Term
List the 12 "Red" Classifications for an adult trauma alert patient according to the table:
|
|
Definition
1. Active Airway Assistance
2. Lack of radial pulse with a sustained heart rate (>120)
3. Blood pressure <90 mmHg
4. GCS < 12
5. BMR = 4 or less
6. Presence of paralysis
7. Suspicion of spinal cord injury
8. Loss of sensation
9. 2' or 3' degree burns to 15% or more TBSA
10. Amputation proximal to the wrist or ankle
11. Any penetrating injury to the head, neck or torso
12. Sign or symptoms of a fracture of two or more long bone sites
Protocol page 29 |
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Term
Adult "Blue" trauma alert criteria:
|
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Definition
1. Respiratory rate of 30 or greater
2. Sustained HR of 120 beats per minute or more
3. BMR =5
4. Soft tissue loss
5. GSW to the extremeties
6. Sign or symptoms of a single FX due to MVA
7. Fall 10' or higher
8. 55 years or older
9. Ejection from vehicle
10. Deformed steering wheel
Protocol page 29 |
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Term
The guidelines for Pre-Hospital Care is divided into 5 main sections. they are:
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Definition
1. Administrative Policies
2. Protocols/Pearls
3. Procedure Guidelines
4. Medication Guidelines
5. appendices
Protocol page 1-6 |
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Term
Medical Control is defined as: (What is the order for contacting medical direction)
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Definition
1. LSEMS Medical director and associates
2. Receiving facility physician where the patient will ultimately be transported
3. LSEMS Assistant Chief (EMS 3)
Protocol page 8 |
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Term
An UNSTABLE patient is one who presents with any of the following:
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Definition
1. Significant discomfort of suspected cardiac origin
2. Severe dyspnea
3. Acute altered mental status
4. Hypotension with signs and symptoms of decreased tissue perfusion
Protocol page 8 |
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Term
There are times when patients are refusing further treatment or transport after a hypoglycemic episode. What are they?
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Definition
1. There is a documented low glucose reading pre-treatment and a normal glucose reading post treatment
2. The patient is awake, alert, and oriented X4 post treatment (understands current situation)
3. The patient is not going to operate any moving vehicle or equipment immediately following treatment
4. There is another competent adult who will assume the responsibility of caring for the patient for the next 1-2 hours
5. There are no other uderlying medical or trauma conditions requiring treatment at the time of service
Protocol page 18 |
|
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Term
|
Definition
1. The patient (if signed by the patient)
2. The patient's healthcare surrogate
3. The patient's proxy, court appointed guardian, or Power of Attorney
Protocol page 21 |
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Term
Aeromedical transport may be utilized provided the following criteria are met:
A. Ground transport time is greater then __ minutes to appropriate receiving facility and
B. Air support response time is less than __ minutes
|
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Definition
1. 30 minutes
2. 30 minutes
Protocol page 31
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Term
Determine responsiveness/LOC:
A=
V=
P=
U= |
|
Definition
1. Alert
2. Verbal
3. Pain
4. Unresponsive
Protocol page 41
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Term
| Name the three Comprehensive Stroke Centers |
|
Definition
1. Halifax Medical Center - Daytona
2. Saint Joseph's Hospital - Tampa
3. Tampa General Hospital - Tampa
Protocol page 38 |
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Term
| The S.T.A.R.T. method is based upon 3 observations, they are: |
|
Definition
1. Respirations
2. Perfusion
3. Mental Status
Protocol page 39 |
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Term
| Administer oxygen using the appropriate route/dose to _______________, keep O2 stats ______, and keep the patient's skin condition _____, ______, and ______. |
|
Definition
1. Alleviate the patient's chief complaint
2. >94%
3. pink, warm and dry
Protocol page 41 |
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Term
| An EMT-B (Florida Certified) may assist a patient using over the counter medications if the patient is in respiratory distress. T/F |
|
Definition
1. False
(The EMT may assist with a prescription inhaler )
Protocol page 70
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Term
| Vital signs should be taken and recorded at least every ___ minute(s) for a stable patient and ___ minute(s) for an unstable patient |
|
Definition
1. 15 minutes
2. 5 minutes
Protocol page 42
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Term
| What position on the stretcher is an immobilized pregnant female placed? |
|
Definition
Raise right side of backboard 30 degrees unless patient distress/pain is increased
Protocol page 143 |
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Term
| The 6 state approved trauma centers are: |
|
Definition
1. Halifax - Daytona
2. Lakeland Regional Medical Center - Lakeland
3. Orlando Regional Medical Center - Orlando
4. Saint Joseph's Hospital
5. Shands at University of Florida - Gainsville
6. Tampa General Hospital - Tampa
*extra*
7. Bayfront Medical Center - Saint Petersburg
Protocol page 32 |
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Term
| What are the criteria of Induced Hypothermia: |
|
Definition
1. ROSC after cardiac arrest not related to trauma or hemmorage
2. Age greater than 18
3. Initial Temp >34 degrees C
4. Patient is intubated and remains comatose (no purposeful response to pain
5. Family consent obtained
Protocol page 51
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Term
Medical Control is defined as the on-line physician who is willing to accept responsibility for the actions of the paramedic or the All-Agency Medical Director and his associates.
True/False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For non-trauma situations, a pediatric patient is defined as <___ years of age and ___pounds or less. |
|
Definition
1. 8
2. 80
Protocol page 10 |
|
|
Term
| The 3 test for the Cincinnati Stroke Exam are: |
|
Definition
1. Arm drift (Motor weakness)
2. Facial droop (smile)
3. Speech (Phrase)
Protocol page 289 |
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|
Term
When presented with an unstable patient who has been exposed to an unknown chemical substance, the proper procedure is to load the patient into the unit and rapidly transport to the hospital where decontamination will take place.
True/False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All adult "near drowning" patients should be transported to a trauma center via air or ground transport.
True/False |
|
Definition
1. False
(Only if trauma is suspected)
Protocol page 106 |
|
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Term
List the following landmarks for placement of the precordial electrodes:
V1.
V2.
V3.
V4.
V5.
V6. |
|
Definition
V1. 4th intercostal space to the right of the sternum
V2. 4th intercostal space to the left of the sternum
V3. Directly between leads 2 and 4
V4. 5th intercostal space at midclavicular line
V5. Level with V4 at left anterior axillary line
V6. Level with V5 at left midaxillary line (Midpoint of armpit)
Protocol page 196 |
|
|
Term
| Nitroglycerin should be withheld for patients that have taken Erectile Dysfunction meds within the last __hours |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three locations of Hyperbaric Chambers per the protocol: |
|
Definition
1. Central Florida Regional ER - Sanford (CO poisoning only)
2. Florida Hospital South ER - Orlando
3. Shands Hospital ER - Gainsville
Protocol page 59 |
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Term
| For Drug Assisted Intubations you should assess the dificulty of the patient's airway using the acronym "LEMON". What does it stand for? |
|
Definition
L. Look externally
E. Evaluate 3-3-2 rule
M. Mallampati
O. Obstruction
N. Neck Mobility
Protocol page 63 |
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|
Term
A nasal cannula is an appropriate oxygen delivery device for a patient exposed to carbon monoxide inhalation.
True/False |
|
Definition
1. False
100% Oxygen Non-Rebreather (tight fitting)
Protocol page 60 |
|
|
Term
A properly completed state DNR form has an expiration date 1 year from the date it was signed by the physician.
True/False |
|
Definition
1. False (This form does not expire)
Protocol page 21 |
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|
Term
| Oxygen should be administered via BVM for all patients with adequate ventilations less than ___ or greater than ___ times a minute. |
|
Definition
1. 10
2. 30
Protocol page 60 |
|
|
Term
| Nitro paste should be applied after the 1st/2nd/3rd (select one) sublinggual spray. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the acronym F.A.S.T. stand for:
F.
A.
S.
T. |
|
Definition
1. Facial droop
2. Arm drift
3. Abnormal speech
4. Last time seen normal
Protocol page 289 |
|
|
Term
What does the acronym L.A.M.S. stand for:
L.
A.
M.
S. |
|
Definition
L. Los
A. Angeles
M. Motor
S. Scale
Protocol page 290 |
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Term
A stroke form should be completed and given to either the hospital staff or flight crew taking over patient care.
True/False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the number for poison control? |
|
Definition
1-800-222-1222
Protocol page 79,128 |
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|
Term
| NTG should/should not be administered in the treatment of hypertension. |
|
Definition
1. Should not
Protocol page 83
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|
Term
A postive orthostatic change is categorized by:
An increase/decrease in SBP by 10 mmHg and
An increase/decrease in HR by approximately 10 bpm |
|
Definition
1. Decrease
2. Increase
Protocol page 91,95 |
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Term
| Name 5 differential diagnoses for a syncope patient: |
|
Definition
1. Stroke
2. Seizures
3. Shock
4. Toxicologic
5. Hypoglycemia
Protocol page 96 |
|
|
Term
| According to the LAMS, a patient who scores 4 or 5 should be taken to what type of facility? |
|
Definition
1. Comprehensive Stroke Center
Protocol page 290 |
|
|
Term
| What is the number you would call for an elderly patient who is being abused? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Using the rule of nines, what is the total for an adult that has both chest and back burns? |
|
Definition
1. 27 (Chest=9 back=18)
Protocol page 99 |
|
|
Term
| When evaluating burns, clasify them in three ways: (not 1st, 2nd, or 3rd degree) |
|
Definition
1. Superficial
2. Partial thickness
3. Full thickness
OR:
1. Source
2. Degree
3. Severity
Protocol page 99
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|
|
Term
Instant glucose may be given by EMTs:
True/False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of dressing would be used for a Thermal/Inhalation burn? |
|
Definition
1. Dry sterile
Protocol page 100 |
|
|
Term
| Besides cardiorespiratory and shock, name 4 other injuries that can result from a lightning strike. |
|
Definition
1. Respiratory arrest
2. Ruptured tympanic membrane
3. Featherlike burns
4.Corneal lesions
Protocol page 99 |
|
|
Term
| Near Drowning is defined as: |
|
Definition
1. A submersion event with a loss of pulse and/or respirations with an eventual ROSC
Protocol page 105 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. A submersion event with no ROSC and should be transported to an IRF
Protocol page 105 |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 differential diagnoses of Dysbarism: |
|
Definition
1. Air embolism
2. Pulmonary embolism
3. Pneumothorax
4. CVA
5. Auditory barotrauma
Protocol page 108 |
|
|
Term
| Traumatic amputations should be wrapped in ___ ______ dressings. |
|
Definition
1. Sterile
2. Saline soaked
Protocol page 110 |
|
|
Term
What is the GCS of an adult whose(eyes open to pain) E= __ (uses innappropriate words) V-=__, and (localizes to pain) M= __
Total= ___ |
|
Definition
E. 2
V. 3
M. 5
Total = 10
Protocol page 285 |
|
|
Term
| What is the phone number for an envenomation emergency? |
|
Definition
1. 1-786-336-6600
Protocol page 117 |
|
|
Term
| Hyphema is __________________ |
|
Definition
1. Blood in the anterior chamber of the eye
Protocol page 113 |
|
|
Term
| If hyphema is noted elevate the head at least ___ degrees. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to the pearls, what is Ptosis and what pearls is it associated with? |
|
Definition
1. Drooping eyelids
2. Snake bites
Protocol page 117 |
|
|
Term
| Crotalins includes what types of snakes: |
|
Definition
1. Mocasins, rattlesnakes and copperheads
Protocol page 117 |
|
|
Term
| "Red on Yellow - ______, Red on Black - ______ |
|
Definition
1. Kill a fellow
2. Venom lack
Protocol page 117 |
|
|
Term
| Do/Do not apply ice or cold packs to a snake or marine bite/sting. |
|
Definition
1. Do not
Protocol page 117 |
|
|
Term
| _____ spiders have a fiddle shape on their back, while _____ spiders have a red hour glass on their belly. |
|
Definition
1. Brown recluse
2. Black widow
Protocol page 119 |
|
|
Term
| The initial temperature to induce spinal cord hypothermia must be >34 Celsius, what is that in Fahrenheit: |
|
Definition
1. 93.2 degrees Fahrenheit
Protocol page 121 |
|
|
Term
Answering "yes" to only one box in the Spinal Rule Out Protocol means that spinal immobilization is not required.
True/False |
|
Definition
1. False
Protocol page 124 |
|
|
Term
| When does shivering cease: ___ degrees Celsius or ___ degrees Fahrenheit. |
|
Definition
1. 32
2. 90
Protocol page 125 |
|
|
Term
| When cooling a patient with a suspected spinal injury, where should ice packs be placed? |
|
Definition
1. Head and Axilla
Protocol page 122 |
|
|
Term
| The goal of Induced Hypothermia is to drop the patient's core temperature by ___ degree(s) |
|
Definition
1. 1 degree
Protocol page 121 |
|
|
Term
___ is the number of viable births (>20 weeks).
___ is the total number of times a woman has been pregnant. |
|
Definition
1. Para
2. Gravida
Protocol page 133 |
|
|
Term
| An infant is delivered with a heart rate of 110, flexion movement, slow irregular respiratory effort, with body pink with cyanotic extremities, grimaces to tactile stimulation. Document the score according to the APGAR chart. |
|
Definition
Appearance 1
Pulse 2
Grimace 1
Activity 1
Respiration 1
Total = 6
Protocol page 137 |
|
|
Term
A patient with a frostbitten great toe should have the toe wrapped tightly with dry sterile dressing?
True/False |
|
Definition
1. False
Protocol page 126 |
|
|
Term
| The placenta should deliver about ___ minutes after the delivery of the baby. |
|
Definition
1. 20-30
Protocol page 140 |
|
|
Term
| The most common cause of fetal death is what? |
|
Definition
1. Maternal death
Protocol page 144 |
|
|
Term
| Your patient is 32 years old and pregnant. She complains of pain and dark red vaginal bleeding, per the pearls, this may be a sign of: |
|
Definition
1. Abruptio placenta
Protocol page 145 |
|
|
Term
| Your patient is a 6 month old female. According to a pediatric pearls page, what should her normal respiratory rate, B/P, Pulse, and Weight? |
|
Definition
1. RR: 30
2. B/P Systolic 89 Diastolic 60
3. HR 100-140
4. Weight 16.5
Protocol page 165 |
|
|
Term
Third trimester bleeding:
____ is associated with dark red blood, with pain present
_____ is associated with bright red blood, and no pain
_____ is associated with possible bleeding, pain and usually sudden onset of nausea and vomiting. |
|
Definition
1. Abruptio placenta
2. Placenta previa
3. Uterine repture
Protocol page 145 |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 indications for the use of the AutoPulse? |
|
Definition
1. The patients in non traumatic cardiac arrest
2. 18 years or older
3. Less than 300 pounds
Protocol page 176 |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal range of Carbon Dioxide? |
|
Definition
1. 35-45 mmHg
Protocol page 191 |
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