Term
| The biology central dogma involves the three main molecules involved in ______, which are: |
|
Definition
| inheritance :: DNA, RNA, Proteins |
|
|
Term
| ___ is the enzyme that makes phosphodiester bonds in DNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DNA polymerase attaches new molecule to an existing 3' OH on a ____. It also needs a ____ to copy. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| How does DNA polymerase immediately correct an incorrect base pair? |
|
Definition
| Proofreading: if the base pair is wrong, the H-bond is poorly made and the DNA polymerase removes the base |
|
|
Term
| Energy for DNA polymerase comes from |
|
Definition
| splitting P-P bonds from nucleoside triphosphate |
|
|
Term
| DNA replication is ______ and ______. |
|
Definition
| semiconservative and bidirectional |
|
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Term
| DNA replication begins at a specific sequence called the ____. And proceeds in which direction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DNA replication ends at a specific sequence ___ degrees from the oriC, known as ____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What does it mean that replication is semiconservative? |
|
Definition
| one strand is new DNA and one strand is old |
|
|
Term
| In DNA replication, the discontinuous strand is the ____ strand. It is made of pieces called _____. |
|
Definition
| Lagging :: Okazaki fragments |
|
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Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is the lagging strand looped back during replication? |
|
Definition
| Because both strands are replicated in the same direction and to conserve DNA polymerase because each okazaki fragment needs its own polymerase |
|
|
Term
| Why is the lagging strand looped back during replication? |
|
Definition
| Because both strands are replicated in the same direction and to conserve DNA polymerase because each okazaki fragment needs its own polymerase |
|
|
Term
| ___ opens up DNA at each replication fork. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ relieves torsional strain in DNA |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 major differences between DNA and RNA polymerase |
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Definition
| RNA polymerase doesn't need primer :: A pairs with U :: ?? |
|
|
Term
| How does a cell know where to start making mRNA? |
|
Definition
| They start at Promoter sequences.. and sigma subunits find that promoter |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Single-stranded binding proteins -- coat single stranded DNA to keep it from knotting |
|
|
Term
| Most easily recognized promoter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Promoter starts at __ and __ sites |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Does the promoter have to be on the template strand? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The promoter always moves in what direction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What strand is the template strand in DNA replication? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Sigma factors are specific to ____. Why is this important? |
|
Definition
| promoters :: it allows transcription of different sets of genes |
|
|
Term
| Do prokaryotes or eukaryotes splice their DNA? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Spliced out :: "intervening" |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| "Expressed" :: not spliced out :: Used to make proteins |
|
|
Term
| Introns always start with __ and end with __. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| a protein complex called the ____ recognizes the junction between introns and exons, binds the two junctions, and removes the introns as a ____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| In an RNA, there are 3 binding sites. What and where are each? |
|
Definition
A- Amino acid addtion, first
P- Polypeptide protein
E- Exit - where tRNA leave ribosome |
|
|
Term
| Codon that initiates protein synthesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In prokaryotes, where does a ribsome bind? |
|
Definition
| specific RNA sequence called Shine-Dalgarno sequence |
|
|
Term
| In eukaryotes, the ribosome binds where? |
|
Definition
| the 5' end of the mRNA (each gene is on its own mRNA) |
|
|
Term
| After the ribosome finds the appropriate binding site, how does it know where to start reading the mRNA? |
|
Definition
| in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes, in slides down toward the 3' end until it finds AUG |
|
|
Term
| The correct amino acid is added to tRNA by |
|
Definition
| amino-acyl-tRNA synthetase - creates bond bewteen amino acid and tRNA - different synthetase for each tRNA |
|
|
Term
| How do amino acids know what codon to associate with? |
|
Definition
| adapter (tRNA) wtih anticodon |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| base pairing at rounded end of tRNA loop |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| when amino acid covalently bonds to the 3' end of a tRNA... then the charged tRNA bonds to a codon via the anticodon loop |
|
|
Term
| Translation elongation involves two key reactions: |
|
Definition
| transpeptidation and translocation |
|
|
Term
| How does transcription stop? |
|
Definition
| no tRNA's match the stop codons, so the ribosome stalls and a release factor binds instead of tRNA and causes the ribosome to fall apart and release the new DNA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sometimes a tRNA does not recognize a stop codon and keeps going - it's OK becuase there is likely another stop codon soon |
|
|
Term
| Coupled transcription/translation |
|
Definition
| when transcription and translation happen simultaneously - only in prokaryotes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The amino acid carried by the tRNA in the P-site is covalently joined to the amino acid in the A-site |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| results in the advancement of the ribosome a distance of one codon. the tRNA that was in the P site goes to the E site and the tRNA that was in the A site (which now carried the two-amino acid chain from transpeptidation) occupies the P site. |
|
|
Term
| ways antibiotics can kill bacteria by inhibiting protein synthesis |
|
Definition
| block initiation, blocks elongation, prevents transpeptidation, prevents translocation, inhibits tRNA synthetase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| knock out- deletes protein :: knock down- reduces # of protein made |
|
|
Term
| ___ gene - scans DNA and checks for mutations. A defect in this gene can cause?? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| purpose of Restriction endonucleases and DNA ligase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Restriction endonucleases (aka enzymes) recognize specific sequences that are |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do restriction endonucleases work? |
|
Definition
| cut dna at specific sequences, create sticky ends... any 2 pieces of DNA that are cut by the same R.E. can be put back together to make recombinant DNA |
|
|
Term
| DNA ligase put cut DNA back together to make ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what method separates DNA based on size? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ can recognize specific sequences of single stranded DNA (primers) by being labeled with something we can see. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can probes be used as primers? |
|
Definition
| If we make one that has a particular mutation and introduce it to DNA, it can make a mutation in that DNA because it will bind to it if it's sequence isn't off by too much -- called site directed mutagenesis |
|
|
Term
| How to create a DNA library |
|
Definition
| Isolate all genes from an organism, use restriction enzymes to create genomic fragments, join genomic fragments to vectors to make plasmids (recombinant molecules), intoduce the plasmids into cells -- each cell can be considered a "book" in the library |
|
|
Term
| How can you screen a library for a particular gene? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| used to screen the library - plate a bacterium, introduce a probe to the colonies... the colonies with the DNA you want will change color |
|
|
Term
| ____ allow easy detection of transcription from a promoter. |
|
Definition
| reporter gene (GFP) - fluoresces when gene is "on" |
|
|
Term
| ___ is a technique done to isolate a piece of DNA from an organism and figure out where in the organism it's located. |
|
Definition
| Southern Blotting - "Isolate and Identify" |
|
|
Term
| ___ is a technique that amplifies a particular sequence of DNA |
|
Definition
| Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) |
|
|
Term
| ___ is a technique that expresses the protein from one organism in another organism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is a technique that examines the promoter activity from all genes in an organism. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Use a probe to find DNA fragments in an electrophoretic gel -- can tell you about where a gene is based on where in the gel it changes color - up higher= bigger fragment |
|
|
Term
| In gel electrophoresis, the bigger fragments are toward the top/bottom |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What technique would you use to identify the DNA off a piece of hair found at a crime scene? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Denature DNA ;; bind probes to DNA ;; make new DNA from probes -- you end up with lots of copies of the DNA you want |
|
|
Term
| PCR uses what enzyme to make DNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ is like making a library except only a specific gene is inserted into the new host |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ creates genetically modified or transgenic organisms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| examples of transgenic organisms |
|
Definition
| Ti plasmid from agrobacterium used as a vector for plant host cells, insecticids "bollgard cotton", BT corn |
|
|
Term
| How is a microarray done? |
|
Definition
| Isolate mRNA only from genes with active promoters (more active a promoter is the more mRNA it produces), produces cDNA which is plated in microarray |
|
|
Term
| How is a microarray read? |
|
Definition
| spots in microarray represent genes, diff colors=diff organisms, for instance some spots are red and some are green... those that are yellow represent no difference between the two organisms |
|
|
Term
| ___ are all photosynthetic. They contain __, __, and __ photosynthetic pigments. |
|
Definition
| Algae :: brown, red, and green |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Not all are motile. Those that are have flagella |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| binary fission and meisosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| "Red tides" .. Dinoflagellate (algae) .. kills fish |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Algae .. paralytic shellfish poisoning |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Algae... fish pathogen that releases a very deadly necrotizing toxin |
|
|
Term
| Protozoa are categorized based on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Flagellates, amoebae, ciliates, sporozoa |
|
|
Term
| How are protozoal flagella different than bacterial? |
|
Definition
| protozoa flagella move like an oar instead of spinning |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| giardia, leishmania, trichomonas, trypanosoma |
|
|
Term
| ___ move by cytoplasmic streaming - like toothpaste out of a tube |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ causes African sleeping sickness. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| malaria, toxoplasma, cryptosporidium |
|
|
Term
| Sporozoa are only motile if they have ____, which moves by. |
|
Definition
| AP complex - gliding, like tank treads |
|
|
Term
| 2 protozoal causes of dysentery |
|
Definition
| ciliates (B. Coli) and amoebae (e. histolytica) |
|
|
Term
| ____ eat bacteria and algae and are therefore used in wastewater treatement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| trophozites (motile) and cysts (very resistant) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fungi that is single-celled and divides by fission or budding |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| filamentous (hyphal) form of fungi the form spores |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are fungi classified? |
|
Definition
| based on how they reproduce |
|
|
Term
| reproductive structures of fungi |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fungi classification when two mating types grow together to form a zygosporangium (2 mates meet and form a diploid between them) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fungi that form ascospores at the end of a filament. like hypha but grow in more compact colonies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fungi that is the reproductive structure in the mushroom.. spores released from underneath mushroom cap |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fungi form that is a visible aerial mycelium with spores |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| can be a yeast or a mold depending on environmental condition - makes it hard to kill |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fungal disease from bird droppings --- dimorphic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fungal disease from desert soil --- dimorphic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fungal infection (yeast infection) |
|
|
Term
| yeast infections vs mold infections |
|
Definition
| yeast infections generally more mild because they dont become systemic |
|
|
Term
| 3 kinds of fungal infection |
|
Definition
| superficial (on skin), dandruff :: Cutaneous (in skin), tinea -- athlete's food and ringworm :: Systemic - dimorphic fungi |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| bacteria or virus transmitted on the vector but the vector is not a host |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| bacteria or virus live IN the vector as a host --- must carry out part of lifecycle in host |
|
|
Term
| 3 types of insect vectors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Arachnid vector and how it causes disease |
|
Definition
| mites - not actually a vector, but causes an allergic reaction such as scabies or mange |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| round worms - pinworm, hookworm, trichinella, filaria |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| flat worms - taenia solium (pork) is worst |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __ is the resting form of a nematode |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| schistosome have 2 different larval forms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| why don't you have to eat flukes to become infected? |
|
Definition
| they can burrow through skin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| viruses grown on tissue cultures appear as plaques if they lyse the host cell - holes on host cells equivalent to colonies |
|
|
Term
| Why do viruses have to be grown on other cells? |
|
Definition
| they don't have metabolism |
|
|
Term
| 3 classifications for viruses |
|
Definition
| Nucleic acid (baltimore scheme), shape of virus, naked or enveloped |
|
|
Term
| Nucleic acid (baltimore scheme) classifies based on |
|
Definition
| RNA or DNA :: single or double stranded :: segmented or one molecule :: nucleic acid replication intermediates |
|
|
Term
| 3 ways to classify based on shape of virus |
|
Definition
| helical (coiled), icosahedral (20 sided polygon), complex (Pox only) |
|
|
Term
| in mRNA, the +/- strand is the template |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Class ___ in the Baltimore classification is the retroviruses because they perform reverse transcription |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Attachment of viral protein "spikes" to glycoprotein receptors on host membrane :: Entry by membrane fusion or by endocytosis :: Transit to site of replication :: uncoating :: replication of nucleic acid by transcription and translation :: maturation (assembly of new virus) :: release by budding or exocytosis |
|
|
Term
| ___ is when the viral nucleic acid separate from protein coat |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What step in viral infection is responsible for host specificity? |
|
Definition
| attachment of "spikes" to receptors in host |
|
|
Term
| How do enveloped viruses enter the host cell? |
|
Definition
| membrane fusion -- viral and host membranes "melt" together and then the capsid is released into the host cytoplasm |
|
|
Term
| How do naked viruses enter the host cell? |
|
Definition
| Endocytosis - host cell engulfs entire virus |
|
|
Term
| Transcription and translation depend on ________. |
|
Definition
| the type of viral nucleic acid |
|
|
Term
| DNA replication usually happens where? RNA replication happens where? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The goal of viral replication is to make ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| viral proteins are usually made into ____, which then have to be cut up into smaller pieces |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a retrovirus, the virus that inserts into the DNA of the host is actually what kind of virus? What is the significance of this? |
|
Definition
| provirus - allows retroviruses to stay in human body for long periods of time |
|
|
Term
| Example of a slow infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Example of a chronic infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Example of a latent infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If viral DNA is integrated into host chromosome, what is the fate of the host cell? |
|
Definition
| it either becomes a tumor cell or remains there for years becoming a latent infection |
|
|
Term
| What happens to a host cell if viral DNA is not integrated into the chromosome? |
|
Definition
| Remains as a plasmid (oncogene introduced or viruses has no further effect) or new viruses are produced to kill the cell or bud from the cell |
|
|
Term
| Segmented viruses can undergo ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which evolve more quickly, segmented or nonsegmented viruses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virus is famous for genetic reassortment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 characteristics of plant viruses |
|
Definition
| cause bariegation of color, stunting of growth, and tumor formation |
|
|
Term
| How do plant viruses infect? |
|
Definition
| through wounds in the plant |
|
|
Term
| How do plant viruses spread? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Innate immunity vs. adaptive immunity |
|
Definition
| Innate - non-specific, general response to invasion, acts immediately upon invasion :: Adaptive- takes a week or two to develop afer infection, discriminates between infecting organisms (specific), discriminates between self and nonself, has memory |
|
|
Term
| Why is immune memory important to preventing infection? |
|
Definition
| it makes it quicker to respond to reinfection |
|
|
Term
| 3 physical barriers in innate immunity |
|
Definition
| skin (pH, salt, and secretions), mucous membranes, normal flora (good bacteria) |
|
|
Term
| Normal flora is where in the body? |
|
Definition
| skin, GI tract, vagina, mouth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| hydrolyzing peptidoglycan |
|
|
Term
| 3 main types of white blood cells |
|
Definition
| granulocytes, phagocytes, lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| PMN (neutrophils), monocytes, and dendritic cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| B-cells, T-cells, and NK cells |
|
|
Term
| 4 kinds of cytokines produced by granulocytes |
|
Definition
| chemokines, interferon, interleukins, and tumor necrosis factors |
|
|
Term
| ____ are cytokines that are like recruiting signals that allow chemotaxis to the site of infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are antiviral cytokines produced in response to double-stranded DNA and activates inflammatory response. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is a cytokine that allows communication between white blood cells, are involved in the growth and differentiation of leukocytes and inflammatory response |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are cytokines that kill tumor cells |
|
Definition
| tumor necrosis factors (TNF) |
|
|
Term
| How do phagocytes recognize pathogens? |
|
Definition
| Surface receptors (TLR and NOD) on phagocytes recognize molecules found on pathogens (PMPs) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Pathogen-associated molecular patterns -- stuff on the surface of bacteria that our bodies recognize as bad |
|
|
Term
| ___ is an accessory protein that boosts the response to LPS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can bacteria avoid phagocytosis? |
|
Definition
| by blocking PMPs on their surface |
|
|
Term
| _______ are important in killing most invading microbes. ____ mop up the survivors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 things that activate complement |
|
Definition
| C3b protein binds to cell surface :: mannan binding lectins (MBL) bind to cell surface :: antibodies bind to and clump pathogens together |
|
|
Term
| 3 results of the complement system |
|
Definition
| inflammation :: pore complex inserted into foreign cell (MAC) which leads to lysis :: cells get opsonized which makes them easier to phagocytize |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Membrane attack complex - makes bacteria leaky by poking holes in it -- cannot maintain PMF |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| "eat me tag" for phagocytosis |
|
|
Term
| How does an infection cause inflammation? |
|
Definition
| Produce cytokines, which increase blood flow to wound, cause production of adhesin moleucles within capillary and make capillary walls porous (diapedesis) |
|
|
Term
| Good results of inflammation |
|
Definition
| allows phagocytes to get to invaders, enhances new capillary growth (helps wound heal faster), cytokines go to hypothalamus and cause fever |
|
|
Term
| Bad results of inflammation |
|
Definition
| fever can become too high, too much blood can leave capillaries (hypovolemia), clotes can occur in capillaries and lead to septic shock |
|
|
Term
| Cellular immunity allows cells to recognize ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ cells release perforin to kill infected cells inthe body and induce apoptosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ cells release cytokines to stimulate other T cells and activate B cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ produce B cell derivatives |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Phagocytes produce cytokines that recruit other phagocytes, once engulfed the pathogen is in a phagocytic vesical called a phagosome, the phagosome fuses with the lysosome to make a phagolysosome |
|
|
Term
| How do phagocytes kill bacteria once they have them? |
|
Definition
| oxidative burst (superoxide, peroxide, nitric oxide) and digestive enzymes from phagolysosome |
|
|
Term
| 4 ways bacteria fight back at phagocytosis |
|
Definition
| antioxidants to fight oxidative burst, oxidates to kill phagocyte, leukocidins to kill PMNs and monocytes, capsules to prevent phagocytosis |
|
|
Term
| What happens to unkilled bacteria? |
|
Definition
| forms granuloma to encase unkilled bacteria |
|
|
Term
| What disease is a classic example of a granuloma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Common antigen presenting cells |
|
Definition
| Macrophages, dendritic cells, and B-lymphs |
|
|
Term
| ____ are the only cells that can present MHC2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ presents all proteins, including self, is found on all nucleated cells, mounts protein from cytoplasm, and recruits Tc cells to kill the infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| MHCI/MHCII do not engulf bacteria by phagocytosis, but instead use proteosomes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why must MHCs be matched for allografts? |
|
Definition
| because foreign MHC elicit immune response |
|
|
Term
| ____ mounts foreign protein from phagolysosomes and recruits Th cells to kill bacteria. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does interferon (IFN) keep bacteria from infecting neighboring cells? |
|
Definition
| It induces genes with dsRNA and diffuses to neighboring cells where it activates antiviral proteins, which causes cell to undergo apoptosis |
|
|
Term
| ___ is how a cell can make different amounts of protein from the same genes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| regulate transcription, regulate mRNA half life, Regulate translation, regulate degredation of protein |
|
|
Term
| a ___ is mRNA that contains multiple genes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Each gene in an operon has its own ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why can only prokaryotes have operons? |
|
Definition
| they are able to start transcription at an internal site on the mRNA (S.D. sequences) |
|
|
Term
| ____ control is when a repressor protein binding prevents mRNA synthesis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ control is when an activator protein binding allows mRNA synthesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A ___ gene makes ATP, the the mRNA is synthesized constantly and is not regulated. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a ____ gene, mRNA is not usually produced but can be turned on by certain conditions. ex? |
|
Definition
| inducible :: ex: genes that break down exotic carbon sources |
|
|
Term
| In a ____ gene, mRNA is usually produced but can be turned off by certain conditions. ex? |
|
Definition
| Repressible :: ex: if bacteria are provided with amino acids, the gene for making amino acids isn't needed and is turned off |
|
|
Term
| ___ is an example of an inducer with a positive control |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lac operon as and inducer with pos control |
|
Definition
| Lac operon uses lactose as carbon source... if lactose is present, transcription is ON: inducer binds to the acivator and changes the shape, enabling the activator to bind to the site. RNA pol can then bind to the promoter and initiate transcription. If Lactose is absent, transcription is OFF. |
|
|
Term
| The lac operon system only works if there is no ___ present. Why? |
|
Definition
| glucose :: no glucose = cAMP is made |
|
|
Term
| Why doesn't lac operon use lactose if glucose is present? |
|
Definition
| It is more energy efficient to use glucose instead |
|
|
Term
| 2 component regulatory system |
|
Definition
| sensor kinase (senses environment, posphorylates protein to change its shape) and response regulator (usually an activator protein that reuglates the cell's response to the environment) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| HSL can bind to sensor kinase and turns on competitive genes -- senses the presence and # of bacteria around |
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Term
| ___ is used to alter gene expression |
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Definition
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Term
| A ___ gene is not expressed because there is no promoter |
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Definition
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Term
| Eukaryotic mRNA but not prokaryotic mRNA is: translated, spliced, transcribed, read 5'to3', or read 3'to5'? |
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Definition
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Term
| To begin translation in prokaryotes, a ribosome binds to a/an: promoter, start codon, shine-dalgarno sequence, origin, hairpin loop. |
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Definition
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Term
| An mRNA codon is read by a tRNA. But what ensures that a tRNA is charged with the correct amino acid? |
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Definition
| An amino-acyl-tRNA synthetase attaches a specific amino acid to a specific tRNA |
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Term
| One difference between an activator and a repressor is? |
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Definition
| Repressors bind downstream of a promoter, activators bind upstream |
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Term
| Gene regulation achieved by moving a gene from a silent site to an expressed site near a promoter is called: quorum sensing, response regulation, gene dispersal, two component regulation, cassette switching |
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Definition
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Term
| The normal form of a certain gene is 5000 base pairs long. a form of the gene that is associated with cancer is 2800 base pairs long. 2 procedures to diagnose the presence or absence of the cancer-causing variant would be? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| a gene with a visible product used to report the activity of another gene's promoter. |
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Term
| Dimorphic fungi are able to? |
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Definition
| change from yeasts to molds |
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Term
| Schistosomiasis (bilharzia) is a helminth that affects what organ? |
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Definition
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Term
| Naked viruses typically enter animal cells via? |
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Definition
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Term
| HOw can your phagocytes recognize a cell as a foreign invader rahter than one of your own? |
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Definition
| the invader has surface features that are recognized by specific phagocyte receptors |
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Term
| What is one possible consequence of cytokine production in response to LPS? |
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Definition
| Excessive diapedesis, hypovolemia, and organ failure |
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Term
| How does interferon function during a viral infection? |
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Definition
| It induces the production of activatable antiviral proteins in neighboring cells |
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Term
Which of the following is not common to all three complement activation pathways?
A. the inflammatory response is triggered by C3a and C5a
B. The adaptive immune response is needed for activation of the pathway
c. Complement proteins are assembled into a C5 convertase
D. A molecule from your blood serum must bind to the surface of a pathogen
E. the MAC is formed when C5b recruits C6-C9 |
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Definition
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Term
| Making new DNA requires a template and a primer. The enzyme Primase makes a primer for DNA polymerase. What is true about primase? |
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Definition
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Term
| Genes are induced in virally infected cells by ____. |
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Definition
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Term
| How does interferon work? |
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Definition
| - genes are induced by dsRNA :: IFN diffuses to neighboring cells and induces inactive antiviral proteins to "warn" them :: if the neighboring cells are infected, the dsRNA activates the AVPs :: AVPs cause newly infected cells to undergo apoptosis |
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Term
| _____ doesn't prevent the initial infection but it prevents it from spreading |
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Definition
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Term
| Goals of the complement cascade |
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Definition
| to release cytokines to induce inflammation and recruit other phagocytes :: to build the MAC and insert it into foreign cells :: to opsonize the foreign cell |
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Term
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Definition
| Membrane attack complex: loss of ion gradient so the bacterial cell can no longer produce energy |
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Term
| 3 ways to initiate complement |
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Definition
| Mannan-binding lectin (MBL), classical (antibodies bind to bacterial surface antigens), alternate (properdin) makes an alternate C5 convertase |
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Term
| in complement, what do C3a and C5a do? |
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Definition
| release cytokines (C3a=diapedesis, C5a=chemokines) |
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Term
| In complement, what does C5b-C9 do? |
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Definition
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Term
| in complement, what does C3b do? |
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Definition
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Term
| If you chemically attached the amino acid leucine to a set of tRNAs with the anticodon for lysine, what would happen? |
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Definition
| the protein would be made with leucine instead of lycine |
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Term
| A mutation in the isoleucyl tRNA synthetase gene's promoter will result in... |
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Definition
| all protein synthesis would stall at isoleucine and the cell would die |
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Term
| A bacterium can make the amino acid leucine, but can also take it up from the growth medium if it is available. the cell would prefer to? Therefore, the genes for leucine transporters would be constitutive, inducible, or repressible? and the genes to MAKE leucine would be? |
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Definition
| take it from the medium :: inducible :: repressible |
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Term
| The genes for sucrose PTS system are under positive control and inducible. How does this work? |
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Definition
| An activator protein turns the genes on in the presence of sucrose |
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Term
| If the cell is growing with glucose and without lactose, the lac operon would be on or off? |
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Definition
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Term
| If the cell is growing with glucose and with lactose, the lac operon would be on or off? |
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Definition
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Term
| If the cell is growing without glucose and without lactose, the lac operon would be on or off? |
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Definition
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Term
| African sleeping sickness is caused by which: amoeba, flagellate, sporozoan, alga |
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Definition
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Term
| In flu-infected cells treated with amantadine, no viral RNA is detectable, but nucleocapsid particles are seen. what step in viral synthesis does amantadine inhibit. |
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Definition
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Term
The HIV inhibitor enfuvirtide blocks the gp41 receptor, the speicific receptor to which HIV spikes attach. Cells treated with enfuvirtide are expected to show?
A. only HIV RNA in the cells
B. Only HIV nucleocapsid inside the cells
C. no HIV in the cells
D. Only proviral form of HIV |
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Definition
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Term
| How does lysozyme kill bacteria? |
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Definition
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Term
| what chemical signal recruits phagocytes to the site of an infection? |
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Definition
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Term
| Rickettsia are bacteria which can prevent the phagocytic vesicle from fusing with the lysosome. What would be a characteristic of Rickettsia infections? |
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Definition
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Term
| The mono virus has acquired an interferon receptor gene. what happens when a mono-infected cell produces interferon? |
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Definition
| nothing - the IFN is all wasted |
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Term
| Rickettsia are bacteria which can prevent phagocytes from fusing with the lysosome. how can they be killed by the immue system? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| isolate and restrict DNA, separate the gene of interest from the rest of it, clone the gene of interest into a cloning vector (such as a Ti plasmid), introduce the plasmid into a host, Use the host to inject the plasmid into a cell |
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Term
| What process? Cutting the DNA, runnig the pieces on a gel, and probing for a specific sequence |
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Definition
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Term
| What process? separating the DNA, annealing the primers, and elongating the new strands |
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Definition
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Term
| What process? inserting the DNA into a vector, inserting thte vector into a host, and plating the host |
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Definition
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Term
| What process? spreading a library on a petri dish, transferring to a membrane filter, and washing with a fluorescent probe |
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Definition
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Term
| What process? isolating mRNA from two cells, labeling one set red and one gree, and hybridizing to oligonucleotides on a glass slide |
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Definition
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Term
| Most deadly form of pork tapeworm |
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Definition
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Term
| How does interferon function? A. it kills the same cell that produces it if that cell contains dsRNA B. It kills the virus by oxidizing viral capsid proteins C. It induces the production of precursors to the antiviral proteins in neighboring cells D. it is a cytotoxin that kills neighboring cells to prevent them from getting infected. E. It induces cytokine production by Tc cells. |
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Definition
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Term
The inflammatory response involves:
A. Leukocytes leaking through capillary walls
B. Constriction of capillaries to reduce blood flow to a wound
C. B cells producing antibodies to fight an infection
D. Phagocytes becoming more slippery so they can flow through capillaries faster
E. opsonization of monocytes, causing them to swell |
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Definition
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Term
| Difference between MHC I and MHC II |
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Definition
| MHCI presents cytoplasmic antigens, MHCII presents antigens from phagolysosomes |
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Term
| What type of cells display the surface antigen B7? |
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Definition
| Dendritic cells after they have ingested a pathogen |
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Term
| What does it mean for a Th cell to become an effector cell? |
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Definition
| As soon as its TCR contacts an antigen on MHCII, it can secrete cytokines |
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Term
| A "T-independent" antigen such as a bacterial polysaccharide capsule does not cause ____ cells to differentiate into ____ cells. |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the following antibiotics would not affect protein synthesis? vancomycin, streptomycin, erythromycin, chloramphenicol, mupirosin |
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Definition
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