant leadership is based on the premise that LEADERSHIP ORIGINATES FROM THE DESIRE TO SERVE, and that in the course of serving, one may be called upon to lead.
2. The 3 characteristics are:
I. Empathy
II. Awareness
III. Persuasion |
|
|
Term
| This type of leadership is based on personal beliefs and characteristics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Relational Leadership is based on
____________ and ____________. |
|
Definition
| Collaboration and Teamwork |
|
|
Term
| Which nursing organization established the "5 areas of competency" for nurse leaders? |
|
Definition
AONE
American Organization of Nurse Executives |
|
|
Term
| Which nursing position is "not formally a manager, but supervises LPNs and other assistive personal" so in a sense, IS a manager? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which nursing/management position is responsible for the day-to-day activities of specific units and supervises the work of nonmanagerial personnel?
A) Staff Nurse
B) Charge Nurse
C) Clinical Nurse Leader
D) First-level Manager |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Charge Nurse
vs.
First Level Manager |
|
Definition
Charge Nurse - responsibilities confined to a specific shift or task
vs.
First Level Manager - 24 hour responsibility and accountability for all unit activites |
|
|
Term
| Which position is an "expanded staff nurse role with increased responsibility; this person functions as a liaison to the nurse manager, assisting in shift-by-shift coordination of patient care and use of resources? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Define
CLINICAL NURSE LEADER |
|
Definition
| Not a manager, per se, but instead a LATERAL INTEGRATOR OF CARE responsible for specified group of clients within a healthcare setting. Duties include: Coordinating care at bedside & supervising the health care team. Prepared with a Master's Degree |
|
|
Term
| What must every LEADER have? |
|
Definition
| Followers (or followership) |
|
|
Term
| A ____________ is an active participant in the relationship with the leader. An effective __________ has the courage to be an active contributor to the team and to the leader. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the AONE 5 AREAS OF COMPETENCY? |
|
Definition
1. Communication and Relationships-Building
2. Knowledge of the Health Care Environment
3. Leadership Skills
4. Professionalism
5. Business Skills |
|
|
Term
Describe some qualities of a
SUCCESSFUL LEADER |
|
Definition
* Skilled in empowering others
* Create meaning (for why things should be done)
* Facilitate learning
* Develop knowledge
* Thinking reflectively
* Skilled COMMUNICATORS
* Problem-solving/Decision making skills
* Able to generate excitement
* Clearly define their purpose & mission
* Understand people & their needs
* Recognize & appreciate differences in people, individualing their approach if needed. |
|
|
Term
What is defined as "a continually unfolding process rather than an either/or event. The process begins with the present state, is disrupted, moves through a transition period, and ultimately comes to a desired state"?
or much simplier this "is the process of making something different from what it was?" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a nurse is proactive in shaping the future, make adjustments to a system, or reformulates patient education, they are acting as a:
A) Driving Force
B) Change Agent
C) First level Manager
D) Total Patient Care Nurse |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are Lewin's three-steps in his force-field model of change? |
|
Definition
Unfreezing -> Moving -> Refreezing
Just like McDonald's hamburgers :) |
|
|
Term
| According to Lewin, change occurs when _____ forces outnumber _______ forces |
|
Definition
Change occurs when more Driving forces are present because:
Driving forces facilitate change by pushing participants in the desired direction whereas
Restraining forces impede change because they push participants in the opposite direction |
|
|
Term
What are the 4 steps of the
CHANGE PROCESS? |
|
Definition
1. ASSESSMENT
2. PLANNING
3. IMPLEMENTATION
4. EVALUATION
Time for a CHANGE: "Instead of a cake I will eat APIE".... badum dum dum.... |
|
|
Term
| How can RESISTANCE to change be considered "good"? |
|
Definition
| It forces the change agent to clarify information, keep interest level high, and establish why change is necessary |
|
|
Term
| How can RESISTANCE to change be considered "good"? |
|
Definition
| It forces the change agent to clarify information, keep interest level high, and establish why change is necessary |
|
|
Term
| 8 steps in handling resistance to change: |
|
Definition
1.TALK to those who OPPOSE the change..find out why..
2. CLARIFY INFORMATION & provide feedback
3. Be OPEN TO REVISIONS but clear about what must remain
4. Present the NEGATIVE CONSEQUENCES of resistance (why the change should occur)
5. EMPHASIZE THE POSITIVE outcomes of the change, how the individual/group will benefit.
6. Keep RESISTERS in constant contact with SUPPORTERS
7. Maintain a CLIMATE OF TRUST, support, and confidence
8. DIVERT ATTENTION by creating a different disturbance. |
|
|
Term
| Creativity, Problem Solving, and Decision Making are the 3 components of the Critical Thinking Model. True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the CRITICAL THINKING PROCESS |
|
Definition
| Critical thinking is the process of examining underlying assumptions, interpreting and evaluating arguments, imagining and exploring alternatives, and developing reflective criticism for the purpose of reaching a conclusion that can be justified. |
|
|
Term
Characteristics of
UNPLANNED CHANGE |
|
Definition
* Can be an ALTERATION (reaction) imposed by external events or persons:
-Usually haphazard
-Results might be unpredictable or positive
-Situational (death)
-Natural (flood)
*Can be caused by DRIFT:
-Change occurs without effort on anyone's part |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 types of change? |
|
Definition
1. Planned
2. Unplanned
3. Overt
4. Covert |
|
|
Term
Characteristics of
PLANNED CHANGE |
|
Definition
*INTENDED, Purposeful change
*Initiators attempt to INFLUENCE others to accept change. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
*A change that is not hidden or secret; people are aware of the change but it may not be an intended/purposeful.
For example: A new medication (nurses need to learn what it is, how to give, etc.) |
|
|
Term
| What happens in the UNFREEZING step of Lewin's Model of Change? |
|
Definition
*Need for change is recognized
*Driving and restraining forces identified --> Likelihood of acceptance of change --> If people are involved, they will be more accepting
*Leaders deal with resistance
*Alternate solutions are identified
*Participants are motivated to change |
|
|
Term
| Main event of the REFREEZING step of Lewin's Model of Change? |
|
Definition
| The change is integrated and STABILIZED |
|
|
Term
| What happens in the MOVING step of Lewin's Model of Change? |
|
Definition
*Participants agree the status quo is undesirable
*PLANNING for the change
*IMPLEMENTATION of the change |
|
|
Term
Health Care Reform Policy as established by the federal government is what type of power?
A) Normative-Reeducative Strategy
B) Empirical-Rational Model
C) Power-Coercive Strategy
D) Neroism |
|
Definition
| C) Power-Coercive Strategy - these strategies are based on the application of power by legitimate authority (lawmakers, company policy makers), economic sanctions (financial departments, lawmakers again), or political clout. - People in control make changes |
|
|
Term
What is the POWER INGREDIENT in the EMPIRICAL-RATIONAL model of change?
A) Knowledge
B) Garlic
C) Persuasion
D) Data |
|
Definition
| A) Knowledge - the assumption is that people who are rational will accept a change if it's benefit is explained to them. The leader can exert power to persuade people to accept a rationally justified change that will benefit them. |
|
|
Term
| _____________-_____________ strategies of change rest on the assumption that people act in accordance with SOCIAL NORMS AND VALUES. |
|
Definition
NORMATIVE-REEDUCATIVE STATEGIES -
Information & rational arguments are not enough persuasion for some people so the change agent must focus on noncognitive determinants of behavior - people's roles & relationships, perceptions, attitudes and feelings. The change agent must be skilled in INTERPERSONAL RELATIONSHIPS |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 RIGHTS OF DELEGATION? |
|
Definition
1. Right TASK
2. Right CIRCUMSTANCES
3. Right PERSON
4. Right DIRECTION AND COMMUNICATION
5. Right SUPERVISION |
|
|
Term
| HOMAN'S framework of GROUP THEORY states that groups develop in what phases? |
|
Definition
1. Form
2. Storm
3. Norm
4. Perform
5. Adjourn/Re-form |
|
|
Term
Characteristics of the
FORMING phase of group work |
|
Definition
*Individuals assemble into a well-defined cluster.
*Group members cautious and depend on leader for direction.
*Characterized by UNCERTAINTY about the purpose, structure and leadership of the group. |
|
|
Term
What happens in the
STORMING phase of group work? |
|
Definition
*Everybody fights!
*Members are competitive with one another, this stage is marked with conflict and confrontation (about their assigned roles, who takes what tasks, etc.) |
|
|
Term
This phase of group work (as defined by Homan) is characterized by cooperation and collaboration. Cohesion begins & the group's structure, roles and relationships become clearer.
A) Storming
B) Bro-ing
C) Performing
D) Norming |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the group is fully functional, the ________ phase of group work (Homan)is in place; group becomes task-oriented and cooperation and communication improve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Events of the
Adjourning/Reforming Stage |
|
Definition
ADJOURNING - group dissolves after objectives have been met
RE-FORMING - some major element has been changed (loss of group member, new change topic, etc.) which forces the group to start over again and go, once again, through the 4 previous stages. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
POWER - the potential ability to INFLUENCE OTHERS
vs.
POLITICS - the art of influencing others to ACHIEVE A GOAL |
|
|
Term
______ POWER is based on the inducements the manager can offer group members in exchange for cooperation and contributions to the manager's objectives. Group member obey this type of power for personal benefits.
A) Coercive
B) Reward
C) Information
D) Expert |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Motivation to comply with this type of power is based on fear of PUNISHMENT or withholding of rewards.
A) Coercive
B) Reward
C) Smack-Down
D) Referent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Legitimate power is based on unique skills, knowledge and competence; employees are motivated to comply because they respect the manager's expertise. TRUE OR FALSE? |
|
Definition
| FALSE - This is EXPERT POWER. Expert power develops from education and experience. Ex: Staff nurses will usually comply with a more seasoned nurse or one with a higher degree (NP). |
|
|
Term
| When employees comply with a manager's request because they view the manager as an authority figure who has the right to impose requirements, sanctions, and rewards due to their position in the company is known as what type of POWER? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Referent power is based on admiration and respect for an individual. Followers comply because they like and identify with the manager. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An aggregate of individuals who interact and mutually influence each other. |
|
|
Term
| ___________ are real groups in which individuals must work cooperatively with each other in order to achieve some overarching goal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a group, the member who motivates others to accomplish goals is known as?
A) Information seeker
B) Elaborator
C) Recorder
D) Energizer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This group member redefines problems and offers solutions, clarifies objectives, suggests agenda items and maintains time limits:
A) Elaborator
B) Coordinator
C) Initiator-contributor
D) Evaluator-critic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name for the socioemotional group member who "conveys to group members what their pertinent values should be?" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When a delegator loses control over a situation by providing the delegate with too much authority or too much responsibility is known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe 3 scenarios in which
UNDERDELEGATION
can occur |
|
Definition
1. The delegator fails to transfer full authority to the delegate
2. The delegator takes back responsibility for aspects of the task
3. The delegator fails to equip and direct the delegate. |
|
|
Term
| What is a "contractual agreement in which authority and responsibility for a task is transferred by the person accountable for the task to another individual"? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Total Quality Management is aimed at ensuring _________ and containing ______ |
|
Definition
| Total Quality Management is aimed at ensuring QUALITY and containing COSTS |
|
|
Term
This process/philosophy moved health care from a mode of identifying failed standards, problems, and problem people to a PROACTIVE organization in which problems are PREVENTED and ways to IMPROVE CARE and QUALITY are sought?
a. Self-discipline
b. Nurse Evaluation Union
c. Core Measures
d. Total Quality Management (TQM) |
|
Definition
| d. Total Quality Management |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 core characteristics of Total Quality Management? |
|
Definition
1. Customer/client focus
2. TOTAL ORGANIZATIONAL INVOLVEMENT (remember this one - distinguishing characteristic of TQM)
3. Use of quality tools and statistics for measurement
4. Key processes for improvement identified |
|
|
Term
| An lab technician employed by the hospital is considered an external customer. True or False |
|
Definition
| False. A lab technician employed by the hospital is an INTERNAL Customer |
|
|
Term
| JACHO, Insurance reps, patients, visitors, physicians, and managed-care organizations are all what type of customers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This process basically eliminates the attitude of "That's not my job" in an organization. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___________ customers include employees and departments within an organization (laboratory, admitting, environmental services, etc) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
PDCA cycle refers to?
a. Plan, Do, Check, Act
b. Plan, Delegate, Check, Assess
c. Prepare, Do, Count, Act
d. Prepare, Delegate, Council, Act |
|
Definition
| a. Plan, Do, Check, Act - a model/tool created by Dr. Deming to measure the effectiveness of any TQM plan put in place. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 key processes for improvement (as identified by TQM)? |
|
Definition
1. Systems related (admitting, discharging, and transferring patients)
2. Clinical (administering meds, managing pain)
3. Managerial (risk management, performance eval's) |
|
|
Term
_________ is the process used to investigate systematically ways to improve patient care:
a. TQM
b. CQI
c. Six Sigma
d. JACHO |
|
Definition
| b. CQI (Continuous Quality Improvement) - a never-ending endeavor. 4 major players in the CQI Process are: Resource Group, Coordinator, Team leader, and Team. |
|
|
Term
| A QUALITY MANAGEMENT PLAN is a systematic method to design, measure, assess, and improve organizational performance. TRUE or FALSE? |
|
Definition
| TRUE - A Comprehensive Quality Management Plan identifies processes and systems that represent the goals and missions of an organization, identifies customers, and specifies opportunities for improvement. |
|
|
Term
Critical Paths are and example of:
a. Hospital Policies
b. Healthcare Delivery Models
c. Quality Management Plans
d. Performance Evaluations |
|
Definition
| c. Quality Management Plans - Critical paths identify expected outcomes within a specific time frame. |
|
|
Term
| What are standards or "benchmark" standards? |
|
Definition
| Written statements that define a level of performance or a set of conditions determined to be acceptable by some authorities. |
|
|
Term
| This is a tool used to measure the performance of structure, process and outcome standards.... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This type of quality management program uses, primarily, QUANTITATIVE data to monitor progress.
a. One Omega
b. Six Sigma
c. Twelve Theta
d. Seven Scooby-Snacks |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Six Sigma tolerates ____________, while striving for ___________. |
|
Definition
| Six Sigma tolerates failure (a necessary condition for creativity) while striving for perfection. |
|
|
Term
This quality management programs focuses on improving process flow and ELIMINATING WASTE, it is also DATA DRIVEN - focus is on identifiying steps that have little to no value..
a. Lean Six Sigma
b. Six Sigma
c. TQI
d. EBP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DMAIC is process associated with? What does DMAIC stand for? |
|
Definition
Six Sigma
D- Define what measures will indicate success.
M - Measure baseline performance
A - Analyze results
I - Improve performance
C - Control and sustain performance |
|
|
Term
The goals of 1) Identifying patients correctly, 2) Prevent infection, 3) Prevent mistakes in surgery...are all example goals created by:
a. IHI
b. Six Sigma
c. National Quality Forum
d. Joint Commission or JACHO |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name 3 organizations that have created goals and/or standards of care that are considered NATIONAL INITIATIVES? |
|
Definition
1. National Quality Forum (NQF)
2. Institute of Healthcare Improvement (IHI)
3. Joint Commission (JACHO) |
|
|
Term
No needless deaths,
No needless pain or suffering,
No helplessness in those served or serving,
No unwanted waiting, and
No waste
are all goals of which organization?
a. JACHO (Joint Commission)
b. ARMC (Arrowhead Regional)
c. IHI (Institute of Healthcare Improvement)
d. IOM (Institute of Medicine) |
|
Definition
| c. IHI (Institute of Healthcare Improvement |
|
|
Term
This type of culture inhibits reporting of inadequate practice, underreporting of adverse events, and inattention to possible safety problems?
a. Blame culture
b. Laissez-faire culture
c. Leaderless culture
d. Just culture |
|
Definition
| a. Blame culture (a major source of medical errors and poor quality of patient care when it is the prevalent culture in a hospital) |
|
|
Term
| What does a "JUST CULTURE" allow and provide for? |
|
Definition
| A Just Culture allows for reporting of errors without fear of undue retribution & provides an environment in which employees can question policies and practices, express concerns and admit mistakes without fear. |
|
|
Term
This type of program focuses on reducing accidents and injuries and intervening if either occurs?
a. Loss Prevention
b. Hazard Watch
c. Risk Management
d. Disciplinary Panel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2 ways to help reduce risk? |
|
Definition
1. Have a CARING ATTITUDE
2. Pay PROMPT ATTENTION to COMPLAINTS |
|
|
Term
Interview No No's (for the interview not the applicant)
*17 items they cannot ask about
*4 items they cannot request before hiring |
|
Definition
17 things that an interviewer cannot ask about in an interview are:
1. Race
2. Color
3. Religion
4. Sex/Sexual Orientation
5. National Origin
6. Ancestry
7. Family history (ie. health history/father or mother's surnames, where they came from, etc).
8. Language (unless required for job)
9. Inquiries about relatives or people that live with you.
10. Children/Child-Care arrangements
11. Transportation to & from work (unless rquired by job)
12. Disabilities/Health Status/Illnesses
13. Military Service in any country other than the U.S.
14. ?'s on willingness to work on religious holidays
15. Banking habits/credit ratings
16. Arrests or convictions (unless security clearance needed for job)
17. AGE - OK only to ask if the person is over 18 (An FYI from me, it is a HUGE NO NO in hiring/interviewing to talk about age if the person has already put on application they are over 18).
4 items that cannot be requested BEFORE hiring:
1. Birth certificate or baptismal record.
2. Proof of citizenship
3. Military records
4. Photograph(s) |
|
|
Term
| 6 responsibilities of a Nurse Manager in the Hiring process: |
|
Definition
1. Knowing HR policies/procedures related to staffing
2. Working with HR to select & hire qualified staff
3. Knowing state/federal regulations r/t application & interview process
4. Preparing for interviews
5. Conducting interviews
6. Following up with applicants in a timely manner. |
|
|
Term
| 7 Things to consider when selecting an applicant: |
|
Definition
1. Education level of applicant
2. Experience of applicant
3. Job requirements
4. Patient acuity
5. Clinic populations
6. Autonomy
7. Degree of specialization needed |
|
|
Term
This Law specifically prohibits discrimination in any personnel decision on the basis of race, color, sex, religion, or national origin:
a. Equal Pay Act of 1963
b. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
c. Age Discrimination Act of 1967
d. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 |
|
Definition
| b. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 - Any "personnel decision" includes hiring, selection for entrance into a training program, performance reviews, termination, promotions, compensation, benefits and other terms/conditions/privileges of employment. |
|
|
Term
What is the age cap of the AGE DISCRIMINATION ACT (ie. this act prohibits discrimination against applicants and employees over the age of ____):
a. 18
b. 65
c. 40
d. 16 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to the Americans with Disabilities Act, employees with 15 or more employees are required to make accommodations to the known disability of a qualified applicant. True or False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name six job performance indicators that will likely be included in an employee's performance review: |
|
Definition
1. Daily job performance
2. ATTENDANCE
3. PUNCTUALITY
4. Adherence to policies and procedures
5. Absence of incidents, errors, and accidents
6. Honesty and trustworthiness |
|
|
Term
| A well planned __________ reduces new employee anxiety and helps to socialize the employee into the workplace. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a new employee is assigned to work with an experienced nurse or nurse manager; this type of training/orientation is called:
a. Hit-the-ground running
b. Experience-based
c. Mode of excellency
d. On-the-job instruction |
|
Definition
| d. On-the-job instruction |
|
|
Term
Difference between Mentoring and Precepting:
a. Precepting is only for nursing students and Mentoring is for new hires
b. Precepting is usu. short term & used for orientation and Mentoring is long term and involves a bigger investment of personal energy.
3. Mentoring only occurs off the clock and Precepting must be done on the clock.
4. Mentoring usually involves a person with the same education/experience as the mentee whereas Precepting involves a more experienced leader. |
|
Definition
| b. Precepting is usu. associated with the orientation of staff and is shorter term than Mentoring. Mentoring occurs over a much longer period and involves a bigger investment of personal energy. |
|
|
Term
A _______ helps a staff member focus on solving a specific problem or conflict that interferes with the employee's SATISFACTION at work:
a. Coach
b. Mentor
c. Preceptor
d. Physician (yeah right ha ha) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does a good "Coach" do? |
|
Definition
| They work with a staff member, confidentially, to address their job dissatisfaction. The coach helps the staff member to explore the exact nature of the problem, consider alternatives, delve into embedded issues, discover links, and the disadvantages of leaving. |
|
|
Term
| The point of many of the development/training modules (ie. on-the-job, precepting, coaching, etc) is to increase JOB SATISFACTION, REDUCE TURNOVER, and PROMOTE INDIVIDUAL DEVELOPMENT? True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How well an employee performs a job (ie. quality of job performance), depends on what? |
|
Definition
1. Their ABILITY to do the job.
2. MOTIVATION |
|
|
Term
As an RN you will be a ______ ______ to other staff regardless of your formal position title:
a. Natural Leader
b. Role Model
c. Mama/Papa Bear
d. Mentor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the 4 types of
PERFORMANCE REVIEWS/EVALUATIONS |
|
Definition
1. Peer Review
2. Self-Evaluation
3. Group Evaluation
4. Manager's Evaluation |
|
|
Term
Critical Incidents? Wha dat?
a. Reports used by managers which include any critical care patients.
b. Reports created by an employee in which they rate their own job performance.
c. Reports used by managers when evaluating an employee's performance; these are reports of employee behaviors that are out of the ordinary, in either a positive or a negative description.
d. The number of times Dwight Howard has actually made a free throw. |
|
Definition
| c. These "Critical Incident" reports are used by managers when writing an employee's review. The reports include: name of employee, date and time of incident, a brief description of what occurred, and the nurse manager's comments on what transpired. |
|
|
Term
In setting a peer-review, a manager would most likely select what group of people to do a performance appraisal on a peer?
a. Senior Management
b. Known enemies
c. Employees familiar with the person, who know what is required of the job, and will be as un-biased as possible
d. The employee's bestest-good-friends |
|
Definition
| c. In a peer review, a manager will select 2-4 peers (neither close friends or sworn enemies) of the person to write appraisals. |
|
|
Term
| 7 "To Do's" when conducting a performance review/appraisal (for the manager) |
|
Definition
1. Put the employee at ease
2. Clearly state the purpose of the appraisal interview.
3. Go through the ratings one by one with the employee.
4. Draw out the employee's reactions to the ratings.
5. Decide on specific ways in which performance areas can be strengthened.
6. Set a follow-up date.
7. Express confidence in the employee (unless you just can't stand them, J/K) |
|
|
Term
| Why is "On-the-job instruction" the most widely used educational/orientation method used when training a new nurse? |
|
Definition
1. It is the most cost-effective.
2. Nurses learn while they are providing care.
3. No outside facility or educational person needs to be hired. |
|
|
Term
Residency programs for new RN's (usually 12 or 18 months in length) have been shown to reduce?
a. Medication errors
b. Safety incidents
C. Employee satisfaction
d. Turnover rates |
|
Definition
| d. Turnover rates - some new grad programs lessened turnover rates by half the national average. |
|
|
Term
| When several managers rank an employee's performance to reduce personal bias, it is what type of performance evaluation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
JACHO says that all health care organizations must include this category when performing an employee evaluation:
a. Skill(s) Competency
b. Charting Accuracy
c. Diagnostic Skills
d. Interpersonal Communication |
|
Definition
| a. Skills Competency - If skills are required of one's position then validation of competency is required. |
|
|
Term
RECENCY ERROR
VS.
HALO ERROR |
|
Definition
Both errors refer to errors that are made when evaluation employee performance.
RECENCY ERROR - this occurs when a manager only considers recent events or recent quality of performance (they do not take into account how the employee performed over the long-term period)
VS.
HALO ERROR - occurs when a manager fails to differentiate among the various performance dimensions (e.g. nursing process, communication skills) when evaluating an employee and assigns ratings on the basis of overall impression). |
|
|
Term
Hypothetical:
As a manager, I really like a nurse's bedside manner and communication skills. I know that he/she is still struggling with heparin dosage but when I evaluate them I give them 5 stars in ALL categories (communication AND medication administration). What type of appraisal error am I committing?
a. Ambiguous error
b. Halo error
c. Recency error
d. Bias error |
|
Definition
| b. Halo error - The nurse should not be given high marks on medication administration but because I just wuv their communication skills so much, I gave them high marks on meds anyway... |
|
|
Term
Another hypothetical:
Our company uses ratings such as "outstanding", "above average", "needs improvement", and in the med-surg South unit most employees receive "needs improvement" ratings and in the Med Surg North unit most receive "outstanding" ratings. Now, the trick is in both units the nurses are of equal education and skills competencies but the manager of Med-Surg South has a personal philosophy that all nurses could learn more/do better so they "need improvement" whereas the Med-Surg North Manager feels that the nurses meet their specific job requirements at an "outstanding" level. This is called?
a. Managerial Prejudice
b. Inequality of Appraisal
c. Ambiguous Evaluation Standards
d. Ambivalent Evaluation Standards |
|
Definition
C. Ambiguous Evaluation Standards
When words are used, such as "outstanding", "needs improvement, etc. as rating categories different managers attach different meanings to the words. |
|
|
Term
Define:
Day-to-Day Coaching |
|
Definition
| The everyday process of helping employees improve their performance. *Considered one of the most difficult tasks of a manager so it is often neglected |
|
|
Term
| The goal of COACHING is to eliminate or improve _______________ ____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 6 steps of successful COACHING: |
|
Definition
1. State the targeted performance in BEHAVIORAL terms.
2. Tie the problem to CONSEQUENCES for patient care, the functioning of the organization or the person's self-interest.
3. Having stated the problem behavior avoid JUMPING TO CONCLUSIONS but instead EXPLORE reasons for the problem WITH the employee.
4. ASK the EMPLOYEE for his/here SUGGESTIONS and discuss ideas for how to solve the problem.
5. DETERMINE how formal the coaching should be prior to initiation (ie. minor offense vs. major offense)
6. Arrange for a FOLLOW-UP meeting, at which time the employee will receive performance feedback. |
|
|
Term
A process which occurs when an employee is given increasingly severe warnings for repeated violations and can result in termination:
a. Chain-of-command discipline
b. Human Resources Round Table
c. Unjust Discrimination
d. Progressive Discipline |
|
Definition
| d. Progressive Discipline |
|
|
Term
When an employee's ability to attend is affected by a. personal illness or injury, b. family responsibilities (e.g. sick kid), or c. transportation problems; this is known as:
a. Attendance challenges
b. Disregard for Attendance policies
c. Flagrant behavior
d. Attendance barriers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A nurse calls in stating "I can't come in because I need to finish moving", this would be an example of:
a. Voluntary absenteeism
b. Involuntary absenteeism
c. A fired nurse
d. Policy violation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Taking a sick-day due to food poisoning would be considered:
a. A fired nurse
b. Involuntary absenteeism
c. Policy Violation
d. Voluntary absenteeism |
|
Definition
| b. Involuntary absenteeism |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The number of scheduled days an employee misses |
|
|
Term
Under this act, all public employees and all private employers with 50 or more employees must provide their employees with leave of up to 12 weeks during any 12-month period for the employee's own serious illness, their birth or adoption of a child, the placement of a foster child into the household, or the care of a seriously ill child, spouse or parent.
a. Obamacare
b. Family and Medical Leave Act
c. Social Security Act of 1943
d. Medicare/Medicaid Act of 1965 |
|
Definition
| b. Family and Medical Leave Act |
|
|
Term
To qualify for FMLA (Family and Medical Leave Act) an employee must have worked for the employer for at least ____ months?
a. 12
b. 6
c. 3
d. 24 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The number of staff members who vacate a position. |
|
|
Term
Voluntary
vs.
Involuntary
TURNOVER |
|
Definition
Voluntary Turnover - Employee CHOOSES to leave (Take this job and shove it!)
vs.
Involuntary Turnover - Employee is TERMINATED by the organization (You suck, don't let the door hit ya where the good lord split ya!) |
|
|
Term
This occurs when new nurses are paid at higher starting salaries or those with fewer years of experience are rewarded with higher pay and because of this, the salaries of long-term employees are at or below those of less experienced (newer) nurses?
a. Salary Bias
b. Salary Injustice
c. Salary Incentive
d. Salary Compression |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is collective action taken by workers to secure better wages or working conditions called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
These are formal complaints that may be caused by misunderstandings, a lack of familiarity with the contract, or an inadequate labor agreement:
a. Whining
b. Grievances
c. Conflicts
d. Alarms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In healthcare organizations in which unions are present, the nurse manager may NOT interfere with union _______, but may be involved in resolving _______.
a. meetings, strikes
b. leadership elections, funds collection
c. organizing, grievances
d. dissolution, agreements |
|
Definition
| c. Nurse managers may NOT interfere in union ORGANIZING, but MAY be involved in resolving GRIEVANCES |
|
|
Term
| Most nurses do not work under collective bargaining agreements. TRUE or FALSE? |
|
Definition
| TRUE: Per the book, the majority of American nurses do not work under a collective bargaining agreement. |
|
|
