Shared Flashcard Set

Details

IS 1403 Final Exam
Chapters 1-12
448
Other
Undergraduate 3
05/03/2016

Additional Other Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term

T/F

 

Advances in data storage have made routine violation of individual privacy more difficult.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

The last step in analyzing an ethical issue should be to identify the stakeholders-people who have a vested interest in the outcome of the decision.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

Privacy is the right to be left alone when you want to be, without surveillance or interference from other individuals or organizations.

 

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Spyware is software that comes hidden in downloaded applications and can track your online movements.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Trade secret law does not protect the actual ideas in a work product.

 

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

Copyright is the legal protection afforded intellectual property, such as a song, book, or video game.

 

 

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

The drawback to copyright protection is that the underlying ideas behind the work are not protected, only their reproduction in a product.

 

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

According to the courts, the creation of software, unique concepts, general functional features, and even colors are protectable by copyright law.

 

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

The key concepts in patent law are originality, novelty, and value.

 

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

Despite the passage of several laws defining and addressing computer crime, accessing a computer system without authorization is not yet a federal crime.

 

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

Any unsolicited email is legally considered spam.

 

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

The most common type of computer-related RSI is carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS).

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Technostress is computer-related malady whose symptoms include fatigue.

Definition

 

True

Term

Which of the following best describes how new information systems result in legal grey areas?

A. They work with networked, electronic data, which are more difficult to control than information stored manually.

B. They result in new situations that are not covered by old laws.

C. They are implemented by technicians rather than managers.

D. They are created from sets of logical and technological rules rather than social or organizational mores.

Definition

 

B. They result in new situations that are not covered by old laws.

Term

The introduction of new information technology has a:

 

A. Dampening effect on the discourse of business ethics.

B. Ripple effect, raising new ethical, social, and political issues.

C. Beneficial effect for society as a whole, while raising dilemmas for consumers.

D. Waterfall effect in raising ever more complex ethical issues.

Definition

 

B. Ripple effect, raising new ethical, social, and political issues.

Term

In the information age, the obligations that individuals and organizations have concerning rights to intellectual property fall within the moral dimension of:

A. property rights and obligations

B. system quality

C. accountability and control

D. information rights and obligations

Definition

 

A. property rights and obligations

Term

In the information age, the obligations that individuals and organizations have regarding the preservation of existing values and institutions fall within the moral dimension of:

A. family and home

B. property rights and obligations

C. system quality

D. quality of life

 

Definition

 

D. quality of life

Term

Which of the five moral dimensions of the information age do the central business activities of ChoicePoint raise?

 

A. property rights and obligations

B. system quality

C. accountability and control

D. information rights and obligations

 

Definition

 

D. information rights and obligations

Term

NORA is a:

 

A. profiling technology used by the EU.

B. federal privacy law protecting networked data.

C. new data analysis technology that finds hidden connections between data in disparate sources.

D. sentencing guideline adopted in 1987 mandating stiff sentences on business executives.

 

Definition

 

C. new data analysis technology that finds hidden connections between data in disparate sources.

Term

Which of the following is NOT one of the five steps discussed in Chapter 4 as a process for analyzing an ethical issue?

 

A. assign responsibility

B. identify stakeholders

C. identify the options you can reasonably take

D. identify and clearly describe the facts

Definition

 

A. assign responsibility

Term

A colleague of yours frequently takes for his own personal use small amounts of office supplies noting that the loss to the company is minimal. You counter that if everyone were to take office supplies the loss would no longer be minimal. Your rationale expresses which historical ethical principle?

A. Kant's Categorical Imperative

B. The Golden Rule

C. The Risk Aversion Principle

D. The 'no free lunch' rule

Definition

 

A. Kant's Categorical Imperative

Term

A classic ethical dilemma is the hypothetical case of a man stealing from a grocery store in order to feed his straving family. If you used the utilitarian principle to evaluate this situation, you might agree that stealing the food is:

A. acceptable because the grocer suffers the least harm

B. acceptable because the higher value is the survival of the family

C. wrong because the man wouldn't want the grocer to steal from him

D. wrong because if everyone were to do this, the concept of personal property is defeated

Definition

 

B. acceptable because the higher value is the survival of the family

Term

Immanuel Kant's Categorical Imperative states that:

 

A. if an action cannot be taken repeatedly, then it is not right to be taken at all.

B. one should take the action that produces the least harm or incurs the least cost.

C. one can put values in rank order and understand the consequences of various course of action.

D. if an action is not right for everyone to take, it is not right for anyone to take.

Definition

 

D. if an action is not right for everyone to take, it is not right for anyone to take.

Term

The ethical 'no free lunch' rule states that:

 

A. if an action cannot be taken repeatedly, then it is not right to be taken at any time.

B. one should take the action that produces the least harm or incurs the least cost.

C. one can put values in rank order and understand the consequences of various course of action.

D. everything is owned by someone else, and that the creator wants compensation for this work.

Definition

 

D. everything is owned by someone else, and that the creator wants compensation for this work.

Term

According to _____, you should take the action that produces the least harm.

 

A. Categorical Imperative

B. Risk Aversion Principle

C. Utilitarian Principle

D. Golden Rule

Definition

 

B. Risk Aversion Principle

Term

Which U.S. act restrics the information the federal government can collect and regulates what they can do with the information?

 

A. Privacy Act of 1974

B. Gamm-Leach-Bliley Act of 1999

C. Freedom of Information Act

D. HIPAA of 1996

Definition

 

A. Privacy Act of 1974

Term

FIP Principles are based on the notion of the:

 

A. accountability of the record holder

B. responsibility of the record holder

C. mutuality of interest between the record holder and the individual

D. privacy of the individual

 

Definition

 

C. mutuality of interest between the record holder and the individual

Term

The Federal Trade Commission FIP principle of Notice/Awareness states that:

 A. customers must be allowed to choose how their information will be used for secondary purposes other than the supporting transaction.

B. data collectors must take responsible steps to assure that consumer information is accurate and secure from unauthorized use.

C. there is a mechanism in place to enforce FIP principles.

D. Web sites must disclose their information practices before collecting data. 

Definition

 

D. Web sites must disclose their information practices before collecting data.

 

Term

Which of the following U.S. laws gives patients access to personal medical records and the right to authorize how this information can be used or disclosed?

 

A. HIPAA

B. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

C. Privacy Protection Act

D. Freedom of Information Act

Definition

 

A. HIPAA

Term

European privacy protection is _____ than in the United States.

 

A. less far reaching

B. less liable to laws

C. much less stringent

D. much more stringent

Definition

 

D. much more stringent

Term

U.S. businesses are allowed to use personal data from EU countries if they:

 

A. have informed consent

B. create a safe harbor

C. develop equivalent privacy protection policies 

D. make their privacy protection policies publicly available

Definition

 

C. develop equivalent privacy protection policies

Term

When a cookie is created during a Web site visit, it is stored:

 

A. on the web site computer

B. on the visitor's computer

C. on the ISP's computer

D. in a web directory

Definition

 

B. on the visitor's computer

Term

The Online Privacy Alliance:

 

A. encourages self regulation to develop a set of privacy guidelines for its members.

B. protects user privacy during interactions with Web sites.

C. has established technical guidelines for ensuring privacy.

D. is a government agency regulating the use of customer information

Definition

 

A. encourages self regulation to develop a set of privacy guidelines for its members.

Term

A(n) ______ model of informed consent permits the collection of personal information until the consumer specifically requests that the data not be collected.

 

A. opt-in

B. opt-out

C. P3P

D. PGP

Definition

 

B. opt-out

Term

The limitation of trade secret protection for software is that it is difficult to prevent the ideas in the work from falling into the public domain when:

 

A. the courts become involved

B. hackers are able to break into the source

C. the software is widely distributed

D. a new version of the software is released

Definition

 

C. the software is widely distributed

Term

Intellectual property can best be described as:

 

A. intangible property created by individuals or corporations.

B. unique creative work or ideas.

C. tangible or intangible property created from a unique idea.

D. the expression of an intangible idea.

Definition

 

A. intangible property created by individuals or corporations.

Term

What legal mechanism protects the owners of intellectual property from having their work copied by others?

 

A. Patent protection

B. Intellectual property law

C. Copyright law

D. Fair Use Doctrine

Definition

 

C. Copyright law

Term

'Look and feel' copyright infringement lawsuits are concerned with:

 

A. the distinction between tangible and intangible ideas

B. the distintcion between an idea and its expression

C. using the graphical elements of another product

D. using the creative elements of another product

Definition

 

B. the distinction between an idea and its expression

Term

The strength of patent protection is that it:

 

A. puts the strength of the law behind copyright

B. allow protection from Internet theft of ideas put forth publicly

C. is easy to define

D. grants a monopoly of underlying concepts and ideas

Definition

 

D. grants a monopoly of underlying concepts and ideas

Term

One of the drawbacks of patent protections is:

 

A. that only the underlying ideas are protected

B. digital media cannot be patented

C. preventing the ideas from falling into public domain

D. the years of waiting to receive it

Definition

 

D. the years of waiting to receive it

Term

Which of the following adjusts copyright laws to the Internet age by making it illegal to circumvent technology-based protections of copyrighted materials?

 

A. Digital Millennium Copyright Act

B. Privacy Act

C. Freedom of Information Act

D. Electronic Communications Privacy Act

Definition

 

A. Digital Millennium Copyright Act

Term

_______ are not held liable for the messages they transmit.

 

A. Regulated common carriers

B. Private individuals

C. Organizations and businesses

D. Elected officials

Definition

 

A. Regulated common carriers

Term

It is not feasible for companies to produce error-free software because:

 

A. any programming code is susceptible to error

B. it is too expensive to create perfect software

C. errors can be introduced in the maintenance stage of development

D. any software of any complexity will have errors

Definition

 

B. it is too expensive to create perfect software

Term

The most common source of business system failure is:

 

A. software bugs

B. software erros

C. hardware or facilities failures

D. data quality

 

Definition

 

D. data quality

Term

Flash cookies are different from ordinary cookies in that they:

 

A. are installed only at the user's request

B. are not stored on the user's computer

C. cannot be easily detected or deleted

D. monitor the user's behavior at a web site

Definition

 

C. cannot be easily detected or deleted

Term

The 'do anything anywhere' computing environment can:

 

A. make work environments much more pleasant

B. create economies of efficiency

C. centralize power at corporate headquarters

D. blur the traditional boundaries between work and family time

Definition

 

D. blur the traditional boundaries between work and family time

Term

The practice of spamming has been growing because:

 

A. telephone solicitation is no longer legal

B. it is good advertising practice and brings in many new customers

C. it helps pay for the internet

D. it is so inexpensive and can reach so many people

Definition

 

D. it is so inexpensive and can reach so many people

Term

The U.S. CAN-SPAM Act of 2003:


A) makes spamming illegal.

B) requires spammers to identify themselves.

C) has dramatically cut down spamming.

D) does not override state anti-spamming laws.

Definition

 

B. requires spammers to identify themselves

Term

Which of the five moral dimensions of the information age does spamming raise?


A) Quality of life

B) System quality

C) Accountability and control

D) Information rights and obligations

Definition

 

A. quality of life

Term

Re-designing and automating business processes can be seen as a double-edged sword because:


A) increases in efficiency may be accompanied by job losses.

B) increases in efficiency may be accompanied by poor data quality.

C) support for middle-management decision making may be offset by poor data quality.

D) reliance on technology results in the loss of hands-on knowledge.

 

Definition

 

A. increases in efficiency may be accompanied by job losses

Term

The term "________ divide" refers to large disparities in access to computers and the Internet among different social groups and different locations.

A) computer

B) technology

C) digital

D) electronic

Definition

 

C. digital

Term

CVS refers to:


A) eyestrain related to computer display screen use.

B) carpal vision syndrome.

C) wrist injuries brought about by incorrect hand position when using a keyboard.

D) stress induced by technology.

Definition

 

A. eyestrain related to computer display screen use

Term

________ can be induced by tens of thousands of repetitions under low-impact loads.


A) CTS

B) CVS

C) RSI

D) Technostress

Definition

 

C. RSI

Term

T/F

 

The principles of right and wrong that can be used by individuals to make choices to guide their behavior are called morals.

Definition

 

False

Term

Advertisers use ________ in order to display more relevant ads based on user's search and browsing history.


A) behavioral targeting

B) web bugs

C) NORA

D) intelligent agents

Definition

 

A. behavioral targeting

Term

Descartes' rule of change, that if an action cannot be taken repeatedly, it is not right to take at all, is also known as:

 

A) the slippery-slope rule.

B) the lemming rule.

C) high-failure cost rule.

D) the utilitarian principle.

Definition

 

A. the slippery-slope rule

Term

T/F

 

Liability refers to the existence of laws that permit individuals to recover damages done to them by other actors, systems, or organizations.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

The Utilitarian Principle asks you to put yourself in the place of others, and think of yourselef as the object of the decision.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

Safe harbor is informal permission to reuse data given with the knowledge of all the facts needed to make a rational decision.

 

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

A web beacon is a tiny object embedded in email messages and web pages that is designed to monitor online Internet user behavior.

 

Definition

 

True

Term

The ________ model prohibits an organization from collecting any personal information unless the individual specifically takes action to approve information collection and use.


A) safe harbor

B) opt-in

C) FIP

D) P3P

Definition

 

B. opt-in

Term

 A(n) ________ grants the owner an exclusive monopoly on the ideas behind an invention for 20 years.


A) copyright

B) trademark

C) patent

D) trade secret

Definition

 

C. patent

Term

T/F

 

The commission of acts involving the computer that may not be illegal but are considered unethical is called computer abuse.

 

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

IT infrastructure is the set of physical devices required to operate the entire enterprise.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

Today, most system and application software is custom built by in-house programmers.

 

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

One aspect of systems integration refers to ensuring that legacy systems work with new elements of the infrastructure.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Client/server computing is the most widely used form of centralized processing.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

Application server software is responsible for locating and managing stored Web pages.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

In cloud computing, rapid elasticity refers to the ability of computing resources to be quickly altered to meet demand.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

A computer language translation program is an example of system software.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Hypertext markup language (HTML) specifies how text, graphics, video, and sound are placed on a document.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Web services can exchange information between two different systems regardless of the operating system of programming languages on which the systems are based.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

The collection of Web services that are used to build a firm's software system constitutes what is known as a service-oriented architecture.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

SaaS providers deliver and provide Web-based, remote access to storage.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

Allowing departments to make their own software and hardware purchases increases efficiency and minimizes the need for centralized support.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

Total cost of ownership components includes cost for downtime, training, and support.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Software localization refers to the entire process of converting software to operate in a second language.

Definition

 

True

Term

In a(n) ________ computing model, companies use their own infrastructure for essential computing tasks and adopt public cloud computing for less critical operations or additional processing during peak business periods.


A) scalable

B) quantum

C) autonomic

D) hybrid cloud

Definition

 

D. hybrid cloud

Term

Software that manages the resources of the computer is called:


A) system software.

B) application software.

C) data management software.

D) network software.

Definition

 

A. system software

Term

Software used to apply the computer to a specific task for an end user is called:


A) system software.

B) application software.

C) data management software.

D) network software

Definition

 

B. application software

Term

Software that organizes, manages, and processes business data, such as data concerned with inventory, customers, and vendors, is called:


A) system software.

B) application software.

C) data management software.

D) network software.

Definition

 

C. data management software

Term

Legacy systems are still in use today because:


A) they can only be run on the older mainframe computers.

B) they are too expensive to redesign.

C) many integrate well using new Web services technologies.

D) they contain valuable data that would be lost during redesign.

Definition

 

B. they are too expensive to redesign

Term

) Which of the following types of computer is used for weather forecasting?


A) Mainframe

B) Server

C) Minicomputer

D) Supercomputer

Definition

 

D. supercomputer

Term

Connecting geographically remote computers in a single network to create a "virtual supercomputer" is called:


A) co-location.

B) cloud computing.

C) grid computing.

D) autonomic computing.

Definition

 

C. grid computing

Term

In client/server computing, the client is:


A) the computer that acts as the user point of entry.

B) the location of the bulk of the processing.

C) software program used for logging on to the network.

D) the computer that firsts asks for services.

Definition

 

A. the computer that acts as the user point of entry

Term

Which of the following storage technology stores data sequentially?

 

A. CD-ROM

B. RAID

C. Magnetic disks

D. Magnetic tape

 

Definition

 

D. Magnetic tape

Term

A high speed network dedicated to storage that connects different kinds of storage devices, such as tape libraries and disk arrays so they can be shared by multiple servers, best describes:

 

A. SSN

B. ASP

C. LAN (local area network)

D. SAN (storage area network)

Definition

 

D. SAN (storage area network)

Term

What type of device gathers data and converts them into electronic form for use by the computer?

 

A. output device

B. input device

C. optical storage

D. magnetic storage

Definition

 

B. input device

Term

Which of the following devices collects data directly from the environment for input into a computer system?

 

A. sensor

B. touch screen

C. audio input

D. trackball

Definition

 

A. sensor

Term

Which of the following is NOT a type of output device?

 

A. speakers

B. cathode ray tube

C. ink jet printer

D. keyboard

Definition

 

D. keyboard

Term

Virtualization:


A) allows one operating system to manage several physical machines. (allows one physical machine to run more than one operating system)

B) has enabled microprocessor manufacturers to reduce the size of transistors to the width of an atom.

C) can boost server utilization rates to 70% or higher.

D) allows smartphones to run full-fledged operating systems.

Definition

 

C. can boost server utilization rates to 70% or higher

Term

Which of the following statements is not true about cloud computing?


A) It consists of three types of services: cloud infrastructure, cloud platform, and cloud software.

B) It removes the concern about data and systems security for businesses.

C) It allows smaller firms to use resources previously unaffordable.

D) It relies on the Internet as the platform for delivering services to users.

Definition

 

B. It removes the concern about data and systems security for businesses.

Term

Purchasing computing power from a central computing service and paying only for the amount of computing power used is commonly referred to as:

 

A. grid computing

B. utility computing

C. client/server computing

D. autonomic computing

Definition

 

B. utility computing

Term

________ describes the practices and technologies used minimize the environmental effects of manufacturing and managing computing devices.


A) Capacity planning

B) Cloud computing

C) Green computing

D) Autonomic computing

Definition

 

C. Green computing

Term

An example of autonomic computing is:


A) virus protection software that runs and updates itself automatically.

B) software programmed to run on any hardware platform.

C) cell phones taking on the functions of handheld computers.

D) programming languages that allow non-programmers to create custom applications.

Definition

 

A. virus protection software that runs and updates itself automatically.

Term

An industry-wide effort to develop systems that can configure, optimize, tune, and heal themselves when broken, and protect themselves from outside intruders and self-destruction is called:


A) grid computing.

B) utility computing.

C) cloud computing.

D) autonomic computing.

Definition

 

D. autonomic computing

Term

The interactive, multiuser operating system developed by Bell Laboratories in 1969 to be highly supportive of communications and networking is:


A) UNIX.

B) Linux.

C) Mac OS.

D) COBOL.

Definition

 

A. UNIX

Term

Linux is:


A) primarily concerned with the tasks of end users.

B) designed for specific machines and specific microprocessors.

C) an example of open-source software.

D) especially useful for processing numeric data.

Definition

 

C. an example of open-source software

Term

The toy manufacturer you work for wants to exchange data with a chain of toy stores in order to improve their distribution and speed to market. The toy stores use different software than your firm. Which of the following tools or technologies presents the best solution?


A) Mashups

B) Extranet

C) Web services

D) Cloud computing

Definition

 

C. Web services

Term

Apps:


A) lower the cost of switching mobile platforms.

B) are an example of open-source software.

C) tie the user to a particular hardware platform.

D) require the user to have an online connection.

Definition

 

D. require the user to have an online connection

Term

Linux:


A) is a Windows-like operating system.

B) plays a major role in running Web servers and local area networks.

C) is the primary OS used in quantum computing.

D) is designed to support only UNIX computers.

Definition

 

A. is a Windows-like operating system

Term

ChicagoCrime.org, which combines Google Maps with crime data for the city of Chicago, is an example of:


A) cloud computing.

B) SOA.

C) a widget.

D) a mashup.

Definition

 

D. a mashup

Term

Software applications that combine different components of online software applications are referred to as:


A) integrated software.

B) widgets.

C) mashups.

D) grid computing.

Definition

 

C. mashups

Term

All of the following place strain on system capacity, except for:


A) increased number of users.

B) reduced response time for transaction processing. (if increased (faster) response time is required, it will stress the system.)

C) increased business volume.

D) large numbers of interactive Web pages.

Definition

 

B. reduced respone time for transaction processing

Term

Which of the following refers to the ability of a computer, product, or system to expand to serve a larger number of users without breaking down?


A) Modifiability

B) Scalability

C) Expandability 

D) Disintermediation

Definition

 

B. Scalability

Term

To analyze the direct and indirect costs and determine the actual cost of specific technology implementations, you would use a:


A) total cost of ownership model.

B) return on investment model.

C) break-even point.

D) cost benefit analysis.

Definition

 

A. total cost of ownership model

Term

Translating software to different languages is commonly referred to as:

 

A) software localization

B) scaling

C) service-oriented architecture

D) outsourcing

Definition

 

A. software localization

Term

T/F

 

Nanotechnology uses individual atoms and molecules to create computer chips and other devices that are thousands of times smaller than current technologies permit.

Definition

 

True

Term

A(n) ________ allows users to interact with a computer by using several fingers to perform gestures without using a mouse or keyboard.


A) GUI

B) multitouch interface

C) touch screen

D) interface

Definition

 

B. multitouch interface

Term

T/F

 

A software package for a maintenance usually requires an IT professional to install it.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Web browsers are the primary interface for accessing the Internet.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

XML provides a standard format for data exchange, enabling Web services to pass data from one process to another.

Definition

 

True

Term

________ is free software created and updated by a worldwide community of programmers.


A) An app

B) Open-source software

C) Cloud-based software

D) A Web service

Definition

 

B. open-source software

Term

You use ________ to predict when a computer hardware system becomes saturated.


A) capacity planning

B) virtualization

C) localization

D) measured service

Definition

 

A. capacity planning

Term

T/F

 

An SaaS provider maintains a large Web server, or series of servers, and provides fee-paying subscribers with space to maintain their Web sites.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

Web mining is the discovery of useful patterns on the Web.

 

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F 

 

A grouping of characters into a word, a group of words, or a complete number is called a record.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

Every record in a file should contain at least one key field.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F Both Oracle and Microsoft Access use SQL to retrieve information from the database.

 

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

DBMS simplify how end users work with databases by separating the logical and physical views of the data.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Most back-end databases are able to interpret HTML commands.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

Hadoop can process large quantities of any type of data, including video and Twitter feeds.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

A data warehouse may include information from legacy systems.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F 

 

A data warehouse is typically comprised of several smaller data marts.

 

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

OLAP is used to find hidden patterns and relationships in large databases, and infer rules from these to infer future behavior.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

A foreign key in a table of the database is a field that links to the primary key of another table.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

In-memory computing relies on a computer's main memory (RAM) for storing data.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

A firm's information policy lays out who is responsible for updating and maintaining the information in a database system.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

The use of different terms for identifying data in a firm's various information systems is an example of redundant data.

 

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

Data cleansing is the same process as data scrubbing.

Definition

 

True

Term

What is the first step you should take in managing data for a firm?


A) Identify the data needed to run the business

B) Cleanse the data before importing it to any database

C) Normalize the data before importing to a database

D) Audit your data quality

Definition

 

A) Identify the data needed to run the business.

Term

The type of logical database model that treats data as if they were stored in two-dimensional tables is the:

 

A) two-tiered DBMS

B) pre-digital DBMS

C) relational DBMS

D) hierarchical DBMS

Definition

 

C) relational DBMS

Term

In a table for customers, the information about a single customer would reside in a single:

 

A) field

B) row

C) column

D) table

Definition

 

B. row

Term

A field identified in a table as holding the unique identifier of the table's records is called the:


A) primary key.

B) key field.

C) primary field. 

D) foreign key

Definition

 

A. primary key

Term

A field identified in a table as holding the unique identifier for that record is called the:


A) primary key.

B) key field.

C) primary field

D) foreign key

Definition

 

B. key field

Term

The process of streamlining data to minimize redundancy and awkward many-to-many relationships is called:


A) normalization.

B) data scrubbing.

C) data cleansing.

D) data administration.

Definition

 

A. normalization

Term

A DBMS makes the:


A) physical database available for different logical views.

B) logical database available for different analytical views.

C) physical database available for different relational views.

D) relational database available for different physical views.

Definition

 

A. physical database availlable for different logical views.

Term

Which of the following is not a typical feature of DBMS?


A) Data manipulation language

B) Report generation tools

C) Data dictionary

D) Query wizard tool 

Definition

 

D. query wizard tool

Term

In clustering, a data mining tool will:


A) find new groupings within data.

B) find related predictions from existing values.

C) find several events grouped by time.

D) find new associations.

Definition

 

A. find new grouping within data

Term

MySQL is a:


A) DBMS for small handheld computing devices.

B) popular open-source DBMS.

C) mainframe relational DBMS.

D) DBMS for desktop systems.

Definition

 

B. popular open-source DBMS

Term

Data mining is more ________ than OLAP.


A) data focused

B) multidimensional

C) query oriented

D) discovery driven

Definition

 

D. discovery driven

Term

All of the following are tools or technologies for extracting information from unstructured data sets except:


A) sentiment analysis software.

B) SQL queries.

C) Hadoop.

D) Non-relational DBMS.

Definition

 

B. SQL queries

Term

The most prominent data manipulation language today is:


A) Access

B) DB2

C) SQL

D) Crystal Reports

Definition

 

C. SQL

Term

Which of the following statements about data warehouses is not true?


A) They store supply data to be used across the enterprise for management analysis and decision making.

B) Data warehouse systems provide a range of ad hoc and standardized query tools, analytical tools, and graphical reporting facilities.

C) They may include data from Web site transactions.

D) Data warehouse systems provide easy-to-use tools for managers to easily update data.

 

Definition

 

D. Data warehouse systems provide easy-to-use tools for managers to easily update data.

Term

A data mart usually can be constructed more rapidly and at lower cost than a data warehouse because:


A) it typically focuses on a single subject area or line of business.

B) all the information is historical.

C) it uses a Web interface.

D) all of the information belongs to a single company.

Definition

 

A. it typically focuses on a single subject area or line of business.

Term

Tools for consolidating, analyzing, and providing access to vast amounts of data to help users make better business decisions are known as:


A) DSS

B) business intelligence tools.

C) OLAP

D) data mining tools

Definition

 

B. business intelligence tools

Term

The tool that enables users to view the same data in different ways using multiple dimensions is:


A) Hadoop.

B) SQL.

C) OLAP.

D) data mining.

Definition

 

C) OLAP

Term

OLAP is a tool for enabling:


A) users to obtain online answers to ad hoc questions rapidly.

B) users to view both logical and physical views of data.

C) programmers to quickly diagram data relationships.

D) programmers to normalize data.

Definition

 

A. users to obtain online answers to ad hoc questions rapidly

Term

Data mining is a tool for allowing users to:


A) quickly compare transaction data gathered over many years.

B) find hidden relationships in data.

C) obtain online answers to ad hoc questions in a rapid amount of time.

D) summarize massive amounts of data into much smaller, traditional reports.

 

Definition

 

B. find hidden relationships in data

Term

In terms of the data relationships found by data mining, sequences refers to:


A) events linked over time.

B) patterns that describe a group to which an item belongs.

C) occurrences linked to a single event.

D) undiscovered groupings.

Definition

 

A. events linked over time

Term

Which of the following would you use to find patterns in user interaction data recorded by Web servers?


A) Web usage mining

B) Web server mining

C) Web structure mining

D) Web content mining

Definition

 

A. web usage mining

Term

Which of the following would you use to find out which Web sites with content related to database design were the most often linked to by other Web sites?

A) Web usage mining

B) Web server mining

C) Web structure mining

D) Web content mining

Definition

 

C. web structure mining

Term

Within a corporate information services department, the task of creating the physical database and its logical relations are responsibilities of the ________ function.

A) database administration

B) data administration

C) server administration

D) data modeling

Definition

 

A. database administration

Term

Businesses use ________ tools to search and analyze unstructured data sets, such as e-mails and memos.

A) Hadoop

B) Web mining

C) text mining

D) OLAP

Definition

 

C. text mining

Term

Detecting and correcting data in a database or file that are incorrect, incomplete, improperly formatted, or redundant is called:

A) data auditing.

B) defragmentation.

C) data scrubbing.

D) data optimization.

Definition

 

C. data scrubbing

Term

T/F

 

A DBMS is special software for creating, storing, organizing, and accessing data from a database.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

A physical view shows data as it is organized on the storage media.

Definition

 

 

True

Term

T/F

 

End users use a data manipulation language to add, edit, delete data in the database.

Definition

 

True

Term

Hadoop is a(n):

A) NoSQL database technology that stores both data and procedures acting on the data as objects.

B) data mining platform designed for storing and analyzing big data produced by Web communications and transactions.

C) open-source software framework designed for distributing data-processing over inexpensive computers.

D) pre-configured hardware-software system designed for analyzing big data.

Definition

 

C. open-source software framework designed for distributing data-processing over inexpensive computers.

Term

A data ________ stores current and historical data of potential interest to decision makers throughout the company.

A) warehouse

B) mart

C) archive

D) mine

Definition

 

A. warehouse

Term

A(n) ________ is a dedicated computer in a client/server environment that hosts a DBMS.

A) web server

B) application server

C) database server

D) client server

Definition

 

C. database server

Term

T/F

 

An information policy specifies the procedures and rules for defining the structure and content of corporate databases.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

Data administration is a special organizational function that manages the policies and procedures through which data can be managed as an organizational resource.

Definition

 

True

Term

A(n) ________ is a structured survey of the accuracy and level of completeness of the data in an information system.

A) data quality audit

B) systems analysis

C) systems audit

D) data analysis

Definition

 

A. data quality audit

Term

T/F

 

Increasinly, voice, video, and data communications are all mostly based on Internet technology.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

A network operating system (NOS) must reside on a dedicated server computer in order to manage a network.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

A hub is a networking device that connects network components and is used to filter and forward data to specified destinations on the network.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

In a client/server network, a network server provides every connected client with an address so it can be found on the network.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Central large mainframe computing has largely replaced client/server computing.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

Circuit switching makes much more efficient use of the communications capacity of a network than does packet switching.

Definition

 

 

 

False

Term

T/F

 

Two computers using TCP/IP can communicate even if they are based on different hardware and software platforms.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Coaxical cable is similar to that used for cable television and consists of thickly insulated copper wire.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

The number of cycles per second that can be sent through any telecommunications medium is measured in kilobytes.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

The domain name system (DNS) converts domain names to IP addresses.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

The domain name system (DNS) converts domain names to IP addresses.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

VoIP technology delivers voice information in digital form using packet switching.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

In a large company today, you will often find an infrastructire that includes hundreds of small LANs linked to each other as well as to corporate-wide networks.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology is being gradually replaced by less costly technologies such as Wireless Sensor Networks (WSNs).

Definition

 

False

Term

The device that acts as a connection point between computers and can filter and forward data to a specified destination is called a(n):

A) hub

B) switch

C) router

D) NIC

Definition

 

B. switch

Term

The method of slicing digital messages into parcels, transmitting them along different communication paths, and reassembling them at their destinations is called:

A) multiplexing.

B) packet switching.

C) packet routing.

D) ATM.

Definition

 

B. packet switching

Term

The telephone system is an example of a ________ network.

A) peer-to-peer

B) wireless

C) packet-switched

D) circuit-switched

Definition

 

D. circuit-switched

Term

Which of the following is not a characteristic of packet switching?

A) Packets travel independently of each other.

B) Packets are routed through many different paths.

C) Packet switching requires point-to-point circuits.

D) Packets include data for checking transmission errors.

Definition

 

C. packet switching requires point-to-point circuits.

Term

In TCP/IP, IP is responsible for:

A) disassembling and reassembling of packets during transmission.

B) establishing an Internet connection between two computers.

C) moving packets over the network.

D) sequencing the transfer of packets.

Definition

 

A. disassembling and reassembling of packets during transmission.

Term

In a telecommunications network architecture, a protocol is:

A) a device that handles the switching of voice and data in a local area network.

B) a standard set of rules and procedures for control of communications in a network.

C) a communications service for microcomputer users.

D) the main computer in a telecommunications network.

Definition

 

B. a standard set of rules and procedures for control of communications in a network

Term

To use the analog telephone system for sending digital data, you must also use:

A) a modem.

B) a router.

C) DSL.

D) twisted wire.

Definition

 

A. modem

Term

The "Internet of Things" refers to:

A) the increasing focus on shopping as the major user activity on the Internet.

B) the microblogging trend, in which users exchange short text and pictures rather than longer and more in-depth content and text.

C) a vision of a pervasive Web, in which common objects are connected to and controlled over the Internet.

D) the trend away from platform-independent Web applications to mobile-device specific apps.

Definition

 

C. a vision of a pervasive Web, in which common objects are connected to and controlled over the Internet.

Term

Which of the following is a challenge faced by Wi-Fi networks?

A) Lack of broadband support

B) Connectivity issues with wired LANs

C) Susceptibility to interference from nearby wireless systems

D) High cost of infrastructure technology

Definition

 

C. susceptibility to interference from nearby wireless systems

Term

Bandwidth is the:

A) number of frequencies that can be broadcast through a medium.

B) number of cycles per second that can be sent through a medium.

C) difference between the highest and lowest frequencies that can be accommodated on a single channel.

D) total number of bytes that can be sent through a medium per second.

Definition

 

C. difference between the highest and lowest frequencies that can be accomodated on a single channel

Term

Digital subscriber lines:

A) operate over existing telephone lines to carry voice, data, and video.

B) operate over coaxial lines to deliver Internet access.

C) are very-high-speed data lines typically leased from long-distance telephone companies.

D) have up to twenty-four 64-Kbps channels.

Definition

 

A. operate over existing lines to carry voice, data, and video

Term

T lines:

A) operate over existing telephone lines to carry voice, data, and video.

B) operate over coaxial lines to deliver Internet access.

C) are high-speed, leased data lines providing guaranteed service levels.

D) have up to twenty-four 64-Kbps channels.

Definition

 

C. are high speed, leased data lines providing guaranteed service levels

Term

Which protocol is the Internet based on?

A) TCP/IP

B) FTP

C) packet-switching

D) HTTP

Definition

 

A. TCP/IP

Term

What service converts IP addresses into more recognizable alphanumeric names?

A) HTML

B) DNS

C) IP

D) HTTP

Definition

 

B. DNS

Term

The child domain of the root is the:

A) top-level domain.

B) second-level domain.

C) host name.

D) domain extension.

Definition

 

A. top-level domain

Term

In the domain name "http://myspace.blogging.com", what are the root, top-level, second-level, and third-level domains, respectively?

A) "http://", myspace, blogging, com

B) "http://", com, blogging, myspace

C) ".", com, blogging, myspace

D) ".", myspace, blogging, com

Definition

 

C. ".", com, blogging, myspace

Term

IPv6 is being developed in order to:

A) update the packet transmission protocols for higher bandwidth.

B) create more IP addresses.

C) allow for different levels of service.

D) support Internet2.

Definition

 

B. create more IP addresses

Term

Which of the following statements about RFID is not true?

A) RFIDs transmit only over a short range.

B) RFIDs use an antenna to transmit data.

C) Microchips embedded in RFIDs are used to store data.

D) RFIDs require line-of-sight contact to be read.

Definition

 

D. RFIDs require line-of-sight contact to be read

Term

A VPN:

A) is an encrypted private network configured within a public network.

B) is more expensive than a dedicated network.

C) provides secure, encrypted communications using Telnet.

D) is an Internet-based service for delivering voice communications.

Definition

 

A. is an encrypted private network configured within a public network.

Term

Web browser software requests Web pages from the Internet using which protocol?

A) URL

B) HTTP

C) DNS

D) HTML

Definition

 

B. HTTP

Term

Together, a protocol prefix, a domain name, a directory path, and a document name, are called a(n):

A) uniform resource locator (URL).

B) IP address.

C) third level domain.

D) root domain.

Definition

 

A. Uniform resource locator (URL)

Term

The process of employing techniques to help a Web site achieve a higher ranking with the major search engines is called:

A) virtual private network (VPN)

B) Internet Architecture Board (IAB).

C) Search Engine Marketing (SEM.)

D) Search Engine Optimization (SEO.)

Definition

 

D. Search Engine Optimization (SEO)

Term

The most appropriate wireless networking standard for creating PANs is:

A) I-mode.

B) IEEE 802.11b

C) WiFi

D) Bluetooth.

Definition

 

D. Bluetooth

Term

Bluetooth can be used to link up to ________ devices within a 10-meter area using low-power, radio-based communication.

A) four

B) six

C) eight

D) ten

Definition

 

C. Eight

Term

One or more access points positioned on a ceiling, wall, or other strategic spot in a public place to provide maximum wireless coverage for a specific area are referred to as:

A) touch points.

B) hotspots.

C) hot points.

D) wireless hubs.

Definition

 

B. hotspots

Term

The 802.11 set of standards is known as:

A) WLAN.

B) WSN.

C) Wi-Fi.

D) WiMax.

Definition

 

C. Wi-Fi

Term

The WiMax standard can transmit up to a distance of approximately:

A) 30 meters. (WiFi is 30-50 meters)

B) 500 meters.

C) 30 miles.

D) 5 miles.

Definition

 

C. 30 miles

Term

What is the primary difference between 3G and 4G cellular systems?

A) 4G systems are digital.

B) 4G systems have greater transmission speeds.

C) 3G systems are unable to handle Web browsing.

D) 3G systems have poor security.

Definition

 

B. 4G systems have greater transmission speeds

Term

A ________ is special software that routes and manages communications on the network and coordinates networks resources.

A) switch

B) firewall

C) server

D) network operating system/NOS

Definition

 

D. network operating system (NOS)

Term

T/F

 

A router is a device that forwards packets of data through different networks, ensuring the data gets to the right address.

Definition

 

True

Term

Prior to the development of ________, computer networks used leased, dedicated telephone circuits to communicate with other computers in remote locations.

A) packet switching

B) routers

C) servers

D) coaxial cable

Definition

 

A. packet switching

Term

T/F

 

An analog signal is a discrete, binary waveform that transmits data coded into two discrete states such as 1-bits and 0-bits

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

An ISP is a commercial organization that owns a region of transcontinental high-speed backbone networks carrying the bulk of Internet traffic.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

The trunk lines of the Internet are typically owned by network service providers.

Definition
True
Term

T/F

 

Smartphones have the same security flaws as other Internet-connected devices.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Viruses can be spread through email.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

To secure mobile devices, a company will need to implement special mobile device management software.

Definition

 

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Wireless networks are vulnerable to penetration because radio frequency bands are easy to scan.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

One form of spoofing involves forging the return address on an e-mail so that the e-mail message appears to come from someone other than the sender.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Sniffers enable hackers to steal proprietary informaiton from anywhere on a network, including email messages, company files, and confidential reports.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Denial of Service (DoS) attacks are used to destroy information and access restricted areas of a company's information system.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F 

 

The distributed nature of cloud computing makes it somewhat easier to track unauthorized access.

Definition
False
Term

T/F

 

Zero defects cannot be achieved in larger software programs because fully testing programs that contain thousands of choices and millions of paths would require thousands of years.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F 

 

An acceptable use policy defines the acceptable level of access to information assets for different users.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

Biometric authentication is the use of physical characteristics such as retinal images to provide identification.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Packet filtering catches most types of network attacks.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

NAT conceals the IP addresses of the organization's internal host computers to deter sniffer programs.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

SSL is a protocol used to establish a secure connection between two computers.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Public key encryption uses two keys.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Smartphones typically feature state-of-the-art encryption and security features, making them highly secure tools for businesses.

Definition

 

False

Term
_______ refers to policies, procedures, and technical meausures used to prevent unauthorized access, alteration, theft, or physical damage to information systems.
Definition

 

Security

Term
_________ refers to al of the methods, policies, and organizational procedures that ensure the safety of the organization's assets, the accuracy and reliability of its accounting records, and operational adherence to management standards.
Definition

 

Controls

Term
Large amounts of data stored in electronic form are  _________ than the same data in manual form.
Definition

 

Vulnerable to many more kinds of threats

Term

Electronic data are more susceptible to destruction, fraud, error, and misuse because information systems concentrate data in computer files that:

Definition

 

May be accessible by anyone who has access to the same network

Term

Specific security challenges that threaten the communications lines in a client/server environment include:

Definition
tapping, sniffing, message alteration, radiation
Term

Which of the following statements about the Internet security is not true?

A) The use of P2P networks can expose a corporate computer to outsiders.

B) A corporate network without access to the Internet is more secure than one that provides access.

C) VoIP is more secure than the switched voice network.

D) Instant messaging can provide hackers access to an otherwise secure network.

Answer:  C

Definition

 

C. VoIP is more secure than the switched voice network

Term
An independent computer program that copies itself from one computer to another over a network is called a:
Definition

 

worm

Term
A salesperson clicks repeatedly on the online ads of a competitor in order to drive the competitor's advertising costs up. This is an example of:
Definition

 

Click fraud

Term

In 2004, ICQ users were enticed by a sales message from a supposed anti-virus vendor. On the vendor's site, a small program called Mitglieder was downloaded to the user's machine. The program enabled outsiders to infiltrate the user's machine. What type of malware is this an example of?

Definition

 

Trojan horse

Term

Redirecting a wed link to a different address is a form of:

 

 

Definition

 

Spoofing

Term
A keylogger is a type of:
Definition

 

Spyware

Term
Using numerous computers to inundate and overwhelm the network from numerous launch points is called a(n) ________ attack.
Definition

 

DDoS

Term
Phishing is a form of:
Definition

 

Spoofing

Term

An example of phishing is:

A) setting up a bogus Wi-Fi hot spot.

B) setting up a fake medical Web site that asks users for confidential information.

C) pretending to be a utility company's employee in order to garner information from that company about their security system.

D) sending bulk e-mail that asks for financial aid under a false pretext.

Definition

 

B. setting up a fake medical web site that asks users for confidential information.

Term

Evil twins are:

A) Trojan horses that appears to the user to be a legitimate commercial software application.

B) e-mail messages that mimic the e-mail messages of a legitimate business.

C) fraudulent Web sites that mimic a legitimate business's Web site.

D) bogus wireless network access points that look legitimate to users.

Definition

 

D. bogus wireless network access points that look legitimate to users.

Term

Pharming involves:

A) redirecting users to a fraudulent Web site even when the user has typed in the correct address in the Web browser.

B) pretending to be a legitimate business's representative in order to garner information about a security system.

C) setting up fake Web sites to ask users for confidential information.

D) using e-mails for threats or harassment.

Definition

 

A. redirecting users to a fraudulent web site even when the user has typed in the correct address in the web browser.

Term

You have been hired as a security consultant for a law firm. Which of the following constitues the greatest source of security threats to the firm?

A. wireless network

B. employees

C. authentication procedures

D. lack of data encryption

Definition

 

B. employees

Term

Tricking employees to reveal their passwords by pretending to be a legitimate member of a company is called:

 

Definition

 

Social engineering

Term
How do software vendors correct flaws in their software after it has been distributed?
Definition

 

They issue patches.

Term

The HIPAA Act of 1996:

A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.

B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control.

C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.

D) outlines medical security and privacy rules.

Definition

 

D. outlines medical security and privacy rules.

Term

The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act:

A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.

B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control.

C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.

D) outlines medical security and privacy rules.

Definition

 

A. requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.

Term

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act:

A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.

B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control.

C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.

D) outlines medical security and privacy rules.

Definition

 

C. imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.

Term

Application controls:

A) can be classified as input controls, processing controls, and output controls.

B) govern the design, security, and use of computer programs and the security of data files in general throughout the organization.

C) apply to all computerized applications and consist of a combination of hardware, software, and manual procedures that create an overall control environment.

D) include software controls, computer operations controls, and implementation controls.

Definition

 

A. can be classified as input controls, processing controls, and output controls.

Term

________ controls ensure that valuable business data files on either disk or tape are not subject to unauthorized access, change, or destruction while they are in use or in storage.

Definition

 

Data security

Term

Analysis of an information system that rates the likelihood of a security incident occurring and its cost is included in a(n):

A) security policy.

B) acceptable use policy (AUP)

C) risk assessment.

D) business impact analysis.

Definition

 

C. risk assessment

Term

Statements ranking information risks and identifying security goals are included in a(n):

A) security policy.

B) AUP.

C) risk assessment.

D) business impact analysis.

Definition

 

A. security policy

Term

) Rigorous password systems:

A) are one of the most effective security tools.

B) may hinder employee productivity.

C) are costly to implement.

D) are often disregarded by employees

Definition

 

B. may hinder employee productivity

Term

Biometric authentication:

A) is inexpensive.

B) is used widely in Europe for security applications.

C) can use a person's voice as a unique, measurable trait.

D) only uses physical measurements for identification.

Definition

 

 

C. can use a person's voice as a unique, measurable trait.

Term

A firewall allows the organization to:

A) enforce a security policy on data exchanged between its network and the Internet.

B) check the accuracy of all transactions between its network and the Internet.

C) create an enterprise system on the Internet.

D) check the content of all incoming and outgoing e-mail messages.

Definition

 

A. enforce a security policy on data exchanged between its network and the Internet

Term

Which of the following is a type of ambient data?

A) Computer log containing recent system errors

B) A file deleted from a hard disk

C) A file that contains an application's user settings

D) A set of raw data from an environmental sensor

Definition

 

B. a file deleted from a hard disk

Term

________ use scanning software to look for known problems such as bad passwords, the removal of important files, security attacks in progress, and system administration errors.

A) Stateful inspections

B) Intrusion detection systems

C) Application proxy filtering technologies

D) Packet filtering technologies

Definition

 

B. intrusion detection systems

Term

Currently, the protocols used for secure information transfer over the Internet are:

A) TCP/IP and SSL.

B) S-HTTP and CA.

C) HTTP and TCP/IP.

D) SSL, TLS, and S-HTTP.

Definition

 

D. SSL, TLS, and S-HTTP

Term

Most antivirus software is effective against:

A) only those viruses active on the Internet and through e-mail.

B) any virus.

C) any virus except those in wireless communications applications.

D) only those viruses already known when the software is written.

Definition

 

D. only those viruses already known when the software is written

Term

In which method of encryption is a single encryption key sent to the receiver so both sender and receiver share the same key?

A) SSL

B) Symmetric key encryption

C) Public key encryption

D) Private key encryption

Definition

 

B. symmetric key encryption

Term

A digital certificate system:

A) uses third-party certificate authorities (CAs) to validate a user's identity.

B) uses digital signatures to validate a user's identity.

C) uses tokens to validate a user's identity.

D) is used primarily by individuals for personal correspondence.

Definition

 

A. uses third-party certificate authorities (CAs) to validate a user's identity

Term

For 100 percent availability, online transaction processing requires:

A) high-capacity storage.

B) a multi-tier server network.

C) fault-tolerant computer systems.

D) dedicated phone lines.

Definition

 

C. Fault-tolerant computer systems

Term

In controlling network traffic to minimize slow-downs, a technology called ________ is used to examine data files and sort low-priority data from high-priority data.

A) high availability computing

B) deep-packet inspection

C) application proxy filtering

D) stateful inspection

Definition

 

B. deep-packet inspection

Term

The development and use of methods to make computer systems resume their activities more quickly after mishaps is called:

A) high-availability computing.

B) recovery-oriented computing.

C) fault-tolerant computing.

D) disaster-recovery planning.

Definition

 

B. recovery-oriented computing

Term

Smaller firms may outsource some or many security functions to:

A) ISPs.

B) MISs.

C) MSSPs.

D) CAs.

Definition

 

C. MSSPs

Term

A practice in which eavesdroppers drive by buildings or park outside and try to intercept wireless network traffic is referred to as:

A) war driving.

B) sniffing.

C) cybervandalism.

D) driveby tapping.

Definition

 

A. war driving

Term

T/F

 

Malicious software programs referred to as spyware include a variety of threats such as computer viruses, worms, and trojan horses.

Definition

 

False

Term

________ is a crime in which an imposter obtains key pieces of personal information to impersonate someone else.

A) Identity theft

B) Spoofing

C) Social engineering

D) Evil twins

Definition

 

A. identity theft

Term

Computer forensics tasks include all of the following except:

A) presenting collected evidence in a court of law.

B) securely storing recovered electronic data.

C) collecting physical evidence on the computer.

D) finding significant information in a large volume of electronic data.

 

Definition

 

C. collecting physical evidence on the computer

Term

) ________ identify the access points in a Wi-Fi network.

A) NICs

B) Mac addresses

C) URLs

D) SSIDs

Definition

 

D. SSIDs

Term

A foreign country attempting to access government networks in order to disable a national power grid would be an example of:

A) phishing.

B) denial-of-service attacks.

C) cyberwarfare.

D) cyberterrorism.

Definition

 

C. cyberwarfare

Term

T/F

 

Authorization refers to the ability to know that a person is who they say they are.

Definition

 

False

Term

Comprehensive security management products, with tools for firewalls, VPNs, intrusion detection systems, and more, are called ________ systems.

A) DPI

B) MSSP

C) NSP

D) UTM

Definition

 

UTM

Term

T/F

 

A walkthrough is a type of software testing used before software is even written.

Definition

 

 

True

Term

T/F

 

When errors are discovered in software programs, the sources of the errors are eliminated through a process called debugging.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F 

 

Supply chain inefficiencies can amount to as much as 25% of a company's operating costs.

Definition

 

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Safety stock acts as an inexpensive buffer for the lack of flexibility in the supply chain.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

The bullwhip effect is the distortion of information about the demand for a product as it passes from one entity to the next across the supply chain.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Supply chain executing systems enable the firm to generate demand forecasts for a product and to develop sourcing and manufacturing plans for that product.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

In the pre-Internet environment, supply chain coordination was hampered by the difficulties of making information flow smoothly amound different internal supply chain processes.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

It can cost 6x more to sell a product to a new customer than to an existing customer.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F


In a pull-based model of SCM systems, production master schedules are based on forecasts of demand for products.

Definition

 

False

Term

T/F

 

Dell Inc., which produces many personalized computers as they are ordered, is an example of a pull-based supply-chain model.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Total supply chain costs in some industries approach 75 percent of the total operating budget.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Major CRM application software vendors include Oracle and SAP.

 

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Cross-selling markets complentary products to customers.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

CRM software can help organizations identify high-value customer for preferential treatments.

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Analytical CRM uses a customer data warehouse to analyze customer data collected from the firm's customer touch points and from other sources.

 

Definition

 

True

Term

T/F

 

Enterprise systems require fundamental changes in the way business operates.

Definition

 

True

Term

A suite of integrated software modules for finance and accounting, human resources, manufacturing and production, and sales and marketing that allows data to be used by multiple functions and business processes best describes:

A) process management software.

B) ERP systems.

C) groupware.

D) application software.

Definition

 

B. ERP systems

Term

Enterprise software is built around thousands of predefined business processes that reflect:

A) the firm's organization.

B) industry goals.

C) best practices.

D) cutting edge workflow analyses.

Definition

 

C. best practices

Term

Which of the following is not true about enterprise systems?

A) Enterprise systems help firms respond rapidly to customer requests for information or products.

B) Enterprise system data have standardized definitions and formats that are accepted by the entire organization.

C) Enterprise software is expressly built to allow companies to mimic their unique business practices.

D) Enterprise software includes analytical tools to evaluate overall organizational performance.

Definition

 

C. Enterprise software is expressly built to allow companies to mimic their unique business practices.

Term

When tailoring a particular aspect of a system to the way a company does business, enterprise software can provide the company with:

A) configuration tables.

B) Web services.

C) data dictionaries.

D) middleware.

Definition

 

A. configuration tables

Term

In order to achieve maximum benefit from an enterprise software package, a business:

A) customizes the software to match all of its business processes.

B) uses only the processes in the software that match its own processes.

C) changes the way it works to match the software's business processes.

D) selects only the software that best matches its existing business processes.

Definition

 

C. changes the way it works to match the software's business processes.

Term

Supply chain complexity and scale increases when firms:

A) move to globalization.

B) manage the procurement, manufacturing, and distribution functions themselves.

C) produce products and services that coordinate with hundreds or more firms and suppliers.

D) modify their existing workflows to comply with supply-chain management systems.

Definition

 

C. produce products and services that coordinate with hundreds or more firms and suppliers.

Term

A network of organizations and business processes for procuring raw materials, transforming these materials into intermediate and finished products, and distributing the finished products to customers is called a:

A) distribution channel.

B) supply chain.

C) value chain.

D) marketing channel.

Definition

 

B. supply chain

Term

Components or parts of finished products are referred to as:

A) upstream materials.

B) raw materials.

C) secondary products.

D) intermediate products.

Definition

 

D. intermediate parts

Term

Why is overstocking warehouses not an effective solution for a problem of low availability?

A) It does not speed product time to market.

B) It is an inefficient use of raw materials.

C) It increases sales costs.

D) It increases inventory costs.

Definition

 

D. it increases inventory costs

Term

Which of the following traditional solutions enables manufacturers to deal with uncertainties in the supply chain?

A) Safety stock

B) Continuous replenishment

C) Just-in-time strategies

D) Demand planning

Definition

 

A. safety stock

Term

A scheduling system for minimizing inventory by having components arrive exactly at the moment they are needed and finished goods shipped as soon as they leave the assembly line best describes a ________ strategy.

A) just-in-time

B) frictionless

C) bullwhip

D) safety-stock

Definition

 

A. just-in-time

Term

A distortion of information about the demand for a product as it passes from one entity to the next across the supply chain is called the ________ effect.

A) network

B) bullwhip

C) ripple

D) whirlpool

Definition

 

B. bullwhip

Term

Supply chain software can be classified as either supply chain ________ systems or supply chain ________ systems.

A) push; pull

B) demand; continual

C) upstream; downstream

D) planning; execution

Definition

 

D. planning; execution

Term

Systems that enable a firm to generate demand forecasts for a product, and to develop sourcing and manufacturing plans for that product, best describes supply chain ________ systems.

A) demand

B) delivery

C) planning

D) execution

Definition

 

C. planning

Term

Supply chain ________ systems manage the flow of products through distribution centers and warehouses to ensure that products are delivered to the right locations in the most efficient manner.

A) demand

B) delivery

C) planning

D) execution

Definition

 

D. execution

Term

A supply chain driven by actual customer orders or purchases follows a ________ model.

A) pull-based model

B) build-to-stock

C) push-based

D) replenishment-driven

Definition

 

A. pull-based model

Term

A build-to-order supply-chain model is also called a ________ model.

A) supply-based

B) demand-driven

C) replenishment-driven

D) push-based

Definition

 

B. demand-driven

Term

The business value of an effective supply-chain management system includes all of the following except:

A) faster time to market.

B) cost reduction.

C) supply matched to demand.

D) increased inventory levels.

Definition

 

D. increased inventory levels

Term

A ________ is a method of interaction with a customer, such as telephone or customer service desk.

A) point of presence

B) touch point

C) sales point

D) client channel

Definition

 

B. touch point

Term

Which of the following would not be considered a contact point?

A) E-mail

B) Web site

C) Intranet

D) Retail store

Definition

 

C. Intranet

Term

) ________ modules use many of the same data, tools, and systems as CRM to enhance collaboration between a company and its selling partners.

A) SCM

B) SFA

C) ERM

D) PRM

Definition

 

D. PRM

Term

________ modules deal with issues such as setting objectives, employee performance management, and performance-based compensation.

A) SCM

B) SFA

C) ERM

D) PRM

Definition

 

C. ERM

Term

Customer relationship management systems typically provide software and online tools for sales, customer service, and:

A) marketing.

B) account management.

C) advertising.

D) public relations.

Definition

 

A. marketing

Term

SFA modules in CRM systems would provide tools for:

A) assigning and managing customer service requests.

B) capturing prospect and customer data.

C) identifying profitable and unprofitable customers.

D) managing sales prospect and contact information.

Definition

 

D. managing sales prospect and contact information

Term

CRM systems help businesses obtain which business objective?

A) Customer and supplier intimacy

B) Operational excellence

C) New products and services

D) Improved decision making

Definition

 

A. customer and supplier intimacy

Term

Customer service modules in CRM systems provide tools for:

A) assigning and managing customer service requests.

B) capturing prospect and customer data.

C) identifying profitable and unprofitable customers.

D) managing sales prospect and contact information

Definition

 

A. assigning and managing customer service requests

Term

Marketing modules in CRM systems would provide tools for:

A) assigning and managing customer service requests.

B) capturing prospect and customer data.

C) identifying profitable and unprofitable customers.

D) managing sales prospect and contact information.

Definition

 

C. identifying profitable and unprofitable customers

Term

Selling a customer with a checking account a home improvement loan is an example of:

A) operational CRM.

B) direct marketing.

C) cross-selling.

D) cross-channel promotions.

Definition

 

C. cross-selling

Term

Customer relationship management applications dealing with the analysis of customer data to provide information for improving business performance best describes ________ applications.

A) operational CRM

B) analytical CRM

C) operational SCM

D) analytical SFA

Definition

 

B. analytical CRM

Term

Operational CRM applications include tools for:

A) identifying buying patterns.

B) calculating CLTV.

C) salesforce automation.

D) pinpointing unprofitable customers

Definition

 

C. salesforce automation

Term

Which metric is based on the relationship between the revenue produced by a specific customer, the expenses incurred in acquiring and servicing that customer, and the expected life of the relationship between the customer and the company?

A) Churn rate

B) CLTV (Customer Life Time Value)

C) Cost per lead

D) Cost per sale

Definition

 

B. CLTV

Term

The measurement of the number of customers who stop using or purchasing products or services from a company is called:

A) switching costs.

B) churn rate.

C) CLTV.

D) switch rate.

Definition

 

B. churn rate

Term

Which of the following is not an example of next-generation enterprise applications?

A) Open-source solutions

B) Social CRM

C) Stand-alone suites

D) Solutions incorporating SOA

Definition

 

C. stand-alone suites

Term

Which of the following features is the main reason an enterprise system helps a business improve decision-making?

A) Standardized business processes

B) Up-to-the-minute data sharing

C) Reducing redundant business processes

D) Analytical tools

Definition

 

B. up-to-the-minute data sharing

Term

________ CRM includes customer-facing applications such as tools for sales force automation, call center and customer service support, and marketing automation.

A) Operational

B) Social

C) Web-based

D) Sales force

Definition

 

A. operational

Term
E-Commerce refers to the use of any networking technologies to transact business.
Definition
False
Term
The Internet reduces information asymmetry.
Definition

 

True

Term

All previous mass media in modern history, including the printing press, use a broadcast model where content is created in a central location by experts.

Definition

 

true

Term

Disintermediation provides major benefits to the distributor.

Definition

 

False

Term
In general, for digital goods, the marginal cost of producing another unit is about zero.
Definition

 

True

Term

An example of the content providor business model is barnesandnoble.com, a retailer of printed books.

 

Definition

 

False

Term
Web personalization is used primarily as a major marketing tool.
Definition

 

True

Term
Podcasting allows subscribers to listen to live, streaming radio and other audio content.
Definition

 

False

Term
Behavioral targeting occurs at two levels: individual Web sites and through ISPs.
Definition

 

False

Term

Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) standards that take advantage of network communications have yet to be fully implemented at the industry level.

 

Definition
False
Term

Net marketplaces may either support contractual purchasing based on long-term relationships with designated suppliers, or short-term spot purchasing.

Definition

 

True

Term

Exchanges have become one of the most popular types of Net marketplace because they encourage competitive bidding that drives prices down.

Definition

 

False

Term
Advertising networks track a user's behavior at thousands of Web sites.
Definition

 

True

Term

In the free/freemium revenue model, firms offer basic services for free and charge a fee for special features.

Definition

 

True

Term

The effort required to locate a suitable product is called:

A) price discrimination.

B) search costs.

C) menu costs.

D) shopping costs.

Definition

 

B. search costs

Term

Selling the same goods to different targeted groups at different prices is called:

A) cost customization.

B) cost optimization.

C) price gouging.

D) price discrimination.

Definition

 

D. price discrimination

Term

Information ________ exists when one party in a transaction has more information that is important for the transaction than the other party.

A) transparency

B) asymmetry

C) complexity

D) discrimination

Definition

 

B. asymmetry

Term

Varying a product's price according to the supply situation of the seller is called ________ pricing.

A) menu

B) flexible

C) dynamic

D) asymmetric

Definition

 

C. dynamic

Term

Reducing the business process layers in a distribution channel is called:

A) disintermediation.

B) BPR.

C) market segmentation.

D) network effects.

Definition

 

A. disintermediation

Term

Compared to digital markets, traditional markets have:

A) lower search costs.

B) stronger network effects.

C) higher delayed gratification effects.

D) higher transaction costs.

Definition

 

D. higher transaction costs

Term

Compared to traditional goods, digital goods have:

A) greater pricing flexibility.

B) lower marketing costs.

C) higher production costs.

D) higher inventory costs.

Definition

 

A. greater pricing flexibility

Term

Compared to traditional goods, digital goods incur:

A) lower distribution costs.

B) higher marginal costs per unit.

C) equivalent copying costs.

D) similar inventory costs.

Definition

 

A. lower distribution costs

Term

Which of the following Internet business models does Amazon.com use primarily?

A) Content provider

B) Portal

C) Market creator

D) E-tailer

Definition

 

D. E-tailer

Term

eBay is an example of:

A) C2C e-commerce.

B) B2B e-commerce.

C) B2C e-commerce.

D) M-commerce.

Definition

 

A. C2C e-commerce

Term

Selling products and services directly to individual consumers via the Internet best describes:

A) B2B e-commerce.

B) C2C e-commerce.

C) M-commerce.

D) B2C e-commerce.

Definition

 

D. B2C e-commerce

Term

In which of the following Internet business models does a merchant create an online digital environment that enables people with like interests to share information?

A) Community provider

B) Service provider

C) Market creator

D) Transaction broker

Definition

 

A. community providor

Term

Market creators:

A) save users money and time by processing online sales transactions.

B) provide a digital environment where buyers and sellers can establish prices for products.

C) create revenue by providing digital content over the Web.

D) sell physical products directly to consumers or individual businesses.

Definition

 

B.provide a digital environment where buyers and sellers can establish prices for products.

Term

Which of the following best illustrates the sales revenue model?

A) eBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item.

B) Epinions receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating Web site where he or she makes a purchase.

C) Flickr provides basic services for free, but charges a premium for advanced services.

D) Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads.

Definition

 

D. Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads.

Term

Which of the following best illustrates the affiliate revenue model?

A) eBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item.

B) Epinions receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating Web site where he or she makes a purchase.

C) Flickr provides basic services for free, but charges a premium for advanced services.

D) Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads.

Definition

 

B.Epinions receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating Web site where he or she makes a purchase.

 

Term

Which of the following best illustrates the transaction fee revenue model?

A) eBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item.

B) Epinions receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating Web site where he or she makes a purchase.

C) Flickr provides basic services for free, but charges a premium for advanced services.

D) Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads.

Definition

 

A. eBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item.

Term

In which of the following revenue models does a Web site charge a fee for access to some or all of its offerings on a continual, regular basis?

A) Subscription

B) Free/freemium

C) Transaction fee

D) Sales

Definition

 

A. subscription

Term

________ describes the concept that a large group of people is better at making good decisions than a single person.

A) The wisdom of crowds

B) Outsourcing

C) Crowdsourcing

D) Social graphing

Definition

 

A. the wisdom of crowds

Term

Netflix's public announcement of a reward for a technology solution to its movie recommendation system is an example of:

A) prediction markets.

B) behavioral targeting.

C) long-tail marketing.

D) crowdsourcing.

Definition

 

D. crowdsourcing

Term

Exposing an individual to ads that are chosen and based on the recorded and analyzed online behavior of the individual is referred to as:

A) clickstream advertising.

B) behavioral targeting.

C) online profiling.

D) long tail marketing.

Definition

 

B. behavioral targeting

Term

EDI is:

A) the use of Internet technologies for electronic data transactions.

B) the exchange between two organizations of standard transactions through a network.

C) electronic data invoicing.

D) electronic delivery infrastructure

Definition

 

B.the exchange between two organizations of standard transactions through a network.

Term
Switching costs are the merchants' costs of changing prices.
Definition

 

False

Term

Content providers use ________ systems to process large amounts of very small monetary transactions cost-effectively.

A) subscription

B) mobile payment

C) transaction fee

D) micropayment

Definition

 

D. micropayment

Term

Viral marketing is like traditional word-of-mouth marketing except that it is spread via online communities.

Definition

 

True

Term

The Internet enables ________ marketing by leveraging the fact that there is always some demand, however small, for a product.

A) long-tail

B) behavioral

C) crowdsource

D) prediction

Definition

 

A. long-tail

Term

Geoadvertising sends ads to users based on their:

A) GPS locations.

B) user addresses.

C) shopping preferences.

D) web site behaviors.

Definition

 

A. GPS locations

Term
DSS primarily address structured problems.
Definition

 

False

Term

Expert systems capture the knowledge of skilled employees in the form of a set of rules in a software system that can be used by others in the organization.

Definition

 

True

Term
Shopping bots are a form of intelligent agent.
Definition

 

True

Term

Knowledge can reside in e-mail, voice mail, graphics, and unstructured documents as well as structured documents.    

Definition

 

True

Term

Knowledge network systems seek to turn unstructured knowledge of some employees into explicit knowledge that can be stored or accessed by other individuals.

Definition

 

False

Term

Which of the following is a key problem in managing knowledge?

A) Classifying knowledge

B) Storing knowledge

C) Distributing knowledge

D) Locating knowledge

Definition

 

A. classifying knowledge

Term

Where there is no well-understood or agreed-on procedure for making a decision, it is said to be:

A) undocumented.

B) unstructured.

C) documented.

D) semistructured.

Definition

 

B. unstructured

Term

The type of decision that can be made by following a definite procedure is called a(n) ________ decision.

A) structured

B) unstructured

C) semistructured

D) procedural

Definition

 

A. structured

Term

Deciding whether to introduce a new product line is an example of a(n):

A) unstructured decision.

B) semistructured decision.

C) procedural decision.

D) nonprocedural decision.

Definition

 

A. unstructured decision

Term

Estimating the number of direct goods to reorder falls into which category of decision making?

A) Structured

B) Documented

C) Unstructured

D) Procedural

Definition

 

A. structured

Term

Which phase of decision making finds or recognizes a problem?

A) Design

B) Intelligence

C) Choice

D) Implementation

Definition

 

B. intelligence

Term

Simon's four different stages in decision making are, in order from first to last:

A) identification, choice, design, and implementation.

B) identification, design, choice, and finalization.

C) intelligence, choice, design, and implementation.

D) intelligence, design, choice, and implementation.

Definition

 

D.

Term

All of the following are analytic functionalities that BI systems deliver except:

A) user interface.

B) ad hoc queries.

C) dashboards.

D) production reports.

Definition

 

A. user interface

Term

All of the following are dimensions of firm performance that are measured in the balanced scorecard method except:

A) resources.

B) business process.

C) customer.

D) learning and growth.

Definition
A. resources
Term

Why is the balanced scorecard method said to be "balanced"?

A) It uses measurable dimensions for assessing performance.

B) It measures performance of more than just financial systems.

C) It assesses both the internally focused and externally focused business processes.

D) It measures performance along all major divisions of a firm, from production and manufacturing to human resources.

Definition

 

B. it measures performance of more than just financial systems.

Term

What type of model asks what-if questions repeatedly to determine the impact on outcomes of changes in one or more factors?

A) Mathematical

B) Sensitivity analysis

C) Goal seeking

D) Forecasting

Definition

 

B. sensitivity analysis

Term

Which type of information system uses data visualization technology to analyze and display data for planning and decision making in the form of digitized maps?

A) Geographical Information Systems - GIS

B) Decision Support Systems - DSS

C) Group Support Systems - GSS

D) Transaction Processing Systems - TPS

Definition

 

A. GIS

Term

A key performance indicator (KPI) is:

A) an industry standard for measuring performance along a given dimension.

B) a measure proposed by senior management.

C) an alternative to the balanced scorecard method.

D) an analytic technique for measuring financial performance.

Definition

 

B. measure proposed by senior management

Term

Expert systems:

A) solve problems too difficult for human experts.

B) are based on DO WHILE rules.

C) work in very limited domains.

D) share characteristics with mainframe computing.

Definition

 

C. work in very limited domains

Term

Expert systems model human knowledge as a set of rules that collectively are called the:

A) knowledge base.

B) knowledge database.

C) inference engine.

D) inference base.

Definition

 

A. knowledge base

Term

An inference engine is:

A) a data mining strategy used by intelligent agents.

B) the programming environment of an expert system.

C) a method of organizing expert system knowledge into chunks.

D) a computer program used to search through the rule base in an expert system.

Definition

 

D. a computer program used to search through the rule base in an expert system.

Term

________ are designed to have a generalized capability to learn.

A) Knowledge-based systems

B) Neural networks

C) Fuzzy logic systems

D) Expert systems

Definition

 

B. Neural networks

Term

________ are intelligent techniques that parallel some aspects of the processing patterns of the biological brain.

A) Neural networks

B) Genetic algorithms

C) CBR systems

D) Fuzzy logic systems

Definition

 

A. neural networks

Term

Expertise and experience of organizational members that has not been formally documented best describes:

A) wisdom.

B) information.

C) data.

D) tacit knowledge.

Definition

 

D. tacit knowledge

Term

________ systems help organizations manage both structured and semistructured knowledge.

A) Digital asset management

B) Knowledge network

C) Enterprise content management

D) Knowledge work

Definition

 

C. Enterprise content management

Term

________ help media firms store and manage unstructured digital data such as photographs, images, videos, and audio files.

A) Digital asset management systems

B) Knowledge networks

C) LMS

D) CAD

Definition

 

A. digital asset management systems

Term

Virtual reality systems:

A) provide design engineers with precise, three-dimensional representations of their models.

B) provide an important source of expertise for organizations.

C) allow groups to work together on documents.

D) provide simulations of walking through or manipulating a three-dimensional model or programmed real-world environment.

Definition

 

D. provide simulations of walking through or manipulating a three-dimensional model or programmed real-world environment.

Term

Dashboards and scorecards are visual interfaces used to make firm information easier to review quickly.

Definition

 

True

Term

A(n) ________ capability allows users to view more detailed views of data.

A) ad hoc

B) drill-down

C) query and reporting

D) metrics

Definition

 

B. drill-down

Term

________ intelligence technology consists of computer-based systems that attempt to emulate human behavior and thought patterns.

A) Neural

B) Genetic

C) Fuzzy

D) Artificial

Definition

 

D. artificial

Term

In ________, descriptions of past experiences of human specialists, represented as cases, are stored in a database for later retrieval when the user encounters a new case with similar parameters.

A) expert systems

B) Decision Support Systems (DSS)

C) Case based reasoning (CBR)

D) intelligence networks

Definition

 

C. Case based reasoning (CBR)

Term

A native app is one that is designed to run on a specific platform.    

Definition

 

True

Term
Documentation revelas how well the system has met its original objectives.
Definition

 

False

Term
A new information system is not considered in production until conversion is complete.
Definition

 

True

Term

Failure to address properly the organizational changes surrounding the introduction of a new system can cause the demise of an otherwise good system.    

Definition

 

True

Term

Gantt and PERT charts are two common formal planning tools for project management    

Definition

 

True

Term
Protoyping is more iterative than the conventional lifecycle.
Definition

 

True

Term
One problem with prototyping is that the systems constructed thereby may not be able to handle large quantities of data in a production environment.
Definition

 

True

Term
End-user-developed systems can be completed more rapidly than those developed through the conventional programming tools.
Definition

 

True

Term
Intangible benefits of an information system are those that cannot be easily quantified.
Definition

 

True

Term
Object-oriented development is more iterative and incremental than traditional structured development.
Definition

 

true

Term
Businesses can use component-based development to create their e-commerce applications.
Definition

 

True

Term
CASE tools facilitate the creation of clear documentation and the coordination of team development efforts.
Definition

 

True

Term
An information systems plan shows how specific information systems fit into a company's overall business plan and business strategy.
Definition

 

True

Term
User concerns and designer concerns are usually the same at the beginning of the project.
Definition

 

False

Term
Scope describes the full length of time required to complete a project.
Definition

 

False

Term

Successful implementation of an information system requires the participation of end users in the project.

 

Definition

 

True

Term

Order the following steps in the systems development lifecycle in the correct sequence.

A) Systems analysis, systems design, programming, testing, conversion, production and maintenance

B) Systems analysis, systems design, programming, conversion, testing, production and maintenance

C) Systems design, systems analysis, programming, conversion, production and maintenance, and testing

D) Systems design, systems analysis, programming, testing, conversion, production and maintenance

Definition

 

 

A

Term

Which process develops a detailed description of the functions that a new information system must perform?

A) Feasibility study

B) Requirements analysis

C) Systems design

D) Test plan development

Definition

 

B. requirement analysis

Term

The entire system-building effort should be driven by:

A) organizational change.

B) feasibility studies.

C) data.

D) user information requirements.

Definition

 

D. user information requirements

Term

Systems design:

A) identifies the system's information requirements.

B) specifies how the new system will fulfill the information requirements.

C) identifies alternate solutions for solving the problem.

D) defines the problem and specifies its causes.

Definition

 

B. specifies how the new system will fulfill the information requirements

Term

Transferring data from a legacy system to the new system would be defined by which system design specification category?

A) Input

B) Database

C) Manual procedures

D) Conversion

Definition

 

D. conversion

Term

Unit testing:

A) includes all the preparations for the series of tests to be performed on the system.

B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole.

C) tests each individual program separately.

D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting.

Definition

 

C. tests each individual program separately

Term

System testing:

A) includes all the preparations for the series of tests to be performed on the system.

B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole.

C) tests each program separately.

D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting.

Definition

 

B. tests the functioning system as a whole

Term

Acceptance testing:

A) includes all the preparations for the trials.

B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole.

C) tests each program separately.

D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting.

Definition

 

D. provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting

Term

In a parallel conversion strategy, the new system:

A) is tested by an outsourced company.

B) replaces the old one at an appointed time.

C) and the old are run together.

D) is introduced in stages.

Definition

 

C. and the old are run together

Term

In a direct cutover conversion strategy, the new system:

A) is tested by an outsourced company.

B) replaces the old one at an appointed time.

C) and the old are run together.

D) is introduced in stages.

Definition

 

B. replaces the old one at an appointed time

Term

Changes in hardware, software, documentation, or production to a production system to correct errors, meet new requirements, or improve processing efficiencies are termed:

A) compliance.

B) production.

C) maintenance.

D) acceptance.

Definition

 

C. maintenance

Term

The oldest method for building information systems is:

A) component-based development.

B) prototyping.

C) object-oriented development.

D) the systems development lifecycle.

Definition

 

D. the systems development lifecycle

Term

In the traditional systems development lifecycle, end users:

A) are important and ongoing members of the team from the original analysis phase through maintenance.

B) are important only in the testing phases.

C) have no input.

D) are limited to providing information requirements and reviewing the technical staff's work.

Definition
D. are limited to providing information requirements and reviewing the technical staff's work
Term

As a technical project manager you have decided to propose implementing a prototyping methodology for a small Web-based design project. What is the order of steps you will follow in this project?

A) Develop the prototype, use the prototype, revise and enhance the prototype.

B) Identify user requirements, develop the prototype, use the prototype, revise and enhance the prototype.

C) Define the requirements, develop solutions, select the best prototype, and implement the prototype.

D) Define the requirements, develop the prototype, revise and enhance the prototype.

Definition

 

B.

Term

When systems are created rapidly, without a formal development methodology:

A) end users can take over the work of IT specialists.

B) the organization quickly outgrows the new system.

C) hardware, software, and quality standards are less important.

D) testing and documentation may be inadequate.

Definition

 

D. testing and documentation may be inadequate

Term

Of the following, which is the most important reason for creating a mobile version of a business's Web site?

A) Mobile devices provide access from anywhere.

B) Mobile devices use touch interfaces.

C) Mobile devices use lower bandwidth.

D) Mobile devices use different platforms.

Definition

 

A. mobile devices provide access from anywhere

Term

If an organization's requirements conflict with the software package chosen and the package cannot be customized, the organization should:

A) change its procedures.

B) outsource the development of the system.

C) redesign the RFP.

D) change the evaluation process.

Definition

 

A. change its procedures

Term

"Hidden costs," such as ________ costs, can easily undercut anticipated benefits from outsourcing.

A) vendor selection

B) hardware

C) software

D) employee salary

Definition

 

A. vendor selection

Term

The process of creating workable information systems in a very short period of time is called:

A) RAD.

B) JAD.

C) prototyping.

D) end-user development.

Definition

 

A. RAD

Term

) This type of systems development is characterized by significantly speeding the generation of information requirements and involving users at an intense level in the systems design.

A) RAD

B) JAD

C) Prototyping

D) End-user development

Definition

 

B. JAD

Term

The term structured, when discussing structured development methodologies, refers to the fact that:

A) the finished software is highly documented.

B) the development process is highly documented.

C) the techniques are step by step, with each step building on the previous one.

D) a defined hierarchy of objects and classes are used to structure the programming.

Definition

 

C. the techniques are step by step, with each step building on the previous one

Term

The primary tool for representing a system's component processes and the flow of data between them is the:

A) data dictionary.

B) process specifications diagram.

C) user documentation.

D) data flow diagram.

Definition

 

D. data flow diagram

Term

You are an IT project manager for an advertising firm. The firm wishes to create an online survey tool that will be used to survey focus group reactions to products in development. The most important consideration for the firm is being able to offer the tool as soon as possible as a new corporate service. However, you know that many of the senior managers that are business owners of this project have difficulty in understanding technical or software development issues, and are likely to change their requirements during the course of development. What development method would be most successful for this project?

A) RAD

B) JAD

C) End-user development

D) Prototyping

Definition

 

D. prototyping

Term

An entire information system is broken down into its main subsystems by using:

A) high-level data flow diagrams.

B) low-level data flow diagrams.

C) process specifications.

D) structured diagrams.

Definition

 

A. high-level data flow diagrams

Term

Object-oriented development could potentially reduce the time and cost of writing software because:

A) object-oriented programming requires less training.

B) iterative prototyping is not required.

C) objects are reusable.

D) a single user interface object can be used for the entire application.

Definition

 

C. objects are reusable

Term

Which of the following is a technique used to create Web sites that will conform to the screen resolution of the user?

A) Native design

B) Responsive design

C) End-user design

D) Multi-platform design

Definition

 

B. responsive design

Term

________ provides software tools to automate development methodologies and reduce the amount of repetitive work in systems development.

A) CASE

B) CAD

C) JAD

D) RAD

Definition

 

A. CASE

Term

________ refers to the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to achieve specific targets within specified budget and time constraints.

A) Systems analysis

B) Systems design

C) Project management

D) Project implementation

Definition

 

C. project management

Term

A PERT chart:

A) portrays a project as a network diagram consisting of numbered nodes that represent tasks.

B) is used to evaluate project risk and time.

C) displays a horizontal bar for each project task.

D) tracks progress of, and modifications to, project tasks.

Definition

 

A. portrays a project network as a network diagram consisting of numbered nodes that represent tasks.

Term

You have been hired by a pharmaceutical company to evaluate its portfolio of systems and IT projects. Which types of projects would be best avoided?

A) Any high-risk projects

B) Any low-benefit projects

C) High-risk, low-benefit projects

D) None - any project might be beneficial

Definition

 

C. high-risk, low-benefit projects

Term

) The project risk will rise if the project team and the IS staff lack:

A) RAD experience.

B) web services.

C) the required technical expertise.

D) CASE tools.

Definition

 

C. the required technical expertise

Term

Users prefer systems that:

A) are oriented to facilitating organizational tasks and solving business problems.

B) work with existing DBMS.

C) are able to provide optimum hardware and software efficiency.

D) are capable of storing much more data than they need.

Definition

 

A. are oriented to facilitating organizational tasks and solving business problems.

Term

A test plan includes all the preparations for the series of tests to be performed on the system.    

Definition

 

True

Term
A prototype is the final working version of an information system.
Definition

 

False

Term

A(n) ________ is a detailed list of questions submitted to external vendors to determine how well they meet the organization's specific requirements.

A) RFP (Request for proposals)

B) RFQ (request for quotations)

C) RAD (rapid application development)

D) JAD (Joint application development)

Definition

 

A. RFP (request for proposals)

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