What is the key component in the formation and repair of muscle fibers?

A. Fiber

B. Protein

C. Carbohydrates

D. Nitric Oxide

A. L-arginine

Which of the following is a non-essential amino acid alleged to be a growth hormone stimulator?

A. L-arginine

B. Glutamine

C. Valine

D.  Leucine

Which of the following negative effects can result from steroid abuse?

A. Elevated blood pressure

B. Myocardial hypertrophy

C. Depression of serum high-density lipoproteins

D. All of the above

_______ is a widely-used, naturally occurring weight loss supplement.

A. Orlistat

B. Caffeine

C. Aspirin

D. Mazindol

It is estimated that a harmful response to ephedra use occurs in about 1 per _____ people.

A. 10

B. 100

C. 1000

D. 10,000

1. base of support

2. the height of the center of gravity

3. line of gravitational pull

semitendinosus

semimembranosus

biceps femoris

growth hormone (GH)

insulin-like growth factor (IGF)

testosterone

thyroid hormone (T3)

Aldosterone

Cortisol

What resting heart rate response (value) will dictate that the subject needs to seek medical clearance prior to admittance into an exercise program?

_____ beats per min-1

body fat

lean body mass

below the muscle layer

around the organs

1. Background and purpose

2. Assumed risks of participation

3. Reasonably expected benefits

4. Reasonable explanation of procedures

5. Normal physiological expectations

Essential body fat levels for males are _____.

1. 1-2%

2. 3-5%

3. 6-8%

4. 9-12%

Essential body fat levels for females are _____.

1. 5-8%

2. 9-10%

3. 11-14%

4. 15-18%

Waist-to-Hip ratios present the greates risk when values are above ___ in men and ___ in women.

A. 0.6; 0.7

B. 0.7; 0.6

C. 0.8; 0.9

D. 0.9; 0.8

Subcutaneous fat represents approximately _____% of total fat stored in the body.

A. 20-40%

B. 30-50%

C. 40-60%

D. 50-70%

A waist circumference above ____ inches for males is associated with cardiovascular and metabolic disease.

A. 30

B. 40

C. 50

D. 60

Which body composition test would be most appropriate for a personal trainer?

A. Skinfold Assessment

B. Hydrostatic weighing

C. Air displacement plethsmography

D. Dual x-ray absorptiometry

Skinfold estimation error is most commonly attributed to testing error by the technician due to:

A. Inexperience

B. Variations in tissue consistency

C. Too much fat mass at the site

D. Incorrect site identification

E. All of the above

All of the following are bioelectrical impedance testing guidelines except:

A. No eating or drinking within 4 hours of the test

B. Don't void the bowel or bladder immediately before assessment

C. Noalcohol consumption for more than 24 hours

D. Avoid testing during female menstruation

Very low calorie diets (VLCD) usually contain between ____-____ calories.

A. 400-800

B. 800-1200

C. 1200-1600

D. 1400-1800

Exercise aimed at weight loss should focus on ______.

A. High intensity aerobic training

B. Resistance training

C. Caloric expenditure

D. Exercise in the fat-burning zone

The use of equations to predict resting metabolic rate (RMR) are based on which of the following principles?

A. RMR is proportionate to body size

B. RMR decreases with age

C. Muscle is more metabolically active than fat

D. All of the above

It is estimated that the addition of one pound of lean mass represents approximately _____ calories expended during rest per day.

A. 3-6

B. 7-10

C. 11-15

D. 16-19

D. 7

The caloric density of alcohol is  ____ kcals per gram.

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 7

Dietary intake of calories should not drop below ______ without medical supervision.

A. 800

B. 1200

C. 1500

D. 2000

During the upward movement phase of a free weight squat, the muscles of the quadriceps are contracting _______.

A. Eccentrically

B. Concentrically

C. Isometrically

D. Statically

A ______ pelvic tilt should precede the concentric contraction of the rectus abdominis in supine abdominal exercises.

A. Posterior

B. Anterior

C. Neutral

D. Inferior

During ballistic movements, such as the arm movement during throwing, the fast moving body segment is decelerated throughout the recovery phase by the _______.

A. Concentric contraction of the agonist

B. Eccentric contraction of the agonist

C. Concentric contraction of the antagonist

D. Eccentric contraction of the antagonist

Scapular retraction occurs durning the concentric phase of which of the following movements:

A. Shoulder press

B. Seated cable row

C. Bench press

D. Upright row

What is the predominant energy source being utilized during the performance of a 1RM bench press?

A. Stored ATP in the muscle

B. Glycolysis

C. Aerobic production of ATP

D. Stored adipose tissue

For a skeletal muscle to contract, the thick contractile protein ______ must bind to actin and generate cross-bridge movement.

A. Myosin

B. Tropomyosin

C. Troponin

D. Creatine phosphate

Which of the following adverse health effects is a potential outcome from excessive weight loss?

A. Infertility

B. Depression

C. Impaired temperature regulation

D. All of the above

Upon review of your client's Health Status Questionnaire you notice that they are currently taking a prescription B-blocker medication.  How would this affect the cardiovascular exercise prescription?

A. It would raise their maximum heart rate allowing them to train at higher intensities

B. It would reduce the heart rate and vigor of myocardial contractions and produce a lower cardiac output

C. It would increase the heart rate and vigor of myocardial contractions allowing for higher intensities to be reached during training

D. It would raise the client's blood pressure during exercise.

Which is the recommended sequence for getting a prospective client engaged in a regular exercise program?

A. Health history questionnaire, screening, informed consent, exercise testing

B. Screening, health history questionaire, exercise testing, informed consent

C. Informed consent, health history questionaire, screening, exercise testing

D. Informed consent, exercise testing, health history questionaire, screening

For a normal, apparently healthy individual, what is the recommended percentile range for the consumption of calories from fats, carbohydrates, and proteins, respectively?

A. <20%, 45-50%, 15-20%

B. <30%, 55-60%, 10-15%

C. <15%, 45-50%, 20-25%

D. < 10%, 55-60%, 20-25%

After reviewing a 3-day dietary log of a new male client you notice that he is deficient in his fiber intake.  Of the food selections listed below, which would you recommend to him to increase his fiber intake?

A. Flank steak

B. Broccoli

C. Low fat cheese

D. Salmon

For safe weight loss to occur, it is recommended that weight loss not exceed ____ pound(s) per week.

A. 1/2

B. 2

C. 4

D. 10

Aerobic exercise is important for weight control because:

A. Fat cell numbers can be reduced

B. Fat is the only fuel used in aerobic metabolism

C. Caloric expenditure can help create a negative caloric balance

D. All of the above

______ is a systematic process of planned variations in the training program over a period of time.

A. Frequency

B. Overload

C. Multi-set

D. Periodization

_______ is the system of strength training that consists of performing a single set of predetermined number of repetitions until performance failure.

A. High Intensity Training (HIT)

B. Mult-set

C. Circuit Training

D. Pre-Exhaustion

What is the correct resistance training system for a previously sedentary, apparently healthy, 42-year-old female that wants to lose 5 pounds and tone her muscles?

A. Circuit Training System

B. Pyramid System

C. Pre-Exhaustion System

D. Assisted Training System

During the performance of the Bent-Over-Row exercise, the muscles of the lower back should be:

A. Isometrically contracted

B. Dynamically contracted

C. Eccentrically contracted

D. Isolaterally contracted

ROM deficiencies in which of the following muscles can affect pelvic position and lead to Low Back Pain?

A. Psoas major

B. Biceps femoris

C. Semitendinous

D. All the above

When fitting a stability ball to a client for activities in the seated position:

A. The feet should be together to maximize stability

B. The hip and knees should maintain 90 degrees of flexion

C. The ankles should be dorsi flexed

D. The hips should be positioned slightly forward of the ball's center position.

Which of the following situations should be avoided with regards to children and exercise?

A. Exercise performed to the point of momentary muscle fatigue

B. Lifting resistance training loads greater that 10 RM

C. Utilizing free-weight resistance training

D. Performing overhead lifting movements

It is estimated that the number of deaths associated with a sedentary lifestyle is approximatley ______ annually.

A. 100,000

B. 200,000

C. 300,000

D. 400,000

Smokers are at ____% greater risk for heart disease than non-smokers.

A. 40

B. 50

C. 60

D. 70

Endurance trained athletes generally have _____ more circulating HDL cholesterol than same aged sedentary, but healthy individuals.

A. 10-20%

B. 20-30%

C. 30-40%

D. 40-50%

The body's ability to produce and sustain force output is known as _______.

A. Cardiorespiratory Fitness

B. Muscular Fitness

C. Cardiopulmonary Fitness

D. None of the above

The ability of the body to rapidly change direction is known as ________.

A. Speed

B. Quickness

C. Agility

D. Coordination

Physical activity is associated with a reduction in risk of which of the following diseases?

A. Colon Cancer

B. Hypertension

C. Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

D. Coronary heart disease

E. All of the above

Which of the following drugs acts on the kidneys to prevent the re-absorption of water?

A. Calcium Channel Blockers

B. Vasodilators

C. Diuretics

D. Beta-blockers

Currently about 1 of every _____ persons in the United States is classifiably hypertensive.

A. 3

B. 5

C. 7

D. 9

Which of the following is the key risk factor for developing osteoarthritis?

A. weight

B. activity level

C. race

D. age

The diagnostic criteria for Stage 1 hyertension is a diastolic value of _____ mmHg and/or a systolic value of ____mmHg.

A. 70;130

B. 80;130

C. 80;140

D. 90;140

Men with greater than ______% body fat and women with greater than _____% body fat are considered morbidly obese and require a physician's referral before exercise testing can be performed.

A. 20,30

B. 30,40

C. 40,50

D. None of the above

An informed consent should contain information that presents:

A. Risks

B. Benefits

C. Rationale

D. Expectations of the program components

E. All of the above

Which of the following would not cause an elevation of resting heart rate values?

A. Low stroke volumes

B. Poor oxygen extraction capabilities

C. High hemoglobin levels

D. Unregulated stress hormones

Ideally, measures of resting blood pressure are recommended to be at, or below, _______.

A. 105/70 mg/dl

B. 115/75 mg/dl

C. 125/85 mg/dl

D. 135/80 mg/dl

Medical clearance is recommended for clients who present with all the following values except:

A. LDL <135 mg/dl

B. HDL <40 mg/dl

C. Total Cholesterol > or = to 240

D. Cholesterol ratio > or = to 5

D.

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cardiovascular disease?

A. Leg pain upon exertion

B. Dyspnea

C. Chest or left arm pain

D. High resting heart rate

E. All of the above

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of metabolic disease?

A. High or low blood glucose

B. Central adiposity

C. Obesity

D. All of the above

Which of the following data is necessary for identifying the most appropriate exercise tests for a client?

A. Experience

B. Capabilities

C. Training Status

D. Age and Gender

E. All of the above

If a client cannot perform at least ____ repetitions for a given endurance assessment, then a different test should be selected.

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

In general, acceptable estimation of error should not be higher than ____ because it may change the client's fitness profile and affect appropriate decision making for the program.

A. 2%

B. 4%

C. 6%

D. 8%

E. None of the above

Which of the following tests could be administered to a healthy adult to determine their anaerobic capacity?

A. A power step test

B. A YMCA bench press test

C. A push-up test

D. A 1.5 mile steady-state test

VO2max reflects the body's ability to:

A. Intake oxygen

B. Transport oxygen

C. Utilize oxygen in the tissues

D. All of the above

Due to the potential for musculoskeletal diffferences between muscle groups, it is recommended to use a minimum of ____ different strength and endurance tests to assess muscular fitness.

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Which of the following tests would be most affected by client effort?

A. 1.5 mile run test

B. Paced abdominal curl-up test using a metronome

C. YMCA bike test

D. All of the above are equally affected

Which of the following compnents of fitness is most often underrepresented in many fitness evaluations, but actually requires numerous tests for accurate assessment?

A. Strength

B. Cardiovascular efficiency

C. Flexibility

D. Anaerobic Endurance

T/F? Cool downs should be employed following both moderate to high intensity anaerobic and aerobic exercise.

All of the following could be used as effective aerobic exercise modalities except:

A. Swimming

B. Jogging

C. Power lifting

D. Biking

Exercise performance will shift from the anaerobic energy system and be replaced by the aerobic metabolism at about _____ minutes.

A. 3

B. 6

C. 9

D. 12

A 1:1 work to rest ratio is most commonly used for program sets in which of the following types of training?

A. Strength

B. Aerobic

C. Power

D. None of the above

Relative to training, the number of sets, repetitions, and training loads lifted is considered the training:

A. Intensity

B. Duration

C. Volume

D. Frequency

When considering progression, which of the following has the most rapid adaptation response?

A. Cardiovascular system

B. Metabolic system

C. Muscular system

D. Nervous system

As a general rule of thumb, progressive increases in exercise stress should be approximately _____ per week on average.

A. 2-5%

B. 6-9%

C. 9-12%

D. 13-15%

Which  of the following is an example of overload?

A. Switching from bilateral to unilateral chest press on a physioball

B. Switching from weighted lunges to weighted lunges with trunk rotation using the same resistance

C. Switching from deadlift on a Smith machine to free weight deadlift using the same weight

D. All of the above

______ describes what causes the hamstring muscles to relax during quadriceps contraction.

A. Autogenic inhibition

B. Myofascial release

C. Reciprocal innervation

D. Hypermobility

Which activity would best serve to dynamically stretch the hip flexor?

A. Squat

B. Lunge

C. Step-up

D. Deadlift

Active-assisted stretching, proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation, and active isolation all fall under the category of ______ flexibility.

A. Dynamic

B. Static

C. Ballistic

D. None of the above

_______ innervates the proprioceptors preventing muscle relaxation during the activity.

A. Ballistic stretching

B. Autogenic inhibition

C. Reciprocal innervation

D. Propriceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)

This type of flexibility is advantageous because it allows the body to gain flexibility from movements that can be employed before or during an exercise program.

A. Ballistic Stretching

B. Static Stretching

C. Dynamic Stretching

D. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)

The classic formula to predict maximum heart rate is to subtract a person's _____ from 220.

A. Resting HR

B. MET level

C. Age

D. VO2 at rest

A value of _____ on the RPE scale correlates with 60-80% of the heart rate reserve.

A. 9-11

B. 12-14

C. 15-17

D. 18-20

The equation for the Heart rate reserve (HRR) formula: _____- Resting HR

A. Maximum HR

B. Percentage of VO2 max

C. Age

D. 200

One liter(L) of oxygen used by the tissue equates to approximately _____ kcal burned.

A. 3

B. 5

C. 8

D. 9

A 154 lb. male sitting in a chair for 30 minutes consumes how many liters (L) of oxygen?

A. 7.35 L

B. 9.48 L

C. 10.16 L

D. 11.42 L

Provide the total caloric expenditure of a 264 lb. male exercising on a elliptical machine at 8 METS for 20 minutes.

A. 236 kcal

B. 274 kcal

C. 336 kcal

D. 396 kcal

If training in environmetally heated conditions, which of the following is the body's primary mechanism to remove heat?

A. Radiation

B. Convection

C. Conduction

D. Evaporation

Which of the following describes the rationale behind the talk test?

A. Defining an individual's maximum heart rate (MHR)

B. Defining an individual's ventilatory threshold

C. Defining an individual's heart rate reserve (HRR)

D. Defining an individual's caloric expenditure

For proper cardiovascular inprovements to take place, the training intensity for a deconditioned person starting an exercise program should be somewhere between which of the following training intesities?

A. 30-40% Heart Rate Max

B. 40-50% VO2max

C. 60-70% Heart Rate Reserve

D. 70-80% Heart Rate Max

For proper cardiovascular improvements to take place, the training intensity for healthy individuals should be within which of the following heart rate max percentile zones?

A. 55-70%

B. 65-80%

C. 75-90%

D. None of the above

Which of the following would not be a factor when selecting the aerobic exercise intensity for a client?

A. Current fitness level

B. Exercise tolerance

C. Muscle fiber distribution

D. All of the above should be considered

A person with a VO2max of 35 ml * kg-1* min-1 has a maximal MET level of _______.

A. 6

B. 8

C. 10

D. 12

Which of the following training approaches is commonly used for performance enhancement, emphasizing the combination of neuromuscular crossover between stenghth and power?

A. Drop set system

B. Lactate tolerance system

C. Contrast system

D. Circuit system

Ideally, hypertrophy traing requires how much recovery time between training bouts of the same muscle group?

A. 12-24 hours

B. 24-36 hours

C. 48-72 hours

D. None of the above

Studies have shown that which of the following training programs helps prevent functional decline in the elderly?

A. Strength

B. Balance

C. Agility

D. Jump training

E. All of the above

Resistance training is important for obese individuals due to the effect it has on ________.

A. Reducing body fat

B. Preventing insulin resistance

C. Increasing aerobic fitness

D. All of the above

Which training system example would be best for hypertrophy training?

A. Back squat superset with box jumps

B. Chest press superset with push-ups

C. Shoulder press superset with calf raises

D. Bench press superset with bicep curls

_______ is the ideal training system for resistance training aimed at weight loss.

A. Pyramid system

B. Circuit system

C. Contrast system

D.Complex system

During bouts for maximal strength training, rest intervals of ____ minutes are necessary to fully rephosphorylate the phosphagen (ATP-CP) energy system.

A. <2

B. 2-5

C. >5

D. None of the above

________ is training system that combines two or three different exercises without a rest interval.

A. Priority system

B. Circuit system

C. superset system

D. Lactate tolerance system

A female begins a three-day a week exercise program, but does not want to perform resistance training for fear of gaining too much mass.  Which of the following would be the correct response to encourage participation?

A. Females have much lower testosterone levels making muscle growth difficult

B. Females have much lower muscle hormone receptor concentration to testosterone produced in response to resistance training

C. Resistance training for hypertrophy requires high volumes of training and relatively high intensity which can not be effictively accomplished training three times per week in females

D. All are correct

Which of the following activities is commonly associated with rotator cuff injuries?

A. Volleyball

B. Baseball

C. Tennis

D. Swimming

E. All of the above

Older adults and beginning exercisers are often initially steered toward which type of training, reducing the transfer benefit of resistance training into functional improvement.

A. Free weight training

B. Body weight training

C. Resistance machine training

D. Stability equipment

Which specific client population in particular should closely regulate their breathing technique to adequately manage internal pressure during resistance exercise?

A. Hypertensive clients

B. Adolescent clients

C. Elderly clients

D. A & C only

E. None of the above

The use of slower, controlled speeds during resistive exercises increases the duration of time stress is placed on the muscle, thereby increasing ________.

A. Muscle fiber recruitment

B. Risk for muscle fiber tears

C. Muscle fiber atrophy

D. All of the above

When supine presses are performed with a dumbbell, where should the trainer spot the exercise?

A. Hands on or near the weight

B. Hands on or near the distal end of the forearm

C. Hands on or near the elbow

D. Hands on or near the distal end of the humerus

How should a trainer spot a lifter performing a Back Squat?

A. Stand behind the lifter, placing their hands on or near the client's rib cage just under the chest

B. Stand behind the lifter, placing on hand on the low back and one on the sternum

C. Stand behind the lifter, placing hands on the client's hips

D. Stand behind the lifter, placing hands on or near the bar

E. All of the above are acceptable

What percentage of a 1RM should a client generally do when performing 10-12 repetitions of an exercise?

A. 60-65%

B. 70-75%

C. 80-85%

D. 90-95%

The unconscious perception of spatial orientation, movement, and muscular tension is known as:

A. Mental alertness

B. Funtional surrounding

C. Proprioception

D. Motor learning

Which of the following resistance modalities are least likely to enhance performance stability?

A. Resistance machines

B. Free weight resistance

C. Functional resistance

D. None of the above

The number of sets and repetitions used in functional training are based on which of the following factors?

A. Client specificity

B. Goal specificity

C. Exercise specificity

D. All of the above

Functional training emphasizes actions aimed at:

A. Force production

B. Hypertrophy

C. Endurance proficiency

D. Movement efficiency

Which of the following would be an example of a function-based exercise?

A. Dumbbell bench press

B. Romanian deadlift

C. Asymmetrically loaded step-up

D. Single-arm seated row

E. All of the above

In personal training, an effort should be made to combine exercises whenever possible in order to:

A. Save time

B. Increase training volume

C. Increase performance demands

D. All of the above

Which of the following is a prescription priority in an exercise routine designed for an individual with high blood pressure?

A. Resistance exercise

B. Aerobic exercise

C. Plyometric training

D. Flexibility training

For individuals with limited mobility, progressions in exercise should focus on which of the following?

A. Increased movement range

B. Increasing MET intensity

C. Linear force production

D. All of the above

Why should fitness testing results and evaluative criteria be incorporated into an exercise program?

A. To create foundations for prescribed stress

B. To ensure each defined objective is appropriately met

C. To monitor and assess training effectiveness

D. All of the above

In most cases, training cycles can last ____ weeks:

A. 6

B. 8

C. 10

D. 12

E. All of the above may be correct

The participation in resistance training activities is recommended for individuals with diabetes to:

A. Improve blood glucose levels and insulin resistance

B. Reduce HDL cholesterol

C. Increased cardiac output

D. All of the above

What is the possible consequence of a client with diabetes taking insulin immediately prior to an exercise bout?

A. Hyperglycemia

B. Hypoglycemia

C. Hypertension

D. Angina

What ist the most common medical complication trainers should be aware of when training a pregnant client?

A. Hypertension

B. Cardiac disorders

C. Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)

D. Muscle dystrophy

Which of the following activities should be avoided when training pregnant clients?

A. Aerobic training at 70% heart rate max intensity after the second trimester

B. Supine crunches after the first trimester

C. Resistance training after the first trimester

D. All of the above

Which is the least inportant component to aerobic exercise programming used for a hypertensive client?

A. Intensity

B. Frequency

C. Modality

D. Total daily work completed

Which of the following should be regarded with the most concern when training a hypertensive client?

A. Heavy Resistance training

B. Moderate Aerobic training

C. Flexibility training

D. Functional exercises

Prior to engaging in resistance training, individuals with CAD should do which of the following?

A. Be medically screened and cleared

B.  Be able to perform body weight exercise

C. Perform aerobic exercise for at least 4 weeks

D. All of the above

When training a client with CHF, which of the following methods would best be used in gauging exercise intensity?

A. Heart rate

B. RPE

C. Blood pressure

D. Time

Which of the following physiological differences account for lower stroke volumes in children compared to adults?

A.  Heart size

B. Blood vessel size

C. Muscle mass

D. Lung capacity

The primary physiological difference affecting the thermoregulation of heat between children and adults is related to:

A. Fat distribution patterns

B. Blood volumes

C. Sweating mechanisms

D. Heart size

Which of the following demonstrates both the greatest capacity to assess functional decline and substantially improve function in the elderly?

A. Resistance exercise

B. Aerobic exercise

C. Flexibility training

D. None of the above

Similar to children, training major muscle groups in elderly clients ____ times per week, at a moderate intensity, is sufficient for physiological improvements.

A. 1 to 2

B. 3 to 4

C. 4 to 5

D. 6 to 7