Shared Flashcard Set

Details

HSF 3-7-12 to 3-14-12
study questions
137
Biology
Graduate
03/16/2012

Additional Biology Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term

Within a neuron, the neurotransmitters are stored where?

a. soma

b. axon

c. presynaptic terminal

Definition
c. presynaptic terminal
Term

This ion works to active neurotransmitters in presynaptic terminals.

a. ca++

b. na+

c. k+

 

Definition
a. ca++
Term

Ions within the presynaptic terminal are activated when the cell membrane:

a. hypopolarizes

b. depolarizes

c. hyperpolarizes

Definition
b. depolarizes
Term

Excitatory postsynaptic potentials cause

a.  depolarization

b. hyperpolarization

c. repolarization

Definition
a. depolarization
Term

inhibitory postsynaptic potetial cause

a. depolarization

b. hyperpolarization

c. repolarization

Definition
b. hyperpolarization
Term

depolarization of postsynaptic membranes results in:

a. inhibition of action potentials

b. release of neurotransmitters

c. generation of action potentials

Definition
c. generation of action potentials
Term

hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane results in

a. generation of an action potential

b. inhibition of neurotransmitter release

c. inhibition of action potentials

Definition
c. inhibition of action potentials
Term

presynaptic inhibition causes

a. decreased duration of action potentials

b. decreased release of neurotransmitters

c. increased na+ activation

Definition
a. decreased duration of action potentials
Term

Decreased Ca++ in the presynaptic terminal results in

a. increased nurotransmitter release

b. decreased neurotransmitter release

c. lack of action potential

Definition
b. decreased neurotransmitter release
Term

Endorphin relase inhibits the release of

a. ca++

b. AcH

c. Substance P

Definition
c. Substance P
Term

a single chemical messenger can act in which of these ways

a. as a neuromodulator

b. as a neurotransmitter

c. both a & b

Definition
c. both a & b
Term

Neuromodulators act on axons at the synaptic cleft

a. true

b. false

Definition
b. false
Term

Activation of G proteins results in

a. activation of membrane channels

b. closing of membrane ion channels

c. gene suppression

Definition
a. activation of membrane channels
Term

which of these substances causes the longest duration of effect on postsynaptic cells

a. neuromodulators

b. substance p

c. EPSP

Definition
a. neuromodulators
Term

release of endorphin causes _____in the presynaptic membrane

a. hyperpolarization

b. hypopolarization

c. depolarization

Definition
a. hyperpolarization
Term

How do neuromodulators relate to addiction to substances like cocaine, nicotine, and alcohol?

a. They inhibit the reabsorption of neurotransmitters

b. they inhibit the breakdown of neurotransmitters after reabsorption

c. both a & b

d. Neither a nor b

Definition
c. both a & b
Term

Antagonist drugs inhibit the release of a neurotransmitter/modulator.

a. true

b. false

Definition
a. true
Term

Agonist drugs inhibit the release of a neurotransmitter/modulator.

a. true

b. false

Definition
b. false
Term

What class of neurotransmitter is substance P?

a. peptide

b. amino acid

c. biogenic amine

 

Definition
a. peptide
Term

AcH is what type of neurotransmitter:

a. nicotinic

b. muscarinic

c. cholinergic

 

Definition
c. cholinergic
Term

AcH is most commonly found in the_____

a. CNS

b. PNS

c. postsynaptic terminal

Definition
b. PNS
Term

AcH in the CNS performs what action

a. IPSP signals

b. passing signals within the CNS

c. neuromodulation

Definition
b. passing signals within the CNS
Term

Muscarinic AcH receptors are mostly found where

a. cns

b. pns

c. autonomic nervous system

Definition
c. autonomic nervous system
Term

Muscarinic receptors are also known as

a. substance p receptors

b. inhibitory Ach recpetors

c. G protein receptors

Definition
c. G protein receptors
Term

Myasthenia Gravis (MG) is a disease that affects:

a. autoimmune responses

b. muscular strength

c. nicontinic AcH receptors

d. all of the above

e. a and c only

Definition
d. all of the above
Term

Botulism toxin serves what purpose as a medication?

a. it inhibits AcH

 

b. it reduces spasticity for a limited amount of time

c. both a & B

 

Definition
c. both a & B
Term

MG is more common in women under 50

a. true

b. false

 

Definition
a. true
Term

A common symptom of MG is drooping eyelids because ________

a. the effects of the disease increase with repeated contractions

b. it specifically affects the eye muscles

c. the eye muscles have more motor units than other skeletal muscles

Definition
a. the effects of the disease increase with repeated contractions
Term

Anticholnesterase drugs treat MG by perfoorming what function

 

a. they inhibit the enzyme cholinesterase

b. they make AcH more available in the synaptic cleft

c. they cause the body to produce more AcH

d. both a and b

e. both b and c

Definition
d. both a and b
Term

Which of these is a common Tx for MG?

a. removal of the thymus gland

b. immunosuppression therapy

c. prednisone, cyclosporin, and/or azathioprine

d. all of these

Definition
d. all of these
Term

Plasmapharesis is a therapy that removes antibodies from the plasma in order to treat MG

a. true

b. false

Definition
a. true
Term

A pt. with MG has pronounced musclle weakness in the limbs, and complains of numbness and tiingling in the fingers and toes.  This is a normal presentation for this disease.

 

a. true

b. false

Definition
b. false
Term

a patient complains of weakness in the arms and thighs as well as pain, and dry mouth.  What disorder do these symptoms suggest?

a. Myasthenia Gravis

b. Eaton Lambert Syndrome

c. polyneuropathy

Definition
b. Eaton Lambert Syndrome
Term

Which of the following is TRUE about gammaglobulin therapy?

a. it inhibits the body's antibody function

b. it is a common treatment for Eaton Lambert Syn.

c. It is a common treament for  MG

d. both a and b

e. both a and c

Definition
d. both a and b
Term

Eaton Lambert Syndrome is related to the function of what ion?

a. na+

b. Ca++

c. K+

d. all of these

e. a and c only

Definition
b. Ca++
Term

What type of therapy should you avoid immediately after a CVA?

a. AROM

b. Intensive learning exercises

c. self-care practice

Definition
b. Intensive learning exercises
Term

function of _______ is toxic to neurons at high concentrations

a. amino acid neurotransmitters

b. glutamate

c. GABA

Definition
b. glutamate
Term

Which neurootransmitter is partiicularly important during early learning?

a. aspartate

 

b. GABA

c. glutamate

Definition
c. glutamate
Term

GABA concentrations in the peripheral nervous system serve to regulate other neurotransmitter functions.

a. true

b. false

Definition

b. false

CNS only

Term

Baclofen reduces spasticity by affecting function which of these NTs?

a. Dopamine

b. AcH

c. GABA 

Definition
c. GABA
Term

Which of these is true about the effects of high GABA levels in the CNS?

a. it may cause seizures

b. it mimics drunken symptoms

c. impulse control may be deacreased

Definition
b. it mimics drunken symptoms
Term

When is Baclofen contraindicated as a treatment for spasticity?

a. in people with seizure disorders

b. in people who are <2 days s/p CVA

c. in people with TBI

d. all of these

Definition
c. in people with TBI
Term

Dopamine function is affected in which of the following

a. seizure disorders

b. chronic depression

c. Parkinson's Disease

d. all of these

 

Definition
c. Parkinson's Disease
Term

Drugs like cocaine affect the reuptake of which neurotransmitter

a. AcH

b. GABA

c. Dopamine

Definition
c. Dopamine
Term

Norepinephrine is associated with which nervous system function

a. arrousal

b. movement coordination

c. learning new things

Definition
a. arrousal
Term

seratonin function affects which of these

a. mood

b. arrousal levels

c. sleep/wake cycles

c. a and c

d. all of these

 

Definition
d. all of these
Term

Parkinson's disease results in visible changes within the structure of the brain.

a. true

b. false

Definition

a. true

substantia nigra changes

Term

the dorsal horn ganglia is related to the function of which neuropeptide?

a. GABA

b. glutamate

c. substance p

d. histamine

Definition
c. substance p
Term

the autonomic nervous system uses two primary neurotransmitters, which are:

a. AcH and norepinephrine

b. AcH and  dopamin

c. AcH and seratonin

 

Definition
a. AcH and norepinephrine
Term

which of these substances binds to Substance P receptors and thereby affects substance p function?

a. endorphin

b. morphine

c. heroin

d. opiates

e. all of these

 

Definition
e. all of these
Term

this tx for PD increases the function of dopamine

a. dopamine precursor therapy

b. dopamine agonist therapy

c. anticholinergic

Definition
b. dopamine agonist therapy
Term

this tx for PD causes other substances in the body to perform like dopamine when dopamine levels are low

a. dopamine precursor therapy

b. dopamine agonist therapy

c. anticholinergic therapy

Definition
a. dopamine precursor therapy
Term

this treatment for PD primarily works to decrease tremor

a. dopamin precursor therapy

b. dopamine agonist therapy

c. anticholinergic therapy 

Definition
c. anticholinergic therapy
Term

Problems with maintaining homeostatic functions in the body may be linked to dysfunction in what part of the CNS?

a. brainstem

b. frontal lobe

c. hypothalamus/limbic system

Definition
c. hypothalamus/limbic system
Term

dysfunction or damage to the anterior region of the hypothalamus may result in

a. decreased blood pressure

b. decreased adrenal function

c. decreased thermal regulation

d. all of these

e. non of these

Definition
d. all of these
Term

damage to the tubal region of the Hypothalamus results in

a. appetite changes

b. changes to thyroid function

c. GRH disregulation

d. all of these

e. none of these

Definition
d. all of these
Term

the posterior mammillary region of the hypothalamus helps to regulate the somatic nervous system.

a. true

b. false

Definition
b. false
Term

the lateral nuclei of the hypothalamus includes the

a. thirst center

b. gonadotropin releasing regulators

c. feeding center

d. highest concentration of neurons

Definition
c. feeding center
Term

humoral input to the hypothalamus is delievered via the

a. fluid electrolyte regulation systems

b. blood vascular system

c. optic chasm input

Definition
b. blood vascular system
Term

which of these systems is NOT connected to the hypothalamus

a. pituitary gland

b. spinal cord

c. reticular formation

d. deep auditory nuclei

 

Definition
d. deep auditory nuclei
Term

The dorsal longitudinal fasciculus is the major route of HT influence on the

a. somatic nervous system

b. peripheral nervous system

c. autonomic nervous system

Definition
c. autonomic nervous system
Term

olfactory information travels to the HT via the

a. stria terminalis

b. fornix

c. medial forebrain bundle

Definition
c. medial forebrain bundle
Term

the sick feeling in your stomach when you think about taking this exam is a function of which HT pathway?

a. corticohypothalamic

b. stria terminalis

c. mammillothalamic tract

Definition
c. mammillothalamic tract
Term

the Papez Circuit is what type of system

a. symapthetic feedback loop

b. emotional feedback loop

c. endocrine regulation system

Definition
b. emotional feedback loop
Term

The HT monitors what substances in circulating blood?

a. glucose

b. hormones

c. ion concentration

d. a and b

e. all of these

Definition
e. all of these
Term

Efferent pathways from the HT are often reciprocal with afferent pathways.

a. true

b. false

Definition
a. true
Term

te hypophyseal portal system allows the HT to do what

a. have direct communication with the pituitary gland

b. regulate secretion of pituitary hormones

c. regulate hormonal function throughout the endocrine system

d. all of these

 

Definition
d. all of these
Term

lesions to the HT result in

a. endocrin imbalance

b. diabetes insipidus

c. temperature regulation disfunction

 

d. all of these

e. a and c only

Definition
d. all of these
Term

the amygdala is part of what  system in the brain

a. midbrain

b. frontal lobe

c. limbic system 

Definition
c. limbic system
Term

the primary function of the amygdala is to

a. link emotion and motivation responses

b. regulate emotion responses

c. decrease fear responses

Definition
a. link emotion and motivation responses
Term

the amygdala may be connected to whic disorder

a. schizophrenia

b. autism

c. obssesive compulsive disorder

Definition
b. autism
Term

whiich part of the limbic system may be involved in reward and reinforcement behaviors

a. amygdala

b. hippocampus

c. septal area

Definition
c. septal area
Term

place the following in order from most superficial to most visceral

a. olfactory bulb

b. olfactory tract

c. olfactory epithelium and nerves

d. olfactory (piriform) cortex

 

Definition
c-a-b-d
Term

Which of these is NOT a function of the olfactory system

a. sexual behavior

b. odor detection

c. memory and smell connections

d. male agnositc behavior

Definition
c. memory and smell connections
Term

memory responses to olfactory stimuli are regulated by the olfactory system and the

a.  limbic system

b. olfactory tracts

c. hypothalamus 

Definition
a. limbic system
Term

a client is diagnosed with Kluver-Bucy Syndrome.  What symptoms would be unusual for this syndrome?

a. lack of arrousal or emotional response

b. increased sexual behavior and appetite

c. increased emotional lability and sleep/wake disturbance

Definition
c. increased emotional lability and sleep/wake disturbance
Term
A patient presents with short term memory loss and inability to learn new tasks. Which of these disorders would you suspect as the cause?
a. hippocampus lesion
b. unilateral limib lesions
c. kluver-bucy syndrome
Definition
a. hippocampus lesion
Term
Cranial nerves conveying afferent autonimc info to the CNS include all of these EXCEPT
a. facial
b. glossopharyngeal
c. vagus
d. phrenic
Definition
d. phrenic
Term
in the autonomic system, preganglionis neurons are found where
a. spinal cord
b. brainstem
c. withine the sympathetic ganglion
Definition
b. brainstem
Term
postganglionic neurons are found outside the CNS.
a. true
b. false
Definition
a. true
Term
effector organs in the autonomis nervous system include
a. smooth muscle
b. visceral muscles
c. cardiac muscle
d. glands
Definition
b. visceral muscles
Term
parasympathetic and sympatheic divisions of the ANS innervate the same organs
a. true
b. false
Definition
a. true
Term
parasympathetic postganglionic fibers primarily release
a. AcH
b. Norepinephrine
c. adrenaline
Definition
a. AcH
Term
sympathetic postganglionic fibers primarily release
a. AcH
b. adrenaline
c. norepinephrine
Definition
c. norepinephrine
Term
effector organ responses to neurotransmitters depend on
a. myelination of the axon
b. whether the fiber is sympathetic or parasympathetic
c. the type of receptor
Definition
c. the type of receptor
Term
The myenteric plexus and the submucosal plexus make up what division of the ANS?
a. enteric
b. gastroenteric
c. diuenteric
Definition
a. enteric
Term
the parasympathetic craniosacral system includes which cranial nerves
a. 3, 7, 9, 10
b. all of them
c. 3, 5, 7, 11
Definition
a. 3, 7, 9, 10
Term
Sympathetic preganglionic fibers synapse directly with the adrenal glands for what purpose?
a. to bypass the sympathetic chain
b. to increase adrenal response
c. to speed adrenal response
Definition
c. to speed adrenal response
Term
parasympathetic preganglionic fibers are much shorter than postganglionic fibers.
a. true
b. false
Definition
b. false
Term
adrenergic fibers release
a. NE
b. AcH
c. adrenaline
Definition
a. NE
Term
Sympathetic system performs which functions
a. increases heart rate, bronchiole dilation, blood pressure
b. increases gastrointestinal function, bladder function
c. increases salivation, body temperature, muscle function
Definition
a. increases heart rate, bronchiole dilation, blood pressure
Term
all preganglionic axons of the ANS release this neurotransmitter
a. AcH
b. NE
c. neither of these
Definition
a. AcH
Term
all parasympathetic postganglionic axons rellease which neurotransmitter?
a. AcH
b. NE
c. neither
Definition
a. AcH
Term
In general, alpha receptors for NE cause constriction
a. true
b. false
Definition
a. true
Term
in general, beta receptors for NE cause dilation
a. true
b. false
Definition
a. true
Term
alpha blocker medications are designed to do what
a. inhibit vasoconstriction
b. increase vasodilation
c. regulate blood pressure
d. all of these
Definition
d. all of these
Term
A patient has just sustained a low level SCI (complete lesion). He is concerned about what this will mean for his everyday life. What might these effects include?
Definition
Low level SCI effects include loss of bowel, bladder, genital control in addition to mobility effects. now make this into an OT explanation instead of a biomedical one.
Term
What addtional medical concerns would a client have to cope with if he sustains a high level SCI?
Definition
homeostatic disfunction, thermoregulation problems, blood pressure, in addition to concerns related to low level SCI.
Term
wrist drop and atrophy in the dorsal forearm are classic signs of what type of injury?
a. median nerve
b. ulnar nerve
c. radial nerve
Definition
c. radial nerve
Term
thenar atrophy is a sign of what nerve injury
a. median nerve
b. ulnar nerve
c. radial nerve
Definition
a. median nerve
Term
froments sign indicates what type of injury.
a. median nerve
b. ulnar nerve
c. radial nerve
Definition
b. ulnar nerve
Term
tinel's sign, phalen's sign and ape hand all indicate what type of injury.
a. median nerve
b. ulnar nerve
c. radial nerve
Definition
a. median nerve
Term
this nerve innervates the intrinsic hand muscles
a. median nerve
b. ulnar nerve
c. radial nerve
Definition
b. ulnar nerve
Term
weakness in the forearm flexors might indacte damage to what nerve
a. median nerve
b. ulnar nerve
c. radial nerve
Definition
a. median nerve
Term
supination and extension are controlled by what nerve
a. median nerve
b. ulnar nerve
c. radial nerve
Definition
c. radial nerve
Term
cutaneous branches of pperipheral nerves are controlled by which branch of the nervous system
a. parasympathetic
b. somatic
c. autonomic
Definition
c. autonomic
Term
the epineurium protects nerve fibers from
a. compression
b. stretch
c. both of these
Definition
c. both of these
Term
the perineurium provides protection against
a. compression
b. stretch
c. both of these
Definition
a. compression
Term
the endoneurium provides protectin against
a. compression
b. stretch
c. both of these
Definition
b. stretch
Term
place these parts of te nerve plexus in order from distal to proximal
a. trunks
b. divisions
c. roots
d. cords
Definition
d-b-a-c
Term
the more proximal the peripheral nerve injury, the better the prognosis
a. true
b.false
Definition
b.false
Term
decreased sweating/ lack of goosebump response, and edema are common autonoomic results of peripheral nerve damage..
a. true
b. false
Definition
a. true
Term
peripheral nerve function is often affected in patients with diabetes.. Which of the following would you expect as a complication of the disease.

a. poor healing and increased chance of infection
b. decreased sensation in the hands and feet
c. decreased blood suppply to affected areas.
d. all of these
e. a and c only
Definition
d. all of these
Term
Order these stages of recovery from earliest to latest recovery stage
a. able to perform full range of motion
b. able to palpate muscle
c. able to hold a position wthout resistance
d. able to move against resistance
Definition
b-a-c-d
Term
muscle fibrillation is visible to the naked eye

a. true

b. false
Definition
b. false
Term
fasciculation is visible to the naked eye
a. true
b. false
Definition
a. true
Term
what class of PNII is carpal tunnel syndrome
a. long-standing, low-level
b. short-standing, high-level
c. long-standing, high-level
Definition
a. long-standing, low-level
Term
when a patient sustains a PNI whic type of nerve fiber is most often damaged
a. motor
b. sensory
c. somatic
d. all of these
e. a and b only
Definition
e. a and b only
Term
injury to the cutaneous branch of a nerve would mostly impact
a. motor function
b. autonomic function
c. sensation
d. both b and c
e. both a and c
Definition
d. both b and c
Term
neuropraxia generally resolves within a few weeks after the cause of compression is removed, even without therapy.
a. true
b. false
Definition
a. true
Term
In a class 1 nerve lesion, there is no damage to the axon.
a. true
b. false
Definition
a. true
Term
axonotmesis results in wallerian degeneration below the area of injury.
a. true
b. false
Definition
a. true
Term
a severed nerve injury is called
a. neuropraxia
b. neurotmesis
c. axonotmesis
Definition
b. neurotmesis
Term
a class three nerve lesion may heal poorly due to which of the following
a. scarring
b. atrophy of surrounding tissues
c. destruction of the endoneurium
d. neuroma
e. all of these
f. all except d
g. all except c
Definition
g. all except c
Term
diabetes and Guillan Barre share the common effect of
a. mononeuropathy
b. class 3 nerve lesions
c. polyneuropathy
Definition
c. polyneuropathy
Term
polyneuropathy is generally found to be
a. symmetrical and proximal
b. asymetrical and distal
c. distal and symetrical
Definition
c. distal and symetrical
Term
a brachial plexus injury above the clavicle results in
a. motor and sensory deficits along the peripheral nerve
b. pain and tingling in the upper extremity
c. effects to the group of muscles sharing innervation
Definition
c. effects to the group of muscles sharing innervation
Term
You have a new patient diagnosed with erb's palsy. What do you expect to see when you meet him for the 1st time.
a. pt. will have difficulty with feeding
b. pt. will have decreased strength in the u.e.
c. pt. will show atrophy in the u.e. and inability to use it
d. all of these
e. a and c only
Definition
e. a and c only
Term
you have a new patient with klumpke's paralysis. what do you expect to see?
a. gross flexion/extension at elbow, but not at the wrist
b. gross flexion and extension at the wrist but not the digits
c. inability to perform opposition
d. both a and c
e. none of these
Definition
c. inability to perform opposition
intrinsic muscles of hand paralyzed
Term
name 3 points you can use to perform a quick test for peripheral nerve sensory deficits.
Definition
tip of the thumb, tip of 3rd digit, tiip of 5th digit
Term
median nerve injury tests
Definition
phalen's test and tinel's sign
Term
signs of ulnar nerve injury
Definition
claw hand
froment's sign (paper test=IP flexion)
Term
signs of radial nerve injury
Definition
wrist drop
inability to release objects (extensors not functioning)
Term
the raidial nerve innervates
a. flexors and intrinsic hand muscles
b. extensors and supinator
c. flexors and pronators
Definition
b. extensors and supinator
Term
injury to the median nerve will affect which muscles
a. FDP, FDS
b. muscles of the thenar and hypothenar eminance
c. FPB, FPL
d. a and c only
e. all of these
Definition
d. a and c only
Term
your patient is able to flex and extend the wrist and fingers but is unable to grasp a ball or perform a precision grip. which nerve do you suspect is involved?
a. ulnar
b. radial
c. median
Definition
a. ulnar
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