Term
|
Definition
| A somatic cell is any cell in the body other than cells involved in reproduction. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Germline cells are gametes (sperm and ova) and the stem cells that divide to form gametes |
|
|
Term
| How do germline stem cells divide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do stomatic stem cells divide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If germline stem cells divide by mitosis, what is produced? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If germline stem cells divide by meiosis, what is produced? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens in the first division of meiosis? |
|
Definition
| Separation of homologous chromosomes |
|
|
Term
| What happens in the second division of meiosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is cellular differentiation? |
|
Definition
| The process by which a cell expresses certain genes to produce proteins characteristic for that type of cell |
|
|
Term
| What term refers to a cell that can differentiate into any kind of cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| State what is meant by the term multipotent. |
|
Definition
| Can differentiate into all of the types of cell found in a particular tissue type |
|
|
Term
| State an example of a therapeutic use of stem cells. |
|
Definition
| Corneal repair/ Regeneration of damaged skin |
|
|
Term
| State an example of a research use of stem cells. |
|
Definition
| Model cells to study how diseases develop or being used for drug testing. |
|
|
Term
| Describe an ethical concern over the use of embryonic stem cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do cancer cells divide excessively? |
|
Definition
| They fail to respond to regulatory signals |
|
|
Term
| Describe the process by which secondary tumours are formed. |
|
Definition
| Cells within the tumour may fail to attach to each other, spreading through |
|
|
Term
| Name the components of a DNA nucleotide. |
|
Definition
| A base, phosphate and deoxyribose sugar. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the base pairing rule. |
|
Definition
| Adenine-Thymine, Guanine-Cytosine |
|
|
Term
| What forms the uprights of the DNA ladder? |
|
Definition
| The sugar phosphate backbone |
|
|
Term
| What type of bond is found between bases in a DNA molecule? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe what is meant by an antiparallel structure. |
|
Definition
| Deoxyribose and phosphate at 3’ and 5’ ends of each strand respectively |
|
|
Term
| What is required to start DNA replication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A short strand of nucleotides which binds to the 3’ end of the template DNA strand allowing polymerase to add DNA nucleotides |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of DNA polymerase? |
|
Definition
| DNA polymerase adds DNA nucleotides to the deoxyribose (3’) end of the new DNA strand which is forming. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between the leading and lagging strand? |
|
Definition
| Leading strand is replicated continuously, lagging strand in fragments. |
|
|
Term
| Name the enzyme which joins together fragments of DNA. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of PCR? |
|
Definition
| To amplify fragments of DNA |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of the primer in PCR? |
|
Definition
| Short strands of nucleotides which are complementary to specific target sequences at the two ends of the region of DNA to be amplified |
|
|
Term
| What temperature is the DNA heated to in order to separate strands in PCR? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is the DNA cooled to between 50 and 65°C during PCR? |
|
Definition
| To allow primers to bind to target sequences |
|
|
Term
| Why is the DNA heated to between 70 and 80°C during PCR? |
|
Definition
| For heat-tolerant DNA polymerase to replicate the region of DNA. |
|
|
Term
| State a practical application of PCR. |
|
Definition
| Help solve crimes, settle paternity suits and diagnose genetic disorders. |
|
|
Term
| State three differences between RNA and DNA. |
|
Definition
| single stranded vs double stranded, ribose sugar vs deoxyribose sugar, the base uracil vs the base thymine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| carries a copy of the DNA code from the nucleus to the ribosome. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Carries a specific amino acid to the ribosome. |
|
|
Term
| What two components make up the ribosome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| State the name of a triplet of bases on the mRNA molecule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe what is found at each end of a tRNA molecule |
|
Definition
| An anticodon and an attachment site for a specific amino acid |
|
|
Term
| Describe two functions of RNA polymerase. |
|
Definition
| Unwind the DNA helix and break hydrogen bonds AND synthesise a primary transcript of mRNA |
|
|
Term
| Describe the process of RNA splicing. |
|
Definition
| Introns are removed and exons are joined together to form the mature transcript. |
|
|
Term
| State where translation begins. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of anticodons? |
|
Definition
| To bind to codons by complementary base pairing. |
|
|
Term
| What bonds are formed between amino acids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the fate of each tRNA after the amino acid has been delivered? |
|
Definition
| Leaves the ribosome to collect another amino acid. |
|
|
Term
| How can more than one protein be expressed from one gene? |
|
Definition
| Alternative RNA splicing. |
|
|
Term
| How is the 3D shape of a protein achieved? |
|
Definition
| Folding of polypeptide chains, held together by hydrogen bonds and other interactions between individual amino acids. |
|
|
Term
| What determines protein function? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two factors determine phenotype? |
|
Definition
| Proteins produced as a result of gene expression and environmental factors. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the 3 different types of single gene mutation |
|
Definition
| Substitution, Insertion and Deletion |
|
|
Term
| Describe a missense mutation |
|
Definition
| One amino acid is change for another |
|
|
Term
| The name given to the mutation resulting in a premature stop codon is produced |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the type of mutations which can be described as frameshift |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name 3 types of chromosome structure mutations |
|
Definition
| Duplication, translocation, inversion and deletion |
|
|
Term
| Describe a translocation mutation |
|
Definition
| A section of chromosome is added to a chromosome, not its homologous partner |
|
|
Term
| What is the name for the mutation where a section of chromosome is reversed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the genome of an organism? |
|
Definition
| An organisms entire hereditary information encoded in DNA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The use of computer and statistical analyses to compare sequence data. |
|
|
Term
| What is pharmacogenetics? |
|
Definition
| The use of genome information in the choice of drugs |
|
|
Term
| The name given to the use of an individual’s personal genome sequence to select the most effective drugs and dosage to treat their disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A reaction where large molecules are built up from small molecules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A reaction where large molecules are broken down into small molecules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of reaction, anabolic or catabolic requires energy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does induced fit mean when describing enzyme action? |
|
Definition
| When the active site changes shape to better fit the substrate after the substrate binds |
|
|
Term
| The affinity substrates have for the active site of an enzyme |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name three type of enzyme inhibition |
|
Definition
| Competitive, non-competitive and feedback |
|
|
Term
| Describe how competitive inhibitors work. |
|
Definition
| Competitive inhibitors bind at the active site preventing the substrate from binding |
|
|
Term
| Describe how non-competitive inhibitors work. |
|
Definition
| Non-competitive inhibitors bind away from the active site but change the shape of the active site preventing the substrate from binding. |
|
|
Term
| The type of enzyme inhibition that can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe feedback inhibition |
|
Definition
| The end product in the metabolic pathway reaches a critical concentration then inhibits an earlier enzyme preventing further synthesis of the end-product. |
|
|
Term
| Name the stage in respiration where glucose is broken down into pyruvate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does glycolysis take place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the stage of glycolysis which uses up 2 ATP. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the stage of glycolysis which releases 4 ATP. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the net gain of ATP in glycolysis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the presence of oxygen what happens to pyruvate? |
|
Definition
| it is converted to acetyl |
|
|
Term
| What forms when acetyl joins to coenzyme A? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the role of dehydrogenase enzymes? |
|
Definition
| to remove Hyrogen ions and electrons and pass them to NAD |
|
|
Term
| What is the location of the citric acid cycle? |
|
Definition
| the matrix of the mitochondria |
|
|
Term
| What does the acetyl group join with to form citrate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the citrate get converted to through a series of enzyme controlled reactions in the citric acide cycle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the substances released from the citric acid cycle. |
|
Definition
| ATP, Carbon dioxide, Hydrogen ions and electrons |
|
|
Term
| What is the location of the electron transport chain? |
|
Definition
| inner membrane of the mitochondria |
|
|
Term
| What carries the hydrogen ions and electrons to the electron transport chain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is released when electrons are passed along the electron transport chain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the energy from the electron transport chain used for? |
|
Definition
| to pump Hyrogen ions across the inner membrane |
|
|
Term
| Through which protein do the hydrogen ions flow when returning to the matrix of the mitochondria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the role of ATP synthase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the final acceptor of Hydrogen ions and electrons? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two waste products of aerobic respiration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two raw materials of aerobic respiration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In which stage of respiration is the majority of ATP synthesised? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name three cellualr processes that require ATP. |
|
Definition
| DNA replication, protein synthesis, muscle contraction, mitosis, meiosis, nerve impulse transmission |
|
|
Term
| In oxygen-deficient conditions what is pyruvate from glycolysis converted to ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What substance made in glycolysis is needed to convert pyruvate to lactate? |
|
Definition
| NADH / Hydrogen ions and electrons |
|
|
Term
| What is caused by lactate build up in muscle tissue? |
|
Definition
| muscle fatigue / oxygen debt |
|
|
Term
| What happens during the recovery period after strenuous exercise? |
|
Definition
| oxygen debt is repaid / lactate is converted ncbak to pyruvate and glucose |
|
|
Term
| Where does the conversion of lactate to pyruvate occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the two types of muscle fibre. |
|
Definition
| slow-twitch and fast-twitch |
|
|
Term
| What type of activity are slow-twitch muscle fibres useful for? |
|
Definition
| endurance / long distance running |
|
|
Term
| What type of activity are fast-twitch muscle fibres useful for? |
|
Definition
| explosive / sprinting / weight lifting |
|
|
Term
| Which type of muscle fibre relies on glycolysis only to generate ATP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of muscle fibre relies on aerobic repsiration to generate ATP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of muscle fibre contain many mitochondria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of muscle fibre have a lower blood supply? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of muscle fibre have a high concentration of myoglobin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of muscle fibre stores glycogen as fuel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of muscle fibre stores fuel as fat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are sperm produced? |
|
Definition
| seminiferous tubules in testes |
|
|
Term
| Name the hormone produced by the interstitial cells of the testes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the role of the fluid produced by the prostate gland and seminal vesicles? |
|
Definition
| maintain the motility and viability of the sperm |
|
|
Term
| Name the structure in the ovaries that protects the maturing egg cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does fertilisation take place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give the name of a fertilised egg. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What process does a zygote undergo to become an embryo? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the hypothalamus produce to trigger the onset of puberty? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the target tissue for the releaser hormone secreted by the hypothalamus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the two hormones produced by the pituitary hormone in males? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the two hormones produced by the pituitary hormone in females? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| State the target and effect of FSH in males. |
|
Definition
| promotes sperm production in the seminiferous tubules of the testes |
|
|
Term
| State the target and effect of FSH in females. |
|
Definition
| follicle, stimulates the development and maturation of a follicle and the production of oestrogen |
|
|
Term
| State the target and effect of ICSH in males. |
|
Definition
| stimulates the interstitial cells in the testes to produce the male sex hormone testosterone |
|
|
Term
| State the targets and effect of testosterone. |
|
Definition
| stimulates sperm production in the seminiferous tubules & activates the secretion of fluids by the prostate gland and seminal vesicles |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of high levels of testosterone on the pituitary gland? |
|
Definition
| inhibits the release of FSH and ICSH |
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the ability of testosterone to control its production? |
|
Definition
| negative feedback control |
|
|
Term
| Name the two phases of the menstrual cycle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What effect does oestrogen have on the endometrium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What effect does oestrogen have on the cervical mucus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What effect does a high level of oestrogen have on the pituitary gland? |
|
Definition
| stimulates the release of LH |
|
|
Term
| What event in the menstrual cycle is triggered by the surge of LH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What effect does LH have on the follicle? |
|
Definition
| stimulates it to change into a corpus luteum |
|
|
Term
| Which hormone is secreted by the corpus luteum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What effect does progesterone have on the cervical mucus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What effect does a high level of progesterone have on the pituitary gland? |
|
Definition
| inhibits the production of LH ans FSH |
|
|
Term
| What effect does progesterone have on the endometrium? |
|
Definition
| causes further thickening / vascularisation |
|
|
Term
| What causes the endometrium to break down at the end of the menstrual cycle? |
|
Definition
| falling progesterone levels |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference in fertility of males and females? |
|
Definition
| males = continuous, females = cyclical |
|
|
Term
| What three indicators are used to estimate when ovulation occurred? |
|
Definition
| number of days after menstruation, a slight increase in body temperature on the day of ovulation and the thinning of the cervical mucus |
|
|
Term
| What technique would be used to treat failure to ovulate? |
|
Definition
| ovulatory drugs to mimic FSH and LH |
|
|
Term
| What technique would be used to treat low sperm count? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What technique would be used to treat blocked oviducts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What technique would be used to treat defective sperm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can be done to check for single gene disorders and chromosome abnormalities before implanting an embryo in IVF and ICSI? |
|
Definition
| pre-implantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) |
|
|
Term
| Describe what is involved in ICSI infertility treatment. |
|
Definition
| the head of the sperm is drawn into a needle and injected directly into the egg to achieve fertilisation |
|
|
Term
| Describe what is involved in IVF infertility treatment. |
|
Definition
| Surgical removal of eggs from ovaries after hormone stimulation, mix with sperm, incubate zygotes until they have formed at least 8 cells, then implant into uterus |
|
|
Term
| What is often a consequence of some fertility treatments (ovulatory drugs and IVF). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the intentional prevention of pregnancy by natural or artificial methods |
|
|
Term
| Name some physical methods of contraception. |
|
Definition
| barrier - condom, diaphragm; IUD, sterilisation |
|
|
Term
| Name some chemical methods of contraception. |
|
Definition
| oral contraceptive pill, mini pill, morning after pill |
|
|
Term
| How does the oral contraceptive work? |
|
Definition
| it contains synthetic progesterone and oestrogen which inhibit the production of FSH and LH and therefore prevent ovulation |
|
|
Term
| At what stage of a pregnancy does the dating scan take place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what stage of a pregnancy does the anomaly scan take place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the dating scan in pregnancy? |
|
Definition
| to determine the stage of the pregnancy and predict the due date |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the anomaly scan in pregnancy? |
|
Definition
| to detect serious physical abnormalities in the foetus |
|
|
Term
| What type of tests are routine during pregnancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is taken during an amniocentesis? |
|
Definition
| sample of amniotic fluid containing the foetal cells |
|
|
Term
| What is taken during CVS ? |
|
Definition
| sample of placenta containing the foetal cells |
|
|
Term
| What is the advantage of CVS over amniocentesis? |
|
Definition
| can be done earlier in pregnancy |
|
|
Term
| What is the disadvantage of CVS over amniocentesis? |
|
Definition
| higher risk of causing a miscarriage |
|
|
Term
| What are the foetal cells from CVS or amniocentesis used for? |
|
Definition
| the are cultured and a karyotype is made |
|
|
Term
| Which type of allele causes the condition in autosomal recessive inheritance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of allele causes the condition in autosomal dominant inheritance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of inheritance will show in all generations of a family tree? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of inheritance has three different phenotypes? |
|
Definition
| autosomal incomplete dominance |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| one of the non sex chromosomes |
|
|
Term
| Where are the alleles for sex linked conditions located? |
|
Definition
| on the section of the X chromosome where there is no corresponding Y chromosome. |
|
|
Term
| What is a carrier in family trees? |
|
Definition
| a heterozygous person in autosomal recessive or sex linked recessive conditions / not affected but can pass on to offspring |
|
|
Term
| What are the chances in autosomal recessive inheritance, of a heterozygous couple having a child who is affected? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In sex linked recessive conditions which parent passed the condition to their son? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name one condition tested for in postnatal screening. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of mutation causes PKU? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of PKU? |
|
Definition
| cannot breakdown amino acide phenylalanine - leads to mental development problems |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for PKU? |
|
Definition
| restricted diet / avoid phenylalanine in diet /avoid protein in diet |
|
|
Term
| State the order of the 5 blood vessels that blood travels in after leaving the heart. |
|
Definition
| arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the blood pressure when the blood travels away from the heart? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the central space or cavity of blood vessels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the lining of blood vessels that is a thin layer of cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which feature of arteries allows them to withstand the high blood pressure? |
|
Definition
| elastic tissue / thick elastic walls |
|
|
Term
| Which feature of arterioles allows them to vasodilate / vasoconstrict? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of blood vessel has the widest lumen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of blood vessel has valves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is the blood flow to the skeletal muscle increased during exercise? |
|
Definition
| vasodilation of the arterioles supplying the skeletal msucles (& vasoconstriction to other parts of the body e.g. digestive system) |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of capillaries? |
|
Definition
| to allow exchange of substances with the tissue cells |
|
|
Term
| What feature of capillaries allows quick and efficient exchange of materials? |
|
Definition
| capillary walls are only one cell thick |
|
|
Term
| What causes pressure filtration? |
|
Definition
| higher pressure in arterioles compared to capillaries |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of pressure filtration at a capillary bed? |
|
Definition
| forces plasma (the liquid part of the blood) out of the capillaries into the tissues forming tissue fluid |
|
|
Term
| What is not filtered out of the blood plasma at a capillary bed because of they are too big? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which substances would diffuse from tissue fluid into the cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which process causes fluid to re-enter the blood plasma at the venule end of a capillary bed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the role of the lymph vessels in a capillary bed? |
|
Definition
| absorb the the excess tissue fluid |
|
|
Term
| How are the walls of veins different to walls of arteries? |
|
Definition
| veins have thinner walls / they have thinner layers of elastic tissue and smooth muscle |
|
|
Term
| What is the feature of veins that helps them to keep the blood flowing despite it being at low pressure flowing against gravity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which side of the heart contains deoxygenated blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the type of muscle that the heart is made out of. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cardiac muscle can contract continuously without experiencing what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the valves found between the atria and ventricles. |
|
Definition
| atrio-ventricular valves / AV Valves |
|
|
Term
| Name the valves found between the ventricles and the arteries leaving the ventricles. |
|
Definition
| semi-lunar valves / SL valves |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| when the heart muscle is relaxed |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| when the heart muscle is contracted |
|
|
Term
| When are the AV valves closed? |
|
Definition
| during ventricular systole |
|
|
Term
| When are the SL valves closed? |
|
Definition
| during ventricular diastole |
|
|
Term
| What causes the sounds of the heart beat? |
|
Definition
| opening and closing of the heart valves |
|
|
Term
| Where are the auto-rhythmic cells of the heart located? |
|
Definition
| the pacemaker / SAN / Sino atrial node/ wall of the right atrium |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of the SAN in the heart? |
|
Definition
| sets the rate at which the heart beats |
|
|
Term
| What causes atrial systole? |
|
Definition
| impulses from the SAN spreading across the atria |
|
|
Term
| Where is the AV Node situated? |
|
Definition
| in the centre of the heart |
|
|
Term
| What happens after the AV Node receives impulses from the SA Node? |
|
Definition
| impulses travel down fibres in the central wall of the heart and then up through the walls of the ventricles, causing ventricular systole |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| electrical impulses in the heart |
|
|
Term
| What are the three phases in an ECG? |
|
Definition
| P wave, QRS complex, T wave |
|
|
Term
| In an ECG which part of the cardiac cycle is represented by the P wave? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In an ECG which part of the cardiac cycle is represented by the QRS complex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In an ECG which part of the cardiac cycle is represented by the T wave? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part of the brain regulates the SAN through the antagonistic action of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) contains cardiac accelerator nerves? |
|
Definition
| sympathetic nervous system |
|
|
Term
| In which part of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) do the nerves release nor-adrenaline? |
|
Definition
| sympathetic nervous system |
|
|
Term
| In which part of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) do the nerves release acetylcholine? |
|
Definition
| parasympathetic nervous system |
|
|
Term
| What does a sphygmomanometer measure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the cuff of a sphygmomanometer do when inflated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the typical blood pressure reading for a young adult? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a blood pressure reading what does the higher value represent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a blood pressure reading what does the lower value represent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition is a major risk factor for many diseases including coronary heart disease? |
|
Definition
| hypertension (high blood pressure) |
|
|
Term
| What is the volume of blood pumped out by either ventricle during one systole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the volume of blood pumped out by either ventricle per minute |
|
|
Term
| How do you calculate cardiac output? |
|
Definition
| Heart Rate (bpm) X Stroke Volume (l) |
|
|
Term
| What is the accumulation of fatty material (mainly cholesterol, fibrous material and calcium), forming an atheroma or plaque? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name three effects of an atheroma on an artery. |
|
Definition
| artery thickens, lumen narrows, walls less elastic |
|
|
Term
| Name the cardiovascular disorders that have atherosclerosis as their root cause. |
|
Definition
| angina, heart attack, stroke and peripheral vascular disorders |
|
|
Term
| If an atheroma rupture which tissue is damaged? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of the clotting factors released when an atheroma ruptures? |
|
Definition
| cause the enzyme prothrombin to be converted into its active form thrombin |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of thrombin? |
|
Definition
| causes molecules of the soluble plasma protein fibrinogen to form threads of insoluble fibrin protein |
|
|
Term
| What do fibrin threads do? |
|
Definition
| form a mesh that platelets adhere to, forming a blood clot, which seals a wound and forms a scaffold for the formation of scar tissue |
|
|
Term
| What is the term for the formation of a blood clot (thrombus) in a vessel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a thrombus breaks loose what does it form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can be caused by a thrombosis in a coronary artery ? |
|
Definition
| myocardial infarction (MI) commonly known as a heart attack |
|
|
Term
| What can be caused by a thrombosis in an artery in the brain ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why does thrombosis often cause the death of some tissue? |
|
Definition
| blocking arteries deprives cells of oxygen |
|
|
Term
| What is the term for the narrowing of arteries that are not in the heart or brain? |
|
Definition
| peripheral vascular disorders |
|
|
Term
| Where are the blood clots that cause DVT found? |
|
Definition
| deep veins, most commonly in the legs |
|
|
Term
| What is a symptom of DVT? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which blood vessel is blocked by a pulmonary embolism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the lipid found in cell membranes and used to make sex hormones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What effect does a diet of saturated fats have on the level of cholesterol in the blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of lipoproteins transport excess cholesterol from the body cells to the liver for elimination? |
|
Definition
| HDL (high density lipoproteins) |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of LDLs (low density lipoproteins) |
|
Definition
| transport cholesterol to boody cells |
|
|
Term
| What is on the surface of most cells that allows cholesterol to be taken into the cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When will neagtive feedback inhibit the synthesis of new LDL receptors, leaving LDL circulating in the blood? |
|
Definition
| when the cell has sufficient cholesterol |
|
|
Term
| What forms when the LDL circulating in the blood deposits the cholesterol in the arteries? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of lipoprotein needs to be in higher proportion in the blood to lower blood cholesterol levels ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What lifestyle action can raise HDL (high density lipoproteins) levels in the blood? |
|
Definition
| regular physical activity |
|
|
Term
| Name the group of drugs that reduce the blood cholesterol by inhibiting the synthesis of cholesterol by liver cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of chronic high blood glucose levels on blood vessels? |
|
Definition
| damage to blood vessels and atherosclerosis |
|
|
Term
| Where are the receptor cells that monitor blood glucose levels located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the two blood glucose regulating hormones produced by the pancres. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What effect does insulin have on liver cells? |
|
Definition
| makes then more permeable to glucose and activates the conversion of glucose to glycogen |
|
|
Term
| Name the hormone that activates the conversion of glycogen to glucose in the liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which hormone is released in the flight or fight response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the glands which secrete adrenaline. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of adrenaline? |
|
Definition
| stimulates glucagon secretion and inhibits insulin secretion. |
|
|
Term
| Which type of diabetes is caused by lack of insulin production? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of diabetes usually occurs in later life? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which factor can increase the chance of developing type two diabetes? |
|
Definition
| obesity / being overweight |
|
|
Term
| What test can be done to diagnose diabetes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What chemical test can be done to check for diabetes? |
|
Definition
| test the urine for glucose - positive test = diabetes |
|
|
Term
| What would you see in the glucose tolerance test of a diabetic compared to a non-diabetic? |
|
Definition
| blood glucose levels of diabetic would start higher, reach higher levels, take longer to reduce |
|
|
Term
| What is the formula used to calculate BMI? |
|
Definition
| weight (kg) divided by height (m) squared |
|
|
Term
| What type of build is not suitable to use BMI with ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the BMI above which is considered obese? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| name the two components of the central nervous system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| name the two components of the peripheral nervous system |
|
Definition
| Somatic and Autonomic nervous systems |
|
|
Term
| What do sensory neurons do? |
|
Definition
| Take impulses from sense organs to the CNS |
|
|
Term
| What do motor neurons do? |
|
Definition
| Take impulses from the CNS to muscles and glands |
|
|
Term
| name the two branches of the autonomic nervous system |
|
Definition
| Sympathetic and parasympathetic |
|
|
Term
| What phrase describes actions of the parasympathetic nervous system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What phrase describes actions of sympathetic nervous system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which branch of the autonomic nervous system increases heart rate? |
|
Definition
| sympathetic nervous system |
|
|
Term
| Which branch of the autonomic nervous system increases peristalsis? |
|
Definition
| parasympathetic nervous system |
|
|
Term
| Which branch of the autonomic nervous system decreases breathing rate? |
|
Definition
| parasympathetic nervous system |
|
|
Term
| Which branch of the autonomic nervous system decreases intestinal secretions? |
|
Definition
| sympathetic nervous system |
|
|
Term
| What is the name for the rhythmic wave of contractions of smooth muscle in the wall of the intestines that moves food ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of neural pathway involves impulses from one neuron travelling to several neurons? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of neural pathway involves impulses from several neurons travelling to one neuron? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of neural pathway involves impulses from one neuron in a series of neurons travelling back to a neuron earlier in the series? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of neural pathway is found in the eye and allows improved vision in dim light? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of neural pathway helps to achieve fine motor control ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of neural pathway is involved in the rhythmic movements of breathing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part of the brain is the centre of conscious thought? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part of the brain has functions localised in regions including sensory, motor and association areas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens in the sensory area of the cerebral cortex? |
|
Definition
| Impulses are received from the skin, organs and muscles |
|
|
Term
| What happens in the motor area of th cerebral cortex |
|
Definition
| Impulses are sent to the skeletal muscles |
|
|
Term
| Name the missing association area of the cerebral cortex language processing / personality / imagination |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the missing association area of the cerebral cortex language processing / intelligence / imagination |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the missing association area of the cerebral cortex intelligence/ personality / imagination |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the missing association area of the cerebral cortex intelligence/ language processing / imagination |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two halves of the cerebrum called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which side of the brain is the information from the left side of the body processed? |
|
Definition
| Right (cerebral hemisphere) |
|
|
Term
| Name the fibres that transfer information from one cerebral hemisphere to the other. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the three stages of memory. |
|
Definition
| Encoding, storage, retrieval |
|
|
Term
| To which memory location does all information entering the brain go? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does information stay in the sensory memory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does information stay in the short term memory? |
|
Definition
| A short time / 30 seconds |
|
|
Term
| How long can information stay in the long term memory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the span of Short term memory? |
|
Definition
| 5-9 items / 7 plus or minus 2 items |
|
|
Term
| What method can increase STM span? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe how chunking increases STM span. |
|
Definition
| Items are clustered into meaningful groups |
|
|
Term
| What do we call the ability to remember the items at the beginning and end of a list better than the items in the middle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can you retain items for longer in the STM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to items in the STM that are not transferred to LTM? |
|
Definition
| Lost by decay or displacement |
|
|
Term
| Name the three types of encoding used to transfer information from STM to LTM. |
|
Definition
| Rehearsal Organisation Elaboration |
|
|
Term
| What type of encoding is rehearsal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of encoding is elaboration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can help the retrieval of information from LTM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Contextual cues relate to which two features or the original memory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a neuron what fibre comes before the cell body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a neuron what fibre comes after the cell body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the three types of neuron. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do we call the covering of an axon with a myelin sheath? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the advantage of axons having a myelin sheath |
|
Definition
| They are insulated so can transmit impulses faster |
|
|
Term
| When does myelination occur? |
|
Definition
| It continues from birth to adolescence |
|
|
Term
| What happens in diseases which destroy the myelin sheath round axons? |
|
Definition
| There is a loss of coordination of movement |
|
|
Term
| Name the cells that produce myelin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the two roles of glial cells. |
|
Definition
| Produce myelin & support neurons |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Junctions between neurons |
|
|
Term
| What is a synaptic cleft? |
|
Definition
| The gap between neurons at a synapse |
|
|
Term
| What do we call chemicals that relay the signal across synaptic clefts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are neurotransmitters found in the pre-synaptic neuron? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to the vesicles when an electrical impulse arrives at a synapse? |
|
Definition
| They release the neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the neurotransmitter release by pre-synaptic neuron? |
|
Definition
| It diffuses across the cleft |
|
|
Term
| What are on the post-synaptic membrane that have a respond to neurotransmitters? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give two ways that neurotransmitters are removed from a synaptic cleft. |
|
Definition
| Reuptake or breakdown by enzymes |
|
|
Term
| Why must neurotransmitters be removed from the synaptic cleft after the signal has been relayed? |
|
Definition
| To prevent continuous stimulation of the post-synaptic neuron |
|
|
Term
| What two types of signal can be relayed at a synapse? |
|
Definition
| Excitatory and Inhibitory |
|
|
Term
| What determines whether a signal at a synapse will be excitatory or inhibitory? |
|
Definition
| The receptors on the post-synaptic membrane |
|
|
Term
| Why would a weak signal be filtered out by a synapse? |
|
Definition
| If not enough neurotransmitter was released the impulse would not be sent onto the post-synaptic neuron. |
|
|
Term
| How could several weak impulses trigger a signal in the post-synaptic neuron? |
|
Definition
| By summation - collectively they release enough neurotransmitter to reach the threshold |
|
|
Term
| Which type of neural pathway allows weak signals to be passed on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the neurotransmitters that stimulate nerons involved in reducing the intensity of pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| increased levels of which neurotransmitters are linked to the feelings of pleasure obtained from activities such as eating, sex and prolonged exercise? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which neurotransmitter induces feelings of pleasure and reinforces particular behaviour by activating the reward pathway in the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which pathway involves neurons which secrete or respond to dopamine, it is activated by beneficial behaviour e.g. eating when hungry? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which type of drugs are chemicals that bind to and stimulate specific receptors, mimicking the action of a neurotransmitter at a synapse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are chemicals that bind to specific receptors, blocking the action of a particular neurotransmitter at a synapse? |
|
Definition
| antagonist / antagonistic |
|
|
Term
| Other than agonistic drugs how can the effect of a neurotransmitter at a synapse be enhanced for treatment of a neurotransmitter disorder? |
|
Definition
| inhibit reuptake or inhibit enzyme degradation of the neurotransmitter |
|
|
Term
| Name four aspects of an individual that can be affected by recreational drugs |
|
Definition
| mood, cognition, perception, behaviour |
|
|
Term
| What type of recreational drugs cause addiction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of recreational drugs cause drug tolerance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of recreational drugs causes sensitisation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of recreational drugs causes desensitisation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the type of cells that form a physical barrier in the non-specific immune system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are epithelial cells found? |
|
Definition
| skin, lining of respiratory and digestive systems |
|
|
Term
| Name four secretions that are produced as chemical defences in the non-specific immune system. |
|
Definition
| tears, saliva, stomach acid, mucus |
|
|
Term
| Name the type of cells that release histamine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the chemical released by mast cells in the inflammatory response of the non-specific immune system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two effect does histamine have on blood capillaries ? |
|
Definition
| vasodilation / increasing diameter & increasing permeability |
|
|
Term
| What can escape from the blood capillaries when they are more permeable in the inflammatory response? |
|
Definition
| phagocytes and clotting elements (clotting factors ) |
|
|
Term
| Name the type of white blood cells that can recognise, engulf and destroy pathogens. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the process by which phagocytes engulf and destroy pathogens. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What structure do phagocytes contain to allow them to destroy the pathogens they engulf? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What chemicals are contained in the lysosomes of phagocytes? |
|
Definition
| (strong digestive) enzymes |
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the chemicals releases by phagocytes to signal to other phagocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of cytokines that are released by phagocytes in the non-specific immune response? |
|
Definition
| to attract other phagocytes to the site of injury |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| molecules, often proteins, on cell surfaces that can trigger an immune response |
|
|
Term
| Which type of immune response are lymphocytes involved in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do lymphocytes have on their cell surface to detect antigens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What forms when an antigen binds to a membrane receptor of a lymphocyte? |
|
Definition
| a clonal population of thet type of lymphocyte |
|
|
Term
| Name the two broad categories of lymphocytes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of lymphocyte produces antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Y-shaped proteins made by B Lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
| What is at the end of each arm of an antibody? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What forms when an antibodies attach to antigens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are antigen-antibody complexes destroyed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the result of B lymphocytes responding to harmless substances? |
|
Definition
| allergic reaction / allergy |
|
|
Term
| How do T lymphocytes respond when they detect infected cells? |
|
Definition
| they release proteins which destroy the infected cells |
|
|
Term
| What is the name for programmed cell death? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes autoimmune diseases? |
|
Definition
| failure of the T lymphocytes to recognise self antigens leading to body cells being attacked by T lymphocytes. |
|
|
Term
| Name to disease cause by autoimmunity. |
|
Definition
| type 1 diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis, MS |
|
|
Term
| What remains in the body after one exposure to a particular pathogen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| State two features of the secondary immune response that distinguish it from the primary immune response. |
|
Definition
| faster production of antibodies, higher concentration of antibodies produced |
|
|
Term
| What is the benefit of the action of the memory cells in the secondary response? |
|
Definition
| the invading pathogens are destroyed before the individual shows symptoms |
|
|
Term
| What part of the immune ssyte does the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) attack? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does HIV infection often lead to ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does AIDS stand for? |
|
Definition
| Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome |
|
|
Term
| Why are AIDS sufferers more vulnerable to infections? |
|
Definition
| they have a weakened immune system. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of vaccinations? |
|
Definition
| to develop active immunity by the creation of memory cells |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of adjuvants in vaccinations? |
|
Definition
| to enhance the immune response generated by a vaccine |
|
|
Term
| Name four sources of antigens that can be used in vaccinations. |
|
Definition
| inactivated pathogen toxins, dead pathogens, parts of pathogens and weakened pathogens |
|
|
Term
| How can herd immunity be achieved in a population? |
|
Definition
| when a large percentage of a population is immunised |
|
|
Term
| What is the benefit of achieving herd immunity? |
|
Definition
| non-immunised individuals are protected |
|
|
Term
| How are non-immunised people protected by herd immunity? |
|
Definition
| as there is a lower probability that they will come into contact with infected individuals |
|
|
Term
| What is meant by the term herd immunity threshold? |
|
Definition
| the percentage of people in the population that must be immunised to protect the population |
|
|
Term
| What factors affect the level of the herd immunity threshold? |
|
Definition
| the disease, the effectiveness of the vaccine and the contact parameters for the population |
|
|
Term
| Why may herd immunity no t be achieved in developing countries? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why may herd immunity no t be achieved in developed countries? |
|
Definition
| rejection due to adverse publicity |
|
|
Term
| What is antigenic variation? |
|
Definition
| The ability of some pathogens can change their antigens |
|
|
Term
| Why is antigenic variation a problem? |
|
Definition
| pathogens can evade the immunological memory, as it no longer recognises the antigens |
|
|
Term
| Name a disease that shows antigenic variation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do public health programmes deal with the threat of influenza? |
|
Definition
| new vaccine produced each year |
|
|
Term
| What do vaccines undergo to establish their safety and effectiveness before being licensed for use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do we call a treatment which is inactive, it does not contain the vaccine or drug being tested. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what type of trial do neither the researchers not the subjects know which group are given the treatment and which are given the placebo? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a clinical trial what is done to reduce bias in the distribution of characteristics such as gender, age in the test groups? |
|
Definition
| the groups are randomised |
|
|
Term
| Why must groups in clinical trials of a vaccine be of a suitably large size? |
|
Definition
| to increase the reliability of the results and reduce the effect of any errors. |
|
|
