Term
| AWO Assisted/Directed Rendezvous Responsibilities |
|
Definition
3.7.1. AWO Assisted Rendezvous. The AWO will provide information to assist the Nav in
accomplishing the rendezvous and for situational awareness. AWOs will execute the
rendezvous IAW with paragraph 2.5.1.4 of this AFI.
3.7.1.1. Communications. Internal coordination between the Nav and AWO during the rendezvous will
be over Net 1. Other crewmembers will not use Net 1 for 30 minutes before the AAR Control Time
(ARCT) until after the refueling is complete, unless safety of flight is in jeopardy.
3.7.1.2. Procedures. The AWO will execute the pre-planned type of rendezvous as coordinated with
the AC, Nav, and tanker. The AWO will pass bearing, range, and offset of the tanker as
prebriefed/required. The AC will advise the AWO/MCC when to terminate mission crew assistance and
when the mission systems may be configured for AAR. 3.7.2. AWODirected Rendezvous. The SD is
primarily responsible for the success of the AWO directed rendezvous. The AWO will brief the flight
deck and the SD on the A/R rendezvous procedure to be employed. AWOs will execute the rendezvous
IAW with paragraph 2.5.1.5 of this AFI.
3.7.2.1. During Directed Rendezvous AWOs will voice vectors, altitude changes and any
directive calls over the primary AAR frequency. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
3.11.1. During flight under Due Regard when the mission radar or Identification, Friend or
Foe (IFF) is operating, the MCC will designate an AWACS monitor to provide traffic advisories to
the flight crew. At any other time, an AWACS monitor may be utilized as determined by the PIC. The
AWACS monitor will notify the flight crew and MCC when AWACS monitor assumes monitor duties, notify
the MCC when monitor responsibility changes sections, and notify both the flight crew and MCC
whenever AWACS monitor is terminated and should provide a brief explanation for the reason of
termination. The MCC is ultimately responsible for ensuring that there is an AWACS monitor on duty.
Normally, the Weapons Controller providing Weapons Controller Assisted AR Rendezvous or Weapons
Controller Directed AR Rendezvous will also perform AWACS monitor responsibilities.
3.11.2. The AWACS monitor will pass track information with the following parameters or as modified
by the PIC:
3.11.2.1. For ATC-controlled airspace: Tracks that are within +1,000 feet (IFF Mode C) or 3,000
feet radar measured of E-3 altitude and 15 miles from the E-3, if the track is on a heading towards
the E-3, overtaking, or passing in front of the E-3.
3.11.2.2. For uncontrolled airspace: Tracks which are within +3,000 feet of E-3 altitude and 15
miles from the E-3, if the track is on a heading towards the E-3, overtaking, or passing in front
of the E-3.
3.11.2.3. Traffic advisories will include any climbing/descending and/or maneuvering aircraft which
could pose a threat to the E-3.
3.11.3. Pass the tracks to the flight crew over Net 1 giving magnetic bearing (rounded to the
nearest 10 degrees) Note: To increase situational awareness and promote radio communication
deconfliction, AWACS monitor will monitor ATC frequency. Range, altitude, crossing information
about the traffic and whether the track altitude is radar
measured or IFF reported. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
3.18.1. Do not conduct transition when scheduled takeoff or final landing is between 2400L
and 0600L without SQ/DO approval.
3.18.2. When performing transition with mission crew on board, the total transition time will not
exceed 2+30 hours, with the exception of CTs/CSOs on P-sorties. However, do not conduct more than
1+30 hours at one time without SQ/DO approval.
3.18.3. Aircrews may conduct off-station transition if airfield was included in the mission
planning conducted prior to flight and approval was obtained by SQ/DO (or higher authority).
3.18.3.1. Aircrew may “drop-in” to airfields designated as “familiar” in local supplements without
pre-flight mission planning/approval. The PIC will ensure current NOTAMS are reviewed, be familiar
with the airfield, and coordinate with SQ/DO (or higher authority) prior to commencing descent to
the airfield.
3.18.4. Transition duty day is a period of 12 hours that starts and runs concurrently with the
maximum flight duty periods and applies to all flight crewmembers. Transition may be accomplished
with additional crewmembers onboard who have exceeded transition duty day
provided they are not occupying their primary flight crew duty position or performing flight crew
instructor or Stan Eval Flight Examiner (SEFE) duties.
3.18.4.1. The OG/CC can approve requests to extend transition duty day to 16 hours. 513 ACG may
perform transition training on local training missions provided duty day does
not exceed 16 hours and actual flying time does not exceed 12 hours. |
|
|
Term
| Crew Coordination Drills (CCD) |
|
Definition
3.19.1. The AC and MCC will coordinate prior to initiation, and make every effort to inform
all instructors and evaluators of crew coordination drill timing in order to maximize training.
3.19.2. Operational requirements will not be interrupted.
3.19.3. Doors and hatches will not be opened and equipment will not be powered down. However, if a
simulated crew coordination drill is performed after calling “off station,” a normal equipment
power down may be incorporated into the drill in anticipation of landing the aircraft.
3.19.4. If passengers are onboard during the drill, passengers will be briefed but will not
participate.
3.19.5. The AC will make a Public Address (PA) announcement at the start of the crew coordination
drill vulnerability period, upon execution of the drill, and at the conclusion of
the drill. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The AWO is responsible to the SD for the control and
safe regulation of air traffic for all assigned missions. The AWO will:
5.2.4.2.1. Locate, identify, and track aircraft assigned for control.
5.2.4.2.2. Control aircraft against assigned targets.
5.2.4.2.3. Ensure orderly and expeditious recovery of assigned aircraft.
5.2.4.2.4. Coordinate with internal and external agencies, as applicable, on matters pertaining to
flight safety/mission accomplishment.
5.2.4.2.5. Direct air refueling missions consistent with prescribed emissions control
(EMCON) procedures. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
3.3. Crew Rest/Flight Duty Period (FDP)/Crew Augmentation. Crew rest, flight duty period
and crew augmentation will be IAW AFI 11-202V3 and applicable MAJCOM supplements with the following
additional guidance:
3.3.1. With autopilot, altitude hold, or any axis of the autopilot inoperative, limit basic FDP to
12 hours and augmented FDP to 16 hours.
3.3.2. Flight crew augmentation.
3.3.2.1. In addition to the normal flight crew, minimum crew augmentation will consist
of a qualified AC, NAV, and FE who are current in duties that will be performed on that sortie. (Adding flight crewmembers after the first takeoff in a crew duty period is not considered
augmentation.)
3.3.2.2. The applicable OG/CC (or as delegated) will determine the augmented mission crew
composition depending upon mission requirements.
3.3.3. Non-duty Time. Crewmembers will be afforded 12 hours of non-duty time after a flight before
reporting for normal non-flying duties, unless waived by SQ CC/DO.
3.3.4. Crew Rest Timing. Crew rest for successive flight activity will begin when the last
crewmember departs after completing related aircrew duties but not earlier than 1 hour after final
landing from previous flight activity.
3.3.5. Crew Rest for Deploying/Redeploying Aircrews. When transitioning four time zones or more,
unless waived by applicable operations group commander, ground time between landing and subsequent
takeoff will not be planned for less than 18 hours. This does not apply to “Ops stops” made within
an aircrew duty period.
3.3.6. Management of AFRC Crewmembers. The on-scene commander or E-3 DETCO is responsible for the
effective management of aircrews. An element of that responsibility is the effective use of the
Reserve associate aircrew personnel during their periods of availability. There is no guarantee
that missions will always be completed at scheduled Mission End Time (MET). Therefore, it is
incumbent upon Reserve associate crew members to make available sufficient time to accommodate
unavoidable delays in returning to home station. Scheduled Return Time (SRT) will be calculated MET
plus 24 hours for routine exercise and operational deployments. SRT(s) for contingencies and
missions of unknown duration will be determined by the 513 ACG/CC and 552 OG/CC or the requesting
authority in coordination with HQ AFRC. The SRT will be determined and placed on the initial and
subsequent flight authorizations until the mission is complete. The overall objective is to recover
aircrews on schedule and provide scheduling stability. Two essential elements of this concept are
realistic determination of SRT(s) based on mission duration and conscientious management by the
on-scene commander or DETCO to ensure return of reserve associate aircrews by the MET. Except in
uncontrollable or unusual circumstances, Reserve associate crewmembers must be assured that their
missions will be complete within the SRT. The Reserve associate AC and MCC will be provided a copy
of all mission itinerary changes. Delays in return of Reserve associate personnel beyond their SRT
will be coordinated through the 552 OG/CC, the 513 ACG/CC, and concurred with by the aircrew. Every
available means will be used to return Reserve associate crewmembers to home station to meet the
SRT. If Reserve associate aircrew (or members) cannot extend past the SRT, the on-scene commander
will verify whether military or contract means of transportation is available. If no such means are
available, the on-scene commander or DETCO will use the most expeditious means, including
commercial air, to return Reserve associate personnel to
home station. |
|
|
Term
| Station Assumption and On-Station Procedures |
|
Definition
5.3.4.1. Station Assumption. Prior to assuming station, the SD will:
5.3.4.1.1. Contact FAA/Air Route Traffic Control Center (AFRTCC) or ground monitor/control authority, and complete sensor correlation check as required IAW LOA directives or as directed by Contact FAA/Air Route Traffic Control Center (AFRTCC) or ground monitor/control authority.
5.3.4.1.2. Check all weapons assigned radio frequencies for usability.
5.3.4.1.3. Check data base accuracy.
5.3.4.2. On-Station Procedures. Procedures will be according to the operational procedures contained in this instruction and specific mission directives. |
|
|
Term
| What is the continuum of control? (In order) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are AWO responsibilities? |
|
Definition
2.3.1. Use the procedures described in Mission Design Series (MDS)-specific AFTTP 3-1s
and 3-3s and applicable Joint Publications.
2.3.2. Know the capabilities and limitations of communications, control facilities, coordination
requirements, and other weapons systems employed for mission accomplishment.
2.3.3. For all missions, be knowledgeable of the applicable OPLAN/OPORD, Special Instructions
(SPINS), Air Operations Directive, Area Air Defense Plan (AADP), Airspace Control Plan (ACP), and
review the daily Air Tasking Order (ATO), Airspace Control Order (ACO), and any other source
available affecting the assigned Area of Responsibility (AOR).
2.3.4. Know the states of alert, readiness, warning, and Rules of Engagement (ROE) within the
operational command’s assigned AOR.
2.3.5. Know and comply with authentication procedures.
2.3.6. Know the characteristics, capabilities, and limitations of the threat.
2.3.7. Know the tactics described in appropriate tactics manuals.
2.3.8. Know and comply with theater or region integrated air defense and airspace control
procedures to include Minimum Risk Route (Safe Passage) procedures, free fire zones, recovery
airfield status, location of known friendly and enemy Surface-to-Air Missile sites, etc.
2.3.9. Know and comply with local operating procedures and/or TRs.
2.3.10. As a minimum use Attachment 2 as a guide to coordinate/brief prior to missions. |
|
|
Term
| Pass what information on check in? |
|
Definition
2.4.1.1.1. Call sign and location.
2.4.1.1.2. Authentication (as required).
2.4.1.1.3. Deviations or aborts affecting mission accomplishment.
2.4.1.1.4. Mission or weapons system alibis that affect mission accomplishment.
2.4.1.1.5. Lost link emergency mission location and altitude (RPA only). |
|
|
Term
| What will the ABM do on check in? |
|
Definition
2.4.1.2.1. Authentication (as required).
2.4.1.2.2. Indicate negative/positive radar contact (if applicable).
2.4.1.2.3. If equipped with Identification Friend or Foe/Selective Identification Feature (IFF/SIF), conduct an IFF/SIF check and advise the aircrew of status ―SOUR‖ or ―SWEET.‖
2.4.1.2.4. Provide a brief to include location of friendly forces, civilians and no fire areas.
2.4.1.2.5. Pass information pertinent to mission accomplishment. Pass the air ―PICTURE‖ and surface ―LOWDOWN‖ to include ground order of battle and electronic order of battle. Do not pass information already in the ATO/ACO unless it requires special emphasis.
2.4.1.2.5.1. Status of Support Assets. At check-in provide the mission commander with ―WORDS‖ on the status of all packages supporting the mission.
2.4.1.2.6. Provide working frequency or net and Time-of-Day (if applicable).
2.4.1.2.7. Transfer control to the designated control agency (AWACS, CRC, etc.) and/or element/ controller, such as the ABM, WD, ASOC, JTAC, FAC(A), etc. (as applicable) |
|
|
Term
| Pass what information on check out? |
|
Definition
2.4.2.1.1. Call sign, location, and recovery base or recovery request.
2.4.2.1.2. If available for additional Air-to-Air or Air-to-Surface tasking, transmit ―PLAYTIME‖ and ordnance remaining.
2.4.2.1.3. Mission results and intelligence. |
|
|
Term
| What will the ABM do on check out? |
|
Definition
2.4.2.2.1. Provide recovery instructions including base status and weather.
2.4.2.2.2. Copy and relay in-flight reports and/or weather reports.
2.4.2.2.3. Assist in Minimum Risk Route (Safe Passage) procedures. |
|
|
Term
| What are the basic procedures for Air-to-Air training? |
|
Definition
4.2.3.1. Aircrew will acknowledge all ABM/WD airspace and safety related calls.
4.2.3.2. ABM/WD procedures:
4.2.3.2.1. Advise aircrew of the bearing, range, heading, and altitude (if available) of previously unreported aircraft within 10 miles that are a potential hazard.
4.2.3.2.2. Advise aircrew when the controlling agency cannot support a minimum of broadcast control. In this situation only continue an engagement if the aircrew can provide safe separation.
4.2.3.2.3. Advise aircrew when they approach airspace boundaries (3 NM for fighters and 5 NM for non-fighters) or as directed by the ATC agency.
4.2.3.2.4. Provide other pertinent information (e.g., airspace changes, weather in working area, system degradation, etc.).
4.2.3.3. If using separate frequencies for opposing forces, ABMs, WDs, and/or Range Training Officers (RTOs) must have simultaneous monitor and broadcast capability on each working frequency. ABMs/WDs and/or RTOs will immediately pass all "KNOCK-IT-OFFs", "TERMINATES" and safety of flight information to all participating aircraft. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
3.4. Knock-It-Off (KIO) and Terminate Procedures. Use KIO or Terminate procedures to
direct aircraft or aircrew to stop engagements, scenarios and tactical maneuvering.
3.4.1. KIO Procedures. A KIO call ceases all tactical maneuvering and ends the overall scenario.
Use KIO procedures for the following:
3.4.1.1. If safety of flight is a factor.
3.4.1.1.1. A dangerous situation is developing.
3.4.1.1.2. An unbriefed or unscheduled flight enters the working area and is detrimental
to the safe conduct of the mission.
3.4.1.1.3. Weather below minimums required to safely conduct the scenario.
3.4.1.1.4. Aircraft malfunctions affecting safety of flight.
3.4.1.1.5. Loss of SA.
3.4.1.2. When Desired Learning Objectives (DLOs) either are met or are unattainable for an entire
scenario.
3.4.2. Once a "KNOCK-IT-OFF" is called, all participating aircraft will:
3.4.2.1. Acknowledge with call sign in roll call fashion.
3.4.2.2. Cease tactical maneuvering and end the scenario.
3.4.2.3. Deconflict flight paths and climb/descend to a safe altitude, block, or as briefed. |
|
|
Term
| What are Terminate procedures? |
|
Definition
3.4.3. Terminate procedures. A Terminate ceases all tactical maneuvering with the terminating aircraft or within a specific portion of a larger scenario.
3.4.3.1. Use Terminate procedures when safety of flight is not a factor, and in the following cases:
3.4.3.1.1. Reaching BINGO fuel.
3.4.3.1.2. DLOs are met or are unattainable for a local engagement within a larger scenario.
3.4.3.1.3. Training rules or other limits met (e.g., 180-degrees turn).
3.4.3.1.4. Exceeding area boundaries.
3.4.3.1.5. Below minimum altitude or within minimum range, but when safety is not compromised.
3.4.3.1.6. Below 5,000 feet Above Ground Level (AGL), airspeed is below MDS minimum, and within visual range (defined as < 5 NM) of adversary.
3.4.3.2. Initiate "TERMINATE" procedures with a wing rock or transmit "TERMINATE" when conditions are not appropriate for a wing rock (night/weather, own-ship parameters will not allow, etc.). When calling "TERMINATE" anchor position geographically or with a bullseye reference ("(Callsign), terminate south fight" or "(Callsign), terminate fight, BULLSEYE 180/10)". Use amplifying information if necessary (altitude, type aircraft, and geographical feature).
3.4.3.3. If "TERMINATE" is called within a large scenario, radio acknowledgments (in roll call fashion) are not required, however all affected element leads must ensure compliance. All participating aircraft within visual range (defined as < 5 NM) of a terminated fight, whether passed via a radio call or wing rock will:
3.4.3.3.1. Cease tactical maneuvering with the terminating aircraft, group of aircraft, or as specified in the terminate call.
3.4.3.3.2. Deconflict flight paths and climb/descend to a safe altitude, blocks or as briefed. |
|
|
Term
| What does ADEPT stand for? |
|
Definition
Anticipate
Detect
Evaluate
Position
Talk |
|
|
Term
| Wat are the comm priorities IAW 3-1.1? |
|
Definition
Flight Safety/Aircraft emergencies
Defending/spikes/threats
Responding to EA
Declaes/targeting
BOGEY DOPE/picture/fill-in
Mission admin |
|
|
Term
| What information is passed in core? |
|
Definition
Total number of groups
B/E of closest 3 groups
Altitude of closest 3 groups
Track direction if other than HOT
fill-ins |
|
|
Term
| what are the 6 ways a picture can be called IAW 3-1.1 |
|
Definition
Traditional
Traditional + Additional
leading edge
Core
CAP/Marshalling
package |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hot = 15nm
any = 10nm
Stern = 7 nm |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hot= 20mn
Any = 15nm
stern = 13nm |
|
|
Term
| Air-to-Air intercept phases |
|
Definition
Tac Admin
CAP/Detect
Targeting/BVP
Merge
Post Merge/Egress |
|
|
Term
| Air-to-ground intercept phases |
|
Definition
Tac/Admin
Marshal
Ingress
TOT
Egress |
|
|
Term
| What are labeling criteria |
|
Definition
Fighters pushed/commited
Descernable picture
within bounding range
hot aspect |
|
|
Term
| What is required for HaveQuick? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many FMT nets are available? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is th Auto TOD frequency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many UHF Radios are available for mission use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many locate SIFs can the system support |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 requirements for weapons to go on station? |
|
Definition
Comm with ground
Data base built and QC'ed
Radio checks complete |
|
|
Term
| How many VHF radios does the E3 have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many portable MA-1 bottles are there on the E-3 |
|
Definition
| 22 to 26 depending on seats in the J section (at least 10 should be fast fill) |
|
|
Term
Geneal Aircrew, ABM WD, ASOC, and JTAC's are responsible to kow the capabilities and limitaions of [BLANK] for mission accomplisment.
A. Communications and control facilities
B. Coordination requirements
C. other weapons systems employed
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
D. All of the Above
Ref. AFI 11-214 para: 2.3 |
|
|
Term
According to AFI 11'214, general aircrew, ABM, WD, ASOC, and JTAC's are responsible for [BLANK].
A. knowing the states of alert, readiness, warning, and ROE within the operational command's
assigned AOR
B. knowing and complying with authentication procedures
C. knowing the characteristics, capabilities, and limitations of the threat
D. all of the above |
|
Definition
D. All of the Above
Ref: AFI 11-214 para: 2.3 |
|
|
Term
Aircres will check in with the controlling agency, such as AWACS, JSTARS, CRC, FAC(A), ASOC, or JTAC, unless resricted for Operations Security or Communications Security, with all of the following ecept:
A. Position
B. Callsign and Location
C. Authentication as required
D. deviations or abots affectin mission accomplishment |
|
Definition
A. Position
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 2.4 |
|
|
Term
According to AFI 11-214, AWO/WD will acomplish all of the following upon aircraft check in except:
A. Indicate negative/positive radar contact (if applicable)
B. Provide a brief to include location of friendly forces, civilians and no fire areas
C. if equipped if IFF/SIF conduct and IFF/SIF check and advise aircrew of status "sour" or "sweet"
D. Obtain post mission requirements |
|
Definition
D. Obtain post mission requirements
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para :2.4.1 |
|
|
Term
What additional information may be provided by the controlling agency/aircrews as required?
A. Available air to air armament
B. Available Air to surface armament. The conrol agency, AWO/WD will pass any mission updates to include updated surface coordinates.
C. Fuel Status
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
D. All of the above
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 2.4.1.3 |
|
|
Term
During check-out, aircrews will contact the controlling agency with [BLANK].
A. Weather
B. Callsign, location and recovery base or recovery request
C. mission results and intelligence
D. both B and C |
|
Definition
D: both B and C
Ref: AFI 11-214 para: 2.4.2 |
|
|
Term
According to AFI 11-214, what will the AWO/WD accomplish during aircraft check out, as conditions permit?
A: Log Aircraft "Fenco Out" on AF Form 0-96
B. Request debrief comments, obtain final fuel, and pass RTB clearance
C. Provide recovery instructions including base status, copy and relay in'flight reports, assist in Minimum Risk (Safe Passage) procedures
D. Pass final shots, kills, and mode IV results |
|
Definition
C. Provide recovery instructions including base status, copy and relay in'flight reports, assist in Minimum Risk (Safe Passage) procedures
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 2.4.2.2 |
|
|
Term
Before to the "FIGHTS-ON" call, (or "vulnerability" Start time), exercise directors, mission commanders, and ABM/WDs will notify and receive acknowledgment from all aircrews for any scenario changes affecting.
A. The "VUL" time
B. RTO working frequency
C. ROE
D. Safety of flight (e.g. airspace changes, weather in working area, block changes, altimeter setting) |
|
Definition
Ans: D
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 2.6 |
|
|
Term
During exercises, the [BLANK] will brief all participants unfamiliar with AFI 11-214, and ensure they know and understand the Training Rules(TRs.
A. Mission Commander
B. Mission Crew Commander
C. Exercise Director
D. Inspector General |
|
Definition
C. Exercise Director
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 2.7.3 |
|
|
Term
During exercises, exercise directors can use which of the following for separation of aircraft:
A. Time and Space
B. Assigning specific geological areas of flicght
C. Altitude blocks to deconflict participating aircraft
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
D. All of the above
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 2.7.5 |
|
|
Term
[BLANK] is used to cease all tactical maneuvering when safety of flight is a factor, a dangerouse situation i developing, or when DLOs are met or unattainable for an entire scenario.
A. TERMINATE
B. BEADWINDOW
C. PITBULL
D. KNOCK IT OFF |
|
Definition
D. KNOCK IT OFF
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 3.4.1 |
|
|
Term
The correct response expected by participating aircraft hearing a "KNOCK-IT-OFF" is [BLANK].
A. immediately works 90 degress out of the fight/ reset CAP
B. reset to safe/ Fuel Recovery Area
C. acknowledge with callsign/cease tactical maneuvering and end the scenario
D. all of the above |
|
Definition
c. Acknowledge with callsign/ceae tactical maneuvering and end the scenario
C. AFI 11-214 Para: 3.4.2 |
|
|
Term
[BLANK] ceases all tactical maneuvering with the terminating aircraft or within a specific portion of a larger scenario.
A. TERMINATE
B. KNOCK IT OFF
C. PICTURE
D. BEADWINDOW |
|
Definition
A. TERMINATE
REF: AFI 11-214 Para: 3.4.3 |
|
|
Term
If transmiting "TERMINATE" during a large scenario, anchor position [BLANK]. Use amplifying information if necessary (altitude, type of aircraft, etc.).
A. with latitude and longitude coordinates
B. geographically or with bullsey reference
C. with UTM coordinates
D. relative to the E3 |
|
Definition
B. geographiclly or with a bullseye reference
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para : 3.4.3.2 |
|
|
Term
Use "TERMINATE" when safety of flight is not a factor in conjunction with the following:
A. Reach bingo fuel
C. exceeding ara boundaries
C. training rules are met
D. all of the above |
|
Definition
D. All of the Above
Ref AFI 11-214 Para: 3.4.3.1 |
|
|
Term
In a Communicatons Jamming environment, transmission required for safety will be prefaced with [BLANK].
A. BREAK, BREAK
B. ALL PLAYERS, STANDBY
C. SAFETY, SAFETY
D. CEASE COMMUNICATIONS |
|
Definition
C. SAFETY, SAFETY
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 3.5.2 |
|
|
Term
ABM/WDs will transmit FURBALL and include callsign of FRIENDLIES [BLANK] when FRIENDLIES are within 5NM of, and closing with, BOGEY, BANDIT, or HOSTILE groups.
A. and altitude
B. and number of contacts
C. and heading
D. position |
|
Definition
B. and number of contacts
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 V1 Pg: A1-4 Para: 3.5.5 |
|
|
Term
Comm Jamming prcedures will not be conducted on [BLANK] frequency(s).
A. Primary Air to Air
B. Guard/ predesgnated safety
C. Primary Air to Surface
D. SEAD VHF |
|
Definition
B. Guard/ predesgnated safety
\Ref: AFI 11-214 Para 3.5.5 |
|
|
Term
Use [BLANK] for information that is unclassified, lengthy in nature, and/or person-to-person conversations.
A. NET 2
B. any available radio
C. the ADS selective intercom system
D. both A and C |
|
Definition
C. the ADS selective intercom system
Ref: AFI 112E3 V3 Para: 5.3.6.2 |
|
|
Term
[Blank] is the maximum distance from the leading edge of a targeted group that a flight member must target. Beyond this range, C2 owns targeting responsibility
A. Factor range
B. Shot depth
C. targeting depth
D. meld |
|
Definition
C. targeting depth
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 V1 Pg: A1-69 |
|
|
Term
True or False. When aircraft check-in with TAC C2, the response NEGATIVE CONTACT implies procedural control is in effect.
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
B. False
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 V1 Para: A1.4.2.2 |
|
|
Term
According to AFI 11-214, when conduction training missions in a designated airspace, avoiding lateral spill-outs, is a [BLANK] responsibility; avoiding vertical spill-outs is a {BLANK] responsibility.
A. joint aircrew and ABM/WD / joint aircrew and ABM/WD
B. Joint aircrew and ABM/WD / Aircrew
C. pilot-aircrew/ ABM/WD
D. ABM/WDs / ABM/WD |
|
Definition
B. Joint Aircrew and ABM/WD / Aircrew
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 4.2.2 |
|
|
Term
[BLANK] will acknowledge all AM/WD airspace and safety related calls
A. SDs
B. E3 Flight deck
C. Aircrews
D. MCCs |
|
Definition
C. Aircrews
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 4.2.3.1 |
|
|
Term
During air to air training misssions, the ABM/WD will advise aircrew [BLANK]
A. Bearing, Range, heading adn altitude (if avalable) of previously unreported aircraft within 10 miles that are a potential hazard
B. when any aircraft approaches withing 10 NM
C. When the approach aispace boundaries (3NM for fighters and 5NM for heavies) or as directed by the ATC agency
D. Both A and C |
|
Definition
D. both A and C
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 4.2.3.2 |
|
|
Term
ABM/WDs will anchor all picture calls with the following priorities:
A. Heaviest, Highest, Closest to B/E, closest to fighters
Closest to fighters, heaviest, highest, closest to B/E
C. Closest to fighters, Highest Heaviest, Closest to B/E
D. Highest, Heaviest, Closest to B/E, Closest to fighter |
|
Definition
B. Closest to Fighters, Heaviest, Highest, Closest to B/E
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 V1 Pg: A1-6 Para: A1.2.4.2 |
|
|
Term
During Air to Air traing the engagement begins when opposin aircraft initiate visual maneuvers against each other. The [BLANK] participating aircraft determins the maneuvering category.
A. altitude of the highest
B. flight lead of the Blue forces
C. Altitude of the lowest
D. Flight lead of the red forces |
|
Definition
C. Altitude of the lowest
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 4.2.7.1 |
|
|
Term
Commit authorities, responsibilities, and procedures are governed by what?
A. Published OPORDs and OPLANS
B. Command Authority, ROE, Commit criteria
C. Force Commander's directions, and SPINS
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
D. All of the above
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 2.5.2 |
|
|
Term
The commit must be a coordinated effort between [BLANK], [BLANK], and [BLANK].
A. aircrew, package commander, ABM/WD / SD
B. Package commanders, aircrew, TAC C2 ABM/WD
C. aircrews, TAC C2 ABM/WD, AADC
D. MCC, TAC C2 ABM/WD, AADC |
|
Definition
C. aircrews, TAC C2 ABM/WD, AADC
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 2.5.2 |
|
|
Term
{BLANK] enables the maximum use of aircrew and ABM/WD radar, communication, and SA to accomplish the mission.
A. Close Control
B. Tactical Control
C. Broadcast Control
D. Advisory Control |
|
Definition
B. Tactical Control
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 2.5.3.2 |
|
|
Term
Broadcast control is a means for ABM/WDs to emply [BLANK] communications primarily to pass target information to multiple mission by referencing a designated location.
A. infomative
B. comparative
C. tactical
D. directive |
|
Definition
A. informative
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 2.5.3.3 |
|
|
Term
The continuum of Control is groupws into five levels, they are:
A. Unlimited, restricted, non-maneuvering, limited, and controlled
B. Close, Tactical, Broadcast, Advisory, Autonous
C. Level 5, level 4, level 3, level, 2 and level 1
D. Close, Tactical, Unlimited, Broadcast, Advisory |
|
Definition
B. Close, Tactical, Broadcast, Advisory, Autonomous
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 2.5.3 |
|
|
Term
ABM/WD will use the term "LAST" to indicate
A. an off board source.
B. a fighter-provided altitude
C. the previously reported C2 radr altitude indication.
D. Fighter-provided altitude or the previously reported C2 radar altitude indication. |
|
Definition
| D. Fighter- provided altitude or the previously reported C2 radr altitude indication |
|
|
Term
Low Altitude(LOWAT) maneuvering si defined as [BLANK].
A. below 5,000 ft MSL (fixed wing)
B. below 5,000 ft AGL (fixed wing)
C. below Minimum Safe Altitude
D. below 11-2MDS minimums |
|
Definition
B. below 5,00 ft AGL (fixed wing)
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 4.2.8 |
|
|
Term
Fighters may not transit or enter the altitude or altitude block of any adversary unless at least one of the following conditions apply.
A. All adversaries are beyond 10NM (15 for F-22/F-35)
B. Tally is established on all aircraft in the group of interest and no conflict with other groups withing 10NM exists.
C. Fighter verbally confirms adversary's hard altitude and maintains required vertical separaton
D. Any of the above are correct |
|
Definition
D. Any of the above are correct
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 4.2.11.6.1 |
|
|
Term
No more than [BLANK] aircraft may participate in the same visual engagement.
A. two
B. four
C. six
D. eight |
|
Definition
D. Eight
Ref: AFI11-214 Para: 4.2.13.1 |
|
|
Term
A [BLANK] is an operating procedure or technique which can result in damge to equipment if not carefully followed.
A. Warning
B. Caution
C. Note
D. Circled Checklist Item |
|
Definition
B. Caution
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: xiv |
|
|
Term
You are controlling F-15s requesting to run an intercept on the E-3. You must be aware that no aircraft should approach within {BLANK] horizontally and [BLANK] ft vertically of the AWACS while mission radar is transmitting
A. 15NM/ 3,000
B. 1,300 ft/ 650
C. 1NM / 1,000
D. 1,000 ft / 500 |
|
Definition
B. 1,300 ft / 650
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 pg: 2-55 |
|
|
Term
If a circut breaker trips [BLANK].
A. only one attempt to reset it is permitted unless the cause of the tripping is known and corrected
B. two attempts to reset are permitted, then the crewmember should inform the MCC or A/C
C. do not attempt a reset
D. notify the flight deck and have them land immediately |
|
Definition
A. Only one attempt to reset is permitted unless the cause of the trippingis known and corrected
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 pg: 1-7 |
|
|
Term
The [BLANK] provides internal communications between crewmembers and direct access between crewmembers and mission radio equipment for external communication.
A. audio distribution system (ADS)
B. message switch action
C. JTIDs terminal
D. SATCOM antenna |
|
Definition
A. audio distribution system (ADS)
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-414 |
|
|
Term
You may discuss classified over [BLANK].
A. selective intercom channels
B. mission maintenance net
C. mission nets 1, 2, and 3
D. flight deck intercom |
|
Definition
C. Mission nets 1, 2, and 3
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-414 |
|
|
Term
The E3 Audio Distribution System (ADS) divides voice traffic into what three categories?
A. clear, secure, and unclassied
B. clear, secure and classified
C. classified, unclassified, and secure
D. clear, digital, and secure |
|
Definition
B. clear, secure, and classified
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg:1-414 |
|
|
Term
Each audio distribution system(ADS) station has access to [BLANK] voice channels (nets) for multi-party classified confrence calls
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four |
|
Definition
C. Three
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A43-1-1 pg: 1-414 |
|
|
Term
when opening entry or galley doors after emercency landing or ditching, [BLANK] and check for possible entry of fire, smoke, or water.
A. open door fully
B. stop when door handle is in the vertical position
C. Stop when door handle is in horizontal position
D. look through the window |
|
Definition
B. stop when door handle is in vertical position
Ref: T. O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-664 |
|
|
Term
All situation display consoles, the communication console, and flight deck positions can initiate Public Address(PA) announcements, which are transmitted throughout the airplane, over [BLANK]
A. all mission nets and secure radios
B. all headsets and PA loudspeakers
C. guard and all PA loudspeakers
D. all headsets, loudspeakers, and any clear radios which the initiaor has accessed; therefore, when making a PA announcement, insure all direct accesses are pushed in (not in transmit mode) |
|
Definition
B. all headsets and PA loudspeakers
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-415 |
|
|
Term
During emergency power conditions, which Audio Distribution Systems( ADS) internal communication functions remain available?
A. ADS mission intercom nets and flight deck intercom
B. airplane maintenance intercom stations and selective intercom
C. mission maintenance net and PA system
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
D. mission maintenance net and PA system
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A 43-1-1 Pg: 1-416 |
|
|
Term
Momentaily pressing the SIG switch on the ADS panel [BLANK].
A. Should only be accomplished by the CSO
B. initiated the PA signal tone but does not permit message transmission unless the PA switch is pulled out and se to "PA" position
C. Dials the CSO selective
D. produces a single chime in the rest area |
|
Definition
D. Produces a single chime in the rest area
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-430 |
|
|
Term
Each mission Audio Distribution System(ADS) panel may be activated by a press-to-talk switch in the microphone cordset, the HOT MIC switch, or the foot switch. The press to talk and foot switches activate [Blank] while the HOT MIC switch actives [BLANK].
A. both direct access radios and intercoms/intercoms only
B. direct access radios only/both direct access radios and intercoms
C. intercoms only/both direct access radios and intercoms
D. direct access radios only/intercoms only |
|
Definition
A. both direct access radios and intercoms/ intercoms only
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A 43-1-1 pg: 1-422 |
|
|
Term
The [BLANK] cannot be used with the observer subscriber cord.
A. HOT MIC switch
B. foot switch
C. ADS switch
D. Alarm reset switch |
|
Definition
B. foot switch
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A43-1-1 Pg: 1-422 |
|
|
Term
The Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI) displays the UHF-ADF [BLANK] of a transmitting stations and [BLANK] of the airplane.
A. Distance/magnetic heading
B. bearing/true heading
C. distance/true heading
D. bearing/magnetic heading |
|
Definition
D. bearing/ magnetic heading
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-456 |
|
|
Term
Part of the strength of the HAVE QUICK communications system is through changing frequencies in random panner according to the [BLANK].
A. time of the Day TOD
B. Word of the Day WOD
C. Frequency managed training FMT net
D. anti-jam algorithm AJA |
|
Definition
B. Word of the Day WOD
Ref: T.O. 1e-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-501 |
|
|
Term
On the E-3, HAVE QUICK is an ECCM modification to [BLANK] radio channels, providing [BLANK].
A. UHF/ frequency hopping capability
B. UHF/ secure capability
C. UHF and VHF/ frequency hopping capability
D. UHF and HF/frequency hopping capability |
|
Definition
A. UHF/ frequency hopping capability
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-501 |
|
|
Term
Which HAVE QUICK net is designed for maximum anti-jam capability and therefore uses the most frequencies"
A. AWACS T Net 1
B. AWACS T Net 2
C. B Net
D. A Net |
|
Definition
D. A Net
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-502 |
|
|
Term
[BLANK] is a high-capacity digital radio broadcast link that distributes air to air, air to ground, and air defense communications over the network.
A. Have Quick II
B. SATCOM
C. Link 11
D. JTIDS |
|
Definition
D. JTIDS
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-603 |
|
|
Term
JTIDS resists ECM interference by [BLANK].
A. encrypting each Time-Dividion Multiple Access (TDMA) on a "specified" frequency
B. Encrypting each TDMA on a "random" frequency
C. a "frequency hopping" technique in which each TDMA transmission is on a "random" frequency
D. a "frequency hopping" technique in which each TDMA transmission is on a "specified" frequency |
|
Definition
C. A "frequency hopping" technique in which each TDMA transmission is on a "random" frequency
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-622 |
|
|
Term
JTIDS simultaneously accomplishes communication of information from [BLANK].
A. one element to many elements
B. from one to one
C. from many to one
D. any of the above are possible means of information transfer with JTIDS |
|
Definition
D. any of the abover are possible means of information transfwer with JTIDS
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-622 |
|
|
Term
The portible emergency exit lights are located near each exit on the E-3 and [BLANK].
A. are self contained, powered by conventional(flashlight type) dry cells.
B. are designed to operate during emergencies and require only one of eight generators or the APU in order to work
C. require E-3 internal battery power only, and will last for two hours when the arming switch is set to 'LOW'
D. come on automatically when the temperature falls below 45 degrees F |
|
Definition
A. Are self contained, powered by conventional (flashlight-type) dry cells.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-653 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- To avoid possible injury to personnel on boarding stands, ensure [BLANK] before [BLANK].
A. door handle is in vertical position and check for entry of fire, smoke, or water / inflating escape slide
B. raft compatment door has separated from kit/ allowing raft to approach the vortex generators
C. safety strapsare are fastened accross/ inflating escape slide
D. escape slides are disconnected from the floor/ opening personnel doors |
|
Definition
D. escape slides are disconected from the floor/ opening personnel doors
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-663 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- You have just opened the forward entry dooe after landing. Stairs are not yet in place outside the door. What must you do?
A. Close the door immeadiately
B. Fasten the safety strap across the door opening if the door is to remain open
C. deploy and inflate the escape slide
D. inform the crew over the PA. |
|
Definition
B. Fasten the safety strap across the door opening i the door is to remain open.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-664 |
|
|
Term
Warning-- To avoid possible injury to ground personnel and to avoid possible jammed emergeny exits, [BLANK] will be placed under the door seals of the entry and galley doors.
A. The emergency access swivel lever fulcrum pin
B. the escape slide retainer bar
C. the escape slide retainer loops
D. nothing |
|
Definition
D. Nothing
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-664 |
|
|
Term
Both the forward and aft lower deck cargo doors open the same way. To open from te inside, rotate handle one-eighth turn clockwise to unlock and then [BLANK]
A. kick it hard to activate the panic release mechanism
B. pull it inward about six inches then slide it foreward
C. push the aft edge outward and then pivot the door toward the front of the aircraft
D. push it out and about six inches and the slide it aft |
|
Definition
B. pull it inward about six inches then slide it forward
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-664 |
|
|
Term
CAUTION-- To prevent damage to the seat locking pins, do not release seat adjustment handles while [BLANK].
A. Seat is at the highest raised position
B. Airplane is taxiing
C. seat is in motion
D. seat is facing 180 degrees away from the console |
|
Definition
C. Seat is in mostion
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg 1-670 |
|
|
Term
CAUTION -- When sitting at seat 39 or 40 (the aft facing seats in the battle staff area withough consoles), care must be taken to avoid [BLANK].
A. blocking the inertial reel of the shoulder straps
B. Reclining the seat too far back as this might damage the adjcent SDCs
C. releasing adjustment handles during height adjustment as this could damage locking pins
D. hanging loose items on the back of the seat because this might cause overheating of Seat 17 |
|
Definition
D. Hanging loose items on the back of the seat because this might cause overheating of seat 17
Ref : T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-670 |
|
|
Term
WARNING -- Do not [BLANK] if fuel vapor is present.
A. operate crew rest area reading light switches
B. flush toilet
C. apply power to galley equipment
D. all of the above |
|
Definition
D. All of the above
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A 43-1-1 Pg: 1-674 |
|
|
Term
Warning -- Crew bunks will not be occupied during [BLANK].
A. takeoff, landing, or AR
B. engine start, takeoff, emergencies, landings, or anytime sleeping would hinder performance of required actions
C. short flights of duration less than 4 hours
D. DEFCON 3 or below |
|
Definition
A. Takeoff, landing, or AR
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-674 |
|
|
Term
WARNING -- The masks in the crew sevice units [BLANK].
A. do not deploy automatically
B. are not compatable with the MA-1 portable oxygen bottles
C. are compatible with the high pressure(green) portable oxygen units
D. deploy but do not inflate automatically |
|
Definition
A. do not deploy automatically
Ref: T.O> 1e-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-674 |
|
|
Term
WARNING -- The [BLANK] can explode if operated dry. Do nott attempt to operate this equipment without at least one cup of liquid or semi-solid food in place.
A. Hot Plate
B. Hot cup heating element
C. coffee brewer
D. hot jug heating tubes |
|
Definition
B. Hot cup heating element
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-676 |
|
|
Term
When opening galle doors during an emergency landing or ditching, if fire, smike or water enters the airplane at the top r bottom of the door, [BLANK].
A. rotate handle to full open position and exit quickly
B. return handle to the locked position and use another exit if possible
C. return to your seat and wait for firefighters
D. wait 2 minutes, if it stops, exit quickly |
|
Definition
B. return handle to the llocked position and use another exit if possible
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-664 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- always verify the [BLANK] when setting SUPPLY level to off.
A. Flow indicator is white
B. EMERGANCY lever is armed and set to EMERGENCY
C. diluter lever is set to 100% OXYGEN
D. OXYGEN PSI gauge reads zero |
|
Definition
C. diluter lever is set 100% OXYGEN
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-684 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- A positive lock is not provided on the MA-1 portable oxygen bottle altitude selector knob. The knob can be inintentionally [BLANK], possible causing [BLANK].
A. kicked/ an unsightly scuff mark
B. lost/ an unadjustable regulator
C. moved/ a depletion of the oxygen supply
D. removed/ an inoperable altitude selection feature |
|
Definition
C. moved/ a depletion of the oxygen supply
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-684 |
|
|
Term
NOTE-- When using the MA-1 portable oxygen bottle, the regulator must be set to [BLANK] at all times, unless another setting is needed to clear the mask of smoke, or for pressure breathing.
A. The regulator altitude (30M or 42M) closest to the E-3 altitude
B. the regulator altitude (30M or 42M) which is closest but not less than actual E-3 altitude
C. NORM
D. EMER |
|
Definition
C. NORM
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-684 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- The escape slide is unuasable unless retaining bar passes through the loop on the [BLANK].
A. inflation handle
B. floor fitting
C. retaining hook assembly
D. both B and C are correct |
|
Definition
C. retaining hook assembly
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- Attempting to inflate escape slides inside the airplane could cause [BLANK].
A. injury to crewmembers and damage to theslides
B. crew entry doors to be inaccessible during an emergency
C. a misunderstanding among crewmembers
D. all of the above |
|
Definition
A. injury to crewmembers and damage to slides
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-698 |
|
|
Term
According to AFTTP 3-1, General Planning, there are six ways to communicate the picutre they are:
A. Core, traditional, tradiditional plus additional, leading edge, bounding range, and packages
B. Packages, CAPing, marshalling, traditional, traditional with additional, and leading edge
C. Core, CAPing/marshalling, traditional, traditional with additional, leading edge, and packages
D. core, CAPing/marshalling, traditional, traditional with additional, leading edge, and weighted. |
|
Definition
C. core, CAPing/marshalling, traditional, traditional with additional, leading edge, and packages
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 V1 Pg: A1-12 Para: A1.2.6 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- If portable oxygen bottles are not properly secured, bottles [BLANK].
A. canvibrate out of holder in flight, possibly causing injury to crew members
B. could be inaccessible during an actual emergency
C. will not have the quick release feature an acquisition delay might result during an actual emergency
D. may need to be purged |
|
Definition
A. Can vibrate out of holder in flight, possibly causing injury to crewmembers
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- Prior to servicing a portable oxygen bottle, ensure the [BLANK] or else combustion or contamination could result.
A. FE has illuminated the NO SMOKING sign
B. altitude selector knob is set to 32M or 42M
C. oxygen bottle filler port and oxygen bottle recharger outlet are free of oil or grease
D. bottle is purged whenever the pressure falls below 290PSI |
|
Definition
C. oxygen bottle filler port and oxygen bottle recharger outlet are free of oil or grease
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-685 |
|
|
Term
NOT-- the MA-1 portable oxygen bottle [BLANK] while the oxygen mask or fire fighter's smoke mask is not in use.
A. Will not provide a seal
B. must be set to EMER
C. must be replaced when pressure drops below 100 PSI
D. can be filled |
|
Definition
D. can be filled
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-685 |
|
|
Term
If a portable oxygen bottle has been depleted to [BLANK] PSI or less for over [BLANK] or if the time it has been depleted cannot be determined, the unit must be purged employing procedures in T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1
A. 50/one hour
B. 50/15 minutes
C. 10/30 minutes
D. 10/two hours |
|
Definition
D. 10/ two hours
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-685 |
|
|
Term
NOTE-- The mask michrophone automatically switches [BLANK] and the headset michrophone switches [BLANK] when the quick donning mask is connected to the headset connector and the mask suspension assembly unflods (as when donning)
A. ON/ON
B. OFF/ ON
C. ON/ OFF
D. OFF/OFF |
|
Definition
C. ON/OFF
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-685 |
|
|
Term
NOTE-- the [BLANK] position of the diluter lever(center lever on the oxygen regulator) should be used for long duration UNPRESSUREIZED flight. Change to this setting at the pilot's command.
A. 100%
B. OFF
C. EMERGENCY
D. NORMAL |
|
Definition
D. NORMAL
Ref. T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg 1-688 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- When oxygen equipment is used, check to ensure that the hose is connected, pressure is up, regulator settings as desired, and flow indicator is operating. This is important as it is possible to [BLANK].
A. Breath through some masks when the hose is disconnected
B. Breath through some regulators when the diluter lever is on NORMAL OXYGEN and the SUPLLY lever is OFF
C. breath through some masks when EMERGENCY lever is OFF
D. Both A and B |
|
Definition
D. Both A and B
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-688 |
|
|
Term
The signal to prepare for CRASH LANDING or DITCHING is [BLANK].
A. alarm bell on five to ten seconds
B. announcement over the interphone system
C. announcement over the PA and illumination of the CRASH LANDING signs
D. both A and C |
|
Definition
C. announcement over the PA and illumination of the CRASH LANDING signs
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-4 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- Crewmembers using fire extinguishers will [BLANK].
A. maintain communication with the MCC and/or flight deck at all times
B. use quick don oxygen masks and maintain 50 PSI in portable oxygen bottle or be on system oxygen
C. be repsonsible for cleaning area after the fire is extinguished
D. use the smoke mask |
|
Definition
D. use the smoke mask
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-697 |
|
|
Term
The Emergency Passenger Oxygen System may only provide breathable oxygen for as short as [BLANK].
A. seven minutes
B. five minutes
C. Eight minutes
D. three minutes |
|
Definition
B. Five minutes
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-685 |
|
|
Term
Escape slides are installed on each main entry door and the galley door. The slides deploy [BLANK] when the door is opened, if the slide fitting has been attached to the floor. [BLANK] to inflate the slides.
A. after the manual release lever is pulled/ wait for a signal from the flight deck
B. automatically/ The manual inflation handle must be pulled
C. manually / When cold-soaked, wait 20 to 30 minutes for the automatic inflation cylinder
D. Automatically/ when cold soaked, wait 20 to 30 minutes for the automatic inflation cylinder |
|
Definition
B. automatically/ The manual inflation handle must be pulled
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-698 |
|
|
Term
NOTE -- What two actions must be taken to completely separate in inflated escape slide from the E-3 when it is to be used as a raft after ditching?
A. Pull the deployment handle then pull the release mechanism before boarding
B. Manually separate the slide compartment then untie the lnyard after boarding
C. Activate the emrgency release piston then press the door jettison switch before boarding.
D. pull ditching release strap then cut lanyard after boarding |
|
Definition
D. Pull ditching strap then cut lanyard after boarding.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-698 |
|
|
Term
When the raft is [BLANK], the [BLANK] should be clamped off to prevent complete loss of pressure if one tube is punctured.
A. inflating slowly due to a cold soaked condition / equalization tube
B. not inflating/ inflation cylinder inlet port
C. fully inflated/ equalizer tube
D. completely separated from the E-3/ inflation cylinder relief valve. |
|
Definition
C. fully inflated/ equalizer tube
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-699 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- if possible launch rafts over the [BLANK] to avoid damage from flaps. Do not allow raft to contact the [BLANK].
A. horizontal stabilizer/ discharge probes
B. wing tips / outboard spoilers
C. outboard trailing edge of wing / ailerons
D. leading edge of wing / vortex generators |
|
Definition
D. Leading edge of wing/ vortex generators
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-699 |
|
|
Term
During ditcing, the T.O. says you should inflate your life vest [BLANK].
A. immediately after leaving the airplane
B. immediately before leaving the airplane
C. when notified over PA that ditching is imminent
D. after loading the 20-man raft |
|
Definition
A. immediately after leaving the airplane
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- Ensure [BLANK] before pulling the survival kit into the 20-man life raft.
A. the raft has fully inflated
B. the raft has seperated from the E-3
C. there is room for all survivors
D. the raft compartment door has separated from the kit |
|
Definition
D. the raft compartment door has separated from the kit
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-699 |
|
|
Term
After the E-3 has ditched and life raft have been loaded, [BLANK].
A. redistributed personnel to ensure an equal number in each raft
B. rope rafts together with enough line to prevent pulling a raft under or breaking line if one raft is in a trough
C. immediately obtain greatest distance possible from the aircraft to avoid damage to the raft
D leave canopy unattached as long as possible to facilitate a visual recovery |
|
Definition
B. rope rafts together with enough line to prevent pulling a raft under or breaking line if one raft is in a trough
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-700 |
|
|
Term
WARNING -- When the [BLANK] signs are illuminated in-flight, all crew members will immediately don oxygen masks and set oxygen regulators to ON and 100%
A. LOSS OF PRESSURE
B. FASTEN SEAT BELTS
C. CRASH LANDING
D. BAILOUT |
|
Definition
A. LOSS OF PRESSURE
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-707 |
|
|
Term
The T.O. requires members to purge oxygen bottles which have been depleted to 10 PSI or less. How many times must the bottle be purged before the bottle is securely stowed.
A. 2 times
B. 3 times
C. 4 times
D. 5 times |
|
Definition
B. 3 times
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 2-8 |
|
|
Term
[BLANK] is used to expres that the requirements are binding and manditory.
A. SHALL or WILL
B. SHOULD
C. MAY
D. MIGHT |
|
Definition
A. SHALL or WILL
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 |
|
|
Term
NOTE -- Surveillance radar and identification systems should not radiate withing [BLANK] NM of tanker airplane.
A. 1
B. 1/2
C. 3
D. 5 |
|
Definition
B. 1/2
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 2-15 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- [BLANK] shall ensure the flight crew is aware that personnel are in lower compartments.
A. CDMT
B. ART/CT
C. ASO
D. MCC |
|
Definition
D. MCC
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-4 |
|
|
Term
NOTE-- When an emergency situation occurs in the airplane, the T.O. says to [BLANK] then [BLANK]
A. handle the emergency/ make a PA announcement
B. notify the SD or MCC at onece / handle the emergency
C. notify the flight crew at once/ perform emergency procedures as directed
D. turn to applicable section of the yellow pages / respond accordingly |
|
Definition
C. notify the flight crew at once/ perform emergency procedures as directed
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-4 |
|
|
Term
NOTE-- Because of [BLANK], crew members in the lower compartments(lobes) should [BLANK]
A. the unpressurized environment / be on oxygen
B. the confined space/ enter the lobes in groups of three or less
C. excessive background noise/ avoid using HOT MIC
D. Greater turbulence/ wear safety harness |
|
Definition
C. excessive background noise/ avoid using HOT MIC
Ref T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-4 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- All personeel entering lower compartments (lobes) in flight shal [BLANK]. At least on person per lower compartment shall [BLANK]
A. wear ear protections/ be on oxygen
B. wear ear protecton/ maintain intercom communication with flight crew or mission crew
C. be on oxygen/ maintain intercom communication with flight crew or mission crew
D. wear gloves/ maintain intercom communication with flight crew or mission crew |
|
Definition
B. wear ear protection/ maintain intercom communication with flight crew or mission crew
Ref T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 |
|
|
Term
While preflighting you oxygen on the ground, you hear a continous (5 to 10 second) sounding of the alarm bell with no accompanying PA announcement. What should you do?
A. Look for the SD or MCC and do whatever they're doing.
B. Go on 100% oxygen
C. finish preflighting oxygen ASAP then go on 100% oxygen
D. Evacuate the Airplane immeadiately |
|
Definition
D. Evacuate the Aircraft immediately
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-4 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- When opening entry or galley doors after emergency landing or ditching, stop when the door handle is in vertical position and check
A. for possible entry of fire, smoke, or water
B. for debris or equipment jammed in the door seals
C. that the slide has automatically deployed
D. that the slide has automatically inflated |
|
Definition
A. for possible entry of fire, smoke, or water
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-6 |
|
|
Term
How many exits are on the E-3's main deck?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8 |
|
Definition
C. 7
Ref T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-5 |
|
|
Term
since egress through these exits is faster, the [BLANK] are primary ground exit.
A. overwing hatchs
B. entry an galley doors
C. pilots' windows
D. cargo doors |
|
Definition
B. entry and galley doors
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-5 |
|
|
Term
Ground evacuation through the [BLANK] is slower than through the primary exits, so these are considered secondary ground exits.
A. pilots sliding windows only
B. Bailout chute and radio access door
C. pilots sliding windows and overwing hatches
D. APU access door and nose wheel landing gear door |
|
Definition
C. Pilots' sliding windows and overwind hatches
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-5 |
|
|
Term
[BLANK] are equipped with escape slides.
A. all exits
B. all main deck exits
C. entry doors
D. entry doors and galley door |
|
Definition
D. Entry doors and galley door
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg:3-5 |
|
|
Term
If an escape slide fails to inflate, it can still be used for egress. The T. O. recommends accomplishing this by [BLANK].
A. orally inflating the slide
B. having two crew members exit by climbing down the escap strap or by another exit, and holding the slide in the extended position
C. using the emergency escape strap (available at all main deck exits to assist while decendin the uninflated slide D. using the nearest MA-1 portable oxygen bottle set to EMERGENCY to inflate the slide |
|
Definition
B. having two crew members exit by climbing down the escape strap or by another exit, and holding the slide in the extended position
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-5 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- to avoid possible injury do not exit through overwing hatches or aft doors until [BLANK].
A. The aircraft has come to a complete stop and the seatbelt light is out
B. affording th bigger grew members an opportunity to exit first
C. the engines have been shut down
D. donning ear protection and portable oxygen |
|
Definition
C. the engines have been shut down
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-5 |
|
|
Term
Which exits are equiped with emergency escape straps?
A. Only the pilots' windows
B. The pilots' windows and the overwing hatches
C. The pilots' windows, the overwing hatches, ajnd the galley service door
D. All main deck exits. |
|
Definition
B. The pilots' windows and the overwing hatches
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-5 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- If evacuating out of the forward entry door or pilot's window after aborted takeoff or heavyweight landing, depart [BLANK] to avoid [BLANK]
A. downwind/ being blown back into the wreckage which may catch fire
B. aft/ pitot tubes and probes
C. directly forward of the airplane/ possible tire or wheel burst area if fuse plugs do not melt
D. only after brakes have had at least 10 minutes to cool/ injury from bursting tires |
|
Definition
C. directly forward of the airplane/ possible tire or wheel burst are if fuse plugs do not melt
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg:3-9 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- When exiting through a pilot's sliding window, be certain the escape strap is [BLANK] and the retainer is seated. A [BLANK] should appear on the strap at the window sill.
A. securely fastened/ green band
B. securely tied/ Knot
C. locked with it inertial wheel stationary/ silver D ring
D. out of the way/ 6-rung step ladder |
|
Definition
A. securely fastened/ green band
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-11 |
|
|
Term
WARNING -- When exiting through a pilot's sliding window, use care to avoid [BLANK] when decending the side of the airplane.
A. slow moving ASTs
B. the weather radar
C. the APU intake port
D. probes and pitot heads |
|
Definition
D. probes and pitot heads
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-12 |
|
|
Term
WARNING -- A crew member handling the escape hatch in flight must wear [BLANK] which must be secured with a safety lanyard to [BLANK]
A. p68 parachute/ the aircraft static line
B. a restraint harness/ the base of a mission crew seat
C. nomex gloves/ the flight suit to avoid possible FOD
D. ear protection/ the head to avoid possible hearing loss |
|
Definition
B. a restraint harness/ the base of a mission crew seat
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-14 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- When is it recommended to remove emergency exit hatches in preparation for landing?
A. prior to crash landings over land
B. prior to ditching
C. prior to fored laning on other than prepared runways
D. never |
|
Definition
D. never
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-16 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- during a fire, crewmembers not engaged in fighting the fire should not [BLANK]
A. lookk toward the extinguisher or fire to precent extinguisher discharge stream from spalshing into eyes
B. use 100% oxygen as leaking oxygen will defeat the action of the HALON
C. use the EMER regulator setting becuase some high pressure oxygen will inevitably escape and intensify the fire
D. use the EMER regulator setting because this will lower internal E-3 oxygen presure and make it more difficult for the fire fighter to clear his mask of smoke |
|
Definition
A. look toward the extinguisher or fire to prevent extinguisher discharge stream from splashing into eyes
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-17 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- After handling a smoke or fumes emergency, remove masks [BLANK]
A. only after airplane has been well ventilated
B. only when directed by flight ngineer
C. only when directed by emergency personnel
D. when necessary to accomplish the mission |
|
Definition
A. only after the airplane has been well ventilated
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-17 |
|
|
Term
WARNING-- To assist the breathing of a crew member who has inhaled SF6, place his/her head lower than his/her lungs and [BLANK].
A. administer CPR
B. immediately inject the SF6 anti-toxin found in all first aid kits
C. place him/her on 100% oxygen and set regulator switch to EMERGENCY for 2 to 3 seconds, then to NORMAL for 2 to 3 seconds; repeating until crew member is concious
D. place him/her on 100% oxygen and set set the regulator to EMERGENCY until crew member is concious |
|
Definition
C. place him/her on 100% oxygen and set regulator to EMERGENCY for 2 to 3 seconds, then to NORMAL for 2 to 3 secons; repeating until crew member is concious
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 |
|
|
Term
You are in the galley and a fire breaks out in the trash bag. Do you need the pilot's authorization to fight the open flames?
A. No, as long as you usewater only and no HALON
B. Yes, but mission planning permission suffices if you are sure the pilot gave blanket authorization
C. Yes, use the galley phone to call the pilot in order to obtain authorization
D. No, the T.O. authorizes immeadieate use of emergency equipment for galley or trash bag fires (including water) |
|
Definition
D. No the T.O. authorizes immediate use of emergency equipment for galley or trash bag fires(including water)
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-18 |
|
|
Term
The T.O. requies all fires be fought by a minimum of [BLANK]
A. one fire fights and one assistant
B. two firefighters with a thir in close proximity ready to assist
C. two HALON extinguishers unless water is also used
D. two HALON extinguishers unless the fire is of electrical nature and isolated before flames are visible |
|
Definition
B. two firefighters with a third in close proximity ready to assist
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-18 |
|
|
Term
The MCC will appoint non-firefighter crew members to perform as refill team during in-flight fires. What are the team's restrictions?
A. At least one team member must be on portable oxygen to facilitate rapid bottle delivery when needed
B. No team member may unfasten seatbelt unless the seatbelt light is extinguished
C. Team members will remain on oxygen unless cleared off by pilot. At least one team member will maintain comm on maintenance net
D. all team members must remain on oxygen and monitor all nets |
|
Definition
C. Team members will remain on oxygen unless cleared off by pilot. At least one team member will maintian omm on maintenance net.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-18 |
|
|
Term
Upon aircraft ditching, aircrew members will evacuate the airplane through one of the following exits in which order of preference?
A. main deck doors, flight deck windows, overwing, hatches
B. overwing hatches, main deck doors, flight deck windows
C. flight deck windows, overwing hatches, main deck doors
D. overwing hatches, flight deck windows, main deck doors |
|
Definition
B. overwing hatches, main deck doors, flight deck windows
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-18 |
|
|
Term
If a decrease in pressure occurs(shown by prolonged ear discomfort, LOSS of PRESSURE aural warning or LOSS of PRESSURE warning sign illumination), [BLANK]
A. immeadiately don an oxygen mask and perform the SUDDEN LOSS of CABIN PRESSURE checklist
B. return to your assigned seat don an oxygen mask
C. immediately perform 3 abrupt Valsalva maneuvers and then go on oxygen
D. proceed to the galley and turn HOT PLATE, COFFEE BREWER, and HOT JUG switches to OFF to prevent boiling of liquids and possible damage to galley components |
|
Definition
A. immediately don an oxygen mask and perform the SUDDEN LOSS of CABIN PRESSURE checklist.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-19 |
|
|
Term
NOTE-- After a sudden loss of cabin pressure if a crew member fails to report in or does not respond to repeated calls on intercom, [BLANK] should designate nearest crewmember to check on the crewmember failing to report.
A. Section officer
B. MCC
C. AC
D. Runner |
|
Definition
B. MCC
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-25 |
|
|
Term
Upon notification of crash landing or ditching, mission crew seats will be positioned [BLANK], in nearrest detent [BLANK].
A. with seat back in full upright position/to raised table top
B. to the lowest level away from the console/ inertia reel
C. facing forward at the lowest level/ locking mechanism
D. with seat backs against raise table tops/ locking pin |
|
Definition
A. with seat back in full upright position/ to raised table top
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 3-27 |
|
|
Term
During in flight refueling, from [BLANK] before air refueling contact until five minutes after end of refueling, or as directed by flight crew, the surveillance radar and identification system will be put in standby
A. 5 minutes
B 1/2 Mile
C. 1 mile
D 5 miles |
|
Definition
B. 1/2 mile
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 5-2 |
|
|
Term
UHF radio range of operation is [BLANK]
A. aproximately 100 miles
B. Line of Sight
C. 75-125 miles depending on atmospheric conditions
D. approximately 4,00 miles |
|
Definition
B. line of sight
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 5-15 |
|
|
Term
Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which can result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed are defined as a [BLANK]
A. RULE
B. NOTE
C. WARNING
D. CAUTION |
|
Definition
C. WARNING
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: intro-xiv |
|
|
Term
The VHF-AM communications subsystem, consisting of [BLANK] transceivers, provides communications within the 116.000 MHz to 149.950 MHz frequency range.
A. 19
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2 |
|
Definition
C. 3
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 5-16 |
|
|
Term
What is the function of VHF-AM R3?
A. It is the JTIDS receiver.
B. It is the flight deck's ATC coordination radio.
C. It is a mission crew/flight deck shared radio - but the flight deck has seized capability.
D. It is hardwired to 121.5 MHz and used for a guard receiver. |
|
Definition
D. It is hardwired to 121.5 MHz and used for a guard receiver.
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 5-16 |
|
|
Term
In addition to the VFH-AM tranceiver, a single VFH-FM transceiver is provided primarily for communications with [BLANK].
A. search and rescue forces
B. helicopter traffic
C. ground forces
D. naval forces |
|
Definition
C. ground forces
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 5-16 |
|
|
Term
The HF communications system operates in the frequency range of 2.0 MHz to 29.9999 MHz and has a range of [BLANK]
A. approximately 4,000 miles
B. line of sight
C. approximately 1,000 miles
D. approximately 220 miles when the E-3 is at 29,000 ft |
|
Definition
A. approximately 4,000 miles
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 5-16 |
|
|
Term
What is the correct response to the following call "VIPER01, STROBES NORTH GROUP"
A. "VIPER01, STROBES RANGE 35, 25K HOSTILE"
B. "VIPER01, STROBES RANGE 35, BULLSEYE 270/22, 25K HOSTILE"
C. "VIPER01, NORTH GROUP RANGES 35, BULLSEYE 270/20, 25K HOSTILE
D. "VIPER01, NORTH GROUP STROBES RANGE 35, BULLSEYE 270/20, 25K HOSTILE" |
|
Definition
C. "VIPER01, NORTH GROUP RANGE 35, BULLSEYE 270/20, 25K HOSTILE"
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 Pg: A1-40 Para: 1.2.8.6.1 |
|
|
Term
TRUE or FALSE. AWACS/GCI can upgrade BOGEY/BANDIT groups to HOSTILE without a fighter declared bullseye comm as long as the J12.6 backlink and shot line correlate within 3 nm of the surveillance track.
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
A. True
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 V1 Pg: A1-4 Para: 1.2.2.3.2 |
|
|
Term
A [BLANK] is a briefed maneuver to minimize closure to the threat or geographical boundary with the intent to reengage. Will be used to initiate a Grinder tactic.
A. NOTCH
B. BEAM
C. PUMP
D. FLANK |
|
Definition
C. PUMP
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 V1 Pg: A1-76 |
|
|
Term
[BLANK] is a request to provide tactical ground information pertinent to the mission in a digital bullseye format.
A. STAKE
B. SKINNY
C. LOWDOWN
D. SHOPPING |
|
Definition
C. LOWDOWN
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 V1 Pg: A1-57 Para: 1.5.2.2.1 |
|
|
Term
What is the correct response to: "VIPER01, MUSIC NORTH GROUP".
A. "VIPER01, NORTH GROUP RANGE 35, BULLSEYE 270/20, 25K HOSTILE"
B. "VIPER01, NORTH GROUP BULLSEYE 270/20K HOSTILE, 2 CONTACTS'
C. "DRAGNET, NORTH GROUP BULLSEYE 270/20, 25K HOSTILE, 2 CONTACTS LIne-ABREAST 2, TRACK SOUTHWEST"
D. None of the above are correct. |
|
Definition
C. "DRAGNET, NORTH GROUP BULLSEYE 270/20, 25K HOSTILE, 2 coNTACTS lINE-ABREAST 2, TRACK SOUTHWEST"
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 Pg: A1-40 Para: 1.2.8.6.2 |
|
|
Term
[BLANK] is a USAF specific codeword meaning a fighter will establish visual contact with the cockpit of a TOI. attempt communications, and report all observations of activity.
A. INVESTIGATE
B. TARGET
C. INSPECT
D. HEADBUTT |
|
Definition
C. INSPECT
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 V1 Pg: A1-70 |
|
|
Term
ABMs/WDs will not use LOW or HIGH except when [BLANK].
A. the E-3 is radar only
B. the E-3 is IFF only
C. symbology has not yet smoothed onto sensor data
D. it is 'reported' from an off-board source or when an aircraft meets the criteria for HIGH |
|
Definition
D. it is 'reported' from an off-board source or when an aircraft meets the criteria for HIGH
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 V1 Pg: A1-5 Para: 1.2.5.3.1.1 |
|
|
Term
TRUE or FALSE. Upon initial check-in, all link capable players are assumed to be TIMBER SWEET unless specifically communicated otherwise.
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
A. True
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 V1 Pg: A1-5 Para: 1.2.3.1.2 |
|
|
Term
TRUE or FALSE. Upon initial check-in, all aircraft are assumed to be SWEET unless specifically communicated otherwise.
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
B. False
Ref: AFI 11-214 Para: 2.4.1.2.3 |
|
|
Term
When controlling F-16s, at "re-dec" range (40 NM or as briefed), ABM/WD will [BLANK].
A. Voice the range (40NM or as briefed)
B. Repeat the picture
C. Anchor each group within targeting depth of the leading edge
D. Both A and C |
|
Definition
D. Both A and C
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 V1 Pg: A1-37 Para: 1.2.7.7 |
|
|
Term
TRUE or FALSE. If fighter calls "SPIKED" with a magnetic bearing or subcardinal direction and the group spiking the fighter is within threat range, the ABM/WD will respond with a standard spike response.
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
A. True
Red: AFTTP 3-1 V1 Pg: A1-39 |
|
|
Term
The AWACS shall not provide services below FL 180 within US airspace or in offshore in which domestic ATC service is exercised unless [BLANK].
A. Previously coordinated during mission planning
B. the AWACS's primary and secondary (IFF) radars are operational
C. a FAA Form 76-15 has been filed
D. 552 OSS/OSOF has been advised |
|
Definition
B. The AWAC's primary and secondary (IFF) radars are operational
Ref: JO 7620.4 Pg: 13-1-5b |
|
|
Term
An Airborne Radar Unit (ARU) may be used for radar monitoring or as an extension of a Military Radar Unit(MRU) in planned exercises or daily training under the following condition(s): [BLANK]
A. the MRU assumes the responsibility to ensure that the operation is contained withing the assigned area as specified in SMO 7610.4
B. The ARU will assist aircraft under its jurisdiction to remain within the ATCAA/SUA released to the unit by ATC through the MRU
C. The use of an ARU and the associated ATCAA/SUA must be fully coordinated between the MRU and the affected ATC facilities.
D. B and C |
|
Definition
D. B and C
Ref: JO 7610.4 Pg: 13-1-3 |
|
|
Term
According to JO 7610.4, an MRU may be used for radar monitoring in planning exercises or daily training under the following conditions:
A. will assist aircraft under its jurisdiction to remain within the ATCAA/SUA released to the unit by ATC.
B. The use of an MRU and the associated ATCAA/SUA is fully coordinated with affected ATC facilities.
C. Radar correlation checks and two-way communication with ATC must be accomplished prior to providing services in released airspace.
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
D. All of the above
Ref: JO 7610.4 Pg: 13-1-2 |
|
|
Term
According to AFTTP 3-1, General Planning, general communications prioities for mission accomplishment are:
A. Flight Safety/ aircraft emergencies; Targeting/declares; Defending/threats/spikes; Response to EA; Pic/Bogey Dope/fill-ins; Mission Admin
B. Flight Safety/ aircraft emergencies; Defending/spiked/threats; Declares/targeting; Response to EA; Bogey Dope/picture/fill-ins; Mission Admin
C. Flight Safety/ aircraft emergencies; Defending/threats/spikes; Pic/Bogey Dope/fill-ins; Targeting/declares; Response to EA; Mission Admin
D. Defending/threats/spikes; Targeting/declares; Response to EA; Pic/Bogey Dope/fill-ins; Flight Safety/ aircraft emergencies; Mission Admin |
|
Definition
B. Flight Safety/ aircraft emergencies; Defending/spikes/threats; Declares/targeting; Response to EA; Bogey Dope/picture/fill-ins; Mission Admin
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 V1 Pg: A1-3 |
|
|
Term
The valid range for radial distances from any point on center line of either Refueling Anchor SD or Refueling Track SD to the two exterior parallel lines of these respective SDs is [BLANK] NM.
A. 5-200
B. 5-20
C. 40-200
D 5-40 |
|
Definition
B. 5-20
Ref: 552 ACWPHB Vol 2 Pg: 2-294 |
|
|
Term
An operating procedure, technique, etc., which is considered essential to emphasize is defines as a [BLANK]
A. CAUTION
B. NOTE
C. WARNING
D. RULE |
|
Definition
B. NOTE
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: Intro-xvii |
|
|
Term
The ABM/WD will respond to a DECLARE request with:
A. bullseye, ID, and fill-ins
B. bullseye, altitude, and ID
C. bullseye, altitude, ID, and fill-ins
D. Combo Call, ID and fill-ins |
|
Definition
C. bullseye, altitude, ID, and fill-ins
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 V1 Pg: A1-3 Para: 1.2.2.1.4 |
|
|
Term
[BLANK] may perform their own mission planning or units may utilize [BLANk] or [BLANK] in order to meet mission planning requirements.
A. Flying crews, MPT, any available crewmember
B. Flying crews, mission planning teams, planning cells
C. Crewmembers, MPT and available crewmember
D. none of the above |
|
Definition
B. Flying cres, mission planning teams, planning cells
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 2.1 |
|
|
Term
The AC will assign [BLANK] to be responsible for passnegers or distinguished visitors
A. a Weapons Director
B. a crew member
C. the ASO
D. the ART |
|
Definition
B. a crew member
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 2.5.1.2 |
|
|
Term
During mission planning for a AWO/WD-assisted AR rendezvous, the NAV will supply the AWO/WD with [BLANK]
A. RVCT, RVIP and RVCP coordinates in degrees Lat/Long
B. Air Refueling Altitudes
C. desired tanker offset and turn range
D. all of the above |
|
Definition
D. all of the above
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 2.5.1.4 |
|
|
Term
TRUE or FALSE. Crew rest for successive flight activity will begin when the last crewmember departs after completing related aircrew duties but not earlier than 1 hour after final landing from previous flight activity
A. True
B. False |
|
Definition
A. True
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.3.4 |
|
|
Term
When transitioning four time zones or more, unless waived by applicable [BLANK], ground time between landing and subsequent takeoff will not be planned for less than [BLANK] hours.
A. Ops Group CC/ 18
B. Wing CC/ 18
C. AC/ 18
D. MCC/ 14 |
|
Definition
A. Ops Group CC/ 18
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.3.5 |
|
|
Term
"Words" are generated by [BLANK]
A. the WOC
B. TAC C2
C. CAOC
D. TAC C2 and the CAOC |
|
Definition
B. TAC C2
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 V1 Pg: A1-5 Para: A1.2.3.2 |
|
|
Term
The [BLANK] will relay "words" to all players prior to taxi or take-off.
A. WOC
B. CAOC
C. TAC C2
D. Ground Commander |
|
Definition
A. WOC
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 V1 Pg: A1-5 Para: A1.2.3.2.2 |
|
|
Term
The AC, with concurrence of [BLANK] and [BLANK], may adjust crew report time to meet mission requirements.
A. DETCO/ SQ CC
B. DETCO / OPS GRP CC
C. MCC / SQ CC
D. MCC/ DO/DETCO |
|
Definition
D. MCC / DO/DETCO
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.4 |
|
|
Term
Internal coordination between the NAV and AWO/WD diring the rendezvous will be over [BLANK]. Other crewmembers will not use this net for [BLANK] minutes before the AAR Control Time (ARCT) until after the refueling is complete, unless safety of flight dictates.
A. Net 2 / 15
B. Selective intercom / 30
C. Net 1 / 30
D. Maintenance Net / 45 |
|
Definition
C. Net 1/ 30
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.7.1.1 |
|
|
Term
The A/C will advise the [BLANK] when the flight deck has visual contact with the tanker and when to terminate mission crew assistance and when the mission systems may be configured for AAR.
A. AWO/MCC/ASO
B. AWO/MCC
C. AWO/WD/ASO
D. MCC/ART |
|
Definition
B. AWO/MCC
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.7.1.2 |
|
|
Term
During a Weapons Controller Assisted Rendezvous, the AWO will provide [BLANK] for situation awareness.
A. slant ranges / forward range
B. contact based on radar returns
C. contact based on IFF returns
D. information to assist the Nav in accomplishing the rendezvous |
|
Definition
D. Informatino to asssist the Nav in accomplishing the rendezvous
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.7.1 |
|
|
Term
The AWACS DATA LINK net participants symbol and a means to determine E-3 altitude must be displayed on [BLANK].
A. all weapons consoles while aircraaft are not under control
B. the ASO's consoles at all times
C. the AWACS monitor's and MCC's consoles
D. the ASO's and MCC's consoles |
|
Definition
C. The AWACS monitor's and MCC's consoles
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.10.2.2 |
|
|
Term
Monitorring aircraft postition relative to a preplanned track is the responibility of the:
A. flight crew
B. mission crew
C. navigator
D. both A and B |
|
Definition
D. both A and B
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para:3.10 |
|
|
Term
Unless under Due Regard, an AWACS monitor may be utilized as determined by [BLANK].
A. whenever an AWO is available to provide traffic advisories
B. the PIC
C. any time the mission radar or IFF is operating
D. only while flying CONUS missions |
|
Definition
B. the PIC
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.11.1 |
|
|
Term
When the AWACS monitor assumes or terminates monitor duties the [BLANK] will be notified.
A. pilot and CSO
B. navigator and CSO
C. flight crew and MCC
D. CDMT and MCC |
|
Definition
C. flight crew and MCC
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.11.1 |
|
|
Term
Poll call is initiated by [BLANK] after words changes, package status, rolex, weather plan, key mission enablers, and LOWDOWN are passed.
A. flight lead
B. mission commander
C. TAC C2
D. CAOC |
|
Definition
C. TAC C2
Ref: AFTTP 3-1 V1 Pg: A1-5 Para: 3.11.1 |
|
|
Term
Who will attend the maintenance debrief?
A. AC, MCC, FE
B, ART, CDMT, CT
C. Any crew member who makes an AFTO Form 781A entry
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
D. All of the above
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.13.1 |
|
|
Term
When the E-3 stops at a location where no US security personnel are available, COMSEC will be stored at the Command Post or the MCC/AC will designate [BLANK] to remain with the software and classified mission documents to provide security.
A. the CDMT
B. the CSO or CT
C. the lowest ranking WD
D. crew member(s) |
|
Definition
D. crew member(s)
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 3.15.2 |
|
|
Term
Estimate and/or predict the capabilities of hostile forces and organize friendly counter forces. Coordinate the air battle with appropiate agencies. Direct the pairing of weapons against targets. AFI 11-2E3 V3 lists the above as [BLANK] duties.
A. MCC
B. Battle Staff
C. SD
D. AWO |
|
Definition
C. SD
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 5.2.4.1 |
|
|
Term
Locate, identify, and track aircraft assigned for control. Control aircraft against assigned targets. Ensure orderly and expeditious recovery of assigned aircraft. AFI 11-2E3 V3 lists he above as [BLANK] duties.
A. MCC
B. SD
C. ASO
D. AWO |
|
Definition
D. AWO
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 5.2.4.2 |
|
|
Term
the SD or a designated AWO/WD will monitor the handoff frequency [BLANK].
A. whenever aircraft are under control
B. at all times the E-3 primary radar is operational
C. at the times coordinated with the loacl ATC agencies
D. at all times when performing station assumption duties and while on station |
|
Definition
D. at all times when performing station assumption duties and while on station
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 5.3.4.5 |
|
|
Term
For aircraft with in-flight emergencies, the SD/AWO/WD performing the handoff will [BLANK] at the beginning and ending of transmissions to the recovery agency.
A. lof the transission times
B. ensure his/her voice is recorded
C. notify the MCC
D. use the word "Emergency" |
|
Definition
D. use the word "Emergency"
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 5.3.4.6 |
|
|
Term
Weapons pairing to [BLANK] should be accomplished as briefed IAW mission TDL employment.
A. CAP
B. Air-to-Air intercepts
C. ground targets
D. all of the above |
|
Definition
D. all of the above
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 5.3.4.10 |
|
|
Term
During all operations, AWO/WDs will ensure that symbology and sensor data of controlled aircraft are within [BLANK] nm of each other.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5 |
|
Definition
A. 2
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3, Para: 5.3.4.10 |
|
|
Term
According to AFI 11-2E3 V3, the E-3 aircrew, while in flight, will transmit messages according to the following priority: [BLANK].
A. Flight safety, Command and Control information, Flight regularity
B. Threat warnings, Scramble orders, and Safe passage information
C. Command and Control information, Flight safety, Scramble orders
D. Air-to-Air communications, Air-to-Ground communications, Phone patches |
|
Definition
A. Flight safety, Command and Control information, Flight regularity
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 Para: 5.3.5.2 |
|
|
Term
When [BLANK], the SD will designate at least one weapons member to monitor UHF guard.
A. the E-3 is airborne
B. the E-3 is on station
C. aircraft are under control by the mission crew
D. radios are cleared for mission use |
|
Definition
| C. aircraft are under control by the mission crew |
|
|
Term
When boarding the life raft, be sure no sharp objects such as rings, pencils, buckles, and similar objects contact the raft. Remain seated on the floor without sliding. In heavy seas, move more people to the [BLANK] of the raft.
A. upwind side
B. Downwind side
C. center
D. outer ring |
|
Definition
A. Upwind side
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-699 |
|
|
Term
WARNING -- if the 20-man life raft has been cold-soaked at temperatures below -20 degrees Celsius, it can take 20 to 30 minutes for the raft to inflate. If this occurs, what should you do?
A. Abandon the rafts because the sinking E-3 will pull ininflated raft down with it.
B. place raft package in water to warm raft and inflation cylinder
C. pull the manual inflation strap located above the overwing hatch exit
D. Clamp equalizer tube until one of the two chambers inflates completely |
|
Definition
B. Place raft package in water to warm raft and inflation cylinder
Ref: T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1 Pg: 1-699 |
|
|
Term
[BLANK] share the responsibility for FOD prevention.
A. the FE and pilot
B. the crew chiefs and FE
C. All crewmembers
D. The pilot and MCC |
|
Definition
C. All crewmembers
Ref: AFI 11-2E-3V3 522 ACW S1 Para: 6.3.9 |
|
|
Term
Only [BLANK] containers are allowed for consumption/storage of liquids of any kind at any console.
A. spill proff
B. spill-resistant
C. styrofoam
D. insulated |
|
Definition
A. spill proof
Ref: AFI 11-2E-3V3 552 ACW S1 Para: 6.5.2.1 |
|
|
Term
During contigency operations, the E-3 must have operational [BLANK].
A. Primary radar
B. HF communications
C. SATCOM
D. IFF |
|
Definition
A. primary radar
Ref: AFI 11-2E-3V3 552 ACW S1 Para: 6.5.3.2 |
|
|
Term
Crewmembers are normally allowed a baggage limit of [BLANK] pounds on short-terms TDYs (7 day or less) and [BLANK] pounds on longer deployments.
A. 15, 30
B. 20, 66
C. 25, 55
D. 50, 100 |
|
Definition
C. 25, 55
Ref: AFI 11-2E-3V3 552 ACW S1 Para: A4.5.2 |
|
|
Term
Crewmembers scheduled for deployment who may become delinquent during the deployment period [BLANK].
A. will accomplish the item(s) in which the may become delinquent prior to deployment
B. must be replaced
C. require a waiver from the operation group commander
D. must complete the delinquent items ASAP after returning from deployment |
|
Definition
| A. will accomplish the item(s) in which they may become delinquent prior to deployment |
|
|
Term
Required publications are listed in [BLANK]
A. FCIF Vol V
B. FCIF Vol 1 Part A
C. 552 ACW Supplement to AFI 11-2E3/TC-18V3
D. Both A and C |
|
Definition
B. FCIF Vol 1 Part A
Ref: AFI 11-2E3-3V3 552 ACW S1 Para: 6.1.11.2 |
|
|
Term
All aircrews will receive [BLANK] training prior to every mission sortie.
A. continuation
B. mission qualification
C. threat
D. difference |
|
Definition
C. Threat
Ref: AFI 11-2E-3V3 552 ACW S1 Para: 6.2.4.2.4 |
|
|
Term
When reporting for a flight, each crewmember will review the appropriate section of the [BLANK]
A. FCIF Vol V
B. FCIF Vol I
C. Aircrew Aid
D. A and B |
|
Definition
D. A and B
Ref: AFI 11-2E-3V3 552 ACW S1 Para: 6.3.3.2 |
|
|
Term
A crewmember initials on the flight orders nect to the FCIF number to certify that [BLANK].
A. his/her required publications are current
B. he/she has reviewed FCIF Vol MCMIC
C. his/her personal information on the flight orders is correct
D. both A and C |
|
Definition
D. both A and C
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 ACW Supp 1 Para: 6.3.3.2 |
|
|
Term
[Crew Rest] The minimum planned timing from landing to subsequent takeoff will be [BLANK] hours, unless waived by the applicable group commander.
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 18 |
|
Definition
C. 16
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 ACW Supp 1 Para: 6.3.1 |
|
|
Term
[Crew Rest] If the crew flies three consecutive sorties with minimal mission turn time they will be given at least [BLANK] hours of non duty time prior to reporting for non flying activities, or entering crew rest for a subsequent mission.
A. 12
B. 24
C. 72
D. 48 |
|
Definition
B. 24
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 ACW Supp 1 Para: 6.3.1 |
|
|
Term
[BLANK] will be turned off and stowed while on the flight line or onboard the aircraft. The only [BLANK] authorized on the flight line are those issued to the AC/MCC or their designated representative to conduct official business.
A. Computers
B. Cellular Phones
C. Pagers
D. Both B and C |
|
Definition
B. Cellular phones
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 ACW Supp 1 Para: 6.1.11.1 |
|
|
Term
Under no circumstances will aircrew members open or activate [BLANK] inside the aircraft.
A. mobile phones
B. MP3 players
C. MRE flameless ration heaters
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
C. MRE flameless ration heaters
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 ACW Supp 1 Para: 6.3.10.2 |
|
|
Term
Aircraft [BLANK] have a minimum of [BLANK] fast-fill MA-1 Portable Oxygen Bottles onboard.
A. must, 12
B. must, 10
C. should, 12
D. should, 10 |
|
Definition
D. Should , 10
Ref: AFI 11-2E3 V3 ACW Supp 1 Para: 6.3.8.4.1 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Facility that last told airfield information status
3. TADIL-J Reference Number associated with Airbase
4. Airbase ICAO Identifier
5. Sky condition, up to 4 layers
6. Cloud Cover BRK, CLR, OVR, SCT
7. Cloud Height (1-3)
8. Present Weather Status
9. 1 hour forcast
10. 2 hour forcast
11. Base Actual Weather
12. Base actual weather descriptor
13. UNK
14. Active runway braking action
15. Patches indicator
16. wind direction
17. wind shear indicator
18. windspeed
19. wind gust increment
20. Wind Gust
21. Visiility
22. QNH in millibars
23. QNH in inches
24. Free Text for comments
25. Time stamp |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Page number
3. Weapons tight/free indicator
4. AADCP operation status
5. AADCP Designator
6. Track reference of fire unit
7. Engagement status
8. number of hot missiles
9. nuber of cold missiles
10. range of fire unit |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Page number
3. AADCP Designator
4. Track Designator
5. ADA target status |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Airbase ICAO identifier
3. TADIL-J Reference Number (TN) associated with the Airbase
4. facility that last told airfield information status
5. 20 MM Ammo
6. 27 MM ammo
7. 30 MM ammo
8. Anti-submarine Depth Charge
9. Conventional 500-lb bomb
10. Conventional 1000-lb bomb
11. NDB
12. AIM-9L A2A missile
13. Magic I A2A missile + = available
14. AIM-9M A2A missile
15. Magic II A2A missile
16. AIM-9P A2A missile - = unavailable
17. Super-530 A2A missile
18. AMRAAM A2A missile
19. Super 530D A2A missile
20. ASRAAM A2A missile
21. Durandal A2A missile
22. Sky Flase A2A missile
23. BAP 100 A2A missile
24. MICA A2A missile |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Reporting Indicator
3. Facility last told airfield information status. Blank if not told by any facility
4. TADIL-J Reference Number (TN) associated with airbase
5. Airbase ICAO identifier
6. Airfeild Status
7. Active runway Status
8. Active runway status amplification
9. Nuclear contamination indicator
10. Air Raid State
11. Active runway direction
12. Biological contamination indicator
13. Base weather state
14. Active runway available length
15. Chemical contamination indicator
16. Airfield crash service
17. Active runway ILS/Flight Deck Precision Approach Aid
18. QNH in millibars
19. QNH in inches
20. Active runway GCA/flight deck PAR
21. AVTUR
22. Flight deck glde path indicator
23. Active runway approach lighting
24. liquid oxygen
25. designated flying course
26. active runway arrester wires
27. nitrogen
28. landing approach condition
29. Active runway arrester barrier
30. Secondary runway indicator
31. active runway braking action
32. SHORADEZ
33. Active runway visual range
34. Time of Observation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Page number (1-3)
3. Area Number (1-20)
4. area geometry
5. track area monitoring status
6. crosstold trak trouble attention quality
7. automatic track inition status
8. height accuracy status
9. track quicklook filter status
10.number of associated IFF corridors
11. minimum safe altitude
12. RN of track to which the area is slaved
13. Watchman area indicator |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Page number
3. Facility Designator of sender
4. Time arrow message received (HHMM)
5. Message Text
6. Message Text
7 Latitude/longitude of arrow |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Page number
3. ATD quality threshold
4. Air track ID's selected for Auto Track Drop
5. Surface track ID's selected for Auto Track Drop |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Page number
3. voice callsign
4. link status
5. aircraft type
6. flight lead designator
7. control channel
8. local control indicator
9. E3 mission assignment
10. Compliance indication from this WT for current mission
11. Target TN of mission assignment
12. FUEL (100) lb units)
13/15/17/19. Number of Armament 1-4 units
14/16/18/20. Armament Type 1-4 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. First track designator
3. second track designator
4. Battle Damage Assessment (BDA) status
5. Receive/transit indicator
6. RCT TKD holding this BDA status
7. RCT TN holding this BDA status
8. Time of BDA receipt/transmission (HHMM) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. TKD, DLRN, or name of start point
3. TKD, DLRN, or name of end point
4. Magnetic Bearing
5. Range (NM) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Page Number
3. Command number (1-999)
4. Net command received on
5. Command facility sending or receiving the command, depending on field 4
6. Command type
7. Command override indicator
8. target identifier
9. track identifier
10. responce/complinace |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. console intercom number
3. Console Assigned function (WD, SD, AS, BS, PD, SP, CO, CP)
4. Operator function number (0-9, A-F)
5. Subfunction (if applicable) (CP, CO, TR, DO, AD, AT, SO, TM, IN)
6. Console status
7. EW/I alert indicator
8. PDS update capability indicator
9. System M display/update capability indicator
10. Mode 5 lethal interrogaion capability indicator
11. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Console Intercom number
3. Function (WD, SD, AS, BS, PD, SP, CO, CP)
4. Operator function number
5. Subfunction
6. Display priority
7. ID Display option
8. Default track initiate speed
9. Track trouble attention threshold
10. Default weapons trak guidance option
11. Display new command heading local track atttention indicator
12. display of unassigned alert and track attention indicator
13. Coordinate system selection for the Track TD's
14. Zody point display option for Local System and Primary e3 track TDs
15. Hook pop-up display indicator
16. Live/Sim console indicator
17. Theater missile Defense display indicator
18. Mode 5 leathal interrocation capability
19. System M display/update capability indicator
20. EW/I inidicator
21. PDS update capability indicator
22. UUGN: Display of unknown evaluated general alert and track attention indicator
23. Mode 4/Mode 5 conflict alert indicator
24 ID TD default indicator
26. Pseudo Local track attention indicator
27. Mode 5 SD indicator
28 Display of line/Area related alerts |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. First Track Designator
3. SPI flag of last data
4. Controlling Unit Facility Designator
5. Second Track Designator
6. Weapons type
7. Nuclear Capable
8. All Aspect Angle Capable
9. Rear Aspect Angle Capable
10. Multiple Intercept Capable
11. Guided Bombs
12. Unguided Bombs
13. Soft Load
14. Guns
15. Fuel remaining/Time to Bingo
16. Fuel displayed if available
17. WT paired/engaged indicator
18. Pairing Type or engagement status
19. Current mission assignemtn for this WT
20. Compliance indication for WT
21. Paired track designator
22. Command warhead use
FOR TOLD IN FIRE UNITS
23. hot inventory
24. Weapons range
25. Cold Inventory
26. Accept sensor data from RCT indicator
27. Target TN tell indicator
28. Handover indicator |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. input coordinate system name
3. Input coordinates
4. output coordinate system name
5. output coordinates |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Page number
3. Facility designator
4. Subject track/point identifier
5. Number of ossociated objects
6. time of last transmision/reception
7. TN of the friendly weapon from DMPI command
8. Associated track/point identifier
9. extended precision indicator |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. page number
3. live/sim indicator
4. TADIL-J track number
5. Voice call sign
6. Flight lead indicator
7. Aircraft type
8. Mode of Control
9. Flight size
10. RCT/RCN indicator
11. Controlling unit designator
12. Handover status
13. Control Channel
14. Voice frequency channel
15. Fighter to fighter net
16. radr status
17. RWR status
18. Television status
19. infrared search and track status
20. laser status
21. track identity
22. fuel on board
23. fuel type
24, 26, 28, 30. number of armaments
25, 27, 29, 31. Armament 1-4 type
32. Mode 1 code source
34. Mode 2 code source
36. Mode 3 code source
33. Mode 1 Sensed code
35. Mode 2 sensed code
37. Mode 3 sensed code
38. mode 4 code source
39. Mode 4 evaluation status
40. Gun status
41. Mode 5 correlation indicator
42. Mission assignment
43. pilot response
44. primary target
45. status received in target sorting message
46. ID authority status
47. Pseudo local track tell status
48. accept sensor data
49. TADIL-J link status |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Page number
3. live/sim indicator
4. TADIL-J track number
5. voice callsign
6. flight lead indicator
7. aircraft type
8. mode of control
9. flight size
10. RCT/RCN indicator
11. controlling unit facility designator
12. Handover status
13. control channel
14. voice frequency channel
15. fighter to fighter net
16. radar status
17. RWR status
18. Television status
19. infrared search and track operational status
20. laser status
21. track identity
22. fuel onboard
23. fuel type
24,26,28,30,32,34,36,38. number of armaments
25,27,29,31,33,35,37,39. Armament 1-8 type
40. gun status
41. mission assignment
42. pilot response
43. primary target
44. status receive in target sorting message
45. ID authority status
46. Pseudo local track tell status
47. accept sensor data
48. TADIL-J link status |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Page Number
3. Associated area number
4. requested mode
5. SIF code mask
6. number of requestion consoles
7. exercise SIF request indicator
8. Minimum altitude of corridor IFF SD selective altitude band for mode C
9. Maximum altitude of corridor IF SD selective altitude band for mode C |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. page number
3. type of data
4. track designator
5. SPI Flag of last data on comm links
6-15. local data/conflict flag
16. nationality
17. category
18. general type
19. specific type
20. type modification
21. mission
22. operational status
23. activity
24. controlling unit or agency for track in field 14
25. objective for track in feild 14
26. last time data was updated
27. Facility designator of last facility to update
28. net used by last facility to update
29,30,31. Data presence on comm. link
32. threat type
33. threat weapon
34. threat fuel
35. SAM/SSM type 1
36. SAM/SSM type 2
37. SAM/SSM type 3 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Page Number
3. Facility Designator
4. Net Membership
5. Type of facility
6. Missile unit, command type
7. forward unit type being reported on TADIL-J
8. Time interval indicator |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Page Number
3. number of pages in message
4. message number
5. transmit/receipt indicator
6. facility designator
7. transmission method
8. Zulu time of transmission/reception
9. Message keep/delete indicator
10. message text |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. track identifier of selected track
3. track identifier of flight members
4. TADIL-J mode of control |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. HFF Status indicator
3. Speed Criteria for HFF
4. Altitude criteria for HFF
5. Pending ID criteria
6. Unknown ID criteria
7. Suspect ID criteria
8. hostile ID criteria
9. Assumed Friend ID criteria
10. Neutral ID criteria
11. Friend ID criteria
12. Pending ID criteria
13. Unknown ID criteria
14. Suspect ID criteria
15. Hostile ID criteria
16. Assumed Friend ID criteria
17. Neutral ID criteria
18. Friend ID criteria |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Control of Missile-in-flight/Locked on situation display
3. Master mode
4. air mode
5. surface mode
6. land mode
7. control of reporting target track corrlation to fighter on link-16
8. Control of assignment if ID authority for all RCT's
9. control of reporting of a pseudo-local track for all RCT's
10. Control of default for mission assignment message generation on link 16 for an RCT
11. Control of default for target track correlation reporting on link 16 for an RCT
12. Control of default for assignment of ID authroity for an RCT. Applied upon taking fighters under control
13. Control of default for reporting of a pseudo local trck for an RCT |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. page number
3. live/sim indicator
4. raid size
5. target count
6. TADIL-A Data Link Reference Number (DLRN)
7. First track designator
8. Track category
9. Range rate
10. Second track designator
11. TADIL-A reporting facility
12. Local TADIL-J identity
13. TADIL-J reporting facility
14. remote TADIL-J identity
15. Data type allowed for correlation
16. Heading magnetic
17. Specific type
18. Smoothed track altitude
19. Altitude source
20. Nationality
21. Speed
22. Status received in target sorting message
23. TKD of contributing RCT for target report tracks
24, 27, 29. Mode 1, 2, 3 sensed code
25. Sensor mismatch indicator
26. Sensed SIF code staleness
28. Battle Damage Assesment Status
30. Mode 4 evaluation status
31. Track position coordinates
32. Mode 5 correlation indicator
33. Tell/No tell status |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Page Number
3. Live/Sim indicator
4. Weapons consoles unvalidated passive track suppression indicator
5. ghost indicator
6. TADIL-A Data link reference number
7. First track designator
8. ADA engagement status
9. TADIL-A/IJMS track quality
10. second track designator
11. TADIL-J target report/tell to a fighter indicator
12. TADIL-J/IJMS track quality
13. track category
14. local TADIL-J track identity
15. controlling unit facility designator
16. coordinate of track location
17. heading magnetic
18. SIF code source indicator
19, 24, 27. Mode 1,2,3 sensed code
20. Sensed SIF code staleness
21. smoothed track altitude
22. IFF suppresion/SIF difference
23. Speed(kts)
25. Mode 4 evaluation status
26. Mode 4 IFF supression
28. Mode 5 correlation indicator
29. range rate
30. Elevation angle |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. platform TN
3. environment
4. airborne indicator
5. Command and Control unit indicator
6. mission commander indicator
7. flight lead indicator
8. exercise indicator
9. sim indicator
10. bailout indicator
11. platform type
12. plaform activity
13. control channel
14. primary voice frquency channel
15. secondary voice frequency channel
16. squadron callsign
17. fighter-to-fighter net
18. site
19. unit type
20. generic unit type
21. position quality
22. active relay indicator, control channel
23. RTT reply status inidicator
24. Active relay indicator, wide area network
25. Active relay indicator, voice channel |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Friendly tracks
3. Hostile tracks
4. jammer tracks
5. unknown tracks
6. zombie tracks
7. pending tracks
8. Xray tracks
9. faker jammer tracks
10. faker tracks
1. special mission tracks
12. kilo/yoke tracks
13. crosstold air tracks
14. crosstold surface tracks
15. crosstold ground tracks
16. Weapons airbase
17. IDBOs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. target count (1-9)
3. simulation indicator
4. first track designator
5. second track designator
6. raid size
7. heading
8. weapons consoles passive track indicator
9. flight plan number
10. smoothed track altitude
11. Altitude source
12. altitude calculation form elevation radar report
13. PDS association indicator
14. EW/I data indicator
15. speed
16. ghost indicator
17. BDA status
18. track category
19. identity
20. data type
21. surface track/air data correlation flag
22. Range rate
23. ADA engagement status
24. elevation angle
25. controlling facility designator
26. field 27 label
27. mode 2 sensed code
28. TADIL-J track quality
29. TADIL-J reporting facility
30. Mode 3 sensed code
31. Mode 4 evaluation status
32. TADIL-A/IJMS track quality
33. IJMS reporting facility
34. bearing from E3 (CCCS)
35. Range from E3 (nm)
36. TADIL-A reporting facility
37. location of track
38. TADIL-J target report/tell
39. Mode 5 correlation indicator
40. TADIL-A area indicator
41. tell/no-tell status |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. rack designator
3. SIF code source indicator
4, 9, 10. mode 1,2,3 code of local track
5. sensor mismatch indicator
6. remote SIF code indicator
7. Sensed SIF code staleness
8. IFF suppression (clear)/SIF difference
11. mode 4 evaluation of local track
12. Pseudo IFF assignment/transmission-inhibit indicator
13. pseudo IFF locallly assigned indicator
14. psedo IFF code received from TADIL-A/J or IJMS |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2, oage number
3. locate SIF identifier
4. display "Locate SIF Detection Alert" indicator
5. mode
6. code |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. page number
3. current magnetic variation
4. current map dimensions
5. minimum safe altitude
6. Upper boudary of low altitude band for each available CCCS origin
7. Vector logic grid origin
8. current origin number from current map
9. current Lat/Long of CCCS origin
10. Available pre-storred CCCS origin numbers
11. Corresponding Lat/Long coordinates of CCCS origing from field 10 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. page number
3. current world wide region identifier
4. current magnetic variation
5. current map dimmension in nautical miles
6. minimum safe altitude
7. uper boundary of low altitude band
8. current map number
9. current lat/long of CCCS origin
10. available prestored map numbers
11. corresponding lat/long coordinates of CCCS origin of map |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. designator of element
3. friendly/enemy indicator
4. type of element
5. subtyp of element
6. latitude of element
7. longitude of element
8. range ring radius |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. page number
3. number of line aailable for composition or reception
4. JTIDS automatic hardcopy indicator
5. message number
6. message keep/delete indicator
7. message transmission/reception indicator
8. message receive/transmit indicator
9. TADIL-J/IJMS transmitted/received indicator
10. TADIL-J/IJMS facility designator or TN/SRN of track or "ALL" if message sent to all facilities
11. number of lines in message
12. number of characters in message |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Page number
3. PPLI exercise transmission indicator
4. TADIL-J enables indicator
5. upper bound TADIL-J track numbers used by local E3
6. lower bound TADIL-J track numbers used by local E3
7. equate TN/SRN/DLRN enabled/disables indicator
8. upper bound IJMS track numbers used by local E3
9. lower bound IJMS track numbers used by local E3
10. IJMS enabled indicator
11. NATO track number root for local E3
12. upper bound TADIL-A track numbers used by local E3
13. lower bound TADIL-A track numbers used by local E3
14. TADIL-A enabled indicator
15. TADIL-A communications security status
16. TADIL-A transmission spped indicator
17. TADIL-A DLRP
18. TADIL-A gridlock reference unit
19. TADIL-J track quality control indicator
20. track designator root for local E3
21. facility designator
22. participating unit/subscriber number
23. preferred net override indicator
25. TADIL-A DNCS/Simulation indicator
26, 27, 28. Change data authority
29. PDS command authority control reception & transmission of PDS strobe request message
30. I=IJMS PDS command authority Blank= No IJMS Command Authority or not assigned on IJMS
31. Automatic decorrelation status
32. ID-difference restriction
34. Mode 2 code restriction
35. correlation message automatic transmission
36, 37. Lower and Upper bound of th local E3 TADIL-J reference number (TN) block 2
38. TADIL-J facility auto-populate function |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Autoatic full scan indicator
3. azimuth correction indicator
4. residual value of azimuth error
5. number of available local track channels
6. number of available RCT channels
7. number of available flight plan channels
8. number of available simulation channels
9. number of available crosstold track chennels
10. scan rate
11. number of tentative tracks
12. number of ATI tracks
13. PTC indicator
14. Automatic track initiation status
15. simulation indicator
16. deleted
17. deleted
18. system M availability indicator
19. recording specification table indicator
20. PDS status
21. PDS activity status
22. Maritime symbol for BTH report display
23. AFO capability enabled indicator
24. relief handover status
25. TADIL-A subchannel status
26. JTIDS subchannel status
27. deleted
28. flight plan subfunction
29. SIF ID subfunction
30. PDS ID subfunction
31. SIF heading/SIF time subfunction field header
32. SIF heading/SIF time subfunction
33. IDBO subfunction
34. MODE 4 subfunction
35. SIF ID subfunction
36 Mode 5 subfunction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TD ID
2. Page number
3. Track indentifier of track in No Tell status |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Type of PDS Bearing Wedge
3. Air PDS emitters selected for inclusion in PDS Bearing Wedge SD
4. Surface PDS Emitters selected for inclusion
5. Ground PDS Emitters selected for inclusion
6. Unknown PDS Emitters selected for inclusion
7. Ambiguous/Unambiguous PDS Emitters selected for inclusion in PDS Bearing Wedge SD
8. Correlated/Uncorrelated PDS Emitters selected for inclusion in PDS ring SD
9. Starting azimuth of PDS Bearing Wedge SD
10. Ending azimuth of PDS Bearing Wedge SD
12Augmented Data selection indicator
13. Triangulation display selection indicator
14. PDS Emitter priority thresehold
15. PDS library hierarchy selection
16. Reported site filter (PDS Site SD)
17. PDS Site SD priority filter
18. PDS Site SD library hierarchy selection
19. Lower frequency fo PDS Bearing Wedge
20. Upper frequency for PDS Bearing Wedge
21. TSF MEZ SD display indicator |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Air PDS Emitters selected for inclusion in PDS Ring and Bearing Wedge SD
3. Surface PDS Emitters selected for inclusion in PDS Bearing Wedge SD
4. Ground PDS Emitters selected for inclusion in PDS Bearing Wedge SD
6. Ambig/Unambig PDS Emitters selected for inclusion in Ring SD
7. Correlated/uncorr. PDS Emitters selected for inclusion in PDS Ring SD
8. PDS Emitter priority threshold
9. Distance which crosstold Emitter lines-of-bearing start from remote facility
10. Distance of radius of PDS Ring SD
11. Distance from E3 where lines-of-bearing for PDS Bearing Wedge terminate
12. Augmented data selection indicator
13. Triangulation display selection indicator |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Page Number
3. Report number assigned by the PDS
4. Threat/missile indicator
5. identity tag
6. live/sim PDS indicator
7. Primary Emitter indicator
8. track identifier of associated track
9. Reported frequency for this emitter
10. Environment indicator
11. track identifier fo this emittor if being told on and of the communications nets
12. Triangulation reference number indicator
13. Reported Pulse Repetition Interval
14. PRI measurement limited execeeded indicator
15. Bearing of report from E3
16. Modulation code
17. reported PRF for this Emitter
20. Tactical site file index number or validated PDS site entry number
21. feild 18 data type
22. Reported pulse width for this emitter
23. Frequency mismatch indicator
24. Over Dynamic Range indicator
25. Time since last update
26. First report indicator
27. Scan period reported for this emitter
28. Scan period measurement indicator
29. Locked entry indicator
30. Emitter location status indicator
31. Emitter motion indicator
32. PDS Site validation status
33. Reported priority of emitter
34. Maximum ID score possible for AEF
35. Circular Error of Probability
36. Emitter name of the most likely Emitters as determined by the PDS subsystem using library data
37. Emitter ID override indicator
38. ELNOT of the most likely Emitters
39. Emitter function
40. SLIK signature mode of indicator
41. Emitter identification score
42. Excess Emitter identification flag
43. If PDS subsystem is perfoming triangulation on Emitter
44. Tactical Site File title
45. E3 Lat/Long at time of Emitter's detection
46. Environment selections for most likely emitter. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Page number
3. Emitter name
4. Emitter hierarchy reference
5. Emitter function code
6. Threat indicator
7. Identification
8. Environment
9. ELNOT
10. SPOT
11. Emitter mode identifier
12. Number of modes in library for Emitter type
13. Search strategy inclusion
14. Wanted/Unwanted indicator for mode
15. Emitter mode priority
16. Automatic triangulation priority indicator
17. Psoition symbol code
18. Modulation type
19. AOCP/ESMS database inconsistency indicator
27. Automatic scan period analysis for mode
30. SLIK support indicator
31. Radius of MEZ range ring associated with this emitter |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Page number
3. Live/Sim PDS platform indicator
4. Identity tag
5. Threat/missile indicator
6. Report number assigned by PDS subsystem
7. Track identifier of associated track
8. Primary emitter indicator
9. Environment indicator
10. Reference number of emitter if being told
11. Triangulation Reference number of emitter if being told
12. bearing of report from E3
13. locked entry indicator
14. emitter location status
15. Emitter motion indicator
16. PDS Site validation status
17. Time since last update
18. TSF index # or validated PDS Site Entry
19. Field 18 data type
20. Data Type for Field 21
21. Hierarchical parent of Library entry associated Emitter or TSF title depending on field 20
22. Emitter name of most likely emitters
23. Emitter identification override indicator
24. Reported priority of Emitter
25. Excesss Emitter ID flag
26. Location of Primary emitter |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Platform reference number
3. Environment indicator
4. Identification
5. Threat indicator
6. Platform name
7. Hierarchy reference
8. Search strategy inclusion indicator
9. Wanted/Unwanted indicator
10. priority
11. AOCP/ESMS database inconsistency indicator
12. mission engagement zone for longest range weapon on platform
13. cruise speed
14. recommended platform identity
15. position symbol code
16. status of field 17
17. associated name as indicated in field 16 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Page Number
3. Live/Sim PDS Platform indicator
4. Identity tag
5. Threat/missile indicator
6. report number assigned by PDS subsystem
7. track identifier of associated track
8. Primary emitter indicator
9. Environment indicator
10. Identity
11. Bearing of report
12. Locked Emitter indicator
13. Emitter location status
14. Emitter motion indicator
15. PDS site validation status
16. Time since last update
17. Total number of Emitter utilized by PDS subsystem to identify platform
18. Data type for Field 19
19. Hierarchical parent of library entry associated with platform or TSF title
20. Platform name of most-likely platforms as determined by PDS, operator, or TSF
21. Platform identification override indicator
22. Associated priority of most likely platform
23. Least probable platform candidate
24. Excess Platform ID flag
25. If PDS subsystem performing triangulation on primary Emitter associated with platform or if primary emitter is in TSF, then field 25 is Bearing/range from Zody point |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. page number
3. type of PDS ring
4. Air PDS Emitters selected for inclusion in PDS Ring SD
5. Surface PDS Emitters selected for inclusion in PDS Ring SD
6. Ground PDS Emitters selected for inclusion in PDS Ring SD
7. Unknonw PDS Emitters selected for includsion in PDS ring SD
8. Ambiguous/Unambig. PDS Emitters
9. Correlated/Uncorrelated PDS Emitters selected for inclusion in PDS ring SD
10. Starting Azimuth of PDS Ring
11. Ending azimuth of PDS Ring SD
12. Azimuthal increment at which PDS ring SD data is displayed
13. Distance from E3 where PDS Ring SD data is to be displayed
14. Augmented Data Selection indicator. Augmented data includes Platform/Emitter name, PDS report #, both, or neither
15. Triangulation display selection indiator
16. PDS Emitter Priority thrreshold 1-16
17. PDS Emitter/Platform library name selection
18. Lower Freq for PDS Ring Highlight
19. Upper freq for PDS Ring Highlight
20. PDS Emitter/Platform Library Name Specification for PDS Highlight SD |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. PDS background priority
3. PDS sector number
4. if PDS sector is fixed, then bearing/range from Zody point or coordinates
5. If fixed PDS sector, then radius of circular sector
6. AZS displayed if not a fixed PDS sector
7. Start azimuth displayed if not a fixed PDS sector
8. AZE displayed if not a fixed PDS sector
9. End azimuth displayed if not a fixed PDS sector
10. PDS triangulation alert processing indicator
11. Automatic triangulation priority indicator
12. PDS sector priority |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Participating Unit number
3. Facility designator
4. heading
5. altitude(onboard sensors)
6. ground speed
7. roll direction
8. roll angle
9. pitch direction
10. Pitch Angle
11/12. Bearing/range from Zody Point or coordinates
13. magnetic heading
14. Geodetic position quality |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Starting azimuth
3. Ending azimuth
4. Sector number
7. Console intercom number
5. Subsector number
6. Subsector type
8/9/10. Hard limit peak percentage
11. Load management threshold
12/13/14. hard limit deleted tgts
15. Load management threshold adjustment
16. Pulse range priority
17. Pulse target size priority
18. Doppler range priority
19. Doppler target priority
20. Range rate priority
21. Alternate pulse range priority
22. Alternate pulse target size priority
23. Alternate Doppler range priority
24. Alternate Doppler target size priority
25. Alternate range rate priority
26. Pulse range limit
28. Doppler range limit
27. Pulse target size limit
29. Doppler target size limit
30. Range rate upper limit
31. Range rate lower limit
32. Pulse range deleted targets
33. Pulse target size delete targets
34. Doppler range deleted targets
35. Doppler target size deleted tgts
36. Range rate deleted targets
37. Current scan number
38. Scan limit
39. Pulse range sense of test
40. Pulse target size sense of test
41. Doppler target size sense of test
42. Doppler target size sense of test
43. Range rate sense of test
44. Sector/Subsector thresehold warning SD limit |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Page Number
3. Airbase ICAO designator or CCCS
4. WT track designator or VCS
5. Squadron designator if available
6. Status
7. Home/recovery base ICAO
8. Aircraft type
9. Fuel configuration
10. Mode 2 SIF code
11. Datalink type
12. JTIDS terminal address if available |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. RCT track designator
3. Target/mission or combat heading for non-targeted missions
4. Command heading
5. Command altitude
6. Command speed
7/8/9. Override indicator
10/11/12/13/14. Remaining Air-to-Air Armament
15. Mode 1 code
16. Mode 2 code
17. Mode 3 code
18. Primary armament
19. Mission indicator
20. Mode control indicator |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Target/mission or CAP-specified heading
3. RCT Track Designator
4. RCT aircraft type
5. Command turn indicator
6. Command heading to mission objective
7. Bearing from RCT to target
8. Range from RCT to target
9. Aspect angle of target relative to RCT
10. Aspect Angle direction
11. Target heading
12. Target altitude
13. Target speed
14. RCT heading
15. RCT altitude
16. Speed
17. Mode control indicator
18. Target TN tell indicator |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Source track number
3. Flight lead designator
4. TKD
5. Voice callsign as reported in PPLI
6. Specific type/aircraft type
7. Altitude
8. Control Mode
9. Accept sensor data from RCT indicator
10. Operational capability
11. E3 Mission Assignment of subject a/c to mission
12. Target TN of mission assignment
13. Compliance indication for WT
14. radar status
15. Current situation info from target
16. Data source for tgt sorting message
17. target TN primary engagement
18. Lock-on indictor
19. Network status indicator
20. Current situation info from message
21. Data source for target sorting message
22. target TN of secondary engagement reported by the WT
23. Lock-on indicator
24. WT own reported geodetic position quality
25/29/31/35. Number of armnament
26/30/32/36. Type of armnament
27. Fuel state reported by link-16 equipped RCT
28. Fuel note staleness
33. RWR status
34. Television status
37. IR search and Track status
38. gun status
39. Laser status
40. IFF Mode 4 status
41. Mode 5 correlation indicator |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. RCT indentifier
3. Facility designator of unit reporting the RCT
4. Operation status
5. Type of aircraft
6/7. Armament type
8/9. Number of armament units
10. Engagement status
11. Gun capability
12. Fuel on board
13. Type of fuel
14. Time of report |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Page number
3. TKD of weapons track for which target reports are listed
4. ID authority status
5. Pseudo local track tell status
6. TADIL-J track number of each target
7. Target report identity. on the one character ID is shown
8. Status received in target sorting message |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. TKD/VCS of Weapons track
3. Track identifier of primary target
4. Engagement activity for primary target
5. Bearing from WT to primary target
6. Range from WT to primary target
7. Track identifier of secondary target
8. Engagement activity for secondary target
9. bearing from WT to secondary target
10. Range from WT to secondary target |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Target count/raid size
3. first track designator
4. crosstold track/special point indicator
5. simulation indicator
6. second track designator
7. PDS association indicator
8. EW/I data indicator
9. Heading
10. Barometric altitude/elevation
11. Altitude source
12. Ground speed
13/14/15. Telling net indicator for special points/tracks
16/17/18. Facility designator responsible for reporting track
19. Track catagory
20. track identity/facility type
21. Duplicate crosstold channel indicator
22. Unit capability
23. remote track quality type
24. remote track quality on track ased on either TADIL-A or J
25. Mode 1 Code
26. Mode 2 Code
27. Mode 3 Code
28. Mode 4 SIF evaluation
29. Passive/active indicator for tracks and facilities
30. Local track quality type
31. Local track quality on track based on TADIL-A/J
32. TN of that track for emergency special points if a track was specified in the init
33. Surface tracks only
34. Surface tracks only
35. Time
36. Warhead type
37. Warhead type confidence
38. Tn in field 39 indicates a launch point or launch point error area
39. TN of launch point or Launch point Error Area associated with balistic missile track
40. TN in field 41 indicated impact point or impact point error area
41. TN of impact point or impact point error area associated with ballistic missile track
42. Boost phase indicator
43. TN of Missile Launcher track associated with ballistic missile track or launch point
44. Lost track indicator
45. Time
46. Time
47. TN of ballistic missile track associated with launch/impact point or missile launcher point
48. Time function
49. time hours minutes seconds
50. Coordinates
51. Page number
52. Extended precision data availability
53. Battle Damage Assessment status
54. TADIL-J area indicator
55. Land point ID difference/Change data report identity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Page Number
3. First track designator
4. PPLI IFF/SIF indicator
5. Estimated # of personnel requiring CSAP in connection with emergency special pt
6. Force/Emergency Tell status
7. Track identifier
8. PPLI track number and identity indicator
9. Strength, total number of vehicles
10. Strength, percent of tracked vehicles
11. Elevation for land/ground point
12. Latitude for surface point
13. Longitude for surface point
14. Latitude for a TADIL-J point
15. Longitude for a TADIL-J point |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Page number
3. refueling anchor or track SD designator
4. Anchor track indicator
5. refueling anchor or track SD remarks |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Line texture
3. restricted area open closed status
4. restricted area designator
5. remarks
6. restricted area end-point coordinates |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Error indicator
3. Thermal override selecion update
5. IPF reset selection update
7. NAV reset selection update
9. Net Entry Reset selection update
11. Start net entry reset selection update
4. Thermal override selection
6. IPF reset selection
8. NAV reset selection
10. Net entry reset selection
12. Start net entry reset selection
13. J-Voice Channel A
14. J-Voice Channel A
15. J-Voice Channel B
16. J-Voice Channel B
17. Control Channel present selection
18. Control Channel selection update
19. AOCP refresh action selection
20. Initialization from AOCP action selection |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Sector number
3. Console intercom number
4. Start azimuth
5. Ending azimuth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Page number
3. STOPR point designator
4. latitude and longitude of STOPR point location |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. IFF operational/standby indicator
3. Console intercom number
4. Sector number 1-4
5. Subsector number 1-7
6. Subsector type
7. Starting azimuth
8. Ending azimuth
9. IFF option
10. Modes for interrogation
11. Mode 4 command
12. Mode C command
13. Test indicator
14. Gain Time Control indicator
15. Receiver Sidelobe suppress indicator
16. noise alarm indicator
17. power level
19. IFF blanking indicator
20. Strobe threshold
21. blanking range
22. Mode 5 command status |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Sector number
3. Sebsector Number
4. Sebsector Type
5. Starting azimuth
6. Ending azimuth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. TDID
2. Page number
3. Dictionary number
4. 22 Line Indicator
5. Name of TD
6. Menu input |
|
|
