Term
8) Which of the following infectious particles do NOT have protein in their structure?
A) bacteriophages
B) prions
C) animal viruses
D) viroids
E) both prions and viroids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
16) Which of the following events occurs in the lytic cycle of bacteriophage T4 infection but NOT in the lysogenic cycle?
A) attachment
B) entry
C) digestion of host DNA
D) viral protein synthesis
E) both digestion of host DNA and viral proteins synthesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
18) Which of the following agents is capable of inducing conversion of a prophage back to a lytic phage?
A) UV light
B) X rays
C) presence of +ssRNA
D) UV light and X rays
E) UV light and +ssRNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
19) Zones of clearing in cell cultures that are the result of virus infection are called plaques. Sometimes "cloudy plaques" are seen on bacterial cultures infected with bacteriophage. What type of viral infection might cause this appearance?
A) lytic
B) lysogenic
C) prion
D) viroid
E) transducing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
43) Virus replication results in the death of the cell in a(n) __________ infection.
A) lytic
B) latent
C) persistent
D) oncogenic
E) both latent and persistent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 61) Another term for a lysogenic phage is a ________ phage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
6) Who was the first person to demonstrate the existence of viruses?
A) Stanley
B) Rous
C) Lacks
D) Ivanowsky
E) Prusiner |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
8) Which of the following infectious particles do NOT have protein in their structure?
A) bacteriophages
B) prions
C) animal viruses
D) viroids
E) both prions and viroids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
33) Viroids infect
A) bacteria.
B) plants.
C) fungi.
D) plants and animals.
E) all organisms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
34) How are prions different from all other known infectious agents?
A) They cannot reproduce outside a cell.
B) They act as slow viruses.
C) They cause neurological problems.
D) They can be destroyed by incineration.
E) They lack nucleic acid. |
|
Definition
| E) They lack nucleic acid. |
|
|
Term
35) The infectious particles of fungi have RNA genomes and lack a capsid. They are therefore similar to
A) bacteriophages.
B) enveloped viruses.
C) prions.
D) viroids.
E) lysogens. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 69) Prions are composed of a single protein called ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9) Which of the following would NOT be found as a component of a bacteriophage?
A) envelope
B) icosahedral capsid
C) DNA
D) tail fibers
E) base plate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 58) A(n) ________ is a 20-sided polyhedral capsid. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
12) Put the following stages of a lytic replication cycle in order, from earliest to latest stages:
I. Synthesis
II. Assembly
III. Attachment
IV. Release
V. Entry
A) III, V, I, II, IV
B) III, II, V, I, IV
C) V, III, II, IV, I
D) I, III, V, II, IV
E) I, II, III, V, IV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
18) Which of the following agents is capable of inducing conversion of a prophage back to a lytic phage?
A) UV light
B) X rays
C) presence of +ssRNA
D) UV light and X rays
E) UV light and +ssRNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
25) Which of the following membranes can give rise to a viral envelope?
A) the nuclear membrane
B) the cytoplasmic membrane
C) the endoplasmic reticulum
D) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes
E) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes and the endoplasmic reticulum |
|
Definition
| E) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes and the endoplasmic reticulum |
|
|
Term
27) How is the HIV provirus different from a lambda phage prophage?
A) The HIV provirus is integrated permanently into the host cell's DNA.
B) All subsequent generations of HIV-infected cells carry the provirus.
C) All the offspring of a cell infected with a prophage will contain the virus.
D) The HIV provirus is inactive inside the host cell.
E) Lambda phage-infected cells produce virus slowly over time. |
|
Definition
| A) The HIV provirus is integrated permanently into the host cell's DNA. |
|
|
Term
28) Which of the following individuals discovered prions?
A) Lacks
B) Iwanowsky
C) Prusiner
D) Stanley
E) Rous |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
29) One mechanism by which viruses may cause cancer is to interrupt the genetic regulatory sequences of repressor proteins. Which of the following types of viruses is most likely to be involved in causing cancer by this mechanism?
A) +ssRNA viruses
B) dsRNA viruses
C) -ssRNA viruses
D) retroviruses
E) +ssRNA and -ssRNA viruses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
33) Viroids infect
A) bacteria.
B) plants.
C) fungi.
D) plants and animals.
E) all organisms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2) The outermost layer of a virion fulfills which of the following functions of the virus?
A) protection
B) recognition
C) replication
D) protection and recognition
E) recognition and replication |
|
Definition
| D) protection and recognition |
|
|
Term
Merozoites are a result of
A) meiosis
B) crossing over
C) schizogony
D) mitosis
E) conjugation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
55) The fever and chills associated with malaria are due to the release of uninucleate daughter cells of
Plasmodium called ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The _____ is the entire interwoven mass of one multicellular fungal organism.
A) pseudoplasmodium
B) mycelium
C) conidiophore
D) sporangium
E) hyphae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The roots of vascular plants from associations with fungi called _____, which allow them to absorb water and dissolved minerals from the soil.
A) thalli
B) mycoses
C) mycorrhizae
D) lichens
E) hyphae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following types of protozoa are bioluminescent?
A) ciliates
B) amoebae
C) kinetoplastids
D) apicomplexans
E) dinoflagellates |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The first eukaryote to have its entire genome sequenced was the fungus
A) Cryptococcus
B) Neurospora
C) Candida albicans
D) Saccharomyces
E) Rhizopus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a dinoflagellate whose toxin causes possible estuary-associated syndrome (PEAS)?
A) Gymnodinium
B) Balatidium
C) Toxoplasma
D) Pfiesteria
E) Gonyaulax |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hyphae are associated with which of the following?
A) yeasts
B) protozoa
C) molds
D) algae
E) helminths |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most of the fungi that spoil food belong to the division
A) Basidiomycota
B) Rhodophyta
C) Ascomycota
D) Deuteromycetes
E) Zygomycota |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most common pathogenic fungus affecting humans is
A) Blastomyces dermatitidis.
B) Coccidioides immitis.
C) Histoplasma capsulatum.
D) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis.
E) Aspergillus fumigatus |
|
Definition
| C) Histoplasma capsulatum. |
|
|
Term
| Why are mycoses among the most difficult diseases to treat? |
|
Definition
| There are two main reasons it is so difficult to treat mycoses. First, fungi possess the biochemical ability to resist killing by T lymphocytes during cell-mediated immune responses, making them resistant to the body's defenses. Second, fungi are eukaryotic cells and are very similar to human cells, so most antifungal agents are also toxic to human cells. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements about pathogenic fungi is FALSE?
A) They are dimorphic.
B) They have the ability to form mycelial thalli that are very invasive.
C) They produce yeast forms at 37°C.
D) They can infect any susceptible host regardless of its immune status.
E) They are relatively resistant to phagocytic killing. |
|
Definition
| B) They have the ability to form mycelial thalli that are very invasive. |
|
|
Term
Mycoses are difficult to treat because
A) many fungi have developed resistance antifungal agents.
B) fungicides have numerous side effects.
C) fungal cells are similar to human cells.
D) many fungi have developed resistance antifungal agents and fungicides have numerous side effects.
E) fungicides have numerous side effects and fungal cells are similar to human cells. |
|
Definition
| E) fungicides have numerous side effects and fungal cells are similar to human cells. |
|
|
Term
All of the true pathogen fungi
A) are members of the Ascomycota.
B) are members of the Zygomycota.
C) are dimorphic.
D) are members of the Ascomycota and are dimorphic.
E) are members of the Zygomycota and are monomorphic. |
|
Definition
| D) are members of the Ascomycota and are dimorphic. |
|
|
Term
What is the diagnostic structure produced by Paracoccidioides brasiliensis?
A) spiny spores
B) "steering wheel" buds
C) spherules
D) yeast buds that are not dissolved by KOH
E) dimorphism when grown in the lab |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the diagnostic feature of Trichosporon beigelii? (white piedra)
A) the presence of soft white to gray nodules
B) the presence of cotton-wool colonies in the nose
C) the production of melanin, which stains the cutaneous lesion brown-black
D) the presence of hard black nodules
E) the presence of the fungus growing in hair |
|
Definition
| A) the presence of soft white to gray nodules |
|
|
Term
White patches on the surface of the tongue and the oral mucosa accompanied by inflammation and swelling are signs consistent with
A) aspergillosis.
B) cryptococcosis.
C) coccidioidomycosis.
D) sporotrichosis.
E) thrush |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mycetismus is caused by
A) ingestion of food contaminated with fungus.
B) ingestion of toxic mushrooms.
C) ingestion of milk from a cow that has ingested feed contaminated with fungal toxins.
D) inhalation of allergy causing fungi.
E) contamination of a wound with pathogenic fungi present in the skin. |
|
Definition
| B) ingestion of toxic mushrooms. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is true of mycotoxicosis but NOT mycetismus?
A) The portal of entry is the mouth.
B) Mushrooms are ingested.
C) Organ damage can result.
D) It causes toxicosis.
E) The fungus is not present |
|
Definition
| E) The fungus is not present |
|
|
Term
| Distinguish mycotoxicosis from mycetismus. |
|
Definition
| Although both mycotoxicosis and mycetismus are acquired by vehicle transmission, they are ingested in different ways. Mycotoxicosis is a result of eating food that has become contaminated with fungi that have produced the toxins that are ingested. Aflatoxins are the best known mycotoxins. Mycetismus is a result of eating poisonous mushrooms. This usually occurs when a person picks and eats unidentified wild mushrooms. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is referred to as the "death cap" mushroom?
A) Amanita phalloides
B) Gyromitra esculenta
C) Psilocybe cubensis
D) Amanita muscaria
E) Cortinarius gentilis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Psilocybin is a
A) toxin that causes bloody diarrhea.
B) toxin that causes kidney failure.
C) toxin that acts as a hallucinogen.
D) virulence factor produced by bacteria.
E) growth factor produced by mycoplasmas |
|
Definition
| C) toxin that acts as a hallucinogen. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Produces a hallucinogenic toxin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Balantidium coli is the only ciliate known to cause disease in man. True/False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Once infected with Trypanosoma brucei, the patient cannot ever clear the infection and become immune because the parasite
A) has flagella that allow it to travel all over the body.
B) matures into infectious trypomastigotes.
C) reproduces by binary fission.
D) changes its glycoprotein surface antigens every time it replicates.
E) invades the central nervous system |
|
Definition
| D) changes its glycoprotein surface antigens every time it replicates. |
|
|
Term
The presence of active motile multiflagellated trophozoites in vaginal or urethral secretion is indicative of infection with
A) Trichomonas vaginalis.
B) Chlamydia trachomatis.
C) Giardia intestinalis.
D) Acanthamoeba.
E) Balantidium coli. |
|
Definition
| A) Trichomonas vaginalis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Sexually transmitted disease |
|
|
Term
The protozoans known as apicomplexans
A) are motile.
B) reproduce by schizogony.
C) are intracellular parasites.
D) are motile intracellular parasites.
E) reproduce by schizogony and are intracellular parasites. |
|
Definition
| E) reproduce by schizogony and are intracellular parasites. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following species of Plasmodium causes cerebral malaria?
A) only P. falciparum
B) P. ovale and P. malariae
C) P. ovale and P. vivax
D) P. vivax and P. malariae
E) P. vivax, P. malariae, and P. vivax |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following parasites is NOT generally microscopic in its mature form, even though microbiologists usually study them?
A) amoebae
B) toxoplasmas
C) helminths
D) leishmanias
E) cyclosporas |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The easiest way to prevent Taenia infection in humans is to
A) vaccinate cows and pigs.
B) vaccinate humans who are in contact with cows and pigs.
C) spray pastures and grazing lands with toxins that kill the parasite.
D) thoroughly cook or freeze meat.
E) identify patients with cysticerci in their muscles. |
|
Definition
| D) thoroughly cook or freeze meat. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the most common parasitic worm in the United States?
A) Taenia saginata
B) Echinococcus granulosus
C) Schistosoma mansoni
D) Enterobius vermicularis
E) Ascaris lumbricoides |
|
Definition
| D) Enterobius vermicularis |
|
|
Term
Elephantiasis is caused by
A) blood flukes.
B) liver flukes.
C) filarial roundworms.
D) tapeworms.
E) flatworms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A person reports to a clinic complaining of fever and abdominal pain. The abdomen is swollen, and blood tests indicate liver damage. A stool sample is examined under a microscope and found to contain eggs with a spine projecting from its surface. The indications are consistent with infection with
A) Ancylostoma duodenale.
B) Enterobius vermicularis.
C) Echinococcus granulosus.
D) Schistosoma mansoni.
E) Taenia solium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A human fecal sample is examined and found to contain a few strobila. The person is probably infected with
A) Echinococcus granulosus.
B) Giardia intestinalis.
C) Taenia.
D) Schistosoma.
E) Necator americanus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Nematodes
A) are known as flukes.
B) are known as roundworms.
C) have males of the species larger than females of the species.
D) do not have a digestive system.
E) are all monoecious. |
|
Definition
| B) are known as roundworms. |
|
|
Term
| The ________ are helminths with an incomplete digestive system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which among the following are the largest DNA viruses?
A) Herpesviridae
B) Papillomaviridae
C) Poxviridae
D) Adenoviridae
E) Polyomaviridae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is true of both molluscum contagiosum and smallpox?
A) A genital form of the disease exists.
B) A vaccine is available.
C) The causative agent is in the family Poxviridae.
D) Nodules are removed by freezing.
E) It has a morality rate of 20%. |
|
Definition
| C) The causative agent is in the family Poxviridae. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following families of DNA viruses is the most prevalent in humans?
A) Poxviridae
B) Herpesviridae
C) Adenoviridae
D) Polyomaviridae
E) Rhinoviridae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Adenoviruses infect
A) the digestive tract.
B) the respiratory tract.
C) the nervous system.
D) both the digestive tract and the respiratory tract.
E) both the respiratory tract and the nervous system. |
|
Definition
| D) both the digestive tract and the respiratory tract. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the only DNA virus that can cause viral hepatitis?
A) hepatitis A virus
B) hepatitis B virus
C) hepatitis C virus
D) hepatitis D virus
E) hepatitis E virus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Gamma interferon is sometimes used to treat infections with
A) adenoviruses.
B) herpesviruses.
C) poxviruses.
D) parvoviruses.
E) both herpesviruses and poxviruses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following increases the risk of permanent liver damage with hepatitis B infection?
A) coinfection with human herpesvirus 4
B) coinfection with hepatitis D virus
C) coinfection with HHV-6
D) coinfection with human herpesvirus 4 and hepatitis D virus
E) coinfection with hepatitis D virus and HHV-6 |
|
Definition
| B) coinfection with hepatitis D virus |
|
|
Term
Hepatitis B virus releases a large amount of viral antigen, which benefits the patient by
A) producing a stronger cellular immune response.
B) activating humoral immunity.
C) making it easier to develop a vaccine.
D) allowing for better treatment.
E) ensuring plentiful substrate for binding with labeled antibodies in diagnostic tests. |
|
Definition
| E) ensuring plentiful substrate for binding with labeled antibodies in diagnostic tests. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements concerning the hepatitis B vaccine is FALSE?
A) It must be given in three doses.
B) It is protective against the virus in 95% of vaccinated individuals.
C) It is recommended for high-risk groups.
D) It must be repeated every five years.
E) Immunity can last at least 23 years and may be for life. |
|
Definition
| D) It must be repeated every five years. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements regarding the association of hepatitis B with liver cancer is FALSE?
A) Geographic areas with a high incidence of liver cancer also have a high prevalence of hepatitis B.
B) The HBV genome has been found integrated into hepatic cancer cells.
C) Hepatic cancer cells typically express HBV antigen.
D) Chronic carriers of the virus are 200 times more likely to develop hepatic cancer.
E) Vaccination does not provide protection against the development of hepatic cancer. |
|
Definition
| E) Vaccination does not provide protection against the development of hepatic cancer. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following viruses are the only ssDNA viruses that cause disease in humans?
A) Parvoviridae
B) Hepadnaviridae
C) Poxviridae
D) Polyomaviridae
E) Herpesviridae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A scientist discovers a new virus that causes mild respiratory disease in humans. He is able to isolate, purify, and characterize the virus. The virus preparation contains double-stranded DNA and no lipid. In which of the following virus families does this new virus likely belong?
A) Adenoviridae
B) Herpesviridae
C) Papillomarviridae
D) Herpesviridae or Poxviridae
E) Adenoviridae or Papillomaviridae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chickenpox was so named because it was first found in chickens. True/False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Adenoviruses are so named because they infect only adenoid cells in humans. True/False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following viruses is responsible for "fifth disease"?
A) adenoviruses
B) human herpesvirus 1
C) varicella
D) human herpesvirus 4
E) B19 virus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The large size of poxviruses allows them to
A) be easily isolated in infected cells.
B) attach to both animal and human cells.
C) provoke a strong immune response in the host.
D) travel in droplets.
E) be potential vectors for introduction of genetic material in vaccinations for gene therapy. |
|
Definition
| E) be potential vectors for introduction of genetic material in vaccinations for gene therapy. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following viruses exist only in laboratory stocks?
A) smallpox
B) cowpox
C) vaccinia
D) varicella
E) erythrovirus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following viruses is oncogenic?
A) adenovirus
B) human herpesvirus 4
C) papillomavirus
D) both human herpesvirus 4 and papillomavirus
E) adenovirus, human herpesvirus 4, and papillomavirus |
|
Definition
| D) both human herpesvirus 4 and papillomavirus |
|
|
Term
| Syncytium between infected and noninfected cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Large B lymphocytes with atypical nuclei and neutropenia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Abnormally large cells with nuclear inclusions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The first human disease to be eradicated was smallpox. True/False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Human herpesviruses have been designated by combining HHV (human herpesvirus) with numbers corresponding to the severity of the diseases they cause. True/False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Contact with a minute quantity of blood is sufficient for infection with hepatitis B virus. True/False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For protection from infection with genital herpes, condoms need to be used only when there is an active lesion. True/False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Human herpesvirus 4 has been implicated as an etiological agent in some cases of Hodgkin's lymphoma. True/False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Adenoviruses are so named because they infect only adenoid cells in humans. True/False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Immunization with ________ will provide protection against smallpox. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Painful, blister-like lesions that progressively become filled with pus suggest infection with a(n) ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ________ is usually associated with lesions on the genitalia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An inflamed blister on the finger caused by either HHV-1 or HHV-2 is known as ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The condition in which athletes develop herpes lesions on their skin as a result of coming in contact with herpes lesions during wrestling is known as ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Skin lesions described as "dewdrops on rose petals" are characteristic of ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Individuals who have had chickenpox may develop ________ later in life if they are exposed to stress or immune suppression. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In infections with ________, the virus becomes latent in B lymphocytes and suppresses apoptosis, thus providing one source of lymphomas associated with this virus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The autoimmune disease ________ may result from infection with human herpesvirus 6. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cytomegalovirus can be ________ if it infects fetal stem cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hepatitis B virus replicates in liver cells and is released by ________ rather than cell lysis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following viruses is made of icosahedral capsids and infects liver cells?
A) hepadnaviruses
B) herpesviruses
C) polyomaviruses
D) poxviruses
E) adenoviruses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are double-stranded RNA viruses?
A) Picornaviridae
B) Coronaviridae
C) Retroviridae
D) Reoviridae
E) Rhabdoviridae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements about rhinoviruses is FALSE?
A) They are limited to infecting the upper respiratory tract.
B) They are the only viruses that can cause a common cold.
C) They are extremely infectious.
D) They thrive at 33°C.
E) Person-to-person contact is the most common mode of transmission. |
|
Definition
| B) They are the only viruses that can cause a common cold. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following characteristics distinguishes coronaviruses from rhinoviruses?
A) They replicate best at 33°C.
B) They are transmitted via respiratory droplets.
C) They cause common colds.
D) An envelope is present.
E) The virions contain single-stranded positive RNA |
|
Definition
| D) An envelope is present. |
|
|
Term
Enteroviruses gain their name from the fact that
A) they infect the gastrointestinal tract.
B) they are able to withstand the low pH of the stomach.
C) they are transmitted through the fecal-oral route.
D) they spread from the intestinal lining into the bloodstream to cause viremia.
E) they remain latent inside cells in the stomach and intestines. |
|
Definition
| C) they are transmitted through the fecal-oral route. |
|
|
Term
Some patients who have suffered from polio develop symptoms 30—40 years later in the form of
A) repeated cold symptoms.
B) meningitis.
C) encephalitis.
D) crippling deterioration and dysfunction in the polio-affected muscles.
E) deterioration of the nerves that control polio-affected muscles |
|
Definition
| D) crippling deterioration and dysfunction in the polio-affected muscles. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following viruses is suspected of being a cause of diabetes mellitus?
A) coxsackie A virus
B) coxsackie B virus
C) echoviruses
D) enteroviruses
E) hepatitis A |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following viruses may cause viral meningitis?
A) echoviruses
B) rhinoviruses
C) coxsackie viruses
D) echoviruses and rhinoviruses
E) echoviruses and coxsackie viruses |
|
Definition
| E) echoviruses and coxsackie viruses |
|
|
Term
Enteric hepatitis is fatal for 20% of people in which of the following groups?
A) infants under the age of one year
B) teenagers
C) young adults
D) pregnant women
E) elderly men |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Diseases caused by coxsackie A virus include
A) myocarditis.
B) hand-foot-and-mouth disease.
C) viral meningitis.
D) hepatitis.
E) hand-foot-and-mouth disease and viral meningitis |
|
Definition
| E) hand-foot-and-mouth disease and viral meningitis |
|
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Term
Which of the following viruses is suspected of being a cause of diabetes mellitus?
A) coxsackie A virus
B) coxsackie B virus
C) echoviruses
D) enteroviruses
E) hepatitis A |
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Definition
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Which of the following viruses may cause viral meningitis?
A) echoviruses
B) rhinoviruses
C) coxsackie viruses
D) echoviruses and rhinoviruses
E) echoviruses and coxsackie viruses |
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Definition
| E) echoviruses and coxsackie viruses |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
The type of polio that involves the infection of the brain stem and medulla is
A) asymptomatic polio.
B) postpolio syndrome.
C) bulbar poliomyelitis.
D) minor polio.
E) nonparalytic polio |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is a member of the Flaviviridae that is NOT an arbovirus?
A) Eastern equine encephalitis virus
B) Dengue virus
C) hepatitis C virus
D) hepatitis E virus
E) West Nile virus |
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Definition
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Term
The disease known as dengue hemorrhagic fever is actually
A) a hyperimmune response to reinfection with the dengue virus.
B) an immediate immune reaction to the initial infection with the dengue virus.
C) an antibody-antigen complex reaction.
D) an autoimmune disease.
E) the chronic carrier state of the dengue virus. |
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Definition
| A) a hyperimmune response to reinfection with the dengue virus. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
The West Nile virus is considered a
A) rhinovirus.
B) coronavirus.
C) togavirus.
D) flavivirus.
E) enterovirus |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following viruses is considered a childhood disease, was first identified by a German physician, and is known to cause "three-day measles"?
A) rubella
B) roseola
C) echovirus
D) coxsackie A virus
E) rhinovirus |
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Definition
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Term
A child has a mild fever and a macular rash primarily on the torso. No lesions are evident in the mouth, and the child has not complained of pain. Which of the following diseases might the child have?
A) hand-foot-and-mouth disease
B) three-day measles
C) red measles
D) dengue fever
E) Rocky Mountain spotted fever |
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Definition
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Term
The SARS virus is a(n)
A) adenovirus.
B) rhinovirus.
C) coronavirus.
D) flavivirus.
E) togavirus. |
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Definition
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Term
The human T-lymphotropic virus 1 causes
A) hairy cell leukemia.
B) adult acute T-cell lymphocytic leukemia.
C) Hodgkin's lymphoma.
D) hepatic cancer.
E) Burkitt's lymphoma |
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Definition
| B) adult acute T-cell lymphocytic leukemia |
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Term
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Definition
| Human T-lymphotropic virus 2 (HTLV-2) |
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Term
Which of the following cells are a major reservoir for HIV?
A) helper T cells
B) B lymphocytes
C) cytotoxic T cells
D) infected dendritic cells
E) monocytes and macrophages |
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Definition
| E) monocytes and macrophages |
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Term
Which of the following bodily fluids is commonly a source of infection by HIV?
A) breast milk
B) semen
C) vaginal secretions
D) semen and vaginal secretions
E) breast milk, semen, and vaginal secretions |
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Definition
| E) breast milk, semen, and vaginal secretions |
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Term
Ebola hemorrhagic virus is caused by which type of virus?
A) filovirus
B) rhabdovirus
C) paramyxovirus
D) rubulavirus
E) pneumovirus |
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Definition
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Term
A scientist discovers a new virus affecting birds. After isolation, the virus is characterized as having single-strand RNA in an icosahedral capsid and an envelope. To which of the following virus families might this new virus belong?
A) Coronaviridae
B) Flaviviridae
C) Orthomyxoviridae
D) Picornaviridae
E) Reoviridae |
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Definition
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Term
| 53) Anemia is a common consequence of hookworm infection. T/F |
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Definition
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Term
| 63) Arboviruses enter cells by way of ________ and replicate within them. |
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Definition
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Term
18) Which of the following is MISMATCHED?
A) Salk vaccine – requires boosters
B) Sabin vaccine – live attenuated vaccine
C) Salk vaccine – administered orally
D) Sabin vaccine – less stable
E) Salk vaccine – inactivated polio vaccine |
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Definition
| C) Salk vaccine – administered orally |
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Term
| 48) Infection by all influenza strains can be prevented with vaccines. T/F |
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Definition
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Term
| Jonas Salk developed a(n) ________ vaccine in 1955. |
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Definition
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Term
| 65) Rubella vaccine is made of ________ viruses and should not be given to pregnant women. |
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Definition
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