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Microbiology II - Mini II
MINI II
81
Medical
Not Applicable
11/01/2009

Additional Medical Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
What microbe is heavily associated with gastric and duodenal ulcers?
Definition
H. pylori is found in 70% of patients with gastric ulcers and roughly 100% of those with peptic ulcers!
Term
What are some virulence factors that H. pylori has?
Definition

Urease = neutralizes gastric acid

Flagella

Adhesins = bind Lewis antigens on host

Phospholipases

Vacuolating Toxins

CagA

Term
What is important about CagA positive H. pylori strains?
Definition
CagA strains of H. pylori are more likely to cause serious forms of disease, with a greater risk of progression to gastric carcinoma or MALT lymphoma!
Term
Who is at an increased risk for candida infections?
Definition

Diabetics (hyperglycemia impairs neutrophil and macrophage function!)

 

Immunosuppressed individuals (AIDS, transplant patients)

 

Patients on broad-spectrum antibiotics (removal of normal flora)

Term
An AIDS patient presents with odynophagia, dysphagia, and cervical lymphadenopathy.  You perform endoscopy of his esophagus and expect to see what organism?
Definition

Candida albicans, which is a cause of esophagitis, especially in AIDS patients in which oral thrush can progress to this more severe condition.

 

Herpesvirus is also a cause of esophagitis in AIDS patients

Term
What organisms cause ginigivitis?
Definition
Prevotella intermedia and Porphyromonas.  This infection can progress to periodontitis/ trench mouth in immunocompromised patients, diabetics, smokers
Term
2 hours after eating a potato salad lunch at a local diner, a nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and abdominal pain.  What is the likely causative organism?
Definition

This is likely the result of Staph. aureus.  The quick onset means that it was likely a pre-formed toxin.  Staph. aureus produces an SE-A, heat stable enterotoxin that acts as a superantigen.  It binds neural receptors and triggers the vomiting center!

 

Staph preformed toxin is most often found in mayonaise and cream-containing foods.

 

It is SELF-LIMITING

Term
What type of toxin does S. aureus produce?
Definition

A pre-formed enterotoxin (SE-A) encoded by a bacteriophage... it is heat-stable and has a short incubation period (1-6 hours)

 

give symptomatic Tx as it is self-limiting

Term
A patient is brought to the emergency room with sudden onset descending paralysis: The history shows blurred vision followed by arm weakness.  You suspect a foodborne toxin.  What is the likely cause?
Definition

This is likely a case of foodborne botulism.  Ingestion of the pre-formed neurotoxin (A, B, E toxins) results in the blockade of Ach release at neruomuscular junctions and causes flaccid paralysis.  Adequate heating destroys the botulinum toxin, as it is not heat stable.

 

 

Botulinum toxins = "honest ABE"  (toxins A, B, E)

Term

How do you treat foodborne botulism?

Infant/adult botulism?

Wound botulism?

Definition

Treat foodborne botulism with antitoxin! (it is the pre-formed toxin causing the disease, not the bacteria, so antibiotics aren't necessary.

 

Treat infant/adult botulism with the antitoxin.  DO NOT use antibiotics, as this will only promote further release of the toxin!

 

Treat wound  botulism with antibiotics, antitoxin, and surgical debridement.

 

in other words: do not give antibiotics in cases of botulism food poisoning, only give them in wound botulism

 

Patients may need ventilatory support because the flaccid paralysis may lead to respiratory collapse!

Term
Why should you not give honey to babies?
Definition
honey is a reservoir for C. botulinum spores, and can cause infant botulism if fed to babies.
Term
A man becomes ill in the evening with watery diarrhea.  He does not have vomiting.  The only thing he ate all day was quickly reheated thanksgiving leftovers in the morning.  What do you suspect?
Definition

Because of the long incubation period and the associated food (gravy and inadequately reheated meats), this is likely a case of C. perfringens food toxicity. 

C. perfringens produces type A-E enterotoxins after the bacteria is ingested and produces diarrhea but no vomiting.  It's incubation period is 8-16hrs. 

Term
What is the difference between C. perfringens food poisoning and B. cereus preformed toxin poisoning?
Definition

C perfringens produces the enterotoxin after it is ingested, and therefore has a longer incubation (8-16hrs).  Much the opposite, B. cereus preformed toxin has a short incubation period of 1-6 hrs.

 

Additionally, C. perfringens results in watery diarrhea without vomiting whereas, B. cereus preformed toxin results in vomiting without diarrhea.

 

B. cereus also has a long incubation form, which produces diarrhea.

Term
Under what conditions should you suspect Bacillus cereus food poisoning?
Definition

Most commonly this results from ingestion of re-heated rice (ex: fried rice).  In these cases it involves a pre-formed toxin, which causes vomiting but no diarrhea within 1-6 hours.

 

It can also cause a diarrheal form after long incubation.

Term
Which E. coli strain is commonly responsible for traveler's diarrhea?
Definition

ETEC (enterotoxigenic)

 

It adheres to intestinal villi and then secretes its enterotoxin.  It is NOT invasive.  Therefore it causes watery, NON-bloody diarrhea.

 

Term
What toxins does ETEC secrete?
Definition

ETEC, a common cause of traveler's diarrhea, secretes LT and ST toxins (heat Labile and heat Stable toxins)

They promote watery diarrhea by increasing adenylyl cyclase activity, which raises cAMP levels, which activates Cl- secretion, which pulls Na+ and water into the lumen.

Term
What serotypes of Vibrio cholerae are responsible for the cholera epidemics?
Definition

The O1 serotypes are responsible for cholera epidemics.  These are subdivided into classic and "el tor" groupings.

 

However, in India and Bangladesh the non-O1 serotypes are responsible for cholera.

Term
What is a frequent food responsible for vibrio cholerae infection?
Definition

Shellfish!

 

Term
How does someone with cholera poisoning present?
Definition

Massive watery diarrhea, rice water stools (mucous flecks), metabolic acidosis, hypokalemia, hypovolemic shock leading to renal failure.

 

Tx= REHYDRATION!!!

ciprofloxacin antibiotic administration can reduce the duration of the symptoms

 

there is a vaccine!

Term
How does the cholera toxin cause diarrhea?
Definition
The cholera toxin ADP ribosylates adenylyl cyclase, leading to its constitutive activation.  This results in increased cAMP levels, overactivation of Cl- transmembrane proteins, and fluid loss into the GIT lumen.
Term
What E. Coli strains produce fever?
Definition

The EPEC and EIEC strains (enteropathogenic and enteroinvasive) produce fever.

 

"the pathology of invasive organisms involves fever!" 

They can be distinguished by the fact that EIEC also has fecal WBCs in the stool.

Term
After consuming undercooked beef from a burger joint, a child acquires bloody diarrhea without a fever.  What disease is this child at increased risk for, especially if antibiotics are prescribed?
Definition

EHEC (enterohemorrhagic E. Coli) is found in undercooked beef.  It is also known as Shiga-Toxin producing E. Coli because it contains a bacteriophage that produces shiga-like toxin. 

This strain is associated with Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome.  If antibiotics are given, the toxin levels increase, as does the likelihood of HUS.  So do not give antibiotics!

 

Shiga toxin damages the vascular endothelium, including that of the kidney, leading to acute renal failure.  It also activates platelets, causing thrombocytopenia.

Term
How do you differentiate Salmonella from Shigella?
Definition
Both of these are gram negative, lactose NON-fermenting enterobacteriaceae.  Shigella is non-motile, whereas Salmonella is highly motile (Salmon migrate upstream annually = motile)
Term
How does Shiga toxin work?
Definition
Shiga toxin, produced by Shigella bacteria enters cells and inhibits protein synthesis, resulting in cell death.
Term
Which strain of salmonella is capable of systemic dissemination?
Definition
In the young, elderly, or immunocompromised, Salmonella typhi can result in the disseminated infection "Typhoid Fever".  People with this condition generally present with "rose-spots" on their body, high sustained fever, and hepatosplenomegally.
Term
Which bacterial infection is associated with Guillaine-Barre Syndrome?
Definition

Campylobacter jejuni, especially in patients with the HLA-B27 genotype.

 

Guillaine-Barre is an autoimmune condition associated with ascending paralysis.

 

Viral infections are also implicated

Term
Describe the special growth requirements for campylobacter.
Definition
Campylobacter requires a special agar = Skirrow's medium or "Campy's Agar".  It also grows best at 42 celcius.
Term
What microbe is often responsible for nosocomial diarrhea acquired after broad spectrum antibiotic usage?
Definition

Clostridium difficile.  It elaborates two toxins: Toxin A is chemotactic for neutrophils, Toxin B causes cell death by interfering with actin polymerization.

 

Clostridium dificil is the cause of pseudomembranous colitis, which should be treated with oral metronidazole or oral vancomycin (oral metronidazole is preferred for cost reasons)

Term
What bacteria is associated with unpasteurized dairy products ex: cheeses?
Definition

Listeria monocytogenes!  This bacteria carries a high mortality rate and is the cause of not only gastroenteritis, but meningitis and fetal stillbirth!

 

Brucella is also found in these circumstances

Term
What is the structure of rotavirus?
Definition

Rotavirus is a naked dsRNA virus

 

 

 

Term
What virus is commonly responsible for watery diarrhea in children?
Definition

Rotavirus is the most common cause of viral diarrhea and vomiting.

 

it is self limiting, but you must ensure proper hydration.

Term
What is the structure of astrovirus?
Definition

Astrovirus is a naked, (+)ssRNA virus

 

an asterix (*) symbol looks like a (+)

Term
How do rotavirus, astrovirus, and adenovirus differ in their incubation periods and symptom duration with respect to GIT infections?
Definition

All of these viruses cause watery diarrhea and nausea predominantly in CHILDREN.  Rotavirus has a short incubation, astrovirus has an intermediate incubation (1-4 days) and adenovirus has a long incubation. 

 

Astrovirus has less severe symptoms than rotavirus, and adenovirus has the longest duration of symptoms.

Term
What is the structure of adenovirus?
Definition

Adenovirus is a naked dsDNA virus

 

Adenovirus has DNA i its name...

Term
what is the structure of calicivirus?
Definition

Calicivirus (a norovirus) is a naked, (+)ssRNA virus.

 

*all the GIT viruses are naked!  Recall, this allows them to survive longer outside the host and permits fecal-oral transmission!

Term
How might one acquire calicivirus infection?  What are the signs/symptoms?
Definition
Calicivirus has no age specificity and is therefore a cause of viral diarrhea in adults.  It is most often acquired through contaminated drinking water or shellfish on cruise ships.  It has a short incubation and short duration of symptoms (1-3days)
Term
What forms of hepatitis are enveloped?
Definition
Hepatitis B,C,D are enveloped
Term
Which strains of hepatitis virus are naked?
Definition

Hepatitis A and E are naked viruses

 

 

recall: hepatitis A and E only cause Acute disease and are transmitted Enterically (fecal-oral, meaning they must be naked)

In your mind, group Hep A and Hep E together!

Term
What is the structure of the Hep B virus?
Definition

Enveloped, gapped dsDNA virus

 

annoying, confusing structure: Hep B is a bitch to remember

or B looks like two D's on top of eachother= dsDNA

Term
What are complications of HBV and HCV?
Definition
these hepatitis viruses can lead to chronic viral hepatitis.  (HCV has a great risk)  Chronic hepatitis carries an increased risk of cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma.  HBV is also the most common cause of viral fulminant hepatitis, in which there is rapid progression to liver failure! (hepE can cause fulminant hepatitis in pregnancy)
Term
Which hepatitis virus is most likely to progress to the chronic form?
Definition
HCV
Term
Which hepatitis viruses have vaccines available?
Definition
only HAV and HBV have vaccines
Term
What is the structure of HAV?
Definition
HAV is a naked, (+)ssRNA virus
Term
What disease-causing microorganisms can be acquired through shellfish?
Definition

Vibrio cholera

Rotavirus

Calicivirus

Hepatitis A virus

Term
What serum immunology would you look for in an HAV infection?
Definition

In the acute infection, you would see anti-HAV IgM.  Approximately 3 months later, the serum would contain anti-HAV IgG, which grants lifelong immunity to the virus

 

 

recall HAV only causes acute hepatitis

Term
Pregnant women that contract HEV are at increased risk for what?
Definition
fulminant hepatitis (10% risk!!)
Term
In chronic HBV hepatitis, what are some histological features that can be seen?
Definition

Ground glass nuclei (both chronic and acute)

 

Bridging fibrosis (chronic)

Term
Describe the difference in outcome of HBV acquired when young and when an adult
Definition

The younger you are when you acquire HBV, the more likely it will lead to chronic hepatitis.  Therefore, children that acquire it perinatally from an infected mother have a greatly increased risk of chronic HBV infection! this is because the immune system is still developing when the baby is infected, and this may lead to tolerance to the virus.  This results in a decreased ability to clear the infection and leads to chronic HBV.

 

Adults that acquire HBV are more likely to clear the virus and suffer just from the acute disease.

Term
HBV with HIV or HDV infection is more likely to progress to what?
Definition
liver cirrhosis
Term
What is the structure of the HDV virus?
Definition

the HDV virus is an enveloped, (-)ssRNA virus

 

recall, HDV is special because it requires an HBV infection to be infective itself.  (can only infect those with HBV)  perhaps the (-)ssRNA structure has something to do with this?

Term
What is the structure of the HCV virus?
Definition
HCV is an enveloped (+)ssRNA virus
Term
If someone has HCV infection, what other hepatitis virus must you also test for?
Definition

HCV and HBV coinfection is common... HCV infection often overshaddows the HBV infection, so that the HBV infection is occult.  Therefore, you must test for these two viruses at the molecular level (PCR). 

It is even more important to check for both HCV and HBV because coinfection leads to more severe disease and a higher risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

Term
What change is often seen in the liver of someone with HCV infection?
Definition
Steatosis (fatty change) is often observed in the liver of HCV infected patients.
Term
Describe the value of HBsAb, and HBcAb in the diagnosis of HBV infection by serology.
Definition

Greatly simplified:

 

if HBcAb is up and HBsAb is up there was an infection but it was cleared (Acute)


if HBcAb is up and HBsAb is not up, there is an infection and it's not cleared (Chronic)

 

Term
What is the most common virus involved in urinary tract infections?
Definition
Polyomaviridae
Term
How can polyomaviridae lead to cell transformation?
Definition
polyomaviridae is the naked, dsDNA virus that causes urinary tract infections.  If it enters a susceptible cell that is not permissive, that cell gets stuck in S-phase = cell transformation.
Term
What is the structure of the papillomaviridae?
Definition
HPV viruses are naked, dsDNA viruses
Term
What strains of HPV are high risk? low risk?
Definition

HPV 6 and HPV 11 are 'low risk' viruses that are the cause of genital warts (condyloma acuminata) and laryngeal papillomas.

 

HPV 16 and HPV 18 are 'high risk' viruses that have a greater chance of producing high grade dysplasias and cervical carcinomas.

Term
What is the function of the HPV E6 protein?
Definition
The HPV E6 protein targets p53 for ubiquitination and proteosomal degredation.
Term
What is the function of the HPV E7 protein?
Definition

The HPV E7 protein inhibits pRB, thereby causing the release of E2F transcription factor and promoting cell cycle progression.

 

E7 also inactivates p21, another cell cycle repressor

Term
What is the structure of the herpesvirus?
Definition
herpesviridae are enveloped, dsDNA viruses
Term
What is the general infection pattern for HSV 1 and HSV 2?
Definition

The general rule of thumb is "HSV1 above the belt (orolabial cold-sores) and HSV2 below the belt (genitals)" according to Hawley.

 

however, HSV1 also causes genital disease. 

The difference is that HSV2 genital lesions are more severe and recur more frequently.  According to bergeron "if you're going to get genital herpes, get HSV1"

Term
This is just a slide reminding you that open genital lesions, like those caused by herpes, increase the risk of HIV transmission.
Definition
This is just a slide reminding you that HSV is a pregnancy concern, as it can be transmitted (usually during childbirth) to the infant and result in disseminated infection and encephalitis!
Term
What is the normal pH of the vagina?  Which infections raise the pH?
Definition

The normal vaginal pH is 4.5-5

 

Trichomoniasis, caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, increases the pH to 5-6

 

bacterial vaginosis (Gardnerella vaginalis) also causes a slightly increased pH.

Term
What leads to an increased risk of vulvovaginal candidiasis in women?
Definition

Diabetes, Aids, Antibiotics, Diaphragms, COCPs and foley catheters are predispose women to vaginal infection by candidiasis.

 

Tx = imidazoles or nystatin

Term
A female patient has a foul smelling, frothy vaginal discharge.  Wet mount reveals flagellated protozoans.  What is the diagnosis and treatment?
Definition
This patient has trichomoniasis.  Treatment is metronidazole
Term
A female patient presents with vaginal discharge.  A KOH whiff test is positive.  You also notice epithelial cells covered in bacteria on an H&E stained slide.  What is the diagnosis?
Definition
This patient has Bacterial vaginosis.  Gardnerella vaginalis is a causative agent.  "Clue cells" help in the diagnosis, along with the KOH whiff test.
Term
What are some serious complications of chlamydial STD infection?
Definition

Chlamydia can cause PID in women that go untreated.  This can result in salpingitis, leading to scarring, infertility, and ectopic pregnancy!

 

Treat chlamydia with Azithromycin or doxycycline

Term
What serotypes of chlamydia are found in the STD form?  Which are responsible for lymphogranulosum venereum?
Definition

D-K serotypes are sexually transmitted
("a four letter word that starts with a D and ends in a K is involved in sexual transmission" -Hawley)

 

L1-L3 serotypes are found in lymphogranulosum venereum

 

(L for lymphogranulosum)

Term
A man with penile discharge shows intracellular gram (-) diplococci on gram stain.  What is the presumptive diagnosis?
Definition
Gonorrhea
Term
Dissemination of N. gonorrhea produces what signs/symptoms?
Definition

Skin lesions/petechiae and arthritis

 

a young sexually active woman with arthritis should be checked for lyme disease, disseminated gonorrhea, or juvenile arthritis...

Term
What are some serious consequences of Gonorrhea?
Definition

Gonorrhea can lead to PID and infertility/ectopic pregnancy

 

It can also cause neonatal blindness!

Term
How do you culture gonorrhea?
Definition

Gonorrhea requires a special culture medium.  This can either be Thayer-Martin chocolate agar or NYC agar.

 

Term
Describe the 3 stages of syphilis and the way to diagnose/confirm the disease at each stage
Definition

primary syphilis = hard, painless chancres.

diagnose with Darkfield Microscopy

 

secondary syphilis = condylomata lata/ maculopapular rash

diagnose with Non-Treponemal antibody test (VDRL, RPR), confirm with Treponemal test (FTA-Abs)

 

tertiary = Gumma, syphilitic aortitis, neurosyphilis

diagnose/confirm same as secondary

Term
For syphilis, why do you do a non-treponemal antibody test first, then a treponemal test?
Definition
Because the non-treponemal is cheaper. 
Term
Why are there both treponemal and non-treponemal antibodies in syphilis infection?
Definition
T. pallidum organisms infect the body and we make antibodies against them.  These are treponemal antibodies, and they are the first Abs to appear.  Then the microbes damage cells and are coated with mitochondrial antigens.  The immune system is not normally exposed to these intracellular antigens, so it makes antibodies against those, too.  These are the non-treponemal antibodies.  These non-treponemal antibodies also react against cow cardiolipin, which allows for the cheap VDRL test for syphilis infection.  Must follow a positive VDRL test with a more specific treponemal test (FTA-Abs) because other infections can give a false positive VDRL, as can lupus!
Term
list the ToRCH infections
Definition

Toxoplasmosis

Rubella

CMV

Herpes

Term
Which congenital infections cause vision problems?
Definition
Rubella, Syphilis, and Toxoplasmosis
Term
Which congenital infection causes heart defects, such as a PDA?
Definition
Congenital rubella can result in heart defects
Term
What should toxoplasma (-) pregnant women avoid to decrease the risk of congenital toxoplasmosis?
Definition
Cat litter boxes and pork
Term
Which congenital infection (ToRCH infection) carries an increased risk of developing type I diabetes?
Definition

Rubella infection causes an increased risk of Diabetes Mellitus type I

 

(as well as cataracts/blindness, deafness, and heart defects)

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