Term
1. WHAT IS NOT A PRIMARY CONSIDERATION OF FIRST AID?
A. SAVE LIFE
B. PREVENT FURTHER INJURY
C. PRESERVE RESISTANCE AND VITALITY
D. PROPER MEDICAL DIAGNOSIS |
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Definition
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Term
2. IRREVERSIBLE BRAIN DAMAGE CAN OCCUR A MINIMUM OF HOW LONG AFTER
BREATHING HAS CEASED?
A. THREE MINUTES TO FIVE MINUTES
B. FOUR TO SIX MINUTES
C. FIVE MINUTES TO SEVEN MINUTES
D. SIX MINUTES TO EIGHT MINUTES |
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Definition
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Term
3. THE NAVY AMBULANCE WILL BE STOCKED IN ACCORDANCE WITH?
A. NAVMEDCOMINST 6700.9
B. NAVMEDCOMINST 6440.6
C. NAVMEDCOMINST 6150.1
D. BUMEDINST 6230.3 |
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Definition
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Term
4. IN A COMBAT SITUATION, THOSE PERSONNEL WHOSE INJURIES REQUIRE IMMEDIATE LIFE
SUSTAINING MEASURES OR ARE OF A MODERATE NATURE. INITIALLY, THEY REQUIRE A
MINIMUM AMOUNT OF TIME, PERSONNEL, & SUPPLIES, WOULD BE PLACED IN WHAT
TRIAGE CLASS?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV |
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Definition
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Term
5. IN A NONCOMBAT SITUATION, THE CASUALTIES WHICH GENERALLY HAVE MINOR
INJURIES OR HAVE OBVIOUSLY MORTAL WOUNDS WHERE SURVIVAL IS NOT EXPECTED,
WOULD BE CLASSIFIED AS PRIORITY?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV |
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Definition
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Term
6. WHAT PROCEDURE IS HIGHLY EFFECTIVE IN REMOVING WATER FROM THE LUNGS OF A
DROWNING VICTIM?
A. BACKSLAP
B. CHEST THRUSTS
C. RECLINING CHEST THRUSTS
D. ABDOMINAL THRUSTS |
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Definition
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Term
7. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING THE USE OF THE ESOPHAGEAL
OBTURATOR AIRWAY (EOA)?
A. WAS DESIGNED FOR PERSONNEL WHO ARE NOT AUTHORIZED TO PLACE ENDOTRACHEAL
TUBES
B. CAN BE INSERTED BLINDLY THROUGH THE MOUTH WITHOUT HAVING TO VISUALIZE THE
LARYNX
C. HELPFUL IN THE PREVENTION OF GASTRIC REGURGITATION (VOMITING)
D. THE TRACHEO-BRONCHINAL TREE CAN BE ADEQUATELY SUCTIONED |
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Definition
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Term
8. WHAT TYPE OF ARTIFICIAL VENTILATION IS MOST EFFECTIVE ON THE BATTLEFIELD
AFTER A CHEMICAL OR BIOLOGICAL WARFARE ATTACK?
A. MOUTH TO MOUTH
B. MOUTH TO NOSE
C. BACK PRESSURE ARM LIFT
D. ANY OF THE ABOVE |
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Definition
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Term
9. WHAT TYPE SYSTEM WAS DESIGNED TO HELP VENTILATE AN UNCONSCIOUS VICTIM FOR
LONG PERIODS, WHILE DELIVERING HIGH CONCENTRATIONS OF OXYGEN?
A. BAG-VALVE-MASK
B. MOUTH-TO-MASK
C. OROPHARYNGEAL AIRWAY
D. NASOPHARYNGEAL AIRWAY |
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Definition
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Term
10. WHEN APPLYING CPR KEEP THE HEEL OF YOUR HAND OFF THE XIPHOID TIP OF THE
STERNUM FOR A FRACTURE IN THIS AREA MAY CAUSE DAMAGE TO THE?
A. LUNGS
B. LIVER
C. HEART
D. SPLEEN |
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Definition
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Term
11. HOW FAR SHOULD THE STERNUM BE DEPRESSED WHEN GIVING CPR ON AN ADULT?
A. ½ TO 1 INCH
B. 1-2 INCHES
C. 1 ½ INCHES
D. 1 ½-2 INCHES |
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Definition
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Term
12. WHEN TWO PERSONS PERFORM CPR, THE RATIO OF COMPRESSIONS TO VENTILATION’S
IS?
A. 5 TO 1
B. 10 TO 2
C. 15 TO 2
D. 20 TO 2 |
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Definition
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Term
13. WHAT IS THE COMPRESSION RATE FOR CHILDREN OR INFANTS?
A. 50-70
B. 60-80
C. 70-90
D. 80-100 |
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Definition
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Term
14. TO PREVENT ANAEROBIC INFECTIONS, PRIMARY CLOSURE IS NOT MADE FOR WHAT TYPE
OF WOUND?
A. AMPUTATION
B. AVULSION
C. PUNCTURE
D. LACERATION |
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Definition
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Term
15. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT A TRUE STATEMENT CONCERNING HEMORRHAGE?
A. THE ADULT BODY CONTAINS 6 LITERS OF BLOOD
B. 500 MILLILITERS CAN NORMALLY BE LOST WITHOUT HARMFUL EFFECTS
C. THE LOSS OF A HALF LITER NORMALLY CAUSES SHOCK
D. THE ELDERLY MAY BE ESPECIALLY SUSCEPTIBLE TO LOSSES OF EVEN SMALL AMOUNTS
OF BLOOD |
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Definition
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Term
16. THE SPIRAL REVERSE BANDAGE WOULD BE USED TO RETAIN A DRESSING ON THE?
A. ELBOW
B. LEG
C. ANKLE
D. HAND |
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Definition
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Term
17. WHAT BANDAGE IS PARTICULARLY USEFUL IN RETAINING LARGE COMPRESSES OF THE
FOOT?
A. TRIANGULAR BANDAGE
B. BARTON BANDAGE
C. FIGURE OF EIGHT
D. SPIRAL REVERSE |
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Definition
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Term
18. THE CRAVAT BANDAGE FOR THE TEMPLE, CHEEK, OR EAR IS ALSO KNOWN AS A?
A. SPIRAL REVERSE
B. ROLLER BANDAGE
C. BARTON
D. MODIFIED BARTON |
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Definition
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Term
19. WHAT PRESSURE POINT SHOULD BE USED ONLY IF IT’S ABSOLUTELY ESSENTIAL?
A. TEMPORAL
B. POPLITEAL
C. COMMON CAROTID
D. ILIAC |
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Definition
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Term
20. WHAT IS THE TERM USED TO DESCRIBE EXCRETION OF TARRY BLACK STOOLS?
A. MELENA
B. EPISTAXIS
C. HEMATOCHEZIA
D. HEMOPTYSIS |
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Definition
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Term
21. THE PRINCIPAL AEROBIC BACTERIA THAT CAUSE INFECTION, INFLAMMATION AND
SEPTICEMIA ARE STAPHYLOCOCCI AND STREPTOCOCCI WHICH ARE INTRODUCED INTO
THE WOUND?
A. ON THE BATTLEFIELD
B. AT THE FIRST AID STATION
C. IN THE HOSPITAL
D. ANY OF THE ABOVE |
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Definition
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Term
22. THE PRINCIPAL SYMPTOM OF INFLAMMATION INCLUDE ALL OF THE BELOW EXCEPT?
A. HEAT AND PAIN
B. PALENESS AND PUS
C. SWELLING AND LOSS OF MOTION
D. REDNESS AND EDEMA |
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Definition
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Term
23. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING FURUNCLES AND CARBUNCLES
(ABSCESSES)?
A. MOST ARE CAUSED BY STAPHYLOCOCCAL INFECTIONS
B. ABSCESSES IN THE FACIAL TRIANGLE (NOSE AND UPPER LIP) SHOULD BE INCISED
C. DO NOT SQUEEZE FOR THIS MAY DAMAGE SURROUNDING HEALTHY TISSUE AND SPREAD
THE INFECTION
D. PAIN SHOULD BE RELIEVED WITH ASPIRIN |
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Definition
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Term
24. WHAT SHOULD NOT BE USED ON AN ABDOMINAL WOUND WITH PROTRUSION OF THE
INTESTINES?
A. VASELINE GAUZE
B. PHYSIOLOGIC SALINE
C. SEA WATER
D. POTABLE WATER |
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Definition
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Term
25. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING WOUND CLOSURE?
A. THE ADVICE TO CORPSMAN REGARDING SUTURING OF WOUND WOULD BE, DO NOT
ATTEMPT IT
B. DO NOT CLOSE THE WOUND IF A DISCHARGE OF PUSS, PERSISTENT FEVER OR TOXEMIA IS
PRESENT
C. DELAYED PRIMARY CLOSURE IS PERFORMED AT THE END OF THE TENTH DAY
D. NEVER SUTURE A PUNCTURE WOUND, ANIMAL BITE, OR LARGE GAPING WOUND |
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Definition
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Term
26. WHAT TYPE OF SUTURE NEEDLE MAY CAUSE SMALL AMOUNTS OF TISSUE DAMAGE &
ARE MOST OFTEN USED IN DEEP TISSUES?
A. ATRAUMATIC
B. ATRALOC-WEDGED
C. CUTTING EDGE POINT
D. TAPER POINT |
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Definition
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Term
27. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SUTURE MATERIAL IS ABSORBABLE?
A. NYLON
B. DERMALON
C. LINEN
D. CATGUT |
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Definition
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Term
28. WHICH OF THE BELOW SUTURE MATERIAL HAS THE SMALLEST DIAMETER?
A. 3.0
B. 6.0
C. 1
D. 4 |
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Definition
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Term
29. ALL SUTURES IN THE SOLES, PALMS, BACK OR OVER JOINTS SHOULD BE REMOVED IN?
A. 5 DAYS
B. 7 DAYS
C. 10 DAYS
D. 14 DAYS |
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Definition
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Term
30. WHAT TYPE SHOCK IS DUE TO A DIMINISHED TOTAL BLOOD VOLUME?
A. HYPOVOLEMIC
B. NEUROGENIC
C. CARDIOGENIC
D. SEPTIC |
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Definition
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Term
31. WHAT TYPE OF SHOCK CARRIES A POOR PROGNOSIS AND MUST ALWAYS BE TREATED
UNDER THE DIRECT SUPERVISION OF A MEDICAL OFFICER?
A. ANAPHYLACTIC
B. HEMORRHAGIC
C. CARDIOGENIC
D. SEPTIC |
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Definition
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Term
32. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT A SYMPTOM OF SHOCK?
A. SKIN IS HOT AND DRY
B. PUPILS DILATED
C. PULSE RAPID AND WEAK
D. RESTLESSNESS AND APPREHENSIVE |
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Definition
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Term
33. WHAT IS PROBABLY THE BEST ELECTROLYTE SOLUTION TO USE TO REPLACE BODY
FLUIDS?
A. RINGER’S LACTATE
B. NORMAL SALINE
C. DEXTRAN
D. GLUCOSE |
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Definition
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Term
34. WHAT DEGREE OF SHOCK IS INDICATED IN AN INDIVIDUAL WITH A THREADY PULSE 100-
120, SYSTOLIC BP 90-100, MARKED VASOCONSTRICTION (DIAPHORESIS), ANXIETY,
RESTLESSNESS, & A DECREASED URINARY OUTPUT?
A. 10-25% DECREASE BLOOD VOLUME – MILD
B. 25-35% DECREASE BLOOD VOLUME – MODERATE
C. 35-50% DECREASE BLOOD VOLUME – SEVERE
D. 50-75% DECREASE BLOOD VOLUME – EXTREMELY SEVERE |
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Definition
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Term
35. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING THE ADMINISTRATION OF MORPHINE?
A. THE ADULT DOSE OF MORPHINE IS 8-16 mgm
B. MORPHINE MAY BE GIVEN TO AMBULATORY PATIENTS
C. IT SHOULD NOT BE GIVEN IN MODERATE SHOCK
D. NO MORE THAN 1/4 GRAIN MAY BE GIVEN IN A FOUR HOUR PERIOD |
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Definition
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Term
36. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING MEDICAL ANTI-SHOCK TROUSERS
(MAST)?
A. DESIGNED TO CORRECT OR COUNTERACT INTERNAL BLEEDING & HYPOVOLEMIA
B. THE GARMENT CREATES PRESSURE UP TO 120 mm Hg AROUND BOTH LEGS, THE PELVIS, &
ABDOMEN
C. ONCE GARMENT IS INFLATED VITAL SIGNS ARE TAKEN EVERY 5 MINUTES
D. CONTRAINDICATION IN THEIR USE FOR FRACTURES OF THE PELVIS & LOWER
EXTREMITIES |
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Definition
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Term
37. WHAT IS THE PROPER PROCEDURE FOR SPLINTING A FRACTURE OF THE UPPER ARM?
A. USE ONE WELL PADDED SPLINT ON THE OUTSIDE OF THE ARM AND APPLY A SLING
B. USE TWO WIDE SPLINTS OR FOUR NARROW ONES ON THE ARM AND APPLY A SLING
C. PLACE A PAD OR FOLDED TOWEL IN THE ARMPIT, BANDAGE ARM TO BODY AND APPLY A
SPLINT
D. ANY OF THE ABOVE IS A PROPER PROCEDURE |
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Definition
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Term
38. THE THOMAS HALF-RING OR HARE SPLINT MAY BE USED TO SPLINT A FRACTURED?
A. PATELLA
B. TIBIA OR FIBULA
C. FEMUR
D. BOTH B & C |
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Definition
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Term
39. WHAT IS THE BEST METHOD FOR IMMOBILIZING A FRACTURED RIB?
A. TWO INCH ADHESIVE TAPE APPLIED TO THE CHEST
B. BOUND FIRMLY WITH AN ACE BANDAGE
C. SWATHE BANDAGE
D. EITHER A OR B |
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Definition
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Term
40. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING THE TREATMENT OF A FRACTURED
JAW?
A. ENSURE THE BANDAGE PULLS THE JAW BACKWARD
B. MAINTENANCE OF AN AIRWAY IS A PRIME CONSIDERATION
C. THE FOUR-TAILED BANDAGE MAY BE USED TO IMMOBILIZE THE FRACTURE
D. BE SURE THE PATIENT HAS A KNIFE OR SCISSORS AVAILABLE |
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Definition
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Term
41. IF A CASUALTY IS UNABLE TO MOVE HIS FINGERS, HE WOULD PROBABLY BE SUFFERING
FROM A FRACTURE OF THE?
A. CERVICAL SPINE
B. THORACIC SPINE
C. LUMBAR SPINE
D. ANY OF THE ABOVE |
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Definition
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Term
42. A PATIENT WITH WHAT TYPE FRACTURE IS UNABLE TO SIT OR STAND AND COMPLAINS
OF FEELING AS THOUGH HE IS COMING APART?
A. FEMUR
B. PELVIS
C. SPINE
D. SKULL |
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Definition
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Term
43. A CORPSMAN SHOULD NOT ATTEMPT TO REDUCE A DISLOCATION IF MEDICAL AID CAN
BE REACHED IN?
A. 8 HOURS
B. 12 HOURS
C. 24 HOURS
D. ALWAYS ATTEMPT TO REDUCE IT BUT STOP IF RESISTANCE IF FELT |
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Definition
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Term
44. WHAT TYPE INJURY INVOLVES A MONETARY DISLOCATION WITH THE BONE SLIPPING
BACK IN PLACE OF ITS OWN ACCORD?
A. SPRAIN
B. STRAIN
C. CONTUSION
D. EITHER A OR B |
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Definition
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Term
45. WHAT IS THE PRIORITY FOR OBTAINING INFORMATION ON A POISON VICTIM?
A. SYMPTOMS/ MEDICAL HISTORY, TIME OF OCCURRENCE, IDENTIFY THE POISON,
DETERMINE THE QUANTITY OF POISON TAKEN
B. TIME OF OCCURRENCE, IDENTIFY THE POISON, DETERMINE THE QUANTITY OF POISON
TAKEN, SYMPTOMS/MEDICAL HISTORY
C. DETERMINE THE QUANTITY OF POISON TAKEN, SYMPTOMS/MEDICAL HISTORY, IDENTIFY
THE POISON, TIME OF OCCURRENCE
D. IDENTIFY THE POISON, DETERMINE THE QUANTITY OF POISON TAKEN, TIME OF
OCCURRENCE, SYMPTOMS/MEDICAL HISTORY |
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Definition
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Term
46. WHICH OF THE AGENTS LISTED BELOW IS CLASSIFIED AS A CORROSIVE POISON?
A. ARSENIC
B. SILVER NITRATE
C. PHENOLS
D. PHOSPHORUS |
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Definition
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Term
47. WHAT IS NOT RECOMMENDED IN THE TREATMENT OF NON-CORROSIVE POISONING?
A. DILUTE THE POISON BY HAVING THE CONSCIOUS VICTIM DRINK 1 OR 2 GLASSES OF
WATER OR MILK
B. GIVE AN EMETIC(PREFERRED METHOD OF EMPTYING THE CONTENTS OF THE STOMACH)
C. COLLECT THE VOMITUS FOR LAB ANALYSIS
D. GASTRIC LAVAGE IS PREFERRED FOR PHOSPHORUS POISONING |
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Definition
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Term
48. THE TREATMENT OF ACID (CORROSIVE) POISONING INCLUDE ALL OF THE BELOW
EXCEPT?
A. TWO GLASSES OF MILK OR WATER
B. MILK OF MAGNESIA
C. BICARBONATE OF SODA
D. RAW EGGS WITH AN ANTACID |
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Definition
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Term
49. VOMITING IS NOT INDUCED IN WHAT TYPE POISONING DUE TO THE DANGER OF
ADDITIONAL POISON ENTERING THE LUNGS
A. PETROLEUM DISTILLATES
B. ACIDS
C. ALKALI’S
D. PHENOLS |
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Definition
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Term
50. THE DIAGNOSIS OF WHAT POISONING IS MADE FROM THE CIRCUMSTANCES OF EXPOSURE
AND THE APPEARANCE OF A CHERRY-RED COLORATION OF THE SKIN AND THE MUCOUS
MEMBRANES?
A. CARBON TETRACHLORIDE
B. TRICHLORETHYLENE
C. CARBON DIOXIDE
D. CARBON MONOXIDE |
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Definition
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Term
51. WHICH OF THE BELOW LISTED FISH WOULD BE CONSIDERED SAFE TO EAT?
A. PUFFER, TRIGGER OR FILE
B. PARROT OR PORCUPINE
C. SURGEON, SURMULLET OR GOAT
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE |
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Definition
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Term
52. THE TREATMENT OF A BEE, WASP OR FIRE ANT STING INCLUDE ALL OF THE BELOW
EXCEPT?
A. FOR SEVERE REACTIONS GIVE 0.5CC EPINEPHRINE SUBCUTANEOUS IF THE VICTIM IS AN
ADULT
B. PULL OUT THE STINGER
C. USE ICE OR ANALGESIC-CORTICOSTEROID LOTION FOR PAIN
D. REMOVE RINGS, BRACELETS AND WATCHES |
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Definition
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Term
53. THE VIOLIN SHAPED MARKING IS CHARACTERISTIC IN THE IDENTIFICATION OF A?
A. SCORPION
B. FEMALE BLACK WIDOW SPIDER
C. BROWN RECLUSE SPIDER
D. CENTRUROIDES SCULPTURATUS |
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Definition
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Term
54. WHAT POISONOUS SNAKE OF THE CROTALIDAE FAMILY IS ALSO CALLED A PIT VIPER
BECAUSE OF THE SMALL, DEEP PITS BETWEEN THE NOSTRILS AND THE EYES?
A. WATER MOCCASIN
B. CORAL SNAKE
C. SEA SNAKE
D. MAMBA |
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Definition
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Term
55. WHICH OF THE SNAKES LISTED BELOW IS ONLY FOUND IN AFRICA?
A. CORAL
B. MAMBA
C. KING COBRA
D. KRAIT |
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Definition
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Term
56. HOW LONG SHOULD SUCTION BE APPLIED AFTER AN INCISION IS MADE FOR A SNAKE BITE
A. 5 MIN
B. 15 MIN
C. 30 MIN
D. 60 MIN |
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Definition
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Term
57. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING DEFINITIVE CARE OF ALL WESTERN
HEMISPHERE SNAKEBITES, EXCEPT FOR THE CORAL SNAKE?
A. POLYVALENT ANTIVENIN IS GIVEN IN DOSES OF THREE VIALS FOR SMALL REACTIONS
B. POLYVALENT ANTIVENIN IS GIVEN IN DOSES OF 5-8 VIALS FOR SWELLING OF THE HAND
OR FOOT
C. AT LEAST 8 VIALS SHOULD BE GIVEN FOR MODERATE OR SEVERE ENVENOMATION
D. CHILDREN RECEIVE SMALLER DOSES THAN ADULTS |
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Definition
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Term
58. WHAT IS THE FIRST STEP IN TREATING AN INJURY CAUSED BY A JELLYFISH OR
PORTUGUESE MAN-OF-WAR?
A. NEUTRALIZE WITH RUBBING ALCOHOL OR FORMULIN
B. COVER AREA WITH DRY POWDER
C. APPLY VERY HOT WATER
D. POUR SEA WATER OVER THE INJURED AREA |
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Definition
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Term
59. WHAT IS THE MOST WIDELY ABUSED DRUG TO DATE?
A. ALCOHOL
B. CANNABIS
C. HEROIN
D. LSD |
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Definition
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Term
60. WHAT IS THE MOST IMPORTANT CONSIDERATION IN EVALUATING THE SERIOUSNESS OF
A BURN?
A. LOCATION
B. EXTENT
C. DEPTH
D. AGE AND HEALTH |
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Definition
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Term
61. IF A MAN WERE BURNED ON ALL EXTREMITIES, HE WOULD HAVE WHAT PERCENT OF HIS
BODY BURNED?
A. 27%
B. 36%
C. 54%
D. 72% |
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Definition
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Term
62. ICE WATER IMMERSION SHOULD BE USED ON BURNS OF LESS THAN?
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 36%
D. 50% |
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Definition
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Term
63. AN ACID BURN OF THE EYE SHOULD BE FLUSHED WITH WATER FOR HOW LONG?
A. 5 TO 10 MINUTES
B. 15 MINUTES
C. 15-30 MINUTES
D. 30-45 MINUTES |
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Definition
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Term
64. IF A MAN HAS A BURN ON THE SKIN CAUSED BY PHENOL (CARBOLIC ACID), THE AREA
WOULD BE FLUSHED WITH?
A. BAKING SODA
B. ALCOHOL
C. VINEGAR
D. ACETIC ACID/WATER |
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Definition
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Term
65. WHAT TYPE OF DRESSING MUST BE APPLIED TO A PATIENT WITH EMBEDDED WHITE
PHOSPHORUS PARTICLES?
A. OIL BASE
B. COPPER SULFATE
C. SALINE-SOAKED
D. ANY OF THE ABOVE |
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Definition
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Term
66. WHAT HEAT CONDITION IS CAUSED BY THE LOSS OF SALT AND WATER FROM THE
BODY?
A. HEAT STROKE
B. HEAT EXHAUSTION
C. HEAT CRAMPS
D. HEAT PROSTRATION |
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Definition
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Term
67. WHICH OF THE SYMPTOMS LISTED BELOW ARE COMMON TO HEATSTROKE (SUN STROKE)?
A. EXCESSIVE SWEATING
B. CLAMMY SKIN
C. PUPILS DILATED
D. HIGH BODY TEMPERATURE |
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Definition
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Term
68. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING THE TREATMENT OF HEAT STROKE?
A. THE PRIMARY CONSIDERATION IS TO GET THE TEMPERATURE DOWN
B. CASUALTY SHOULD BE COOLED UNTIL THE RECTAL TEMPERATURE REACHES 102
DEGREES F
C. TEMPERATURE SHOULD BE CHECKED EVERY 15 MINUTES
D. REPEAT COOLING IF RECTAL TEMPERATURE REACHES 103 DEGREES F |
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Definition
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Term
69. WHAT IS NOT PART OF THE COMMAND PREVENTION CENTER ON THE AWARENESS OF THE
ENVIRONMENT?
A. WBGT INDICATOR
B. PHEL CHART
C. HEAT CALCULATOR
D. BOTH A & B |
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Definition
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Term
70. PATIENT REPORTS TO SICKBAY WITH ICE CRYSTALS IN THE ENTIRE THICKNESS OF
EXTREMITY AND HIS SKIN WILL NOT MOVE OVER BONY RIDGES. THE PATIENT IS
SUFFERING FROM?
A. HYPOTHERMIA
B. IMMERSION FOOT
C. SUPERFICIAL FROSTBITE
D. DEEP FROSTBITE |
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Definition
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Term
71. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING COLD INJURIES?
A. CHILBLAINS MAY BE CAUSED FROM REPEATED EXPOSURE TO TEMPERATURES AS HIGH
AS 60 F/16 C
B. ALL COLD INJURIES SHOULD BE PLACED IN A TUB OF WARM WATER 100-105F/ 38-41C
C. WHIRLPOOL BATHS, TWICE DAILY WITH SURGICAL SOAP AFTER PATIENT REACHES A
HOSPITAL
D. NEVER RUPTURE BLISTERS OR APPLY SALVES OR OINTMENTS |
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Definition
|
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Term
72. IF YOU ARE IN DOUBT AS TO WHETHER A VICTIM IS IN INSULIN SHOCK OR DIABETIC
COMA, YOU SHOULD GIVE THE PATIENT?
A. NOTHING
B. INSULIN
C. SUGAR
D. ORANGE JUICE |
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Definition
|
|
Term
73. WHAT HEART CONDITION IS CAUSED BY INSUFFICIENT OXYGEN BEING CIRCULATED TO
THE HEART MUSCLE?
A. ANGINA PECTORIS
B. MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION
C. CONGESTIVE HEART FAILURE
D. CEREBROVASCULAR ACCIDENT (CVA) |
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Definition
|
|
Term
74. WHAT IS THE MOST SERIOUS TYPE OF EPILEPTIC SEIZURE?
A. GRAND MAL
B. PETIT MAL
C. TEPID MAL
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE |
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Definition
|
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Term
75. CHILDBIRTH IS APPROACHING IF THE MOTHER’S CONTRACTIONS ARE LESS THAN HOW
MANY MINUTES?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6 |
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Definition
|
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Term
76. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING EMERGENCY CHILDBIRTH?
A. DURING CONTRACTIONS, DEEP OPEN MOUTH BREATHING WILL RELIEVE PAIN AND
STRAINING
B. ALLOW THE MOTHER TO GO TO THE BATHROOM JUST PRIOR TO BIRTH
C. WATCH FOR THE TOP OF THE HEAD AND GENTLY PUSH AGAINST IT
D. LOG TIME OF DELIVERY AND WRAP THE PLACENTA UP FOR HOSPITAL ANALYSIS |
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Definition
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Term
77. THE PROTECTIVE (GAS) MASK IS NOT EFFECTIVE AGAINST?
A. CARBON DIOXIDE
B. CARBON MONOXIDE
C. HYDROGEN SULFIDE
D. BOTH A & B |
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Definition
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Term
78. WHAT STAGE IN THE EXTRACTION OF VICTIMS INVOLVES GIVING LIFE SAVING
EMERGENCY CARE?
A. 1ST
B. 2ND
C. 3RD
D. 4TH |
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Definition
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Term
79. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS TRUE CONCERNING RESCUE FROM FIRE OR STEAM FILLED
SPACES?
A. COVER A VICTIM ON FIRE COMPLETELY WITH A WET BLANKET
B. VICTIM MUST SIT OR STAND WHILE YOU ARE TRYING TO EXTINGUISH THE FIRE
C. ASBESTOS SUIT OFFERS NO PROTECTION IN A STEAM FILLED SPACE
D. A WET CLOTH WILL PROVIDE PROTECTION AGAINST GASES AND LACK OF OXYGEN |
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Definition
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Term
80. WHAT STRETCHER SHOULD BE USED TO LIFT CASUALTIES FROM ENGINE ROOMS, HOLES,
COMPARTMENTS, OR OTHER AREAS WHERE ACCESS HATCHES ARE SMALL?
A. NEIL ROBERTSON
B. STOKES
C. ARMY LITTER
D. SHIP LITTER |
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Definition
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Term
81. WHAT IS USED PRIMARILY IN THE EXTRICATION OF SITTING VICTIMS, ESPECIALLY IN
AUTO WRECKS, WHERE IT WOULD BE DIFFICULT TO MANEUVER THE VICTIM OUT OF
POSITION WITHOUT DOING ADDITIONAL DAMAGE TO THE SPINE?
A. SHORT SPINEBOARD
B. LONG SPINEBOARD
C. NECK COLLAR
D. EITHER A OR B |
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Term
82. WHICH OF THE BELOW IS NOT TRUE CONCERNING TRANSPORTATION OF THE INJURED?
A. ONE OF THE EASIEST WAYS TO TRANSPORT AN UNCONSCIOUS PATIENT IS THE FIREMAN’S
CARRY
B. TIE HAND CRAWL IS PARTICULARLY USEFUL FOR MOVING UNDER A LOW STRUCTURE
C. CHAIR CARRY IS PARTICULARLY USEFUL WHEN TWO RESCUERS MUST MOVE A VICTIM UP
OR DOWN STAIRS
D. WHEN USING THE BLANKET DRAG, ALWAYS PULL THE VICTIM FEET FIRST |
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Term
83. WHAT TYPE OF ANESTHESIA BLOCKS ALL IMPULSES TO AND FROM THE PERENNIAL AREA
OF THE BODY?
A. CAUDAL BLOCK
B. SADDLE BLOCK
C. EPIDURAL BLOCK
D. NERVE BLOCK |
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Definition
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Term
84. WHAT STAGE OF ANESTHESIA IS USED FOR ALL OPERATIONS?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4 |
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Definition
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