Shared Flashcard Set

Details

RACGP Exam Preparation
RACGP Exam Preparation
743
Medical
Post-Graduate
11/02/2016

Additional Medical Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
What is the most common cause of acute viral hepatitis
Definition
Hepatitis A
Term
Mild prodrome, days later dark urine, days later jaundice and pale faeces
Definition
Hepatitis A
Term
What are the most common modes of transmission for Hepatitis B in Australia vs underdeveloped countries
Definition
Australia = IVDU and sexual contact
Underdeveloped = 90% neonate and infant transmission
Term
Describe the clinical presentation of an acute hepatitis B infection
Definition
Fever, malaise, N/V, RUQ pain, jaundice, dark urine, pale stools
Term
What is the rate of conversion from acute to chronic hepatitis B for infant vs adult infections
Definition
Infant = 95%
Adult = 5%
Term
Describe the possible complication pathways of chronic hepatitis B infection
Definition
Cirrhosis leading to either HCC or liver failure
Term
What is the serological definition of Chronic Hepatitis B
Definition
the presence of HBsAg detectable for >6/12
Term
Describe serological evidence of an acute Hepatitis infection
Definition
HBsAg +ve, HBc IgM Ab +ve, HBsAb -ve
Term
Describe serological evidence of chronic Hepatitis B infection
Definition
HBsAg +ve, HBc IgG Ab +ve, HBsAb -ve
Term
Describe serological evidence of a resolved Hepatitis B infection
Definition
HBsAg -ve, HBc IgG Ab +ve, HBsAb +ve
Term
Describe seroligcal evidence of a patient vaccinated against Hepatitis B
Definition
HBsAg -ve, HBc IgM Ab -ve, HBsAb +ve
Term
What is the treatment approach for Hepatitis B
Definition
Acute infection = supportive
Chronic infection = viral suppressive therapy to try prevent conversion to cirrhosis and HCC
Term
What are the possible natural progressions of Hepatitis C
Definition
25% clear spontaneously
75% chronic infection -> cirrhosis -> decompensation / HCC
Term
What risk factors are associated with a faster disease progression of chronic Hep C
Definition

HIV, Hep B

ETOH, THC

obese, male, >40yo

Term
how many patients are symptomatic of acute hepatitis C infection
Definition
15%
Term
Describe the clinical presentation of an acute hepatitis C infection
Definition
Fever, malaise, N/V, RUQ pain, jaundice, dark urine, pale stools
Term
Describe the pathophysiology of haemochromatosis
Definition
An autosomal genetic mutation of hepcidin production resulting in inappropriately increased iron absorption
Term
Which genetic mutation combinations are associated with haemochromatosis
Definition
C282Y homozygous (90% of clinically relevant cases)
C282Y:H63D compound; unlikely to be associated with clinically relevant iron elevations
C282Y carrier and H63D homozygous have no increased risk of iron overload
Term
What is the age of onset for haemochromatosis symtpoms
Definition
30-60, earlier with men and later with women due to menstruation and pregnancy
Term
Describe the clinical presentation of haemochromatosis
Definition
Early; lethargy, arthalgia, loss of libido
Progressive; skin hyperpigmentation, arthritis, dilated cardiomyopathy, liver cirrhosis, diabetes, testicular atrophy
Term
Diabetes, testicular atrophy, arthropathy
Definition
Haemochromatosis
Term
What is hepcidin
Definition
A hormone synthesised by the liver which functions to decrease total blood iron levels by 1) decreasing intestinal uptake 2) inhibiting red blood cell breakdown
Term
What is the target ferritin for patients with haemachromatosis
Definition
<50
Term
characterise the progressive stages of non alcoholic fatty liver disease
Definition
1) evidence of fatty liver without evidence of inflammation
2) with inflammation characterised by ALT elevation
3) with fibrosis
4) with cirrhosis
Term
What is the major cause of death in patients with NAFLD
Definition
cardiovascular disease
Term
What is the primary investigation for NAFLD
Definition
USS; specificity 95%, sensitivity 85%
Term
Name the four primary domains of management for NAFLD
Definition
Weight loss; strongest evidence base
HMgCo-A reductase inhibitors
Insulin resistant; wt loss and metformin
Avoidance of all ETOH
Term
What precautions need be given about weight loss in NAFLD
Definition
>1kg / week may accelerate the progression of NAFLD
Term
What action needs to be undertaken if an initiation of HMg-CoA reductase inhibitor results in an increase in LFTs
Definition
moderate elevations in liver enzymes due to the use of statins should be tolerated and treatment continued
severe elevations more than 10 times the upper limit of normal should prompt cessation of the medication and reassessment
Term
What is an appropriate management pathway for NAFLD
Definition
If USS shows no evidence of cirrhosis or portal HTN then a 6/12 of first line measures is appropriate (weight loss, HMg-CoA reductase inhibitors, metformin if insulin resistance and ETOH cessation)
Reassess in 6/12 with USS and LFTs. If improvement continue, if worsening then refer
Term
Why do only 10% of alcoholics have cirrhosis at autopsy
Definition
Multiple polymorphisms of genetic coding sites for Alcohol dehydrogenase and Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase causing variable alcohol elimination rates
Term
Dupuytren contracture + parotidomegaly + proximal myopathy
Definition
Chronic alcoholism
Term
Describe the non hepatic clinical findings for a patient with chronic alcoholism
Definition
  • Wernickes
  • Parotidomegaly
  • Proximal myopathy 
  • Hypertension
  • Dupuytren contracture
  • Cardiomyopathy
  • Exocrine pancreatic failure; steatorrhoea
Term
Name two blood findings that would suggest chronic alcoholism
Definition
elevated GGT
macrocytosis
Term
What treatment is used to prevent Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome
Definition
Thiamine
Term
What are the important etiological factors of Autoimmune Hepatitis
Definition
1) predominantly whites of european descent
2) 1:4 = M:F
3) bimodal distribution of onset; 10-20 and 45-70
Term
How do patients with Autoimmune Hepatitis present
Definition
May present insidiously with fatigue, anorexia and jaundice
30% present as acute hepatitis with fever, hepatic tenderness and jaundice
a small amount present with acute hepatic decompensation
Term
What tests are diagnostic for Autoimmune Hepatitis
Definition
Elevated LFTs with other causes ruled out and Smooth Muscle Antibodies positive
Term
What is the prognosis of Autoimmune Hepatitis in patients with out without treatment
Definition
Without; 5 year survival of 50% and 10 year survival of 0%
With; 90% survival rate at 10 years (80% remission with corticosteroids, 20% need liver transplant)
Term
What are the three ways in which Wilson disease presents
Definition
Hepatitis, CNS signs or Kayser-Fleischer rings
Term
How is Wilson disease diagnosed
Definition
Any combination of decreased ceruloplasmin, elevated urine copper or Kayser-Fleisher rings
(Liver biopsy or penacillamine test may be required in equivocal cases)
Term
Perform a clinical examination to rule out the DDx of depression
Definition

obs (? infective delirium)

mental state; delerium, psychosis, mania, withdrawal states

gen med; anaemia, hypothyroid, B12; angular cheilitis

neuro; intracerebral mass, Parkinson, dementia

Term
What are the International Classification of Disease 10 questions for depression and how is it scored
Definition
Mood, Anhedonia, Energy
Concentration, Self esteem, Worthlessness, Future, Sleep, Appetite, Suicidality

1+3, 6, 8 (mild, mod, severe)
Term
What is PHQ-2 and what does the scoring indicate
Definition
  • Patient Health Questionnaire; a two question depression screening tool
  • 1) mood 2) anhedonia over 2 weeks
  • 0, 1 (some), 2 (half), 3 (most)
  • 3 = +ve
Term
What are the co contributing causes of depression
Definition

Genetic; F>M, FHx

 

Biological; neurohormonal, peripartum, drugs (COCP, CS, B blocker), medical (psych, Parkinson, Dementia, thyroid, post infective states)

 

Environmental; stressors, seasonal

Term
What are the different classes of antidepressants
Definition
1) enzyme inhibitors
- MOAI; moclobemide
2) reuptake inhibitors
- NADI; bupropion
- NRI; raboxetine
- SNRI; venlafaxine, duloxetine, amitriptyline
- SSRI; fluoxetine, citalopram, sertraline
3) receptor modulators
- NaSSA; mirtazapine
Term

Outline the considerations with antidepressant use in

  1. adolescents 
  2. 18-25yo
Definition
  1. generally not utilised unless depression is severe 
  2. risk vs benefit ratio is equivocal as may experience a worsening of symptoms — in particular, suicidal ideation
Term
What are the precautions for TCAs
Definition
  • epilepsy; lowers seizure threshold 
  • psychiatric; overdose carries high risk of fatality acute 
  • cardiovascular; 
    • proarrythmic (QT prolongation) 
    • chornotropic (may precipitate angina) 
    • orthostatic hypotension is likely to be exacerbated 
  • prostatic hypertrophy; risk of precipitating urinary retention
Term
What is the link between antidepressants and bleeding
Definition
platelets require serotonin to function. SSRIs thus inhibit this uptake and increase risk (absolute risk is low) of bleeding (especially GIT). Need to contextualise with other bleeding risk factors
Term
What are the three primary sites of action and associated functions of serotonin
Definition
90% GIT; regulates intestinal movements
10% CNS; mood, appetite, sleep
platelets; some GIT secreted serotonin taken up by platelets and then released when platelets bind to a clot to promote vasoconstriction and clot homeostasis
Term
Name five agents that could contribute to serotonin syndrome
Definition
TCA, SSRI, MAOi, triptans, St Johns Wart
Term
What are the eight clinical features to assess when diagnosing serotonin syndrome
Definition

1) agitation 2) temperature 3) diaphoesis 4) ocular clonus 5) tremor 6) peripheral clonus (spontaneous or inducible) 7) hypertonism 8) hyperreflexia

[image]

Term
What is used to treat serotonin syndrome
Definition
Cyproheptadine
Term
Outline the duration of antidepressant therapy for different scenarios
Definition
1) first time; 2 weeks for onset, up to 6 weeks for full effect
2) first time with benefit; continue for 6-12 months
3) relapse of depression; likely required for 3 - 5 years
Term
Outline the features of antidepressant discontinuation syndrome and steps to prevent it
Definition
symptoms may include insomnia, postural imbalance, sensory disturbances, hyperarousal, nausea and flu-like symptoms
are mild, last 1 to 2 weeks, and are rapidly extinguished with reinstitution of the antidepressant
Prevent via tapering by halving dose weekly
Term
In a presentation of a depressed patient what are the seven different mood disorders that need be considered
Definition
Major Depressive Episode
Post partum blues / depression / psychosis
Bipolar disorder
Dysthymic disorder; low or irritable mood in a young person for most days over 1 year
Cyclothymia
Adjustement disorder with depressed mood
Secondary causes for depression
Term
What are the indications for a child or adolescent to be referred to a mental health service
Definition
- moderate to severe depression
- complicated depression; suicidality, substance abuse
- diagnostic uncertainty
- before starting antidepressants
Term
What are the two distinct age of onsets for Bipolar disorder and the aetiological factors associated with each
Definition
  • Early adulthood = genetic ("primary") 
  • >40yo for first episode = more likely to be secondary to 
    • drugs (CS, antiparkinsonian)
    • medical (stroke, tumour, hyperthyroidism)
Term
differentiate mania and hypomania
Definition
mania = elevated mood that affects function lasting >7 days
hypomania = mania but lasting between 4 and 7 days
Term
differentiate between Bipolar I and II
Definition
I = has experienced at least one episode of mania
II = has only experienced hypomania
Term
Describe four domains of mania behaviour
Definition
  • Sleep; perceived lack of need for sleep 
  • Goal directed activity; promiscuity, gambling, excessive spending 
  • Risk taking activity 
  • Enhanced perceptual experience; colours are more vivid, music more meaningful
Term
Describe prominent thought patterns in mania
Definition
Racing thoughts / flight of ideas
Reduced ability to focus and complete tasks (despite having many grandiose plans)
Term
Name three clinical features that can help to differentiate Bipolar depression from unipolar
Definition
Psychomotor retardation
Hyperphagia
Hypersomnia
Term
Discuss the three pharmacological treatment domains of bipolar disorder
Definition
Usual regime is antipsychotic and mood stabiliser.
Antipsychotics; good efficacy for mania
Mood stabilisers; lithium most commonly used
Antidepressants; can induce 'switching' to a manic episode and should not be used without a mood stabiliser concomittantly
Term
How is lithium excreted and what can decrease this
Definition
renal
fluid status; illness, fluid loss, diuresis
drugs; NSAIDs, diuretics
Term
At what time of the day should lithium levels be measured
Definition
8-12 hours after last dose
Term
With a patient stable on lithium therapy what bloods need testing regularly and how frequently
Definition
Lithium levels; 3-6 monthly
Thyroid function; 6 monthly
Calcium; annually with hyperparathyroid screen if it is raised
Term
What is lithiums effect on the thyroid and how should it be treated
Definition
Hypothyroidism, responds to thyroxine whilst lithium is still required
Term
What is the link between lithium and calcium
Definition
Long term lithium therapy can cause hyperparathyroidism and thus calcium levels should be measured annually and if elevated PTH levels added on
Term
Describe the lithium toxidrome including toxic dose
Definition

Acute overdose rarely results in toxicity (even up to 25g) as it is readily excreted renally. Overdose is more commonly due to chronic use in the setting of decreased excretion (fluid status decreased or concomittant NSAID use)

Toxidrome = neuro (ataxia, tremor, dysarthria), GIT (vomiting), muscle twitches and AKI

Term
what are the clinically relevant lithium serum levels
Definition
therapeutic usually = 0.6-0.8 mmol/L
some may need 0.8-1.0 or 0.4-0.6 mmol/L
toxicity usually only occurs over 1.5 mmol/L (in the setting of normal renal function)
Term
what is the definition of post natal depression
Definition
MDE criteria at any time within 12 months post partum
Term
outline the timeframe for post baby blues
Definition
depressive sxs peaking at day 5 post partum and resolving by day 10
Term
What is the screening tool used for post natal depression
Definition
Edinburgh Post Natal Depression Scale
Term
What is the most important question to ask a post natally depressed patinet
Definition
thoughts of self or infant harm needs immediate action (suicide is the leading cause of maternal death in the perinatal period in developed countries)
Term
What are three important conditions that need to be ruled out when suspecting post natal depression
Definition
Post partum psychosis
Anaemia
Hypothyroidism
Term
What is the pharmacological mx of post natal depression
Definition
same as for normal depression
all antidepressants are taking up into breast milk and only case reports are available for its saftey profile thus risk vs benefits need consideration
Term
What is the prevalence of post natal depression
Definition
one in 7
Term
what is the mechanism of action for St Johns Wart and what is a life threatening risk it is associated with
Definition
functions similar to SSRIs
risk of serotonin syndrome
Term
what three areas define anxious behaviour as becoming pathological
Definition
disproportionate; fear is greatly out of proportion to risk or threat
continuing; response continues beyond existing threat
dysfunction; social or occupational function is impaired
Term
define panic attack disorder
Definition
recurrent, unexpected panic attacks with at least one month of persistent concern about next attack or suffered significant behavioral change
panic attack = a discrete episode of intense fear in which anxiety symptoms develop abruptly and peak within 10 mins
Term
what are the diagnostic features of Generalised Anxiety Disorder
Definition
excessive uncontrollable anxiety and worrying for at least six months about a number of events and activities (eg money, job security, health)
three or more of the following (BE SKIM)
Blank mind, difficulty concentrating
Easy fatigability
Sleep disturbance
Keyed up, on edge or restless
Irritability
Muscle tension
Term
What are the three diagnostic criteria for obsessive compulsive disorder
Definition
1) obsession and / or compulsion 2) recognition that they are excessive / unreasonable 3) result in dysfunction
Term
What are the diagnostic criteria for PTSD
Definition
1) exposure to a traumatic event
2) persistent re-experiencing of the event
3) three of; emotional numbing, anhedonia, amnesia, avoidance (of reminding thoughts / activities)
4) two or more persistent feelings of arousal; insomnia, irritability, difficulty concentrating, hypervigilance, exaggerated startle response
5) present for > 1 month
Term
Hightlight two features that differentiate grief and depression
Definition
Fluctuance; in grief negative feelings come in waves, in depression they are comparatively constant
Self esteem; generally not affected in grief
Term
What defines complicated grief
Definition

> 6 months

 

OR

 

intense grief associated with impaired function

Term
What are the five stages of grief
Definition
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Term
Differentiate affect and mood
Definition
Affect = immediate expression of current emotion
Mood = emotional experience over a more prolonged period of time
Term
Outline the features of a mental state exam
Definition

ABS always takes Jennys income 

  • Appearance; dressed ^, groomed ^ 
  • Behaviour; ^ppropriate, relaxed / agitated, cooperative 
  • Speech; ^ rate, ^ volume, prosody is present (emotional inflection exists) 
  • Affect; low/ euthymic/ elevated, congruent 
  • Thought; ^ obsessions / delusions / hallucinations 
  • Judgement; “if you went home and couldn’t find keys to get into house what would you do?” 
  • Insight; ^ perception of disease process and need for treatment
Term
What is the average age of onset for schizophrenia
Definition
young adulthood
- mid 20's for women
- younger for men (40% have first episode before 20yo)
Term
Describe the four temporal stages of schizophrenia
Definition
Premorbid; no sxs -> social, cognitive, perceptual disturbances
Prodromal; sudden or insidious onset of delusions / hallucinations
Middle; 5 years -> constant or fluctuant hallucinations / delusions with worsening functional components
Late; established illness pattern with functional compromise either stabilising or resolving
Term
What are the four domains of schizophrenia symptoms
Definition
Positive; hallucinations / delusions
Negative; decreased emotional range, anhedonia
Cognitive; memory, concentration, executive function
Mood; often seem happy or sad in a way that is difficult to comprehend
Term
What is the main cause of premature death in people with schizophrenia
Definition
Suicide (5% with a 20% attempt rate and higher ideation rate)
Term
What is the link between schizophrenia and cardiovascular disease
Definition
up to 5 times higher risk of metabolic syndrome with higher risk of smoking, obesity, hyperglycaemia and hyperlipidaemia
Term
What is the recurrence rate with antipsychotics vs without and what is the general overall sucess rate of their use
Definition
80% recurrence vs 20% when using
30% full resolution of sxs, 30% partial with some ongoing dysfucntion, 30% permanent sxs with significant dysfuction
Term
Differentiate between first generation and second generation antipsychotics
Definition

First generation

- have higher rate of extrapyramidal side effects

- eg Haloperidol

 

Second generation

- have higher rate of cariac side effects ie QTc prolongation

- eg olanzapine, respiradone, quetiapine

 

Importance of distinction is diminishing as efficacy is generally the same between classes and it now primarily reflects the length of time the drugs have been available

Term
List common adverse effects that need regular monitoring for patients on long term antipsychotic therapy
Definition
the sleepy fat rhythmic arrhythmic can raise neither head, brain nor droopy breast)
sedation
increased appetite and rapid weight gain
movement disorders (eg extrapyramidal effects, akathisia)
prolonged QTc
sexual dysfunction (this does not appear immediately)
orthostatic hypotension
hyperprolactinaemia causing breast enlargement and/or galactorrhoea
Term
Differentiate the pyramidal and extra pyramidal tracts by anatomy and function
Definition
Pyramidal = a group of prefrontal cortex motor neurons that run though a specific anatomical aspect of the thalamus to form a triangular bundle. Function to transmit all voluntary skeletal muscle contractions
Extrapyramidal = all other motor fibres that do not run through this tract with motor contributions for cerebellum, other cortical (ie non prefrontal cortex) locations and brainstem. Functions to convey automatic motor functions of the skeletal muscle such as gait, posture, coordination and inhibitory / regulatory signals (eg tone)
Term
What are the three mechanisms by which the extrapyramidal tract pathologically becomes deficient in dopamine
Definition
1) Dopamine antagonists (most commonly first generation antipsychotics but also antiemetics such as metoclopramide and droperidol)
2) Rapid reduction / cessation of dopamine agonists (eg parkinsons drugs, cocaine, psychotropics, opioids)
3) Degeneration of the dopamine producing cells of the substantia nigra
Term
Differentiate the first and second generation antipsychotics
Definition
1st = eg Haloperidol and chlorpromazine. AKA typical antipsychotics. Dopamine antagonists that are more likely to cause extrapyramidal side effects
2nd = eg respiridone, olanzapine, clozapine. AKA atypical antipsychotics. Also function as dopamine antagonists but less likely to cause extrapyramidal side effects and more likely to cause QTc prolongation or weight gain
Term
Describe a patient presenting with Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Definition
5 to 10 days after a dopamine antagonist a decreased GCS diaphoretic patient will present hyperthermic, tachycardic and hypertensive with lead pipe rigidity, sialorrhoea and possible organ dysfunction.
Term
Tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, lead pipe rigidity and siallorhea
Definition
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Term
Hyperthermia, clonus, tremor
Definition
Serotonin Syndrome
Term
Describe a patient presenting with an Acute Dystonic Reaction
Definition
Hours to day after a dopamine antagonist a patient will present with a sustained involuntary muscle contraction eg torticollis, oculogyric crisis or tongue protrusion
Term
What is an oculogyric crisis
Definition
A type of acute dystonic reaction after use of a dopamine antagonist
Term
What is akathesia
Definition
An extrapyramidal symptom of inner restlessness and compelling need to be in constant motion
Term
Restless patient, refusing to stay still, in constant motion
Definition
Akathesia
Term
Describe a patient with Tardive Dyskinesia
Definition
Months to years after intiation of an antipsychotic rapid or gradual onset of repetitive involuntary muscle movements
Term
Describe five extrapyramidal motor signs
Definition

bradykinesia

cogwheel rigidity

festinating gait

postural instability

akathesia

Term
What are the NHMRC guidelines for ETOH use
Definition

- average no more than 2 standard drinks per day on average to reduce the lifetime risk of ETOH related conditions

- no more than 4 standard drinks in one session to reduce the risk of alcohol related injury

- delay drinking age as late as possible

- no ETOH in pregnancy

Term
What are the three main causes of ETOH related deaths
Definition
Trauma, cancer, ETOH liver disease
Term
Describe CAGE screening for ETOH
Definition
>1 = positive
have you ever felt the need to Cut down
have you ever felt Annoyed by peoples criticism of your drinking
have you ever felt Guilty about your drinking
do you need an Eye opener
Term
Describe the three medications available for assistance in chronic alcoholism treatment
Definition
Disulfiram; causes unpleasant and potentially harmful side effects when combined with ETOH
Acamprosate; GABA analogue that decreases the neuronal hyperexcitability of alcohol withdrawal
Naltrexone; blocks endogenous opioids release on ETOH ingestion thus decreases pleasurable effects of ETOH (but not functional impairment)
Term
Agitation, tremor, diaphoresis
Definition
ETOH withdrawal
Term
What advice should be given to a patient with Hep B (and a high viral load) about their capacity to transmit the virus
Definition
Spread is through blood, sexual contact and open wounds. Kissing, sharing food utensils and general contact has no risk of transmission
Term
Describe serological evidence of hepatitis B seroconversion and the implication of this
Definition

- seroconversion refers to the immune control phase (ie Anti ABe +ve and Anti HBsAb +ve with low viral load)

- means that an individual is unlikely to transmit HBV

- it must be remembered that the HBV is never completely eradicated from the liver. In older age or if the patient is immune suppressed, the disease may flare again

Term
What age range does Transient Synovitis of the Hip occur most commonly
Definition
3-10 yo
Term
What is transient synovitis of the hip
Definition
A self limiting idiopathic unilateral inflammation of the hip synovium
Term
Describe the clinical presentation of transient synovitis of the hip
Definition
3-10 year old with sudden onset hip pain. Can usually walk but with a limp due to pain. Painful limitation of hip movement. Log roll of leg elicits involuntary guardning of hip movements
Term
Describe the etiology of Perthes disease
Definition
Family history, M:F = 5:1, age 4-8
Term
Describe the pathophysiology of Perthes disease
Definition
Idiopathic osteonecrosis of the femoral head before skeletal maturity that results in abnormal ossification
Term
Describe the common clinical presentation of Perthes disease
Definition
4-8yo male with unilateral gradual onset hip pain and a limp
Term
Describe the etiology of Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
Definition
Rare, 10-16yo, M:F = 2:1, associated with obesity
Term
Describe the pathophysiology of Slipped Capital Fermoral Epiphysis
Definition
a combination of an abnormally widened epiphyseal growth plate PLUS an abnormally weak structure to the growth plate PLUS a change in the shearing forces during adolesence from horizontal to oblique
Term
Describe the clinical presentation of Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
Definition
Acute, chronic or acute on chronic hip pain with limp and restricted internal rotation. May have knee pain. If severe (ie unstable) will be unable to weight bare
Term
What are the three main areas of clinical presentation for Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis
Definition
Arthropathy
Uveitits
Growth abnormality
Term
What two organisms are most commonly implicated in Impetigo
Definition
Strep pyogenes and Staph aureus
Term
What are the diagnostic features of ADHD
Definition

at least 6 months, in more than one situation and before the age of 12 of one or more of

- inattention; easy distraction with frequent change of activity

- hyperactivity; excessive movement and restlessness that impairs social functioning

- impulsiveness; acting without reflection

Term
Compare age related memory changes vs mild cognitive impairment vs dementia
Definition
Age related changes are a loss of memory comparable to the age cohort with speed of recall being a hallmark feature
Mild cognitive impairment is loss of memory and other cognitive function greater than expected for age (50% progression to dementia over 3 years)
Dementia is cognitive dysfunction with loss of function
Term
What are the three most common forms of dementia
Definition
Alzheimers disease, Vascular Dementia, Lewy Body Dementia
Term
Describe the progression of dementia from early to intermittent to advanced via the five domains of symptomatology
Definition
  • Early 
    • cognitive; learning and retaining new information becomes difficult 
    • function; progressive difficulty with tasks (eg finances) and mechanistic objects (eg phone, remote, CPU) 
    • psychiatric; increasing mood swings, irritability and anhedonia 
    • behaviour and physical are not effected 
  • Intermittent 
    • cognition; cannot learn new memories, worsening loss of sense of time and space 
    • function; require help with basic ADLs 
    • psychiatric; personality changes (often anger or flattened affect), altered perception may culminate in hallucinations / delusions 
    • behaviour; problems begin (wandering, agitated, uncooperative) 
    • physical; early loss of physical capacity may begin 
  • Advanced 
    • cognition; recent and remote memory is completely lost 
    • function; cannot walk or perform any ADLs 
    • psychiatric; perceptual disturbance can worsen 
    • behaviour; previous problems start to settle as physical capacity declines 
    • physical; progression to loss of swallow with death often via infection
Term
Outline the diagnostic approach to dementia
Definition
A combination of four components
- inclusion criteria
1) memory dysfunction is gradual in onset
2) memory dysfunction is progressive in its deterioration
3) there is a failure of function eg mechanistic objects
4) there is cortical dysfunction; eg dysphasia, dyspraxia
- Exclusion criteria; delerium, psychiatric disorder or other secondary causes of cognitive dysfunction
- Cognitive assessment tools; GPCOG
- frontal lobe assessment; clock face
Term
What possible preventative measures can a patient take to avoid dementia
Definition
Optimise CVS risk factors to prevent Vascular Dementia
Growing evidence for regular
- exercise
- social engagement
- cognitive stimulation eg sudoku, crosswords
Term
What is the approach to management of behavioural difficulties in dementia
Definition
  1. non pharmacological is always first line given risk of use of antipsychotics
  2. pharmacological
    • second generation antipsychotics (given risk of lewy body dementia)
    • start low, go slow
    • at least 3 monthly review given natural progression of disease results in decreased behavioural dysfunction
Term
Are antidepressants appropriate for use in dementia patients
Definition
Yes, there is a high risk of depression in patients with dementia and this should be screened for early and treated with antidepressants earlier than would be considered other causes of depression
Term
Discuss the benefits of cholinesterase inhibitors for patients with dementia
Definition
do not modify disease progression but can maintain or improve alertness, cognition and function for up to four years
Term
What are the most common side effects with the use of cholinesterase inhibitors with dementia patients and how can these be mitigated
Definition
GIT eg anorexia, nausea and vomiting
often avoided by low initial dose with slow uptitration
Term
What should a doctor diagnosing a patient with dementia inform the patient of with regards to the driving
Definition
It is a reportable disease and thus the patient must inform the driving authorities of the diagnosis
Term
What are the three key diagnostic features in a patient with dementia that would suggest Lewy Body Dementia
Definition
Visual hallucinations
Parkinsonism (tremor often absent)
Significant fluctuations in cognition
Term
What are the three classifications of a delerium presentation
Definition
Hyperactive, hypoactive or mixed
Term
What is the Australian life time risk for women of developing breast cancer
Definition
1 in 11
Term
Describe the etiologic risk of breast and ovarian cancer associated with a woman with BRCA1 or 2 gene positive status
Definition
  • BRCA1 and 2 account for 5% of all breast cancers 
  • A woman with BRCA 1 or 2 has a 
    • 60% chance of getting breast cancer 
    • 40% chance of ovarian cancer
Term
What are the risk factors for breast cancer
Definition
Family history
BRCA 1 or 2
obesity
oestrogen exposure
smoking
Term
What are the screening recommendations for breast cancer
Definition
2 yearly mammograms from age 50 to 74
Term
At what age does a breast cyst usually appear and how do they present
Definition
>40yo. Firm and mobile, may be tender, may fluctuate with hormonal cycle
Term
What percentage of total breast lumps do fibroadenomas account for
Definition
12% or 60% if <20yo
Term
Describe the clinical findings of a breast fibroadenoma
Definition
Firm, rubbery, hypermobile often in the upper outer quadrant of the breast. Can change wit hormonal cycle
Term
What is the management for breast fibroadenoma
Definition
Generally conservative. Consider surgical intervention if uncomfortable or diagnostic uncertainty
Term
Describe the triple test for a breast lump
Definition
a combination of
- clinical examination
- imaging; USS for <35, either USS / mammogram for 35 - 50, mammogram for >50
- FNA
positive if any of the three is suspicious for malignancy
positive result indicates further follow up is required (eg excisional biopsy)
false +ve rate = 40%, false negative rate = 0.6%
Term
What is the accuracy of the triple test for a breast lump excluding malignancy
Definition
False positive rate = 40%
False negative rate = 0.4%
Term
Describe the two different types of mastalgia
Definition
Cyclical; starts in 20's, begins with PMS sxs, resolves with menstruation, bilateral upper outer quadrant
Non cyclical; starts in 30's, uni / bilateral, inner lower quadrant
Term
What is the management for primary mastalgia
Definition
Often spontaneous remission after 3/12 so conservative approach is common
Bromocriptine, danozol and tamoxifen can give good relief but have significant side effects
Term
Differentiate between physiological and pathological nipple discharge
Definition
Physiological; occurs with nipple compression, multiple points of discharge, bilateral, no palpable mass and is clear / white / yellow / green
Pathological; occurs spontaneously with single duct of discharge, is unilateral, may have an underlying mass and has the addition of blood to normal colour
Term
Define primary amenorrhoea
Definition
absence of periods by age 14 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics or 16 in girls with secondary sexual characteristics
Term
How soon after the onset of secondary sexual characteristics do periods usually start
Definition
2 years
Term
Outline the causes of abnormal vaginal bleeding into systemic, uterine and cervical
Definition

Systemic

- conditions; renal, hepatic, thyroid, coagulopathy

- drugs; hormonal (HRT, contraception), anticoagulants

- physiological; perimenarche, obesity, PCOS, perimenopausal

Uterine

- IUD

- pregnancy 

- growth; myometrium (adenomyosis, fibroid), endometrium (hyperplasia, endometriosis, polyp, cancer)

- infection; endometrium

Cervical

- growth; ectropian, cancer

- infection; chlamydia

Term
Define oligomenorrhoea
Definition
bleeding intervals > 35 days
Term
Define polymenorrhoea
Definition
Bleeding intervals <21 days
Term
Define menorrhagia
Definition
Normal cycle length but with excessive flow
Term
Define metorrhagia
Definition
Irregular cycle length, duration of flow and volume of flow
Term
Define amenorrhoea
Definition
Bleeding intervals >6/12
Term
Differentiate between primary and secondary dysmenorrhoea
Definition
Primary has onset within 6 months of menarche. Secondary has onset later in life and is associated with pathology
Term
What are the risk factors for primary dysmenorrhoea
Definition

Duration of periods, earlier age of menarche

Smoking, obesity, ETOH,

Stressors, mental health

Term
Outline the management for primary dysmenorrhoea
Definition
First line = NSAID (if not attempting pregnancy), start 48 hours before sxs if able, continue regularly throughout period
Second line = OCP (can combine with NSAID)
Term
What is the mechanism of action for NSAIDs in the treatment of dysmenorrhoea
Definition
Prostaglandin inhibition
Term
Outline the approach to assessment for secondary dysmennorrhoea
Definition
Same as for causes of abnormal vaginal bleeding
Term
Outline the management approach for menorrhagia
Definition
  • tranexamic acid; good first line 
  • NSAID; beware if pregnancy is possible 
  • oestrogen; consider usual COCP contraindications (DVT, migraines with aura, smoker >40yo) 
  • consider IUD; excellent efficacy 
  • is there proven endometriosis; requires GnRH agonist 
  • is there intermenstrual bleeding; NSAID / tranexamic alone will be ineffectual, need progersterone to atrophy endometrium 
  • Advanced; hysterectomy, endometrial ablation
Term
What is the treatment regime for diazepam in ETOH withdrawal
Definition
20mg Q2H until improvement of sxs
if 60mg reconsider Dx
Max 100mg in 24 hours
Wean over 2 - 7 days
beware use in advance liver disease
Term
What is the age distribution of presentations for endometrial cancer
Definition
80% are post menopausal
only 5% present <40yo
Term
What are the risk factors for endometrial cancer
Definition
  • Elevated serum oestrogen
    • adipose tissue
    • SERMs (eg Tamoxifen)
    • unopposed oestrogen (eg HRT for >5yrs)
  • Diabetes and hypertension
    • debate as to whether is a cause or result of other RFs (eg obesity)
  • Hereditary
    • Lynch syndrome
    • breast cancer
Term
What is Lynch syndrome
Definition
an autosomal dominant genetic mutation causing a cancer susceptibility syndrome for uterine, colorectal and ovarian cancer
Term
Describe the clinical presentation of endometrial cancer
Definition
95% present with abnormal vaginal bleeding. Any bleeding at all in post menopausal women needs investigating
Term
Discuss endometrial cancer recurrence post hysterectomy
Definition
Most likely in first 5 years post hysterectomy. Occurs in vaginal vault in low risk patients with speculum examination retaining good assessment accuracy. Occurs as distant metastases in high risk patients.
Term
What is the contribution of COCP to the risk of endometrial cancer
Definition
It is a protective factor
Term
What is chondromalacia patellae
Definition
An overuse syndrome most common in 10-30 yo athletes that presents as generalised knee pain and pain on compression of patella
Term
What is Osgood Schlatter disorder
Definition
A traction apophysitis of the tibial tubercle in active 10-15 year olds
Term
What is the difference between osteochondritis and osteonecrosis
Definition
Osteochondritis = a fragment of cartilage and subchondral bone separative from an articular surface which has normal vascularity
In osteonecrosis the bone underlying the fragment is avascular
Term
What is osteochondritis dissecans
Definition
An idiopathic disorder in which a fragment of subchondral bone separates from an underlying bone which has normal vascularity
Term
Differentiate spontaneous from secondary osteonecrosis of the knee
Definition
Spontaneous is an idiopathic, unilateral, isolated, acute onset of knee pain occurring in >55 year olds and may be associated with osteoporosis or trauma
Secondary osteonecrosis of the knee is a bilateral, insidious onset knee pain which will often have other joints invovled, occurs in <55 year olds and is associated with multiple conditions including ETOH, SLE and corticosteroids
Term
Describe venous and arterial thrombosis in terms of shear forces and virchows triad
Definition
Blood flow in arteries causes high shear forces (large difference between velocity of flow between lumen and middle of artery). Thrombosis in this setting occurs due to turbulence which activates platelets to form clots.
Venous flow is low shear and clots are due to Virchows Triad (abnormalities in endothelium, blood or flow)
Term
What is Greater Trochanteric Pain Syndrome
Definition
A term that has replaced Trochanteric Bursitis and thus recognises that pain over the greater trochanter has a range of causes with an isolated bursitis only being one. The most other prominent cause is a tear of gluteus medius or minimus.
It presents more commonly in older people, at night after a day of activity and can mimic spinal nerve root compression and OA of the hip.
Term
Describe important etiological factors in adhesive capsulitis
Definition
3% annual incidence generally but increased to 40% with diabetes
70% are women
Term
Differentiate between idiopathic and acquired adhesive capsulitis
Definition
Idiopathic = the standard form, associated with age, female, DM and progressing through the usual 3 stages
Acquired = as a result of trauma, does not follow the three stages and generally resolves quicker
Term
Describe the clinical progression of idiopathic adhesive capsulitis
Definition
Phase 1; freezing phase, characterised by constant pain, worse on movement and at night. Lasts 2-9 months.
Phase 2; frozen phase, motion becomes severely limited in all planes but pain abates. Lasts 3-12 months.
Phase 3; thawing phase, motion slowly returns but may take up to 2 years
Term
Clinically differentiate between adhesive capsulitis and a rotator cuff disorder
Definition
Adhesive capsulitis
- pain is constant
- stiffness exists in all planes of movement
- rotator cuff strength is reserved
Term
Outline a classification approach to female dyspareunia
Definition
  • Primary vs secondary 
    • primary; life long, often psychological component 
    • secondary; acquired condition 
  • Superficial vs deep 
    • superficial especially at time of insertion is commonly a learned response 
    • deep is more likely to be associated with pathology
Term
Outline the risk of PID and infertility in women with chlamydia
Definition
40% untreated will develop PID
10% infertility rate after 1st PID
Term
What is the incubation period for chlamydia
Definition
1-2 weeks. Uncommonly up to 12 weeks
Term
Describe screening protocols for chlamydia
Definition
  • Heterosexual 
    • opportunistic 
      • (interval unclear as per Redbook thus case by case determination of interval is appropriate) 
      • women; self collected vaginal sample > endocervical sample > first pass urine (sensistivity) 
      • men; first pass urine 
  • MSM 
    • annual urine, anorectal and throat testing
    • 3 monthly if ongoing exposure to new partners
Term
What methods of emergency contraception are available in which setting is each used and what are there efficacy
Definition
1. Levonorgestrel
- a prostegogen which taken at this dose interferes with egg and sperm mobility and disrupts uterine lining to prevent implantation
- efficacy = 94% within 24hours, 85% in 48 hours and 60% in 72 hours
- can be taken up to 5 days but decreased efficacy may warrant IUD instead

Copper IUD
- considered if oral form not appropriate
- highly effective
- consider risk with STI
Term
What are the contraindications to Implanon use
Definition
  • cancer
    • breast cancer
      • MEC 3 with strong FHx 
      • MEC4 if within last 5 years (only absolute contraindication)
    • other sex steroid sensitive malignancies
  • liver 
    • tumours (benign or malignant)
    • severe liver disease
  • active thromboembolism 
  • undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
  • pregnancy
Term
What are the bleeding rates associated with Implanon use
Definition
1 in 5 get amenorrhoea, 1 in 5 get frequent / prolonged bleeding
Term
Describe the timing of insertion for the implanon
Definition
1. traditional; inserting on day 1-5 of a cycle. Provides immediate contraception
2. Quick Start; inserting beyond day 5 of the cycle, need to test for pregnancy at 4 weeks after insertion, need alternative contraception for first 7 days after insertion
Term
When can contraception be ceased after menopause
Definition
2 years of amenorrhoea if <50 and 1 year if >50
Term
What factors are associated with an earlier onset of menopause
Definition
smoking, chronic systemic disease
Term
Draw a normal menstrual cycle and describe the function of FSH, LH, oestrogen and progesterone
Definition
[image]
Term
Describe oestrogen, progesterone, LH and FSH as they apply to menopause
Definition
Decreasing ovarian primordial follicle numbers associated with an increasing resistance to FSH of these follicles results in lower levels of secreted oestrogen. Thus oestrogen negative feedback on GnRH does not occur and increasingly higher levels of FSH and LH are produced (LH has good renal clearance thus FSH levels will be higher). Increasing occurrences of anovulatory cycles result in fewer corpus leteum and thus a lack of cyclical progesterone.
Term
When can contraception be ceased with menopause
Definition
After 1 year of amenorrhoea if >50yo or after 2 years if <50yo
Term
What defines early onset menopause and premature menopause
Definition
<40 = premature 40-45 = early onset
Term
Discuss the symptom profile of menopause
Definition
  • Mental health; low mood, depression, anxiety, decreased concentration, irritability 
  • Vasomotor; flushing and night sweats 
  • Menstruation; perimenopausal variation in volume and frequency of periods 
  • Vaginal dryness / dyspareunia 
  • Decreased libido
  • Joint pain
  • Poor sleep 
  • Fatigue 
  • Formication (ants crawling over skin) 
Term
Provide a general outline for possible HRT treatments in menopause
Definition
  • Best symptom relief comes from replacing the oestrogen deficit. This can be in oral or transdermal HRT preparations. 
  • If main sxs are vaginal could consider just topical vaginal oestrogen cream
  • If woman has a uterus needs progesterone to counterbalance the endometrial hyperplasia. If within 2 years of menopause this should be cyclical (eg two weeks on, two weeks off) to provide planned bleed and thus avoid irregular bleed
  • If contraindications to HRT consider SSRI, SNRI, gabapentin or clonidine all of which have proven benefit for menopausal sxs
Term
If a menopausal woman with vaginal dryness has a uterus and is using vaginal HRT does she need progesterone to prevent endometrial hyperplasia
Definition
No. There is very minimal systemic uptake of vaginal oestrogen preparations
Term
What are the contraindications to HRT in menopause
Definition
  • Absolute
    • cerebrovascular disease
    • current breast or endometrial cancer
    • active liver disease
    • unexplained vaginal bleeding
    • current VTE
    • active SLE
  • Relative
    • focal migraine
    • past history of breast, endometrial or ovarian cancer
    • previous IHD
    • increased VTE risk
    • hyperlipidaemia
Term
Discuss cardiovascular risk and hormone replacement therapy
Definition

50 to 60 years old

- cardioprotective if no cardiac disease

- increased risk if already has cardiac disease

60+

- increases cardiac risk 

Term
What four conditions are associated with increased risk with HRT between the ages of 50 and 60
Definition

Breast cancer (with oestrogen+progesterone only)

VTE

Stroke

Cholecystitis

Term
Discuss the risk of breast cancer with HRT
Definition
Baseline risk of 30 per 10 000 woman years is increased to 36 per 10 000 woman years with oestrogen+progesteron HRT. There is no increased risk with oestrogen alone.
Term
Does the mirena have a role in HRT for menopause
Definition
Yes. It is an excellent solution to the need for progesterone when using oestrogen.
Term
Discuss weight gain as it relates to HRT for menopause
Definition
No causal association has been found. Is more likely related to menopause itself
Term
Describe a characteristic migraine
Definition
A unilateral moderately severe pulsating headache that lasts for 4-72 hours, is associated with nausea / vomiting, photo / phono phobia and may be preceeded by a sensory or motor aura
Term
What is a Hemiplegic Migraine
Definition
A migraine in which the aura includes motor symptoms
Term
Describe a typical migrainous aura
Definition
  • usually preheadache 
  • last for ~ 1/24 
  • are 'positive' sxs (eg visual loss would be negative) 
  • 90% are visual, commonly a fortification spectra 
  • parasthesias are second most common
Term
Outline the pharmacological management approach for migraines
Definition
Acute
- first line is NSAID
- second line is triptan
+/- antiemetic and sedating antihistamine
Prophylaxis
- use depends on frequency and severity
- first line amitriptyline, pizotifen or propranolol
Term
Female, post partum, severe headache
Definition
Cerebral Venous Thrombus
Term
Female, obese, headache, visual change
Definition
Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension
Term
What factors differentiate a tension type headache from a migraine
Definition
TTH is bilateral, non pulsatile, not exacerbated by activity, not associated with N/V, is mild to moderate and has no more than one of photophobia or phonophobia
Term
Describe characteristic features of a cluster headache
Definition
  • severe, unilateral, retroorbital headache lasting 15 - 180 minutes associated with a sense of restlessness / agitation (do not lie down, unable to sit still) and at least one of 
    • conjunctival injection and/or lacrimation
    • nasal congestion and/or rhinorrhoea
    • forehead and facial sweating / flushing
    • miosis and/or ptosis 
  • clusters result in attacks from every other day to up to 8 per day
Term
What is the primary differential diagnosis for cluster headache and what definitively differentiates the two
Definition
Paroxysmal hemicrania which has an absolute response to Indomethocin
Term
Name three ways in which migraines in children present differently to adults
Definition
- they are shorter
- photophobia and phonophobia do not develop until 12 years of age
- they are more commonly bilateral
Term
What are the indications to proceed with imaging for a patient presenting with a headache
Definition
  • new-onset severe headaches 
  • a change in character or pattern of pre-existing headaches 
  • headache location is exclusively occipital 
  • seizures 
  • signs of neurological dysfunction 
  • <6 years of age 
  • a history of neurocutaneous syndrome (e.g. neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis or Sturge–Weber sydrome)
Term
Discuss non pharmacological management of preventing migraines (prophylaxis)
Definition
  • Identify triggers and avoid 
    • hydration 
    • sleep; same sleep / waking time and consistently 8 hours per day 
    • caffiene; avoid regular use 
    • diet; hunger can be a trigger, avoid high sugar and processed foods 
  • CBT
    • can be very effective
Term
What are the ICD diagnostic headache criteria for Trigeminal Neuralgia
Definition

Paroxysmal attacks of pain lasting from seconds to minutes affecting one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve and

- attacks are stereotyped in an individual patient

PLUS Either

- is either intense/sharp/stabbing 

OR

- reproducible by a trigger (shaving/cold air etc)

 

Term
What is the pathophysiology of Multiple Sclerosis
Definition
an immune mediated inflammatory disease against myelinated axons in the central nervous system
Term
What clinical factors will allow for a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis
Definition
More than one upper motor neurone lesions separated in time and space
Term
Does multiple sclerosis present with upper motor neurone lesions, lower motor neurone lesions or both?
Definition
Upper motor neurone lesions
Term
What are the most common clinical features that present in Multiple Sclerosis
Definition
  • Presents as relapsing and remitting upper motor neurone lesions separated in time and space
  • Commonly
    • optic neuritis; 20% as first presenting symptom, 40% at some stage of the disease process
    • fatigue; 75%, is the major cause of unemployment
    • cognitive dysfunction; 40-70%, not correlated to physical dysfunction
    • pain; primary (due to demyelinating process), secondary (MSK due to posture, lack of use, spasticity)
    • bladder dysfunction
Term
How does optic neuritis present
Definition
Loss of vision with pain on extra ocular movements
Term
How is multiple sclerosis diagnosed
Definition
  • Clinical diagnosis with support from investigations 
    • MRI 90% sensitivity 
    • LP; oligoclonal IgG 90% sensitivity 
    • visual evoked EEG potentials; 90% sensitivity
Term
Discuss Vitamin D in Multiple sclerosis
Definition
  • RACGP Check article says
    • Vitamin D decreases relapses and prevents people with FHx from developing MS 
    • everyone at risk should be on at least 5000IU of vitamin D 
  • UK MS Society
    • summarises all evidence available up to 2016 
    • Vitamin D seems to have a role to play studies have varied in it's effectiveness safe dose not yet established 
    • more research needed 
    • Vitamin D should be given at usual amounts to target Vitamin D deficiency and not MS (ie 1000IU daily if deficient)
Term
What is the pathophysiology of Parkinson disease
Definition
Loss of dopamine producing neurons from the CNS causing loss of automated motor function
Term
Outline the important factors to consider when deciding between rate and rhythm control for AF
Definition

[image]

Term
What are the three classes of rate control agents in chronic AF and how do they work
Definition
1) beta blocker; inhibits beta adrenergic chronotropy, inotropy and arterial tone
2) calcium channel blocker; inhibits intracellular calcium uptake causing decreased arterial tone, chronotropy and inotropy
3) Digoxin; inhibits Na/K ATPase causing increased intracellular calcium mediated positive inotropy and an increased refractory period of conductive tissue thus membrane stabilisation
Term
What are the three main receptors on which Beta blockers act, what is the function of each receptor and give examples of drugs that target them
Definition
  • Receptors 
    • B1; responsible for cardiac inotropy and chronotropy 
    • B2; responsible for relaxation of smooth muscle in lungs and vasculature 
    • alpha 1; responsible for vascular smooth muscle constriction 
  • Different classes 
    • selective for B1; metoprolol 
    • non selective B1/2; propanolol 
    • non selective B1/2 + alpha1; carvedilol, labetalol
Term
What are the two main classes of calcium channel blockers, how do they differ in their clinical effects, what are examples of each
Definition
dyhydropiridine
- eg amlodipine
- causes peripheral vasodilation without cardiac depression
Non-dyhydropiridines
- eg Diltiazem and Verapamil
- decrease PVR + cardiac depression (negative chronotropy and inotropy)
Term
Which cardiovascular drug is associated with gum hypertrophy
Definition
calcium channel blockers
Term
How does digoxin work
Definition
Inhibits Na/K ATPase function thus
- increased intracellular calcium
- decreased conductive refractory period
Term
How is digoxin cleared
Definition
70% renal clearance
Term
Describe the clinical presentation of digoxin toxicity
Definition

Can present acutely (eg overdose) or sub acutely (eg intercurrent illness, renal dysfunction)

Clinical

- early; GIT (N/V/D, abdo pain), hyperkalaemia

- progressing to; tachy or brady arrhythmias, hypotension, CNS depression

Term
What is the mechanism of the five antiarrhythmic classes and what are common drugs associated with each
Definition
  • Class I; 
    • prolong depolarisation 
    • flecainide 
  • Class II 
    • beta blocker 
  • Class III
    • prolong repolarisation 
    • amiodarone, sotalol 
  • Class IV 
    • calcium channel blockers 
    • diltiazem, verapamil 
  • Class V 
    • variable mechanism 
    • digoxin, adenosine, magnesium
Term
Discuss the use of flecanide as a first line agent for rhythm control in atrial fibrillation
Definition
  • Is a good first line drug if 
    • no structural heart disease (as it predisposes to ventricular arrhythmia) 
    • concomittant use of rate control drug (as it predisposes to conversion of atrial flutter into 1:1 conduction)
Term
What is the mechanism of action of sotalol
Definition
Combined action of non-selective B1 and B2 blockade PLUS K+ channel blocker which decreases efflux of intracellular potassium and thus causes prolonged refractory period of cardiac conductile tissue
Term
Discuss the use of Sotalol as a first line agent for rhthym control in atrial fibrillation
Definition
Good first line agent in <65yo with good renal function and no other cardiac conduction dysfunction (thus avoiding risk sinister arrhthmia, especially Torsades)
Term
Discuss the possible effects of Amiodarone on the thyroid
Definition
Can cause a spectrum of disease from subclinical TFT abnormalities to severe thyroid disease. Can in those with or without underlying thyroid disease
Results from amiodarone induced
- iodine load from Amiodarone molecule
- inhibition of T4 clearance
- inhibition of T4 tissue uptake
- pituitary induced TSH elevation
- direct thyroid follicle toxicity
Thyrotoxicosis occurs as
- Type 1; due to iodine overload
- Type 2; due to destrictive thyroiditis
Hypothyroidism is more likely in the setting of Hashimotos
Term
Discuss Amiodarone and pregnancy
Definition
Should be stopped 3 months before pregnancy due to potential for thyroid dysfunction in foetus.
Do not take whilst breast feeding
Term
What effect can Amiodarone have on the lungs
Definition
Two main types of pulmonary toxicity
- an acute or delayed inflammatory disorder which is reversible if caught early and may respond to corticosteroids
- a chronic fibrotic form due to prolonged exposure with limited reversibility
Term
Discuss preinitiation and monitoring investigations for a patient on Amiodarone
Definition
  • Preinitiation 
    • serum electrolytes, liver function and TFTs
    • ECG 
    • lung function 
    • CXR 
  • Monitoring 
    • 6 monthly electrolytes, LFTs, TFTs 
    • annual CXR and ECG
Term
What monitoring needs to continue post amiodarone cessation
Definition
6 monthly TFTs for 12 months due to delayed onset thyroid disease
Term
In what setting is Amiodarone preferred over other antiarrhythmics when treating atrial fibrillation
Definition
Heart failure; amiodarone has a relatively low negative inotropy
Term
Discuss the risk assessment for AF patients to determine the use of anticoagulation
Definition
CHA2DS2-Vasc:
-CHD, HTN, Age (65-72 =1, +74=2), DM, VTE/Stroke =2, Vascular disease
- if 1 consider anticoagulation, if >1 anticoagulation recommended
HAASBLED
- HTN, Abn LFT, Abn renal function, Stroke history, Bleeding predisposition, Labile INR, Elderly (Age >65), Drug / ETOH use
- score >3 = high bleeding risk
- not that this does no preclude from anticoagulation as these are often the patients who will benefit the most. Instead it often highlights areas of optimisation to allow safer use (eg ceasing antiplatelets or controlling HTN)
Term
Describe the acuity of action required for a TIA
Definition
Is a medical emergency as 5% of patients will have a stroke within 48 hours and 10% within 2 weeks
Term
What is the new definition of a TIA and why is the old one inadequate
Definition
Old definition = CNS signs lasting <24 hours. MRIs are now showing that many of these are strokes. Furthermore, 80% of neurological changes that last >1hour will have some degree of permanency.
New definition is transient CNS ischaemia causing dysfunction but without infarction ("TIA should be heard and not seen")
Term
What are the common causes of a TIA
Definition
Microvascular (within the brain)
Macrovascular (commonly carotid arteries)
Cardiac arrhythmia (commonly AF)
Term
What is the acronym FAST as applies to TIA
Definition
Face, Arm, Speech, Time to act
90% sensitivity
Term
Describe the risk stratification of a patient presenting with a TIA and the resultant pathway
Definition
ABCD2 score
- Age > 60 (1pt)
- BP > 140/ OR > /90 (1pt)
- Clinical; unilateral weakness (2 pts), speech without weakness (1pt)
- Duration; <60mins (1pt), >60mins (2pt)
- Diabetes; 1pt

High risk = urgent inpatient referral for comprehensive assessment
- ABCD2 >4 OR
- AF OR
- crescendo TIA (> 1 in one week)
- carotid bruit

Lower risk = outpatient assessment and referral
- CT brain for space occupying lesion
- USS carotid within 48 hours
- FBC, electrolytes, renal function, lipids, BSL, ESR
- ECG; if AF present apply CHADSVASC. If score is 1 or greater then anticoagulate
Term
Outline the drug and risk factor management for a first presentation TIA
Definition

Lifestyle modification

Anticoagulate

- CT brain not required before starting as long as there is no ongoing neurological change (as bleed is unlikely to cause a TIA)

- if AF use warfarin / NOAC

- otherwise, start antiplatelet (Clopidogrel 1st line, Assassantin 2nd line but high SE profile or aspirin)

- Nb/ that aspirin has only mild decrease in efficacy so pretty good as first line (NNT 100 before benefit shown for others)

Statin

- even if normal lipids

Antihypertensive

- even if normal aim for asymptomatic decrease by 10mmHg

- harm if started in first 2 weeks so wait until after this

- ACEi good choice generally

Glycaemic control

Term
What is the driving advice for TIA
Definition
No driving for 2/52 (4/52 for commercial)
Term
What are the risk factors for ectopic pregnancy
Definition
Uterine
- IUD
- previous STI / pelvic infection
- endometriosis
Tubal
- previous tubal surgery
- sterilisation
- tubal pathology
Previous ectopic
Term
At what foetal age will transvaginal USS reliably detect uterine pregnancy
Definition
5/40 or bHCG > 1500 (6500 if abdominal USS)
Term
How is bHCG different in ectopic pregnancy
Definition
Rate of increase is significantly lower
If >50 000 ectopic is unlikely
Term
What are the managment options for an ectopic pregnancy
Definition
Medical; methotrexate, if bHCG < 3000
Surgical
Term
Fever + very cold hands
Definition
Meningitis (as per Murtagh)
Term
What are the contraindications to a lumbar puncture in suspected meningitis
Definition
Signs of raised ICP; focal neurology, papilloedema, decreased level of consciousness
Coagulopathy
Infection; local or sepsis
Term
In the setting of suspected menigococcal disease in a child outline the protocol for antibiotic therapy
Definition
Third generation cephalosporin before transfer to emergency department (Cefotaxime / Ceftriaxone). IV is preferred to IM as perfusion with sepsis may limit absorption however if unable to site an IV or IO line then IM if preferrable to nothing
Term
Discuss chemoprophylaxis in meningococcal meningitis
Definition
Aims to eliminate the likely asymptomatic carrier in close (usually household) contacts.
Ciprofloxacin and ceftriaxone are first line.
Term
What organism causes meningococcal meningitis
Definition
Neisseria meningitidis
Term
What is the IM dose of adrenaline in anaphylaxis
Definition
10mcg / kg (max 500mcg)
Term
What are the four systems primarily affected by anaphylaxis and how do these delineate mild, moderate and severe
Definition
Skin, GIT, Respiratory, Cardiovascular

Mild = skin only
Moderate = + GIT, Respiratory or Cardiovascular
Severe = hypoxia, hypotension or neurological compromise
Term
What are the five types of hypersensitivity reactions, what are their primary mediators and what is an example of a disease of this process
Definition
Type I; immediate hypersensitivity, IgE mediated mast cell degranulation of vasoactive molecules, anaphylaxis
Type II; antibody dependent (antigen binds to a host cell and antibody response thus attacks cell as well as antigen), RHD
Type III; immune complex (antibody binds to a free antigen with resultant complex depositing in kidney, joint or muscle), RA and PSGN
Type IV; delayed hypersensitivity (memory T cells activated on representation of previously exposed antigen), contact dermatitis
V; autoimmune disease, Graves disease
Term
In a sibling of a child with anaphylaxis to a certain food at what age should the allergenic food be introduced into their diet
Definition
There is no limitation of dietary exposures of relatives to someone with anaphylaxis.
General guidelines should thus be followed which indicate that solids be introduced at 4-6 months and not to withhold allergenic foods such as nuts.
Term
What is the mortality rate of acute pancreatitis
Definition
20% of episodes of pancreatitis are severe and of these the mortality rate is 30%
Term
What are the two most common causes of pancreatitis
Definition
Gallstones and ETOH (90% of cases)
Term
What is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis and what delineates it from acute pancreatitis
Definition
ETOH (90%)
progressive loss of exocrine function
Term
What is the clinical presentation of chronic pancreatitis
Definition
  • Pain; typically epigastric radiating to the back and accompanied by vomiting. May be exacerbated by food or alcohol 
  • Exocrine insufficiency; hallmark = steatorrhoea due to defective secretion of lipase and bicarbonate, causing fat malabsorption. A 90% loss of exocrine function is needed before steatorrhoea develops 
  • Weight loss; fat and protein malabsorption 
  • Glucose intolerance; late and is usually insulin dependent
Term
Differentiate the glucose intolerance of DM and chronic pancreatitis
Definition
In chronic pancreatitis
- alpha cells (which secrete glucagon to counter the effects of insulin) are affected as well as beta cells, making patients more predisposed to hypoglycaemic attacks
- DKA and end-organ damage (nephropathy or retinopathy) are uncommon
Term
What is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, who does it usually affect and what is the mortality rate
Definition
  • Defined as an ascitic fluid infection without an evident intra-abdominal surgically treatable source 
  • Primarily occurs in patients with 
    • advanced cirrhosis 
    • gross ascites 
  • Mortality rate from a single episode has been estimated as 10 - 46% (if presentation is late with established sepsis survival is unlikely)
Term
Discuss the presenting features of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Definition
Fever; can be low grade as patients with advanced cirrhosis may have a baseline hypothermia
Abdominal pain; and associated signs are typically less pronounced than patients with peritonitis from a surgical cause. The separation of the peritoneal surfaces by large volume ascitic fluid prevents the development of a rigid abdomen
Confusion
Haemodynamic instability
Term
In a patient with advanced alcoholic liver disease list 7 different causes were they to present with confusion
Definition
  • Hepatic encephalopathy 
  • Wernicke encephalopathy 
  • Head trauma 
  • Intracranial event 
  • Electrolyte disturbance 
  • Infection (including Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis)
  • Alcohol withdrawal
Term
What are the four domains of schizophrenia symptoms
Definition
Positive symptoms; hallucinations, delusions,
disorganised speech and behaviour
Negative symptoms; decrease in emotional range, poverty of speech, loss of interests and drive (the person with schizophrenia has tremendous inertia)
Cognitive symptoms; memory, attention, executive function, abstract, difficulty understanding interpersonal subtleties
Mood symptoms; often seem cheerful or sad in a way that is difficult to understand
Term
Discuss the pathophysiology and clinical differentiation of a tibial stress reaction and stress fracture in a long distance runner
Definition
Is a continuum
Stress reaction results in increased bone deposition and is associated with generalised tibial pain on exercise that improves with
'warming' up
Stress fracture results from increasing bone stress which tips the balance of bone depostion:resorption into resorption with a resultant fracture. The pain will become increasingly severe, occur at rest / night and will have a localised point tenderness. Hopping (or other jarring activities are often a more prominent inducer of pain)
Term
In a patient with a sports related tibial stress fracture who presents with calf pain only on exercise what is the diagnosis
Definition
Recurrent Exertional Compartment Syndrome
Term
What is the most likely structure to be damaged in an ankle sprain?
Definition
The anterior talofibular ligament
Term
What are the highest risk populations for syphilis in Australia
Definition
MSM and indigenous
Term
What is a common co-infection with syphilis
Definition
HIV
Term
Which organism causes syphilis
Definition
Treponema pallidum
Term
What is the incubation period of syphilis
Definition
10-90 days (commonly 3/52)
Term
Describe the four stages of syphilis
Definition
Primary syphilis; chancre (painless, punched out lesion with rolled edges, highly infectious)
Secondary syphilis; 4-10 weeks after the primary lesion, associated with spirochete multiplication. Systemic manifestations include malaise, fever, myalgias, arthralgias, lymphadenopathy. Typical rash present in 80% (symmetrical, generalised, coppery-red, maculopapular, face, trunk, palms, soles, non pruritic, non tender)
Latent syphilis; resolution of features of secondary syphilis. May experience recurrence of the infectious skin lesions of secondary syphilis
Tertiary syphilis; 30% conversion rate from latent overall, mainly affects the cardiovascular system (80-85%) and the CNS (5-10%), developing over months to years and involving slow inflammatory damage to tissues
Term
What are the characteristic features of a syphilis chancre
Definition
painless, punched out lesion with rolled edges
Term
Describe the rash of secondary syphilis
Definition
- symmetrical, generalised, coppery-red, maculopapular
- face, trunk, palms, soles
- non pruritic, non tender
Term
Outline the time based sensitivities of syphilis testing
Definition
Chancre swab; immediately positive
Serum; may be false negative within first 4 weeks of chancre. Will remain positive if previous infection.
Term
How is syphilis treated
Definition
Intramuscular injection of 1.8 g benzathine penicillin is given weekly for 3 weeks
Term
Discuss the main causes of erectile dysfunction
Definition
  • 80% have an organic cause 
    • primarily vascular disease and medications  
  • 20% are psychogenic 
    • cluster around the begining of sexual experience
Term
What is the first line therapy for erectile dysfunction and what factors need to be considered before its prescription
Definition
Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
- are they cardiovascularly fit for sexual activity + the medication
- are they taking nitrates
Term
What alarm symptoms warrant progression to endoscopy for a patient with GORD
Definition
weight loss
dysphagia
early satiety
haematemesis
melaena
anaemia
dyspeptic symptoms unresponsive to 4 weeks of acid-suppression
Term
Compare the three non invasive investigations for H. Pylori
Definition
Urease breath test has high positive and negative predictive value. Is the most appropriate for post treatment erradication assessment.
Serology for H. Pylori IgG. The most accessible test. High titres suggest active infection, low titres suggest previous infection (can remain elevated for 12 months). Thus not useful as post erradication test.
Stool antigen. Accurate but least patient preferrential
Term
What is the role of glycolysis, gluconeogenesis, glucogenolysis and glycogenesis
Definition
[image]
Term
Outline the function of pancreatic acinar cells, Islets of Langerhans, alpha cells and beta cells
Definition
Acinar cells; form the bulk of the pancreas, synthesis exocrine digestic enzymes
Islets of Langerhans; interspersed between the Acinar cells, contain the alpha and beta cells
Alpha cells; synthesize glucagon
Beta cells; secrete insulin
Term
Where is glucagon produced and what are its three functions
Definition
Alpha cells of pancreas
Promotes hyperglycaemia via
- glycogenolysis; breakdown of glycogen to glucose
- gluconeogenosis; synthesis of glucose from lactic acid, fats and amino acids
Term
How does metformin work
Definition
Gut; decreases glucose absorption
Liver; inhibits gluconeogenesis
Cells; sensitises to insulin
Term
What are the side effects of metformin
Definition
GI; nausea, diarrhoea
Lactic acidosis
decreased B12 absorption
Term
How do sulfonylureas work
Definition
Stimulate beta cell release of insulin
Term
What are the side effects of sulfonylureas
Definition
Weight gain
Hypoglycaemia
Term
Name some common drugs of the sulfonylurea class
Definition
Gliclazide, glimepriride
Term
What are incretins and how does it work
Definition
Incretins are hormones released by the L-Cells of the small intestine in response to a carbohydrate load. They comprise of Glucagon Like Peptide (GLP) and Glucose-dependant Insulinotropic Peptide (GIP).

They function to
- Gut; decrease gastric motility thus promoting satiety
- Pancreas; inhibit alpha cell glucagon release
- Pancreas; stimulate beta cell insulin release
- Brain; affect appetite centres to simulate satiety
Term
How do DPP4i drugs work, what are the side effects and what are some common examples
Definition
Dipeptidyl peptidase functions to break down the incretin GLP. Thus DPP4i drugs inhibit this process.
Side effects are minimal but caution in renal and pancreatic dysfunction
Eg sitagliptin, linagliptin
Term
How do GLP-1 drugs work, what are the side effects and what are some common examples of this class
Definition
A synthetic form of the incretin GLP-1
Caution in renal dysfunction and previous pancreatitis. Mild risk of hypoglycaemia
Eg; Exenatide
Term
How do SGLT2 inhibitors work, what are some side effects and name some examples of this drug class
Definition
inhibts the renal sodium-glucose transporter thus promoting glycosuria
Cation in renal dysfunction. Can cause thrush / UTI
Eg dapagliflozin
Term
What is the koebner phenomenon
Definition
A psoriatic flare brought on by minor trauma to an area
Term
What is the pathophysiology of psoriasis
Definition
Inappropriate T cell activation with skin manifestations resulting from localised keratinocyte hyperproliferation causing scaling and blood vessel proliferation causing erythema
Term
What are the non dermatological complications of psoriasis
Definition
Arthritis
IBD
Uveitis
associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease, obesity, diabetes and depression
Term
What is onychomycosis
Definition
Fungal infection of the nail
Term
What is the false negative rate for toe nail clippings as diagnosis for onychomycosis
Definition
10-30%
Term
Describe the treatment and associated precautions of onychomycosis
Definition
Confirm diagnosis with nail clippings and scrapings.
Will need topical and systemic treatment
Will take 3-9 months for effect.
Systemic treatment first line is Terbinafine. Need to do baseline and then 6 weekly FBC and LFTs to monitor for liver toxicity.
Term
Describe the different findings when paring a callus vs corn vs wart
Definition
Callus will pare down to normal tissue
Corn will pare down to a non bleeding keratin plug
Wart will pare down to multiple pinpoint bleeding points
Term
Outline the criteria for the NYHA dyspnoea classificant
Definition
Fatigue, dyspnoea or palipiations
- I; do not occur with normal activity
- II; occur slightly with physical activity
- III; occur with less than normal activity
- IV; occur at rest
Term
What non pharmacological measures need be discussed with Heart Failure Patients
Definition
Fluid balance; morning weight, <2 L/day is recommended generally, decreaseding to 1.5L or 1L depending on severity
Sodium; <2 g/day (= 1/2 teaspoon of salt)
Physical activity; to improve symptoms and functional capacity
Smoking
Limiting alcohol to less than 1–2 standard drinks per day
Limiting caffeinated beverages to 1–2 drinks per day
Vaccination against influenza and pneumococcal disease
Term
List some common medications that may contribute to Heart Failure
Definition
Negative inotropes; verapamil, diltiazem
Salt retention drugs; corticosteroids, NSAIDs
TCAs
macrolide antibiotic
type 1 antihistamine and H2 receptor antagonists
urinary alkalinisers (salt load)
Term
Discuss drug classes commonly used for Heart Failure
Definition
First line
- ACEi; all patients without contrindications
- loop diuretic; if evidence of fluid overload
- beta blocker; if systolic dysfunction is presents and when volume status is stable
Second line
- ARB; if intolerant to ACEi
- digoxin; even if in sinus rhythm if heart failure is severe and not controlled with ACE inhibitor diuretic and B blocker
- spironolactone; consider in consultation with a specialist
Term
Outline a safe approach to initiation and titration of Frusemide
Definition
Start on 40mg daily
Baseline weight, potassium and creatinine and then weekly during titration process, and after 3 months once stable
Consider 3 - 12 monthly monitoring based on stability and fluid balance
Doses can be titrated up and down depending on degree of fluid overload
Term
Outline the safe initiation of an ACEi, regularity of monitoring required and the contraindications to their use
Definition
Start at low dose
Titrate to highest tolerated dose over 2 to 3 weeks.
See weekly while titrating and monitor blood pressure, potassium, and creatinine.
25 to 30% rise in creatinine is acceptable.
Consider renal artery stenosis if eGFR drop is > 30%.
Adjust dose for renal impairment and in the elderly.
Contraindications:
- Potassium > 5.5 mmol/L
- Creatinine > 250 micromol/L
- Symptomatic hypotension
- Systolic blood pressure < 80 mm Hg
- Angioedema
- Pregnancy
Term
Outline an approach for Beta Blocker use in heart failure
Definition
  • Contraindications: 
    • Asthma 
    • 2nd / 3rd degree heart block 
    • Symptomatic hypotension 
    • Systolic blood pressure < 80 mm Hg 
    • Heart rate < 50 bpm 
    • Late pregnancy 
  • B blockers should not be started until the heart failure has been stabilised. 
  • Start at a low dose e.g., metoprolol CR 23.75 mg (½ tablet) once daily or carvedilol 3.125 to 6.25 mg twice daily 
  • See patient fortnightly to slowly titrate the dose to avoid side-effects. 
  • B blockers improve survival, but the patient's condition may worsen at first. If worsening heart failure on B blockers, either increase diuretics or halve the dose of the B blocker. 
  • Titrate to the maximum dose unless limited by hypotension or bradycardia (resting heart rate < 60 bpm). Never stop a B blocker suddenly as there is a risk of rebound hypertension and arrhythmias. Gradual dose reduction over 1 to 2 weeks is recommended. 
  • Target dose is metoprolol CR 190 mg daily, carvedilol 25 mg twice a day.
Term
How does frusemide work
Definition
Inhibits the Na/K/Cl cotransporter in the ascending loop of Henle with resultant Na and K excretion with water following
Term
What is the end result of the Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System on Na and K
Definition
Sodium retention and potassium excretion
(RAAS functions in response to low fluid status / BP to rectify this. Na is highly osmolar and therefore the body would want to keep this ion in the blood at the expense of K)
Term
How does spironolactone work and what is the resultant effect on potassium
Definition

As an aldosterone receptor antagonist it inhibits the normal RAAS mediated Na and H20 retention for K excretion

 

This results in hyperkalaemia

Term
What are considerations for driving in a patient with Heart Failure
Definition
The medical standards for driving a private vehicle stipulate that there must be a response to treatment and minimal symptoms associated with driving. Where these conditions are met, a conditional licence subject to periodic review (a specific time frame is not indicated) will be issued.

A commercial driver’s licence requires that the patient has a satisfactory response to treatment, adequate exercise tolerance, LVEF >40%, have had the underlying cause considered and have minimal symptoms related to driving. Where these conditions are met a conditional licence subject to annual review will be issued (see Resources for Doctors for the Assessing Fitness to Drive guidelines).
Term
Outline the management of superficial thrombophlebitis
Definition
Usually self limiting and thus symptomatic NSAIDs are the only treatment necessary. However there is a 10% risk of progression on to become DVT. Not clear which these will be thus anticoagulation needs to be considered.

eTG recommends
- For patients affected by superficial thrombophlebitis as a complication of an intravenous infusion, consider treatment with topical or oral NSAID (eg diclofenac 75 mg orally twice daily or diclofenac 1% gel topically 3 times daily).
- For patients affected by spontaneous superficial thrombophlebitis, consider treatment with low-dose LMWH (eg dalteparin 5000 units SC daily or enoxaparin 40 mg SC daily) or unfractionated heparin (10 000 units SC twice daily) for 4 weeks, or further monitoring for venous thromboembolism.
Term
Outline managment for a Superficial Femoral Vein thrombus
Definition
Despite its name, it is not a superficial vein. It is a deep vein and acute thrombosis of this vessel is potentially life threatening. Any thrombus therein should be treated with an anticoagulant as per DVT
Term
Discuss Post Thrombotic Syndrome in a patient who has had a DVT and the management of this
Definition
Occurs after 60% of DVTs
May include pain, swelling, varicose eczema, skin thickening and staining
The incidence of these problems can be halved by wearing a graduated compression stocking
Wearing a knee high stocking with 30–40 mm Hg pressure at the ankle for 18 months is recommended. Stockings should be fitted by an experienced professional, because of the pressure differences
Term
What are the secondary causes of hyperlipidaemia
Definition
endocrine; hypothyroidism, type 2 DM
renal; nephrotic syndrome, kidney impairment
hepatic; cholestasis, obstructive liver disease
dietary; anorexia nervosa, obesity, ETOH excess
Term
Differentiate triglycerides, cholesterol and lipoprotiens
Definition
  • Triglycerides; account for 95% of dietary lipids, are converted to fatty acids and glycerol in adipose and muscle tissue to become and energy storage 
  • Cholesterol; is primarily endogenous (body does not need endogenous as can synthesise from other materials) and functions in cell membrane formation, hormone synthesis and bile acid formation 
  • Lipoprotiens; function to transport lipids and cholesterol around the body. 
    • LDL deposits excesses into tissues (including arteries and is thus atherogenic)
    • HDL transports it to where it is needed (including away from tissue / artery stores and is thus anti-atherogenic
Term
Discuss the difference in management of hypercholesterolaemia vs hypertrygliceridaemia
Definition
High total cholesterol and high HDL
- Statins – 1st line and shown to reduce CV events
- Ezetimibe – 2nd line but not recommended as the sole medication. Add to the highest dose of statin tolerated if the target is not reached
Resins (e.g., cholestyramine) and Niacin (nicotinic acid) are considered 3rd and 4th line

High triglycerides and/or low HDL
- usually associated with poor lifestyle
- corrective measures are 1st line (e.g., exercise, reduce dietary sugars, decrease alcohol intake, and improve diabetic control) and are more effective than drug therapy.
- If fasting triglycerides > 5 on two occasions refer for cardiology assessment for genetic and biochemical classification (also associated with risk of pancreatitis)
Term
Discuss how to approach myalgia / statin intolerance on initiation of statins
Definition
Statin intolerance has been markedly over diagnosed especially myalgia. Most people can tolerate some dose of statin when re-challenged. Consider the following steps:
- If mild or moderate symptoms: stop for 2 to 3 weeks then recommence at half the previous dose. If symptoms persist repeat this step again or change to alternate statin. Consider rosuvastatin. If target lipids are not reached, titrate back up to maximum tolerated dose.
If severe persistent myalgia: stop statin and measure CK. If CK > 1000, refer for cardiology assessment. If CK < 1000, follow step 1 above.
Term
What are the five stages of HIV and what clinical features are associated with them
Definition
- Acute seroconversion illness; occurs within 6 weeks of exposure, febrile illness with severe lethargy, photophobia, headache and generalised erythematous rash
- Asymptomatic; persistent generalised lymphadenopathy
- Sympotomatic early; candidiasis, psoriasis, varicella infections, constitutional sxs
- Symptomatic late; PJP, Karposi sarcoma, lymphoma, dementia
- Advanced; CMV retinitis, Mycobacterium avium complex
Term
How long after first test should a second test be completed for HIV to ensure negative
Definition
0 and then 3 months
Term
What is the prevalence of Coeliac disease
Definition
1.2% for men and 1.9% for women
Term
What diseases are commonly associated with Coeliac disease
Definition
Type 1 Diabetes (5-10%)
Autoimmune thyroid disease
Irritable Bowel Syndrome
Downs / Turners syndromes
Term
What is the pathophysiology of coeliac disease
Definition
  • Gliaden = protein in gluten. Gluten is the principal storage protein in wheat 
  • Transglutaminase is a tissue enzyme that binds gliadin in the intestine to form a complex that is recognised as being foreign by the immune system
  • Gluten mediated immunological damage to the mucosa of the proximal small intestine causes atrophy of the villi and thus malabsorption
Term
What are the different clinical manifestations of Coeliac disease
Definition
Fatigue
Weight loss
Abdominal symptoms; diarrhoea, cramping or discomfort, bloating/flatulence
Steatorrhoea due to fat malabsorption
Anaemia
Nutritional deficiencies; iron, folate and (in severe cases) vitamin B12
Osteoporosis; malabsorption of calcium and vitamin D
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Term
Outline testing for coeliac disease and associated cases of false positives / negative
Definition
Start with Tissue Transglutamase
- false negative = no gluten in diet for last 6 weeks OR IgA deficiency (given is an IgA complex)
- false positive = raised serum IgA
IgA; should be done to ensure tTG is not false positive or negative
Anti-deaminated Gliaden Antibodies (DPG); an IgG based antibody for use in IgA deficiencies or <2 yo
Small intestinal biopsy; gold standard but can still be influenced by lack of gluten in diet
Term
How can compliance with gluten free diet be monitored in coeliac disease
Definition
  • TTG and DGP antibodies 
    • after 3-6 months on a gluten-free diet, there is usually a fall in titres of either antibody type 
    • TTG can take longer, as titres can be very high 
    • DGP changes are usually more dynamic, with levels going up and down more quickly with changes
Term
Outline genetic testing for coeliacs disease (eg if patient is on a gluten free diet and refuses to reintroduce due to symptom improvement)
Definition
Genetic testing for HLA DQ8 and HLA DQ2, performed by taking a buccal smear or blood sample, may help. However, the result is only useful if it is negative (99.6% of patients with coeliac disease have one of HLA DQ8 or HLA DQ2, but so do one-third of the general Australian population3)
Term
Should family members of coeliac disease be screened
Definition
Yes, all first degree relatives should be screened
Term
What is the genetic prevalence for first degree relatives of someone with Coeliac disease
Definition
10%
Term
What is another name for Chronic Fatigue Syndrome
Definition
Myalgic encephalomyelitis
Term
What is the etiology of Chronic Fatigue Syndrome
Definition
Peak incidence occurs at the age of 20–40 years
More common in women
Average duration is 3–9 years however, some patients may remain unwell for 20–30 years
Term
What are the diagnostic criteria for Chronic Fatigue Syndrome
Definition
Unexplained, persistent fatigue
AND
Four or more of the following for >6 months - - impaired memory or concentration
- headaches
- recurring sore throat
- tender cervical or axillary lymph nodes
- myalgia
- polyarthropathy without swelling or redness
- post exertional malaise (extreme, prolonged exhaustion and sickness following physical or mental activity)
- unrefreshing sleep
Term
Discuss the etiology of Hashimoto Thyroiditis
Definition
  • more common in women >55
  • common association with other autoimmune disease such and Coeliac and Type 1 Diabetes
Term
Discuss the clinical presentation of Hasthimoto Thyroiditis
Definition
Bilateral firm goitre plus clinical hypothyroidism
Term
How is Hashimoto Thyroiditis diagnosed
Definition
high anti-Peroxidase Abs (TPO) is the hallmark of the disease
this can be positive in 15% of the general population and thus association with hypothyroidism and clinical picture are required
FNA of the goitre can also be diagnostic
Term
Discuss features that would make you suspicious for secondary hypothyroidism and the importance of making this diagnosis before starting treatment
Definition
Consider if hypothyroidism occurs in the setting of
- signs of pituitary disease (ie mass effect headaches / visual or hormone effects eg amenorrhoea, hypoglycaemia or hyponatraemia)
- a convincing clinical hypothyroidism with low T4 but an unexpectedly normal TSH

Treatment
- glucocordicoid must be replaced first otherwise Thyroxine may precipitate an adrenal crisis
Term
Outline the clinical features of hypothyroidism
Definition
Skin, hair; dry, cold skin with alopecia
Brain; mental slowness, fatigue, depression
Thyroid; goitre
Heart; bradycardia with compensatory HTN
Weight; gain
GIT; constipation
Ovaries; menorrhagia, infertility
Nerves; slow reflexes
Fluid; in the face and legs
Term
What is subclinical hypothyroidism and what are the indications for treatment
Definition
Elevated TSH with normal T4
Treatment is controversial but current recommendations are to
- perform TPO Abs and if elevated monitor TSH 3-6 monthly, if normal then monitor 12 monthly
- if upward trending TSH, TSH > 10 or significant symptoms of hypothyroidism then replacement is likely warranted
Term
What are the possible causes of hypothyroidism
Definition
[image]
Term
In initiating Thyroxine for Hypothyroidism what two patient populations need special consideration and dose reduction
Definition
>60 yo
Cardiac disease
Term
What patient populations with Hypothyroid disease should be referred for specialist input
Definition
  • <18 years 
  • unresponsive to therapy 
  • pregnant 
  • cardiac patients 
  • presence of goitre, nodule, or other structural changes in the thyroid gland 
  • presence of other endocrine disease
Term
In the setting of iron deficiency anaemia is a negative FOB adequate for ruling out bowel pathology as the cause
Definition
No. FOB is a screening test. Fe defiency means the investigation is no longer screening but investigatory and thus an endoscopy and colonoscopy are required even if it is negative
Term
Discuss the bimodal distribution of onset for Myasthenia Gravis
Definition
Women age 15-65 (commonly 30-40)
Men age >65
Term
What is the pathophysiology of Myasthenia Gravis
Definition
Autoimmune mediated destruction of acetylcholine receptors on the muscle end plates.
Postulated that the thymus has a role in autoimmune T cell production as 65% of patient have thymus hyperplasia or cancer (thymoma)
Term
Describe the clinical presentation of myasthenia gravis
Definition
  • Skeletal muscle fatiguability
    • worse with activty and at end of day
    • improves with rest
  • Muscle bulk and reflexes are normal
  • Can present as ptosis, bulbar weakness, proximal muscle weakness
  • Test clinically via
    • sustained upward eye gaze for 2 minutes
    • count out loud to 30
    • shoulder repetition of abduction x30
Term
What diagnostic tests are available for Myasthenia Gravis
Definition
anti-ACh receptor Abs (AChR-Ab) and muscle-specific kinase antibodies (MusSK-Ab) = combined sensitivity of 97%
Nerve stimulation tests often used if serology is negative but diagnosis still suspected
Term
What non diagnostic investigation is important in Myasthenia Gravis
Definition
CT Chest to rule out thymomo
Term
Describe the features of classification for CKD I-V
Definition
CKDI; kidney damage (imaging/proteinuria) but eGRF > 90
CKDII: kidney damage and eGFR 60-90
CKDIII; eGFR 30-59
CKDIV; eGFR 15-29
CKDV; end stage kidney disease
Term
What uric acid level is required for deposition into joints
Definition
>0.42
Term
What three areas of uric acid deposition can cause complications in gout
Definition
Joints
Skin; tophi
Kidneys; nephrolithiasis and chronic urate nephropathy
Term
Outline the dosing of colchicine for acute gout
Definition
1mg stat, 0.5mg 6 hours later and then 0.5mg BD for 2-3/7
Dose reduce in renal dysfunction or use Pred instead
Term
What are the contraindications of colchicine
Definition
Severe hepatic and renal disease
Severe cardiac disease
Severe GIT disease
Blood dyscrasia
Term
What urate level should be targeted in patients with gout
Definition
Without tophi <0.36
With tophi <0.3
Term
Discuss the initiation of Allopurinol, the risks that need consideration and dosing
Definition
Initiate at 50-100mg daily and uptitrate monthly based on serum urate.
Risk of life threatening Allopurinol Hypersensitivity Syndrome, more common in Has Chinese, Korean and Thai.
Allopurinol induced rash can be severe
Gout flare can occur and can be mitigated by 3/12 colchicine but risk vs benefit is uncertain
Term
What are the DSM criteria for Restless Legs Syndrome
Definition
an urge to move the legs
- accompanied by an uncomfortable sensations
- worsens during periods of rest or inactivity
- is partially or totally relieved by movement
Symptoms
- occur at least 3 times per week
- have persisted for at least 3 months
- cause significant distress or impairment
- cannot be attributed to another mental disorder, medical condition or drugs of abuse / medication
Term
Differentiate nephritic and nephrotic syndrome
Definition
can be thought of as a spectrum of progression from nephrotic syndrome to nephritic syndrome
Ie in nephrotic syndrome the basement membrane damage is only enough to allow protein passage up to a certain size. Thus significant albuminuria occurs. With progressive damage the basement membrane opens up enought to let larger and large components through all the way up to RBCs. When this happens it reflects such large degree of damage that renal function and perfusion has deteriorated and therefore there is a decrease in urine output and a decreased in protienuria.
Term
Why does hyperlipidaemia occur in nephrotic syndrome
Definition
The urinary loss of proteins is compensated for by the liver with production of lipids
Term
What is the triple test for screening kidney disease
Definition
Blood pressure
Urine analysis; dipstick in low risk and ACR in high risk
eGFR
Term
What factors would put a persons CVS risk automatically >15% and thus negate the need for use of the CVS Risk Calculator
Definition
Hypertension
- severe HTN; > 180/ or /110
Cardiac
- established cardiovascular disease
Diabetic plus either
- >60yo
- microalbuminuria
Cholesterol
- Familial hypercholesterolaemia
- serum cholesterol >7.5
Renal
- eGFR < 45
- persistent proteinuria
Term
What cardiac defect has an association with migraines
Definition
PFO

Check article =
Over the last decade, patent foramen ovale (PFO) associated with atrial septal aneurysm (ASA) has been identified as an independent risk factor for ischaemic stroke, particularly in young adults with cryptogenic stroke.7 Recently, migraine was found to be significantly associated with PFO when compared with controls. At least 50% of patients with migraine with aura were found to have a PFO, and the size of the intracardiac shunts was larger in patients with migraines than in controls.8 In susceptible women, the association between migraines with aura and PFO leads to an increased risk of ischaemic stroke.7 In terms of pathophysiology, it has been proposed that in this population of women, COCs may trigger venous embolism with subsequent paradoxical embolism through PFO or formation of a mural thrombus locally in the atrial septum within the conduit of PFO.9

Importantly, an isolated finding of PFO without any other high-risk features in an asymptomatic individual is of equivocal clinical significance. Routine screening for PFO is not recommended.7–9
Term
Differentiate between apnoeas and hypopneas in OSA
Definition
Apnoea = absence of airflow >10 seconds
Hypopnoea = reduction in airflow for >10 seconds sufficient to cause a fall in O2 sats or arousal from sleep
Term
What are the DSM-V criteria for restless leg syndrome
Definition
DSM-5 diagnostic criteria
- an urge to move the legs
- accompanied by an uncomfortable sensations
- worsens during periods of rest or inactivity
- is partially or totally relieved by movement

Symptoms
- occur at least 3 times per week
- have persisted for at least 3 months
- cause significant distress or impairment
- cannot be attributed to another mental disorder, medical condition or drugs of abuse / medication
Term
What does STOPBANG stand for in OSA
Definition
Risk factors for OSA. >3 = high risk

S nore
T ired
O bstruction
P ressure (HTN)
B MI
A ge > 50
N eck circumfrence >40cm
G ender = male
Term
What is Complex Regional Pain Syndrome of the foot, how does it present, how is it managed and what is the prognosis
Definition
- a neurovascular disorder presenting most commonly in middle age resulting in hyperaemia and osteoporosis
- may be a sequela of trauma (often trivial) and prolonged immobilisation


Clinical
severe pain, swelling and disability of the feet
sudden onset
worse at night
stiff joints
warm red skin


Ix
xrays show patchy decalcification of the bone which is diagnostic

Rx
usually lasts 2 years and recovery to normality is the most common outcome
analgesia
mobility in preference to rest
PT
Term
What is the age of onset for Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Definition
Bimodal peaks at 10yo and 40yo
Term
What is the association between smoking and Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Definition
Increased risk of Crohns Disease but decreases risk of Ulcerative Colitis
Term
What areas of the GIT are affected by Crohns Disease vs Ulcerative Colitis
Definition
  • Crohns 
    • transmural 
    • is a regional enteritis and can thus affect any portion of the GIT 
  • Ulcerative Colitis 
    • is a colitis thus affects only the colon and starts in the rectum 
    • affects only the mucosa of the colon
Term
What does an elevated faecal calprotectin indicate and what are the possible causes for this elevation
Definition
Intestinal inflammation
- IBD
- colonic malignancy
- other inflammatory causes eg NSAIDs, gastro
Term
Is a positive P-ANCA associated with Crohns disease or Ulcerative Colitis
Definition
CD - 10%
UC - 70%
Term
What is the mechanism of action of the morning after pill
Definition
High dose progesterone
- if before ovulation it may prevent ovulation
- thickens cervical mucous
- inhibits tubal transport of egg or sperm
-interferes with fertilisation, early cell division or embryo transport
- prevents implantation by disrupting uterine lining
Term
How effective is the morning after pill
Definition
Efficacy of pregnancy prevention
- 95% within 24 hours
- 85% in 48 hours
- 60% in 72 hours
Term
What is the dose of the morning after pill
Definition
1.5mg stat of levonorgestrel
Term
What side effect of the original high dose 50mcg COCP was most concerningly seen
Definition
VTE
Term
How does the risk of COCP for VTE compare to baseline and during pregnancy
Definition
Baseline; 2 per 10 000
COCP; 10 per 10 000
Pregnant; 30 per 10 000
Immediately post partum; 400 per 10 000

Also consider that further increased risk with increased age, smoking, body mass index, immobilisation, and a personal or family history of thromboembolism or thrombogenic mutations
Term
What is the risk of ovarian cancer with skipping periods on the COCP
Definition
if missed period for >6/12 shown to have double the risk of ovarian Ca (from a low baseline risk)
Term
Discuss antibiotic use and COCP
Definition
With the exception of rifampicin and rifabutin, antibiotics do not decrease the efficacy of CHCs and additional precautions are not needed during concurrent use. (FPNSW) - this is contraindicated by Women's health in GP which says (though no data showing it decreases efficacy) women should use other forms of contraception during and for 7/7 after any Abx
Term
How effective is breast feeding as a contraceptive
Definition
98% effective if
- > 6/52 post partum
- has not yet had a period
- baby is fully breast fed
Term
Discuss the implications of changes observed for Fertility Awareness Based Methods (FABM) of contraception
Definition
increased body temperature
- 0.2-0.6*C
- progesterone induced therefore only occurs after ovulation
change in cervical mucous
- oestrogen induced change into a thin watery “egg white like” substance
- begins to occur days before ovulation
- post ovulation the corpus luteum progesterone release thickens the mucous
cervical os widening
change in cervical texture to become softer
Term
What is the length of sperm and ovum survival in the female reproductive tract
Definition
sperm survival
- vagina; hours due to acidic environment
- upper reproductive tract; days (1% survival at 7 days)
ovum survival = 12 -24 hours (with successful fertilisation unlikely 12 hours after ovulation)
Term
Outline a practical approach to which oestrogen and progesterone for COCP
Definition
  1. which oestrogen 
    • ethinyloestrodiol is most common due to its higher bioavailability 
  2. what dose of oestrogen 
    • 35mcg is standard 
    • lower doses may decrease oestrogenic SEs (nausea, bloating, breast tenderness) but increased prevalence of unscheduled bleeding 
  3. which progesterone 
    • levonorgestrel and norethistorone are first choice and PBS listed
      • both are testosterone derivatives
      • doesn’t seem to be a benefit of one over another
      • doses equivalence varies based on drug but most are low dose and thus appropriate first line 
    • acne / hirsutism 
      • although evidence is lacking, logically the pills containing an antiandrogenic progestogen (i.e. dienogest, drospirenone and cyproterone acetate) can be considered for women with acne and hirsutism, particularly if there has been a limited response to a pill containing levonorgestrel- or norethisterone pill
      • none of these pills are PBS listed
Term
What constitutes a missed pill for the progesterone only pill and what action should be undertaken
Definition
pill is considered ‘missed’ if not taken within 3 hours of specific time (ie 27 hours since last pill
take as soon as possible then continue with regime as normal. Use alternative contraception until 3 normal pill doses taken
Term
What constitutes a missed COCP and what approach should be taken
Definition
not “missed” until 24 hours after pill was late (ie 48 hours after when it was last taken)
if <48hours take the late pill immediately and continue as normal
if > 48 hours take the missed pill and the one due. Use protection for 7 days
if < 7 pills since last placebo break consider emergency contraception (if unprotected sex in last 5/7)
if < 7 pills until the next placebo break skip placebo and continue with next active regime
Term
Discuss pharmacological options for Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy
Definition
  • Alpha-1 blockers 
    • used to treat obstructive sxs 
    • decrease the sympathetic mediated smooth muscle tone of the urinary tract 
    • can improve sxs within 48 hours, maximum effect is at 6 weeks 
    • prazosin = first line by PBS. Old drug. Requires BD dosing 
    • terazosin and tamulosin; PBS needs other drugs to fail first. Once daily dosing 
  • 5 alpha reductase inhibitors 
    • block the conversion of testosterone into its more active form dihydrotestosterone. This is the androgen primarily responsible for prostatic growth 
    • Finasteride; 5mg daily PBS need other drugs to fail first induce prostatic epithelial cell apoptosis, thereby reducing prostate size by up to 25% and reducing PSA by 50% over a 6–12 month period if sxs improve / prostate does decrease in size the medications must be taken life long otherwise cessation will result in the prostate regrowing to the same size as there is a reduction in prostate volume, the concentration of PSA falls by 50% from pretreatment levels. This fall must be taken into consideration at the routine annual check. 
    • failure of PSA to decrease during treatment may signal unrecognised prostate cancer or noncompliance. However, a decrease in PSA does not exclude prostate cancer. An increase of more than 0.75 nanogram/mL is an indication for referral and possible biopsy.
Term
How do medications and surgery compare for symptomatic relief of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy
Definition
Surgery is the gold standard of treatment, but it does not help every patient. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) and bladder neck incision are costly and have adverse effects including bleeding, infection and sexual dysfunction such as retrograde ejaculation
outcomes are far better overall than medical therapy
Term
What are the risk factors for prostate cancer
Definition
age; 80% of 80yo have histologic carcinoma within the gland but most are dormant
- family member dx <70yo
- more than one family member (including second degree relatives)
- FHx BRCA gene breast Ca
Term
What factors can falsely elevate PSA
Definition
an active urinary infection
ejaculated in the last 48 hours
exercised vigorously in the last 48 hours
had a prostate biopsy in the last 6 weeks
had a DRE in the past week
Term
What can cause a false negative PSA
Definition
  • 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors (eg finasteride)
  • thiazide diuretics 
  • statins
Term
What risk factors indicate a need for HIV screening
Definition
any intravenous drug use
any past partners who may have been intravenous drug users or were men who have sex with men
past partners were from countries with a high prevalence of HIV
a history of STIs
Term
Risk factors for COCP
Definition
Migraine with aura
Smoker over 35
Risk factors for VTE including obesity
breast cancer
Term
What is Primary Ovarian Insufficiency
Definition
Is the depletion or dysfunction of ovarian follicles with cessation of menses before age 40 years (ie female hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism)
Term
How is primary ovarian insufficiency diagnosed
Definition
Rule out pregnancy, polycystic ovary syndrome, hypothalamic amenorrhea, thyroid abnormalities, hyperprolactinemia
Diagnosis of primary ovarian insufficiency
- menstrual irregularity for at least 3 consecutive months
- follicle-stimulating hormone and estradiol levels; two random tests at least 1 month apart whilst not on any hormonal therapy. Positive if elevated into the menopausal level (30–40 mIU/mL)
Term
Outline treatment considerations for Primary Ovarian Insufficiency
Definition
1) Hormone replacement
- need oestrogen replacement. 100mcg oestrodiol mimics physiologic levels. Transdermal is preferred to avoid cardiac manifestations of hepatic first pass metabolites
- progesterone; cyclic required to prevent endometrial hyperplasia induced cancer risk
- COCP provides higher than physiological levels of hormones and is thus not recommended as first line
2) contraception
- recommended that barrier or LARC be used with physiologic hormonal therapy as above. No reason given for this though so would seem appropriate to use COCP if no contraindications
3) Bone health
- risk of osteopaenia with inadequate oestrogen
- optomise Ca / Vit D
4) CVS risk
- elevated if oestrogen to low or too high
- control other CVS RFs
- annual BP from Dx and 5 yearly lipids
Endocrine
- Hashimotos more common; consider 1-2 yearly thyroid screening
- Adrenal insufficiency possible. Test for adrenal autoantibodies
- have increased suspicion for others eg DM, SLE, myasthenia gravis
Term
Discuss the pathophysiology of the three most common types of dementia
Definition
Alzheimer disease; amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles causing progressive atrophy of the hippocampus and temporal lobes (followed by other areas as disease progresses)
Vascular dementia; macro and/or micro vascular disease causing cerebral damage
Lewy body; lewy bodies in the substantia nigra = PD and outside of this = LBD but significant overlap occurs and currently clinical differentiation is the mainstay of Dx (ie movement disorder or cognitive decline being the presenting feature)
Term
What are the five clinical domains of dementia assessment and how do these progress through mild, moderate and severe disease
Definition
Early sxs
- cognition; learning and retaining new information become difficult,
- function; progressive difficulty with tasks (eg finances) and mechanistic objects (eg credit card, CPU)
- psychiatric; mood swings, personality changes (including irritability, hostility, and agitation to loss of independence)
- behaviour and physical are not affected
Intermediate sxs
- cognition; unable to learn and recall new information. Memory of remote events is reduced but not totally lost. Loss of all sense of time and place
- function; require help with basic ADLs (eg, bathing, eating, dressing, toileting)
-psychiatric; personality change progresses (may become irritable, anxious, self-centered, inflexible, or angry more easily, or they may become more passive, with a flat affect, depression, indecisiveness, lack of spontaneity, or general withdrawal from social situations). Altered sensation or perception may culminate in psychosis with hallucinations and paranoid and persecutory delusions
- behavior; problems begin, may wander or become suddenly and inappropriately agitated, hostile, uncooperative, or physically aggressive
- physical; early physical changes may develop
Late
- cognition; recent and remote memory is completely lost
- function; cannot walk, feed themselves, or perform ADLs, incontinence
- psychiatric; delusions / hallucinations
- behaviour; previous problems will now start to settle as physical function declines
physical, may be unable to swallow, end-stage dementia results in coma and death, usually due to infection
Term
What are the inclusion and exclusion criteria for dementia
Definition
  • Inclusion criteria 
    • memory dysfunction is gradual in onset 
    • memory dysfunction is progressive in its deterioration 
    • failure of function 
    • evidence of cortical dysfunction; eg dysphasia, agnosia, dyspraxia 
  • Exclusion criteria 
    • delirium
    • psychiatric illness 
    • organic cause
Term
Discuss the etiology of Ankylosing Spondylitis
Definition
- M:F = 3:1
- common age of onset is 20 to 40yo (if >50 think DISH)
- strong genetic link; the risk of AS in 1st-degree relatives with the HLA-B27 allele = 20%
Term
Does Ankylosing Spondylitis only affect the spine
Definition
  • most patients with AS have predominantly axial involvement but some have predominantly peripheral involvement
  • among those with axial involvement, some have no evidence of sacroiliitis on plain x-rays. Thus the classification
    • Axial AS: predominantly axial involvement and x-ray findings typical of sacroiliitis 
    • Nonradiographic AS: clinical axial AS but without typical x-ray findings 
    • Peripheral AS: AS with predominantly peripheral involvement
Term
Discuss the pain of Ankylosing Spondylitis as it relates to activity and early morning
Definition

 

    • association with morning stiffness and night pain

    • improvement with physical activity or exercise
Term
Discuss non axial arthropathy in Ankylosing Spondylitis
Definition

 

    • occurs in 20% of patients

    • usually oligoarticular, asymmetrical and predominantly affecting the lower limbs
Term
What is the sensitivity and specificity for HLA-B27 in detecting Ankylosing Spondylitis
Definition

 

    • sensitivity; caucasians: 92%, African-Americans 50%

    • specificity; 90%
Term
What is the rate of occurrence of enteropathic arthropathy for patients with IBD
Definition

 

20% of patients with Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis develop axial and/or peripheral spondyloarthritis 

Term
What is eburnation
Definition
The loss or thinning of the bearing cartilage of a joint, that occurs in degenerative disease such as OSTEOARTHRITIS, so that the underlying bone is exposed
Term
How can osteoarthritis be differentiated from autoinflammatory arthropathies
Definition

 

  • pain is usually worsened by weight bearing and relieved by rest 
  • stiffness occurs especially after activity
  • the pattern of usual joint involvement
  • lack of soft tissue swelling
  • takes <30 minutes to settle after rest while inflammatory takes at least 30 mins
Term
Discuss osteoarthritis as it affects the DIPJs
Definition

 

the DIP joints may go through a painful inflammatory phase ranging from a few months to a few years and then settle leaving residual bony deformity (Heberden's nodes) that does not significantly impact on function

Term
What is nodal osteoarthritis of the hand
Definition

 

  • primary generalised nodal osteoarthritis of the hand is a subset that can involve multiple distal interphalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints and have a significant impact on function
  • osteoarthritis of the first carpometacarpal joint can occur in isolation or as part of nodal osteoarthritis. It usually has a significant impact on function.
Term
Discuss glucosamine and fish oil in Osteoarthritis
Definition

 

  • glucosamine sulfate and chondroitin sulfate 
    • trials show either mild or no benefit
    • no long term use data but seem safe so far
    • if pxs like they can try a 3-6 month trial
  • fish oil
    • active components are long chain omega-3 fatty acids, eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)
    • these have anti-inflammatory properties when taken in doses greater than 2.7 g daily which can lower doses of NSAIDs, DMARDs and corticosteroids in chronic inflammatory rheumatological diseases
    • onset of anti-inflammatory effect is delayed by 2 to 3 months so the benefits are limited to patients requiring long-term therapy
    • recommended dose of omega-3 fatty acids can be taken using fish oil capsules but the cost of these capsules can be prohibitive and there may be compliance issues because of the number of capsules needed. A less expensive alternative is to take about 15 mL of standard fish oil liquid daily
Term
Discuss the etiology of polymyalgia rheumatica
Definition

 

adults > 55
female:male ratio = 2:1

Term
What are the combined rates of occurrence for Polymyalgia Rheumatica and Giant Cell Arteritis
Definition

 

  • a few patients with polymyalgia rheumatica develop giant cell arteritis, but 60% of patients with giant cell arteritis have polymyalgia rheumatica
  • may precede, follow, or occur simultaneously with giant cell arteritis
Term
What is the clinical presentation of Polymyalgia Rheumatica
Definition

 

  • bilateral proximal aching of the shoulder and hip girdle muscles and the back (upper and lower) and neck muscles
    • worse in the morning and is occasionally severe enough to prevent patients from getting out of bed and from doing simple activities
    • the pain may make patients feel weak, but objective muscle weakness is not present
  • morning stiffness lasting > 60 min
Term
How useful is ESR in Polymyalgia Rheumatica
Definition

 

ESR (80% sensitivity, often >100)

Term
Describe corticosteroid use in Polymyalgia Rheumatica
Definition

 

  • Prednisone 
    • started at 15 to 20 mg po daily
    • dramatic improvement (hours to days) supports the diagnosis
  • if giant cell arteritis is thought to be present, the dose of corticosteroids should be higher, and temporal artery biopsy should be done.
  • treatment effectiveness is monitored by 
    • symptoms
    • C-reactive protein
    • ESR; can be persistently elevated despite sx improvement and thus CRP is prefered for monitoring
  • as symptoms subside, corticosteroids are tapered to the lowest clinically effective dose. 
  • some patients are able to stop corticosteroids in about 2 yr without relapse, whereas others require small doses for years
Term
Can psoriatic arthropathy preceed the onset of skin manifestations
Definition

 

  • in 70% psoriasis is present before the onset of the arthropathy
  • in 15% arthropathy can precede psoriasis by over a year
Term
Which joints are affected in psoriatic arthritis
Definition

 

  • usually affects only peripheral joints 
  • may present with a single digit dactylitis, or enthesitis
  • common patterns
    • oligoarticular; 50%, generally evolves into polyarticular
    • polyarticular; 30%, may resemble rheumatoid arthritis
    • predominant spondyloarthritis; 10%, sacroiliitis is usually asymmetrical
    • predominant DIP; 5%, in both hands and feet, usually associated with severe psoriatic nail involvement
    • arthritis mutilans; 5%, there is osteolysis affecting the small joints of the hands and feet and adjacent phalanges, resulting in shortening of digits, and flail joints. More common in females.
Term
Are intra-articular corticosteroid injections useful in psoriatic arthritis
Definition

 

  • play a significant role 
  • may result in long-term suppression of synovitis in the injected joint
Term
Discuss typical time to onset, causative agents and populations affected by Reactive Arthritis
Definition
  • commences 1 to 3 weeks after an infective enteric or urogenital illness 
  • most common causative pathogens
    • enteric; Salmonella typhimurium, Shigella flexneri, Yersinia enterocolitica, Campylobacter jejuni
    • urogenital; Chlamydia trachomatis
    • Streptococcal infections can also be followed by reactive arthritis
  • urogenital reactive arthritis occurs predominantly in males between 20 and 40 yo
  • enteric reactive arthritis has an equal gender distribution
Term
Arthritis + conjunctivitis + urethritis
Definition
Reactive arthritis
Term
What is Reiters Sydrome
Definition
Reactive Arthritis
Term
Desribe the arthropathy of Reactive Arthitis
Definition

 

  • typically an inflammatory arthropathy with an asymmetrical oligoarticular distribution, predominantly affecting the lower limbs
  • dactylitis is a common feature
  • enthesitis can occur
  • in 80% the arthropathy settles within 6 months
Term
What skin manifestation can be associated with Reactive Arthritis
Definition

 

    • keratoderma blennorrhagica; 25%, is a pustular hyperkeratotic rash typically affecting the palms and soles of the feet, and is identical to pustular psoriasis[image]
Term
Which joints are affected in Rhuematoid Arthritis
Definition

 

  • commonly small joints of hands – PIP, MCP, wrists – and feet
  • minority = large joints (25% of initial presentations are with a large joint monoarthropathy)
Term
Describe the joint pain of Rheumatoid Arthtitis
Definition

 

  • joint pain worse on waking, nocturnal pain, disturbed sleep
  • morning stiffness which can last >1hr
  • tenderness and swelling over a greater area than the just joint
  • bone and cartilage damage + rupture of tendons joint subluxation and dislocation
  • hands show characteristic ulnar deviation, boutonniere deformity, swan neck deformity and "Z-thumb"
Term
What are the characteristic hand deformities in Rheumatoid Arthritis
Definition
  • ulnar deviation
  • boutonniere deformity
  • swan neck deformity
  • Z-thumb
Term
What are the characteristic hand deformities in Rheumatoid Arthritis
Definition
  • ulnar deviation
  • boutonniere deformity
  • swan neck deformity
  • Z-thumb

[image]

Term
What is mononeuritis multiplex
Definition
  • is a painful, asymmetrical, asynchronous sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy involving isolated damage to at least 2 separate nerve areas
  • as the condition worsens, it becomes less multifocal and more symmetrical.
  • is not a true, distinct disease entity but rather an associated with one of the following
    • Diabetes mellitus
    • Vasculitis
    • Amyloidosis
    • Direct tumor involvement - Lymphoma, leukemia
    • Polyarteritis nodosa
    • Rheumatoid arthritis
    • Systemic lupus erythematosus
    • Paraneoplastic syndromes

 

Term
What are the sensitivities and specificities of Rheumatoid Factor and Anti-CCP antibodies
Definition

 

  • Rheumatoid factor
    • is an autoantibody directed against IgG
    • about 2% of the healthy population is positive for RF, rising to 10-20% in those over 65 years
    • sensitivity 80% but often absent in the first 6 months of the disease
    • false +ves; Sjogren’s syndrome, SLE, periartieritis nodosa, systemic sclerosis, chronic infections and other immunological disorders
    • high levels associated with RA and predicts worse outcome and extra-articular disease
  • Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (Anti-CCP) antibodies
    • sensitivity 60% for early cases, and 70-75% for established disease
    • specificity 96%
    • is a strong predictor of erosive disease
Term
Outline the pathway that leads to a diagnosis of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Definition
Term
Outline the pathway that leads to a diagnosis of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Definition
[image]
Term
Discuss the etiology of Calcium Pyrophosphate Deposition Disease
Definition

 

  • mean age at presentation is 70 years

  • M:F = 1:5

  • prevalence of 8% in >65yo makes it the most common cause of an acute monoarthritis in the older patient

Term
What does CPDD stand for
Definition
Calcium Pyrophosphate Deposition Disease
Term
Differentiate pseudogout, pyrophosphate arthropathy, CPDD and chondrocalcinosis
Definition
  • Chondrocalcinosis simply describes calcification of articular cartilage
  • Pseudogout; describes the clinical syndrome of acute arthritis associated with CPPD deposition in articular cartilage
  • Pyrophosphate arthropathy indicates structural abnormality of cartilage and bone associated with CPPD deposition
  • CP-deposition disease (CPDD) is a term that encompasses both pseudogout and pyrophosphate arthropathy, although it is often loosely used as a synonym implying either or both of these conditions
Term
Which joints are most commonly affected in CPDD
Definition

 

  • mainly a disorder of the elderly superimposed on an osteoarthritic joint
  • affects the following joints (in order)
    • knee
    • 2nd and 3rd MCP joints 
    • wrist 
    • shoulder 
    • ankle 
    • elbow 
Term
What can precipitate an acute CPDD flare
Definition
  • joint trauma
  • stress response related to intercurrent illness
  • surgery 
  • IV fluid administration leading to altered fluid-balance states
Term
What feautres would one expect to find on xray and aspirate of a joint affected by CPDD
Definition

 

  • xray
    • supporting radiographic features are chondrocalcinosis and the usual OA changes (cartilage loss, subchondral cyst formation and osteophyte formation)
  • synovial aspirate
    • may contain both urate and calcium pyrophosphate crystals; (20% of patients with calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease also have hyperuricaemia)
Term
Outline the acute and chronic management for CPDD
Definition

 

  • acute flare oral 
    • (1) NSAID, at the upper dosing range until symptoms abate (typically 3 to 5 days), then reduce the dose until signs of joint inflammation have abated, and then cease 
    • (2) prednisolone 15 to 20 mg orally, daily until symptoms abate (typically 3 to 5 days) and then cease
      • Colchicine 500mg BD may be added to either an NSAID or prednisolone if monotherapy is insufficient to relieve symptoms
  • chronic
    • no known preventative therapy exists
Term
Which steroids are most appropriate for which joints and why
Definition
  • Betamethasone (Celestone)
    • more soluble thus used for small joint injections and tendon sheaths
  • Methyprednisolone (Depo-Medrol)
    • less soluble thus large joints only as crystals are bigger thus cause irritation in small joints
  • Triamcinolone (Kenacort)
    • the least soluble thus provides the longest duration of action (up to 21 weeks)
    • larger joints 1-1.5mL
  • smaller joints 1/4 - 1/2mL

 

Term

Define podagra
Definition
gout of the foot, especially the big toe.
Term
Discuss the differential diagnoses of a monoarthropathy
Definition

Crystal arthropathy

  • Monosodium urate deposition disease, or gout, is one of the most common cause of an acute monoarthritis.
  • Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease, or psuedogout, can also present in such a manner.
  • Less commonly, calcium oxalate and apatite crystals can also present as a monoarthritis.

Septic arthritis

This can result in significant morbidity if treatment is delayed.

  • Gonococcal infection: Neisseria gonorrhoea is an important cause of septic arthritis in sexually active adults. Other clinical findings may include tenosynovitis, a new rash and a history of urethral discharge.
  • Non-gonococcal bacterial infection: Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most common causes of non-gonococcal septic arthritis. This can occur in the context of recent skin infection, prosthetic joint, intravenous drug use, joint surgery and immunosuppression.

Osteoarthritis

  • Acute exacerbations with swelling can occur. Symptoms are generally mild, typically with non-inflammatory synovial fluid.

Monoarthritis as an initial presentation of a systemic rheumatic condition

  • Rheumatoid arthritis rarely presents as a monoarthritis.
  • Psoriatic arthritis, reactive arthritis and inflammatory arthropathy associated with inflammatory bowel disease are also known to cause monoarthritis, especially involving the lower extremity.
Term
Which STI needs to be considered in new onset monoarthropathy
Definition

Gonococcal infection


Neisseria gonorrhoea is an important cause of septic arthritis in sexually active adults. Other clinical findings may include tenosynovitis, a new rash and a history of urethral discharge.

Term
What are the risk factors for osteoporosis
Definition

 

  • baseline
    • age
    • FHx
  • lifestyle
    • thin, low BMI
    • immobile / sedentary lifestyle
    • smoking
    • ETOH
  • iatrogenic
    • prolonged corticosteroid use
  • hormonal
    • prolonged oestrogen deficiency in women
    • nulliparity
    • hypogonadism
    • hyperparathyroidism
  • inflammatory conditions 
    • eg RA
  • Ca / Vit D 
    • Ca / Vit D dietary deficiency
    • malabsorption disorders eg coeliacs
Term
Discuss T and Z scores in relation to osteoporosis
Definition

 

  • indicated if >45F or >50M and presence of another risk factor

  • T-score

    • is the bone mineral density (BMD) at the site when compared to the young normal reference mean

    • -1 = N

    • -1 to -2.5 = osteopaenia

    • > -2.5 = osteoporosis

  • Z - score

    • the BMD in relation to age matched normal

    • usually used for severe cases but also pre-menopausal women and men and women under 50 yo
Term
Discuss the presentation of vertebral fractures in osteoporosis
Definition

 

    • the hallmark fracture of OP

    • defined on the basis of a >20% reduction in vertebral height on X-ray

    • only 30% of all radiographically observed vertebral deformities come to medical attention (ie. are symptomatic with acute fracture related pain)

    • only 30% of vertebral fractures are associated with falls
Term
Describe the cancer risk statistics associated with BRCA mutations
Definition
  • BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes account for 5% of all breast cancer
  • however 60% of women with BRCA gene will get breast cancer 
  • plus 15-40% will get ovarian cancer (compared to 1.5% without gene)
Term
What is the triple test for breast cancer and its associated false positive and negative rate
Definition

 

    • a combination of

      • clinical examination

      • imaging; USS for <35, either USS / mammogram for 35 - 50, mammogram for >50

      • FNA

    • positive if any of the three is suspicious for malignancy

    • positive result indicates further follow up is required (eg excisional biopsy)

    • false +ve rate = 40%, false negative rate = 0.6%
Term
Discuss the aetiology of scarlet fever
Definition
  • Group A streptococcus pyogenes infection (pharyngitis or impetigo) produces an erythrogenic toxin
  • only some people are susceptible to this toxin thus two children may have strep infection but only one gets scarlet fever
  • antibodies to the toxin are still present <2yo due to vertical immunity from mother. 80% of 10yo have developed their own antibodies. Thus generally affects 4-8yo
  • spread via droplet or contact (including 20% of school children who are asymptomatic carriers)
  • incubation 1-4 days
Term
[image]
Definition
Scarlet fever
Term
Discuss the clinical presentation of scarlet fever
Definition

 

  • prodrome

    • 2/7 malaise, sore throat, strawberry tongue

  • rash (within 2/7 of fever)

    • erythematous, may be pruritic, start on neck / trunk the becomes widespread (except palms / soles), becomes punctate (feels like fine sandpaper)

    • resolves after 5-10/7 with fine desquamation

    • Pastia; ruptured capillaries in skin folds

    • facial flushing with circumoral pallor

Term
How is Scarlet Fever diagnosed
Definition

 

  • is clinical but a throat swab should be taken

  • consider Anti-dexoyribonuclease B and antistreptolysin-O titres
Term
What is the management and isolation protocol for scarlet fever
Definition
  • phenoxymethylpenicillin
    • results in rapid resolution of sxs
  • beware of strep Cx if not adequately treated (eg Rheumatic fever or strep glomerulonephritis)
  • isolation
    • should ideally be isolated from other family members, especially from infants and younger siblings
    • keep drinking glasses and eating utensils separate and wash thoroughly in very hot soapy water, preferably with antibacterial soap or detergent.
  • can return to school 1/7 after initiation of antibiotics
Term
What populations are at a high risk for Rheumatic Fever
Definition
  • Aboriginal
  • Torres straight
  • Pacific islanders
  • Urban disadvantaged
Term
Discuss the aetiology of Rheumatic Fever
Definition

 

  • a delayed autoimmune consequence following pharyngeal infection with  Streptococcus pyogenes
  • a latent period averaging three weeks before the symptoms of ARF begin 
  • by the time the symptoms develop, the infecting strain of S. pyogenes has usually been eradicated by the host immune response.
  • underlying pathophysiology remains unclear, but is likely a combination of 
    • poor immune epitope differentiation between strep pathogen and host cells 
    • host susceptibility 
Term
What are the diagnostic criteria for Rheumatic Fever
Definition
Term
What are the diagnostic criteria for Rheumatic Fever
Definition
[image]
Term

Aboriginal + sydenham chorea

Definition
Rheumatic Fever
Term
What is the treatment for Rheumatic Fever
Definition

High dose aspirin

Monthly benzathine penicillin for 10 years

Term
[image]
Definition
HIV seroconversion rash
Term
Outline the difference between HIV Ag/Ab EIA and Western Blot Test in HIV screening
Definition

 

      • HIV Ag/Ab EIA

        • is a screening test to detect HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibodies. The p24 antigen is a part of the HIV virus and can be detected before antibodies develop

        • highly sensitive

      • western blot test

        • if screening test is positive this is a confirmatory test

        • tests for the presence of HIV-specific proteins

        • highly specific
Term
How many grams of alcohol does one standard drink equal
Definition
10g of alchohol = 1 standard drink
Term
Discuss the indication for antibiotics in Otitis Media and how this changes with a perforation
Definition

 

    • recommended in the setting of

      • systemic features; high fever, vomiting or lethargy

      • younger than 6 months without systemic features

      • ATSI

    • tympanic membrane has perforation does not affect antibiotic decision

    • choice of Abx

      • amoxicillin

      • if inadequate response within 48 to 72 hours may have a beta-lactamase–producing strain of H. influenzae or M. catarrhalis; adding clavulanate provides increased activity against these pathogens

  • rv in 2-4/52 to ensure no residual effusion and consider hearing test follow up
Term
What is the numer needed to treat and harm for antibiotics with Otitis Media
Definition

 

    • NNTT is 20 to improve pain at 2 days

    • NNTH (including vomiting, diarrhoea and rash) = 14
Term
Define Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media
Definition
an otitis media with a perforated tympanic membrane and discharge for at least 6 weeks
Term
What are the red flags in a patient presenting with hoarseness
Definition
  • fevers / night sweats / weight loss
  • otalgia
  • smoking
  • haemoptysis
  • dysphagia
  • odynophagia
  • stridor
  • neck mass
Term
If no red flags exist in a patient presenting with hoarseness, what four differentials are commonly identified
Definition
  • phonotrauma
  • laryngopharyngeal reflux
  • recent URTI
  • steroid inhaler
Term
What is Diffuse Polypoidal Degeneration
Definition

Aetiology

  • occurs almost exclusively in chronic heavy smoking

    • DDx = hypothyroidism which can produce oedematous, thickened, floppy vocal folds

  • excessive gelatinous material is laid down in Reineke’s space, as an attempt by the larynx to protect itself from the chronic irritants

 Clinical
  • lowers the pitch of the voice to a significant degree — often a female with this condition is mistaken to have a man’s voice

 Mx 
  • the patient must stop smoking completely for three months

  • then condition can be treated surgically
Term
How does laryngopharyngeal reflux differ from GORD and how does it present clinically
Definition
  • not the same as nor a continuum of gastro-oesophageal reflux (GORD)

    • different symptomatology

    • different response to anti-reflux therapy

    • differing patterns of reflux as documented on measurements of oesophageal acid clearance (OAC)

      • laryngopharyngeal reflux patient has reflux in the upright position usually with a normal OAC

      • GORD has reflux in the supine position with a prolonged OAC

  • thus a normal upper gastrointestinal endoscopy does not rule out laryngopharyngeal reflux

  • laryngoscopy and flexible transnasal oesophagoscopy is required

 Clinical 
  • raspy voice

  • chronic throat clearing

  • heart burn
Term
acute phonotrauma (eg barracking, labour, coughing) + acute painful loss of voice =
Definition
vocal fold haemorrhage
Term
acute phonotrauma (eg barracking, labour, coughing) + acute painful loss of voice =
Definition

vocal fold haemorrhage

 

[image]

Term
Describe the innervation of the vocal cords
Definition
Superior and recurrent branches of the laryngeal nerve which are derived from the vagus nerve
Term
What is the most common cause of a laryngeal neuropathy
Definition
idiopathic post-viral mononeuritis
Term
Describe the clinical presentation of a laryngeal nerve palsy
Definition
  • flaccid paralysis of the ipsilateral vocal fold
  • swings in and out during attempted phonation
  • loses both tone and movement, leading to a weak, breathy voice
Term
Differentiate between mean, median and mode
Definition
  • Mean = the average
  • Median = the midpoint
  • Mode = the most common set of events (ie bimodal = the two most common occurences of a data set)
Term
What percentage of a data set is covered by 1, 2 and 3 standard deviations
Definition
  • 1 SD = 68%
  • 2 SD = 95%
  • 3 SD = 99.7%
Term
Differentiate causes of vertigo by time course
Definition

 

  • vertigo is never continuous (even when the vestibular lesion is permanent) as the central nervous system adapts to the defect so that vertigo subsides over several weeks

  • time course

    • under one minute + recurrent = BPPV

    • minutes to hours

      • single episode; migraine, transient ischemia of the labyrinth or brainstem

      • recurrent; Meniere's disease, recurrent vestibulopathy

      • days; vestibular neuritis, multiple sclerosis, infarction of the brainstem or cerebellum

    • constant dizziness lasting months is usually psychogenic, not vestibular
Term
In the setting of dizziness what is disequilibrium
Definition

 

  • is a differential diagnosis for the cause of dizziness

  • a sense of imbalance that occurs primarily when walking which, when chronic, can cause significant impairment of physical and social functioning

  • may result from

    • peripheral neuropathy

    • a musculoskeletal disorder interfering with gait

    • vestibular disorder

    • cervical spondylosis apparently related to a disturbance in postural control

    • Parkinson disease due to postural hypotension as well as imbalance

    • Visual impairment, whether from underlying eye disease or poor lighting, typically exacerbates the sense of imbalance.
Term
What is the P value and how does this relate to a value of 0.5, 0.05, 0.01 and 0.001
Definition
  • is the likelihood that a statistical finding occured by chance
  • each number is compare to 1
  • thus
    • 0.5 = 50% chance 
    • 0.05 = 5% change which is classified as "significant"
    • 0.01 = 1% chance, "highly significant"
    • 0.001 = 0.1% (1 in 1000) chance, "very highly significant"
Term
[image]
Definition

Milkers Nodules

- pseudocowpox virus

- infects the teats of cow and mouths of feeding calves

- may result in a lymphadenitis and / or secondary cellulitis

- may predispose to erythema multiforme 2/52 later

- single infection gives life long immunity

Term
[image]
Definition

Orf

  • Orf virus is of the Parapox genera of the Poxviridae family

  • presents as a single papule or group of papules on the hands of sheep handlers after handling lambs with contagious pustular dermatitis

  • the papules change into pustular like nodules or bullae with a violaceous erythematous margin

  • it clears spontaneously in 3-4/52 but rapid resolution within days can be obtained by an intralesional injection of triamcinolone
Term

Elderly, pruritic

[image]

Definition
Asteatotic Dermatitis

Aetiology

  • due to water loss from the stratum corneum

  • a pruritic leg rash of the elderly (can occur on arms and trunk)

  • usually associated with excessive scrubbing and bathing. Other RF = low humidity (winter, air conditioning), diuretics

 Clinically
  • dry, scaling, erythematous, superficial, cracking, “crazy paving” appearance,

 Rx 
  • avoid scrubbing and soaps

  • aqueous cream and soap substitute

  • topical steroid in paraffin
Term
What is the pathophysiology of eczema
Definition

Atopy + immature skin sweat / oil glands

 

Atopy = a tendency to develop (often hereditary) one or more of allergic rhinitis (hay fever), asthma, eczema, skin sensitivities, urticaria. 10% of people are atopic.

Term
Discuss the eczema distribution pattern by age
Definition
[image]
Term

Known ezcema, current emotional stressors + humid environment

[image][image]

Definition

Pompholyx

= a vesicular atopic dermatitis of the hands and feet
Etiology
  • young adults, F>M

Aetiology
  • multifactorial, exac by sweating (hot weather / humid conditions often result in flares)

  • often occurs with emotional upset

  • others; known irritants, inflammatory dermatophyte, drugs

  • Hx/FHx of atopy

 Clinical 
  • may report palmoplanter hyperhidrosis

  • recurrent deep pruritic (+/- burning) vesicles

  • skin then peels to reveal dry, painful (+/- fissured) skin

  • can cause paronychia if occur at nail bed
Term
[image]
Definition
Nummular Dermatitis
Term
[image]
Definition

Eczema herpeticum

 

= widespread HSV infection complicating a pre-existing skin condition, most often atopic dermatitis.

  
  • presents as an acute eruption of vesicles or multiple crusted erosions.

  • may follow a cold sore.

  • fever and malaise may be present

  • skin tenderness is more common than itching

  • take a swab to confirm the diagnosis

  • antiviral therapy is essential—treat as for a severe primary episode of oral mucocutaneous HSV.
Term
Differentiate irritant contact dermatitis vs allergic contact dermatitis vs contact urticaria
Definition
  • irritant; excessive contact with precipitant which would affect anyone given enough exposure (eg acids, detergents etc) but will often affect atopics more severely
  • allergic; reaction of a small number of people to a known precipitant (often only in small amounts) which is harmless to others. Usually after a long period of asymptomatic exposure
  • urticaria; reaction occurs within minutes of exposure and lasts minutes to hours

 

Term
[image]
Definition

Dermatitis Herpetiformis 

  • intensely pruritic vesicular rash

  • unusual to see vesicles due to intensity of scratching

  • most commonly associated with gluten intolerance

  • usually young adults

  • knees, elbows, trunk or buttocks

  • lasts for decades

  • skin biopsy is diagnostic

 Rx
  • gluten free diet
  • dramatic response to Dapsone
Term
[image]
Definition

Infantile Seborrhoeic Dermatitis

 

  • aka cradle cap when on the scalp
  • aetiology unclear, may be due to hyperactive sebaceous glands in response to residual maternal hormone levels in the baby
  • generally <3 months old
  • affects scalp and napkin area
  • prone to secondary fungal infection
Term
In a baby differentiate between irritant dermatitis, candidiasis, seborrhoeic dermatitis and psoriasis as causes for nappy rash
Definition
  • irritant dermatitis 
    • erythematous scaling rash that spares the flexures
    • due to faecal proteases and lipases (+/- ammonia = conjecture). Thus more common with diarrhoea
  • seborrheic dermatitis
    • extends beyond napkin area 
  • candidiasis
    • satellite lesions
  • psoriasis 
    • always involves the flexures
    • often severe and associated with an explosive eruption on the face and trunk
Term
What differentiates pityriasis capitis and seborrhoeic dermatitis
Definition
Pityriasis capitis is a non inflammatory variant aka dandruff
Term
What is the most common cause of a malar / butterfly rash
Definition
Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Term
Abscess to hair baring skin on head + hairs to affected area can be plucked out easily and painlessly
Definition

Kerion

 

= a tender, fluctuant abscess usually on the hair bearing face / scalp due to a fungal infection

 

Clinical diagnosis is suggested if hairs can be easily plucked out without pain (if causes pain = bacterial)

Term
[image]
Definition
Pityriasis versicolour
Term

Child, patchy alopecia

[image]

Definition

Tinea capitis


Aetiology

- usually in children (rare after puberty)
Etiology
- usually due to Microsporum canis (in Australia)
Clinical
- scaling patches of partial alopecia
- small broken off hair shafts
Dx
- hair plucking and skin scales for m/c/s
Rx
- antifungal

Term
[image]
Definition

Tinea corporis (aka ringworm)
 
= a localised fungal skin infection with characteristic appearance
 
Eitiology

Trichophytum rubrum or Microsporum canis
 
Aetiology
strong association with cat and dog exposure
 
Clinical
spreading, circular erythematous lesions with scaling / vesicles at the edge
central clearing
mild itch
 
Rx
 
topical / oral antifungal

Term
[image]
Definition

Tinea nigra
 
Aetiology

hot, humid climates
 
Etiology
due to an infection with Exophiala phaeoannellomyces a brown mould that lives in the soil
 
Clinical
macular black lesion on the palm or sole
some scaling
non pruritic
slow growing
 
Dx
skin scrapings from the lesions scaling edge
skin biopsy (as may mimic melanoma)
 
Rx
 
good response to topical antifungal

Term

 

localised patchy hair loss with a resultant smooth patch of skin
no sign of inflammation
exclamation mark hairs

Definition

Alopecia areata

 

= sudden onset hair loss due to immunological disruption of the anagen phase

Term
Anagen effluvium
Definition

= hair loss during the anagen phase and is typically seen in association with cancer chemotherapy and scalp radiotherapy
 
effluvium = “to flow out”
 
Etiology

immediate metabolic arrest in anagen phase with loss of hair. The follicle may remain in anagen phase and thus hair growth will recover quickly or it may move into telogen phase thus delaying growth by about 3 months
 
Clinical
anagen hair shafts are identified by their long and pigmented hair bulb

Term
What is the pathophysiology of androgenetica alopecia
Definition

 

  • terminal hairs are replaced by shorter and finer hairs due to the effect of androgen on scalp follicles

  • effect is mostly due to end organ androgen sensitivity (as opposed to directly related to androgen levels)

  • action is stimulated by dihydrotestosterone (a testosterone derivative which is more potent than testosterone and results from conversion by the 5-alpha reductase enzyme)
Term
What is hypertrichosis and what causes it
Definition

= the increased growth of fine vellus or downy hair over the entire body

 

Aetiology

 

  • non-androgen dependent hair and does not respond to anti-androgen therapy

  • cause

    • primary / idiopathic (most common)

      • usually occurs pre pubertal

      • evenly distributed over the back and limbs

      • commonly familial

    • secondary

      • drugs; eg phenytoin, minoxidil, cyclosporine, corticosteroids, including topicals, diazoxide and anabolic steroids

      • neoplasia; eg stomach cancer, when it is termed hypertrichosis lanuginosa acquisita or malignant down

      • anorexia nervosa

      • menopause

      • starvation

      • a few rare syndromes (e.g. Cornelia de Lange syndrome).
Term
thin wispy hair + under 5 + painless easy plucking
Definition

Loose Anagen Syndrome

 

 

  • defective keratinisation of the inner root sheet that results in loose hairs that are easy to pull out

  • autosomal dominant inheritance
  • spontaneous resolution by teenage years
Term
Describe the three phases of a hairs life cycle
Definition

 

  • Anagen phase

    • the active growth phase

    • dermal papilla stimulates hair epithelial cell division

    • hair shaft grows at 1cm / month

  • Catagen phase

    • a short transition phase (weeks) from active growth to inactivity

    • base of the hair shaft detaches from the papilla and becomes club shaped

  • Telogen phase

    • the resting or dormant phase which terminates with the hair shedding

    • 2-4 months

    • the follicle then re-enters anagen phase
Term
stressful event + 2-3 month gap + white bulb hairs
Definition

Telogen effluvium

 

DxT = stressful event + 2-3 month gap + white bulb hairs

 

Aetiology

  • triggered by a variety of stressors

    • any severe stress

    • childbirth (common)

    • high fever

    • weight loss (especially crash dieting)

    • trauma / surgery

    • OCP cessation

    • malnutrition

 

Etiology

  • shedding of hairs in the telogen phase

  • possibly due to high metabolic rate of follicular matrix cells (secondary only to haematological) with stressor causing cessation of anagen and premature entry into telogen phase

  • thus 2-3 month gap after cessation of anagen until hairs complete telogen phase

 

Clinical

 

  • 2-3 months after stressor club hairs with white bulbs are shed

  • often large clumps are easily pulled out with gentle tugging, combing or washing

  • if uncomplicated self resolves within 6/12

  • if >6/12 consider chronic idiopathic variant or unmasked androgenetic alopecia
Term

 

[image]

Definition

Trichotillomania

 

= patchy hair loss due to deliberate plucking or twisting

 

Aetiology

  • reasonably common in children, is of little concern (ie a ‘habit they will grow out of’)

  • in adults it may be an obsessive compulsive disorder associated with stress


Clinical

 

  • patchy alopecia

  • hairs of different length, broken or twisted

  • often on side of dominant hand

  • eyelashes and eyebrows may be involved

  • if in children may be nocturnal and parents unaware it is occurring
Term
What causes of brittle nails need be considered
Definition
  • more common 
    • increasing age

    • repeated water immersion

    • exposure to chemicals eg detergents, alkalis, nail polish removers

  • consider

    • hypothyroidism

    • digital ischaemia
Term

Isolated paroxysms of subungual pain especially with change in temperature

[image]

Definition

Glomus tumour

 

Aetiology

  • arise from the arterial portion of the glomus body (a temperature-sensitive organ of modified perivascular smooth muscle cells, which is involved in the vascular regulation of skin temperature; arterioles contract with cold whereas glomus bodies dilate)



Clinical

  • typically a solitary, painful 1-2 cm reddish blue papule or nodule found on a young adult

  • most commonly affect the nail bed or the palm

  • usually tender to touch, but may be extremely painful, particularly following change in temperature or pressure

 

Rx

 

  • solitary glomus tumours can be surgically excised but this becomes difficult with multiple glomuvenous malformations. Other treatment options include laser, injection with hypertonic saline and sclerotherapy
Term
[image]
Definition

Myxoid pseudocyst

 

aka; myxoid cyst, a mucous cyst, a digital ganglion cyst, and a digital synovial cyst

 

Aetiology

  • degeneration in the connective tissue overlying the distal phalanges


Term

What are these three causes of onycholysis

[image]

Definition
[image]
Term
[image]
Definition
Paronychia
Term
[image]
Definition

Twenty nail dystrophy

  
  • aka Trachyonychia

  • uncommon disorder in preadolescent children

  • thinning and roughening of almost all 20 nails

  • usually a self limiting condition that resolves over 2-3 years

  • may be a prodrome to psoriasis, lichen planus or alopecia areata

  • consider trial of super potent corticosteroid

Term
[image]
Definition

Becker’s naevus

 

Aetiology

  • most commonly in pubertal boys

 

Etiology

  • a localised benign hyperproliferation of epidermal, melanocyte and hair follicle cells

  • suspected gene defect but details not known

 

Clinical

  • unilateral, light brown macular patch which can be as large as half the back and will tan easily

  • can have an associated coarse hair overgrowth or acne predisposition

  • if abnormal / worrying features consider Beckers neavus syndrome

 

Rx

 

  • nil effective Rx

  • avoid sun exposure to decrease obviousness

  • Rx acne as for other acne

  • could consider laser for pigment +/- hair

Term

Painful

[image]

Definition

Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicus

 

= a painful benign nodule of the helix or antihelix

 

Etiology

  • sun damage

  • histologically a thickened epidermis overlies an inflamed cartilage



Clinical

  • a small painful nodule

  • affects sleep if head on that side

 

Rx

 

  • will usually self resolve if sleep on other side

  • can consider cryotherapy or intralesional steroid

  • last resort = wedge resection

Term
Discuss the aetiology of a cutaneous horn
Definition

= hard conical projections from the skin made of compacted keratin

 

Etiology

  • form as a component of another type of lesion (ie the horn ‘base’)

  • ~50% have a benign base and 50% a malignant base

  • most lesions are:

    • seborrhoeic keratosis (degenerative)

    • human papillomavirus warts

    • solar keratosis

    • well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma

 

Whilst no certain features can confidently confirm or exclude malignant lesions, malignant lesions are more common in older patients and in males compared to females. Squamous cell carcinoma is also likely if the horn has the following features:

  • Pain

  • Large size

  • Induration at the base

  • Anatomic site on the nose, ears, backs of hands, scalp, forearms, face and penis

  • Wide base or low height to base ratio

  • Redness at the base of the horn base

  • Lack of terrace formation, due to rapid unorganised growth

 

Rx

 

  • surgical excision given inability to distinguish possible malignancy clinically

Term

on the leg

[image]

Definition
Dermatofibroma
Term
[image]
Definition

Granuloma annulare

 

= a common benign papule arranged in an annular fashion

 

Aetiology

  • children and young adults

 

Etiology

 

  • idiopathic hypersensitivity reaction of the dermis

  • uncommonly can be an association with thyroid, DM, hyperlipidaemia, HIV or cancers

Rx

  • self resolve within a few months (but may persist for years)

  • consider topical steroid / immunomodulatory therapy (or systemic for disseminated)
Term
[image]
Definition

Halo naevus

 

= a naevus surrounded by a depigmented halo

 

Aetiology

  • often around puberty

 

Etiology

  • is an immune response

 

Clinical

  • the central neavus gradually involutes

 

Rx

 

  • ensure the naevus is not a melanoma (which can have halo) naevi as well)

  • will resolve over years
Term
[image]
Definition
Kaposi sarcoma
Term
[image]
Definition

Keratoacanthoma

 

= a variant of SCC

 

Aetiology

  • 6% chance of malignant transformation

  • sun damaged skin

 

Etiology

  • difficult to differentiate clinically and histologically from an SCC thus controversy as to whether these are a SCC variant or a different entity

 

Clinical

  • characterised by dome-shaped, symmetrical, surrounded by a smooth wall of inflamed skin, and capped with keratin scales and debris

  • may start at the site of a minor injury to sun damaged and hair-bearing skin

  • at first it may appear as a small pimple and may be squeezed but is found to have a solid core filled with keratin

  • it grows rapidly, reaching a large size within days or weeks, and if untreated for months will almost always starve itself of nourishment, necrose, slough, and heal with scarring

 

Rx

 

  • surgical excision

  • consider cautery, cryotherapy or radiotherapy
Term
Histopathologically differentiate freckles, lentigenes and melanoma
Definition
  • freckle; increased melanin production but no melanocyte hyperproliferation
  • lentigo; localised hyperproliferation of melanocytes
  • melanoma; melanocyte hyperproliferation + atypia, nesting and adnexal structure invasion
Term
How are smoking pack years calculated
Definition

Pack–years are calculated as the number of years smoked, multiplied by the number of cigarettes smoked per day, divided by 20.


# of years x # of cigarettes

              20

Term
Describe spirometry for asthma and what values are significant for both adults and children
Definition
[image]
Term
[image]
Definition

Pyogenic granuloma

 

= a relatively common vascular lesion

 

Aetiology

  • children and young adults

  • F>M due to ass w preg (which present more commonly on oral mucosa)

 

Etiology

  • cause unclear

  • considered an abnormal reaction to mild trauma

  • other possible influences; staph, pregnancy, retinoids

 

Clinical

  • hands and face

  • raised bright red ‘raspberry’ like lesion

  • friable

 

Rx

 

  • it must be distinguished from an amelanotic melanoma and an anaplastic SCC

  • if preg related will resolve post delivery

  • if drug related will resolve on cessation of drug

  • otherwise tend to persist. Thus

    • curette and cauterise

    • chemical or physical cryotherapy

  • recurrence common due to deep seeding abnormal capillaries thus surgical excision may be required
Term
[image]
Definition

Sebaceous hyperplasia

 

= a benign hair follicle tumour

 

Aetiology

  • forehead or cheeks of the middle-aged and elderly

  • increased prevalence with immunosuppression

 

Clinical

  • small yellow bumps up to 3 mm in diameter

  • dermatoscopy shows

    • central hair follicle surrounded by yellowish lobules

    • often prominent blood vessels in surrounding skin

    • sometimes confused with basal cell carcinoma.

 

Rx

 

  • does not require any treatment. However, for cosmetic reasons or if they are bothersome if irritated, individual lesions may be removed by light electrocautery or laser vaporisation.

  • when the lesions are severe, extensive or disfiguring, oral isotretinoin is effective in clearing lesions but these may recur when treatment is stopped.

  • in females antiandrogens may help improve the appearance.
Term
[image]
Definition

Seborrhoeic keratoses

 

= a benign skin growth associated with aging

 

Aetiology

  • 90% of people >60yo have one

  • can occur anywhere except palms, soles and mucous membranes

  • are not pre-malignant

  

Clinical

  • Seborrhoeic keratoses have highly variable appearance.

  • Flat or raised papule or plaque

  • 1 mm to several cm in diameter

  • Skin coloured, yellow, grey, light brown, dark brown, black or mixed colours

  • Smooth, waxy or warty surface

  • Solitary or grouped in certain areas, such as within the scalp, under the breasts, over the spine or in the groin

  • like a squashed sultana

  • Dermatoscopy often shows

    • a disordered structure

    • multiple orange or brown clods (due to keratin in skin surface crevices)

    • white “milia-like” clods

    • curved thick ridges

    • furrows forming a brain-like or cerebriform pattern.

Rx

  • Methods used to remove seborrhoeic keratoses if desired include:

 

  • Cryotherapy (liquid nitrogen) for thinner lesions (repeated if necessary)

  • Curettage and/or electrocautery

  • Ablative laser surgery

  • Shave biopsy (shaving off with a scalpel)

  • Focal chemical peel with trichloracetic acid
Term
[image]
Definition

Solar keratosis


aka actinic keratosis

 = a scaling lesion on sun damaged skin and is considered an early precursor to SCC
 

Aetiology

  • Risk factors

    • other signs of photoaging

    • fair skin with a history of sunburn

    • sun exposure

    • immunodeficiency

 

Etiology

  • UVB induced DNA changes resulting in abnormal skin development via dysplasia of the intra epidermal keratinocytes

 

Clinical

  • the appearance varies.

  • can be atrophic, hypertrophic, pigmented or lichenoid

  • white or yellow; scaly, warty or horny surface

  • tender or asymptomatic

  • occasionally develop a cutaneous horn

 

Complications

  • the risk of SCC transformation is low (but in Px with >10 SK = 15%)

  • signs of evolution are tender, thickened, ulcerated or enlarging SK

 

Rx

 

  • can remit spontaneously, especially if good sun protection adherence

  • consider removal for cosmetic reasons or especially if signs of changes to SCC

  • consider cryotherapy (usually first line), shave excision or surgical excision

  • field treatments may be applied to large areas

Term
[image]
Definition

Spitz naevus

 

= an uncommon benign red - brown dome shaped pigmented naevus of children which often causes concern with its rapid growth (over months) on the face or limbs. They remain static after this first period and must be differentiated from melanoma

Term
What is the risk of metastasis of SCC based on its area of presentation
Definition

 

    • Up to 5% of primary SCCs on sun-exposed skin

    • external ear (10%)

    • lip (15%)

    • arising in a scar or on skin that is not exposed to the sun is 40%
Term
What followup should patients receive after excision of a primary SCC on sun exposed skin
Definition
Review patients with a primary SCC every 6 months for at least 2 years after excision. Look for signs of secondary tumours (eg in regional lymph nodes) at each visit.
Term
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Definition
SCC
Term
What is Bowens Disease
Definition

Squamous cell carcinoma insitu (SCCIS)

aka Bowens disease

 

= an early, slow growning, non-invasive form of SCC

Term
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Definition

Dermal melanocytosis

(Mongolian spot)

 

This condition presents as blue-grey discolouration of the skin over the lower back and sacrum in babies of east Asian and other dark-skinned ethnic backgrounds. These are of no clinical significance but may be mistaken for bruising or non-accidental injury. They usually disappear by 4 years of age.

Term
What is the natural progression of infantile haemangiomas
Definition

Infantile Haemangiomas

 

Clinical

  • can be superficial (strawberry haemangioma), flat or lumpy, resembling strawberry jam splashed on the skin or deep and cavernous haemangioma (a bluish swelling)

  • usually appear after birth, and occur in 10% of infants

  • 80% occur on the head and neck

  • 80% of their growth occurs in the first 3 months (most stop by 5 months, though some continue until 18 months)

  • usually involute and disappear (50% by 5 years, 70% by 7, 90% by 10)

  • regression of bulky ones tends to be incomplete, and they often leave an atrophic ;dented ; scar

 

Referral

 

  • large, deep or multiple haemangiomas can be associated with malformations of organs,

  • those causing cosmetic issues (such as being prominent on the face)

  • those that impair vision/hearing/breathing or feeding

  • other important locations (e.g. perineum or sacrum)
Term

Recent relocation to a warmer climate

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Definition

Miliaria

(sweat rash)

 

Aetiology

  • arises from obstruction of the sweat ducts

  • commonest in hot, humid conditions

  • may begin within a few days of arrival in a tropical climate but is maximal after 2-5 months

 

Clinical

 

  • typically in skin folds and areas of friction from clothing

  • in infants lesions commonly appear on the neck, groins and armpits

  • in contrast to acne and other forms of folliculitis, miliaria spots do not arise around the hair follicles

  • variants

    • miliaria crystallina or sudamina; obstruction is superficial and appears as tiny superficial clear blisters that break easily

    • miliaria rubra or prickly heat occurs deeper in the epidermis and results in very itchy red papules

    • miliaria profunda results from sweat leaking into the dermis causing deep and intensely uncomfortable, prickling, red lumps.

    • miliaria pustulosa describes pustules due to inflammation and bacterial infection
Term

What are the four clinical stages of

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Definition

Pityriasis alba

 

    • scaling erythematous

    • scaling hypopigmentation

    • non scaling hypopigmentation

    • resolution (months to years)
Term

What is the aetiology of 

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Definition

Pityriasis Alba

 

= a low grade atopic dermatitis primarily affecting children in which a hypopigmented, fine scaling lesion appears on the face

 

Aitiology

  • very common

 

Etiology

  • often presents after sun tanning in which lesion becomes more noticeable

 

Clinical

  • usually on the face

  • 0.5-5cm

  • 1 - 20 lesions

  • minimal to no itch

  • four stages

    • scaling erythematous

    • scaling hypopigmentation

    • non scaling hypopigmentation

    • resolution (months to years)

 

Rx

 

  • none require / self resolving

  • manage skin condition and pruritus as for dermatitis

  • some evidence for topical immunomodulators decreasing time to resolution
Term
What is Reyes syndrome
Definition

Reyes syndrome

 
  • a rare complication of influenza, chickenpox and other viral illnesses (eg Coxsackie virus) and can be further precipitated by aspirin use during the illness

  • rapid development of

    • encephalopathy

    • hepatic failure

    • hypoglycaemia

    • which culminate in seizure and coma

  • 30% fatality rate and significant morbidity

  • Rx is supportive and directed at cerebral oedema
Term

<2 weeks old

[image]

Definition

Toxic erythema of the newborn

 
  • a benign condition which occurs in 50% of newborns

  • usually 1 - 2 days after birth (but may appear up to 2 weeks later)

  • 2 - 3 mm erythematous macules and papules developing into pustules, with a surrounding blotchy area of erythema

  • starts on the face and spreads to the torso and proximal limbs, and spares the palms and soles

  • usually fades over a week, but may recur for a few weeks

  • child is systemically well with the rash

  • no treatment is required
Term

Pregnant

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Definition

Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy

 
  • aka Pruritic Urticarial Papules and Plaques of Pregnancy (PUPPP)

  • 1 in 160 pregnancies, second most common rash of preg

  • late in 3rd trimester

  • RF = nulliparous, large weight gain during preg

  • Clinical

    • intensely pruritic

    • begins in or near striae on abdomen

    • as it spreads, erythematous papules coalesce to form plaques on trunk / buttock / limbs

    • resolves spontaneously days after preg (and does not recur even with following pregs)

 

Rx (eTG)

 

  • betamethasone 0.05% BD until resolves

  • +/- antihistamine (eg cyproheptadine = Cat A in preg)
Term
How can it be determined if Peripheral Artery Disease is the cause for a non healing wound
Definition
The impact of PAD on wound healing depends on its haemodynamic significance. Well collateralised, localised PAD may have no effect on healing, whereas poorly collateralised, multi-segmental PAD can prevent wound healing or lead to progressive tissue loss. An assessment of the haemodynamic importance of PAD is required in all patients. Palpable ankle pulses almost always indicate that the arterial circulation is adequate for wound healing, and further vascular investigations are then not required.
Term
Are arterial ulcers painful
Definition
often painful—the pain is aggravated by elevation, and relieved by lowering the leg over the side of the bed
Term
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Definition

Pyoderma gangrenosum


Etiology

  • uncommon disease

  • affects males and females of any age, but is more common in those aged over 50 years.


Aetiology

 

  • it is one of a group of autoinflammatory disorders known as neutrophilic dermatoses.

  • the name pyoderma gangrenosum is historical. The condition is not an infection (pyoderma), nor does it cause gangrene.

  • cause unclear but It is thought to be a reaction to an internal disease or condition

Clinical

  • presents as a rapidly enlarging, very painful ulcer, often at the site of a minor injury

  • may start as a small pustule, red bump or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down resulting in an ulcer. The ulcer can deepen and widen rapidly

  • characteristically, the edge of the ulcer is purple and undermined

  • several ulcers may develop at the same time.

  • treatment is usually successful in arresting the process, but complete healing may take months. This is particularly true if there is underlying venous disease, another reason for leg ulcers.


Rx
- intralesional / systemic corticosteroids
- immunomudulators
Term
Differentiate between pyoderma gangrenosum and pyogenic granuloma
Definition

Pyoderma gangrenosum = the one that is not an infection but looks like it. Rx is with steroids / immunomodultors 

[image]

 

Pyogenic granuloma = the vascular lesion

[image]

 

Term
Are venous ulcers painful
Definition
Usually not unless secondarily infected
Term
What differentiates open and closed comedones in acne
Definition
  • Dx of acne requires both open and closed comedones (comedone = blocked sebaceous gland
  • Open = black head as oxidation of sebaceous material causes dark colour change
  • Closed = white head
  • If patient only has pustules the diagnosis must be reconsidered.
Term
Differentiate between dermatophytes and yeast and give examples of each
Definition

Dermatophyte = a group of fungi that have the ability to utilise keratin as a nutrient source. Thus a dermatophytosis (infection with dermatophyte) is unique in that no living tissue is invaded / affected. Rather the effects are from a sensitivity reaction to its presence. Common examples are ringworm and tinea.


Yeast = a group of fungi that commonly exist as part of natural microbiome (eg skin / GIT / vagina). Problems arise when immune system's capacity is decreased (either locally or systemically). Common eg = Candida

Term
What is erythema infectiosum
Definition

slapped cheek syndrome


= a common childhood exanthem caused by parvovirus 19

Term
What are the serious sequelae of Parvovirus B19
Definition

Other than rash symptoms are mild if at all except in:

 

 

    • pregnancy where it can cause foetal death

    • adults where sequelae can be serious including arthritis
Term
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Definition

Erythema infectiosum

(slapped cheek syndrome)


= a common childhood exanthem caused by parvovirus 19


Aetiology

  • school aged children


Etiology

  • parvovirus 19 infection of the bone marrow

  • incubation of 4-21 days

  • spread via respiratory droplets

  • infective up until the rash appears


Clinical

 

  • 30% of those infected will have no sxs

  • maybe a few days of non specific viral prodrome

  • typically a bright macular erythematous rash erupts on the face first. Then a day later on the limbs (maculopapular)

  • lasts for only a few days but may recur for several weeks (or become reddened with sun / wind exposure)

  • other sxs are mild (if at all) except

    • pregnancy where it can cause foetal death

    • adults where sequelae can be serious including arthritis
Term
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Definition

Erythema multiforme


= a hypersensitivity reaction usually triggered by infections which presents with a skin eruption characterised by a typical target lesion.


Term
[image]
Definition

Erythema multiforme


= a hypersensitivity reaction usually triggered by infections which presents with a skin eruption characterised by a typical target lesion.

Term
Discuss the etiology of erythema multiforme
Definition

Erythema multiforme


= a hypersensitivity reaction usually triggered by infections which presents with a skin eruption characterised by a typical target lesion.


Aetiology

 

  • usually 20-30yo

  • M>F

  • genetic predisposition

  • triggers

    • Infections (90% of cases)

      • HSV

        • most common cause overall

        • usually oral herpes (cold sore)

        • HSV lesion usually precedes skin eruption by 3-14 days

      • Mycoplasma pneumoniae

        • the next most common precipitant

      • many others have been implicated

    • drugs

      • a less likely cause

      • should consider other drug reactions before erythema multiforme if the eruption is likely drug related
Term
Describe the timeline progression of erythema multiforme
Definition
  • usually no systemic prodrome

  • skin lesions progress as follows over 72 hours

    • sharply demarcated, round, red/pink and flat (macules),

    • become raised (papules/palpable)

    • gradually enlarge to form plaques up to several centimetres in diameter

    • the centre of the papule/plaque darkens in colour and develops surface (epidermal) changes such as blistering or crusting

  • lesions may be at various stages of development the eruption is described as polymorphous (many forms), hence the ‘multiforme’ in the name
  • can be a few or hundreds of lesions erupt within 24 hours, first on back of hands and top of feet and then spreading proximally towards the trunk, palms and soles may be involved, may be mild itch or burning

  • a full skin examination may be required to find typical targets, as these may be few in number
  • mucous membranes

    • can be involved, especially in severe form

    • oral most common

    • usually develop ~3 days after skin lesions first seen

    • if precipitant is mycoplasma pneumoniae the mucous membranes may be the only area to develop lesions, they are more severe and hospitalisation may be required due to this severity

  • usually resolves over weeks

  • does not progress on to become TEN / SJS

 

Rx

  • usually nil required

  • treat underlying precipitant as indicated
Term
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Definition

Erythema nodosum


= a hypersensitivity inflammatory disorder that affects the subcutaneous fat on the legs and arms


Aetiology

  • 20-45

  • M:F = 1:6


Etiology

  • hypersensitivity reaction to multiple known precipitants

  • precipitants

    • sarcoidosis; commonest known cause

    • infections; strep, viral hepatitis, TB, chlamydia, fungal

    • IBD

    • drugs

    • lymphoma, leukaemia

    • idiopathic; 40%


Clinical

 

  • most commonly on the shins

  • the nodules are slightly raised above the surrounding skin; they are hot and painful, bright red when they first appear, later becoming purple then fading through the colour changes of a bruise.

  • can have malaise, fever, arthralgia

  • resolves over 6/52 but can recur

Term
Differentiate between Erythema Infectiosum, Erythema Multiforme and Erythema Nodosum
Definition
  • Erythema infectiosum = slapped cheek syndrome, Parvovirus B19
  • Erythema multiforme = a hypersensitivity reaction most commonly to underlying Herpes or Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections resulting in a polymorphous rash of papular circular lesions including target lesions
  • Erythema nodosum = a hypersensitivity inflammatory reaction of the subcutaneous fat in the legs. Due to multiple possible causes with sarcoidosis as the most common. Results in a hot and tender nodules to the legs
Term
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Definition

Erythrasma


  • a common asymptomatic chronic skin infection which causes a slowly enlarging pink or brown area of dry skin

  • commonly skin folds, auxillae, groin and toes

  • aitiology = chronic bacterial infection with Corynebacterium minitissimum

  • DDx = other causes of intertrigo. May coexist with dermatophyte or yeast

  • RF = warm climate and diabetes


Dx

  • clinical but can confirm with

    • coral pink under woods light

    • swab / scraping


Rx

 

  • antiseptic or topical Abx
Term
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Definition

Guttate Psoriasis


= sudden eruption of small dense erythematous papules commonly following a streptococcal infection


Aetiology

  • usually children and adolescents


Etiology

  • often precipitated by a streptococcal infection


Clinical

  • numerous droplet-shaped lesions, 2 to 10 mm

  • comes on very quickly

  • trunk and proximal limbs

  • as in plaque psoriasis, the lesions are pink, but scaling may be less prominent

  • often does not occur until 2 to 3 weeks after infection

  • it can persist for up to 6/12 but will self resolve


Rx 

  • ensure resolution of underlying bacterial infection

  • although plaques are widespread they are often thin, and likely to respond to milder topical treatments. Treat as for psoriasis on the trunk and limbs.

Term
What is the cause of hand foot and mouth disease
Definition

Hand Foot and Mouth Disease


= an enterovirus infection causing a recognizable syndrome characterized by vesicular lesions on the mouth and an exanthem on the hands and feet (and buttocks) in association with fever


Aetiology

  • typically <10yo (often outbreaks in daycare) but can affect all ages

  • usually mild illness with full recovery (a secondary skin infection is the main complication)

  • can become dehydrated due to discomfort from the oral lesions

  • more severe complications associated with younger age


Etiology

  • group of RNA viruses called enteroviruses (most commonly coxsackie virus but can be herpes simplex viruses)

  • commonly fecal-oral or oral-oral spread. Respiratory droplet transmission also may occur but is less likely.

  • Typically, the virus seeds the GI tract via the buccal mucosa or the ileum

  • incubation 3/7


Clinical

  • prodrome

    • low-grade fever / malaise / anorexia

    • abdominal pain

    • sore mouth

  • development of

    • oral lesions (painful yellow ulcers surrounded by red halos), followed shortly by skin lesions, primarily on the hands and feet and occasionally on the buttocks.

    • the exanthem may be asymptomatic or pruritic. They usually begin as erythematous macules that rapidly progress to thick-walled grey vesicles with an erythematous base. In young infants, these lesions may also be observed on the trunk, thighs, and buttocks. The rash is usually self-limited, lasting approximately 3-6 days


Exclusion

  • infectious until blisters have disappeared / are dry (but exclusion not usually recommended)


Rx

 

  • sx mx
Term
What is Hutchinsons sign in varicella infection
Definition
In a facial outbreak of shingles Hutchinson's sign refers to vesicles on the tip of nose inferring twice as likely to have ocular involvement
Term

Pruritic

[image]

Definition

Juvenile Spring Eruption


Etiology

  • usually boys and young men

    • due to less hair covering ears

  • early spring time with cold climate

  • often occurs in epidemics


Aetiology

  • a sun-induced skin condition appearing on the light exposed skin of the ears

  • probably a localised form of polymorphic light eruption (PMLE) - a sun allergy rash of unknown cause which can have various appearances and affects more widespread areas of sun-exposed skin. Some patients with juvenile spring eruption also have PMLE.


Clinical

  • in spring with sun exposure itchy red small lumps evolve into blisters and crusts

    • appears 8-24hrs after sun exposure

  • cervical LN can occur

  • heal with minimal or no scarring in about 2 weeks, faster with treatment

  • recurrences can occur, with similar climatic conditions.


Dx

  • clinical


Management

 

  • lesions are treated with potent topical steroids and emollients

  • antihistamines may be prescribed for itch

  • protected ears from sun exposure
Term
[image]
Definition

Lichen Planus


  • epidermal inflammatory disorder of unknown aetiology

  • pruritic, violaceous (of violet colour) flat papules

  • mainly on the wrist and legs (can affect oral mucosa, nails and scalp)



Dx

  • confirmed by biopsy


Rx

 

  • self resolution 6-9 months (rarely recur)

  • can use topical corticosteroid (or intralesional)
Term
[image][image]
Definition

Livedo Reticularis


Aetiology

  • different subtypes

    • Cutis marmorata

      • 50% of normal infants and many adults when exposed to the cold which resolves on rewarming

    • Livedo racemosa

      • a more generalised and persistent than other forms of livedo reticularis, often affecting trunk and buttocks as well as legs

  • Primary livedo reticularis

    • of unknown cause

    • occurs most commonly in young and middle-aged females, particularly during winter

    • mottling occurs first only on exposure to cold, but can become permanent.

    • tingling and numbness on cold exposure are common

    • sometimes swelling, and rarely ulcers may develop in winter.

  • Secondary

    • due to an underlying vasculopathy or vasculitis


Clinical

  • characteristic mottled discolouration of the skin. Reticular (net-like, lace-like) and cyanotic (reddish blue discolouration). The discolouration surrounds pale central skin.

  • mostly on the legs but can extend to arms and trunk

  • more pronounced in cold weather.

 

Rx

 

  • nil, rewarming

  • smoking cessation due to possible increase CVS RF
Term
[image]
Definition

Measles

(rubeola)


= a highly infection RNA paramyxovirus disease that presents with acute febrile exanthematous illness with characteristic Kopliks spots

Term
What are the three stages of a measles presentation
Definition

 

    • prodromal;

      • 3-4/7,

      • fever, malaise, anorexia, diarrhoea + the 3 C’s (cough, coryza and conjunctivitis)

      • Koplicks spots; small white intraoral lesions

      • occasionally a non specific rash may appear

    • exanthema

      • typically blotchy, blanching bright red maculopapular eruption

      • lasts 4-5 / 7

      • begins behind the ears, spreads to the face on the first day, the trunk on the second day and then to the limbs

      • may become confluent

      • rash often coincided with high fever (>40*C) resolves within 5/7 of onset of the rash

    • convalescent

      • the rash fades leaving a temporary brownish tinge

      • cough may persist for weeks but usually return to good health quickly
Term
[image]
Definition

Measles

 

= a highly infection RNA paramyxovirus disease that presents with acute febrile exanthematous illness with characteristic Kopliks spots

Term
[image]
Definition

Pityriasis rosea


= a viral rash which lasts about 6–12 weeks. It is characterised by a herald patch followed by similar, smaller oval red patches that are located mainly on the chest and back.


Aetiology

  • most commonly young adults

  • is a non contagious condition

  • recurrence is rare (1-3%)


Etiology

  • suspected to be a reactivation of herpes 6 or 7 virus

  • some drug reactions can present with similar rashes. But some drugs can also induce Pityriasis rosea (this can be a severe form of the condition)


Clinical

 

  • preceding herald patch 1-2 weeks (can have 2-3 or none in 20%), can be mistaken for tinea

  • oval pink / copper coloured eruption of 1-2 cm patches with scaling margins

  • ‘T-shirt’ distribution

  • systemically well

  • itch varies from nil to severe (mild = most common)

  • self resolution in 2-10 weeks (5 = most common)
Term
[image]
Definition

Primary HIV seroconversion rash


= an erythematous, maculopapular rash as manifestation of HIV Infection Syndrome


Aetiology

  • 90% of pxs undergo HIV Infection Syndrome within first few weeks of inoculation


HIV Infection Syndrome

  • represents high viral load and thus pxs are highly infective

  • sxs are broken into

    • general; similar to viral illness (fever, sore throat, V/D, headache, myalgias)

    • neurological; meningitis, myelopathy, neuropathy

    • dermatological;

      • variable presentation (can be roseola-like or urticaria-like)

 

  • may be generalised. Common on face and trunk. Can occur on palms and soles

  • 5-10mm lesions

  • non - pruritic
Term
How effective is topical corticosteroid for rosocea
Definition
never apply a topical steroid to the rosacea as although short-term improvement may be observed (vasoconstriction and anti-inflammatory effect), it makes the rosacea more severe over the next weeks (possibly by increased production of nitric oxide)
Term
[image]
Definition

Roseola infantum

(exanthema subitum)


= childhood viral infection by Human Herpes Virus 6 (HHV6) characterised by a high fever that subsides to reveal a rash


Aetiology

  • most commonly 6/12 to 3yo

  • rarely seen in adults


Etiology

  • HHV6 spread via saliva

  • incubation period 10 days


Clinical

  • many cases are mild or asymptomatic

  • typical presentation

    • high fever (~40*C) for 3-5 days (febrile seizures may occur)

    • URTI sxs

    • rash appears as fever subsides

      • erythematous raised 5mm blanching lesions

      • some may have surrounding halo

      • mainly on trunk, rarely affect face / neck (but may involve soft palate)

      • non pruritic

      • resolves within hours to days

  • very rare for sinister sequelae (encephalitis, hepatitis etc)


Dx

  • clinical +/- serology


Rx

 

  • sx mx
Term
  • high fever (~40*C) for 3-5 days (febrile seizures may occur)

  • URTI sxs

  • rash appears as fever subsides

    • erythematous raised 5mm blanching lesions

    • some may have surrounding halo

    • mainly on trunk, rarely affect face / neck (but may involve soft palate)

    • non pruritic

    • resolves within hours to days

Definition
Roseola infantum
Term
Differentiate between rubeola, rubella and roseola infantum
Definition
[image]
Term
[image]
Definition

Rubella

(German measles)


= a togavirus illness that is most commonly mild with no sequelae except in pregnancy where devastating effects can occur in utero


Aetiology

  • rarely seen now due to vaccinations

  • infection usually confers lifelong immunity

  • school exclusion until 5/7 after onset of rash


Etiology

  • due to togavirus

  • spread via droplets

  • incubation 14-21 days


Clinical

  • ~ 1/3 are asymptomatic

  • generalised maculopapular rash, sometimes pruritic, non-confluent, starts on face, spreads to trunk and extremities, exaggerated by sun exposure, usually fades on third day

  • often an erythematous pharynx but sore throat is uncommon

  • fever usually absent or low grade

  • other feature; headache, myalgia, conjunctivitis, polyarthritis

  • infectious for up to 10 days from onset of rash

  • congenital rubella; infection of mother in 1st trimester can lead to abortion or congenital defects


Dx

  • usually clinical but if confirmed or suspected pregnancy serology should be performed


Rx

 

  • sx mx
Term
[image]
Definition

Scarlet Fever


Aetiology

  • follows a recent sore throat (‘strep throat’) or impetigo

  • generally 4-8yo. By 10yo 80% of children have developed antibodies to the toxins (<2yo still have maternal antibodies)


Etiology

  • Group A streptococcus pyogenes organism produces an erythrogenic toxin (only some people are susceptible to this toxin thus two children may have strep infection but only one gets scarlet fever)

  • strep spread via droplet or contact (including 20% of school children who are asymptomatic carriers)

  • incubation 1-4 days


Clinical

  • prodrome

    • 2/7 malaise, sore throat, strawberry tongue, palatal petechiae fever (may be rigors) and vomiting

  • rash (within 2/7 of fever)

    • appears on second day, erythematous, may be pruritic, start on neck / trunk the becomes widespread (except palms / soles), becomes punctate (feels like fine sandpaper) resolves after 5-10/7 with fine desquamation

    • Pastia; ruptured capillaries in skin folds

    • facial flushing with circumoral pallor


Dx

  • is clinical but a throat swab should be taken

  • consider Anti-dexoyribonuclease B and antistreptolysin-O titres


Rx

 

  • phenoxymethylpenicillin

    • results in rapid resolution of sxs

  • beware of strep Cx if not adequately treated (eg Rheumatic fever or strep glomerulonephritis)

  • isolation

    • should ideally be isolated from other family members, especially from infants and younger siblings

    • keep drinking glasses and eating utensils separate and wash thoroughly in very hot soapy water, preferably with antibacterial soap or detergent.

  • can return to school 1/7 after initiation of antibiotics
Term
[image]
Definition

Secondary syphilis


Etiology

  • syphilis caused by bacteria = Treponema pallidum


Clinical

  • a generalised eruption that can have varied appearance

  • usually appears 6+8 weeks after primary chancre

  • generally

    • initially faint pink macules

    • then maculopapular, dull red and round

  • affects whole body including head, palms and soles

  • asymptomatic

  • possible

    • mucosal ulcers “snail track”

    • lymphadenopathy

    • patchy alopecia

    • condylomata lata; greyish-white moist raised patches in the groin, inner thighs, armpits, or under breasts


Rx

 

  • as for primary syphilis
Term
[image]
Definition

Talon noir


Aetiology

  • common in sports people


Etiology

  • small petechiae caused by the trauma of the sharp turns required in sport

  • ie shearing stress on the skin produces superficial bleeding


Clinical

  • a black spotted appearance on the heel


Rx

 

  • gently pare away the dermis to reveal underlying epidermal petechial spots which can be pared away

  • perform this procedure to ensure that it is not a melanoma

Term
[image]
Definition

Varicella

(chickenpox)


= a highly contagious disease caused by the varicella zoster virus


Aetiology

  • occurs worldwide

  • single infection confers lifelong immunity

  • included in childhood vaccine register in 2005

  • recurs as herpes zoster (shingles)

  • severe complications for immunocompromised or pregnant (also a more severe disease when occurs in adults)


Etiology

  • transmission via airborne droplets or contact with fluid through broken skin (usually following chickenpox exposure but occasionally following shingles exposure)

  • 10-21 day incubation period with 70% chance of conversion if exposed

  • contagious 1-2 days before rash and until vesicles have scabbed over (should be isolated over this period)


Clinical

 

  • begins as pruritic (usually not severe) erythematous papules on the stomach, back and face which then vesiculate and spread to other parts of the body

  • can be few or multitude of lesions

  • may have associated fever, headache, V/D (these occur as prodrome in adults)

  • blisters resolve in 1-3 / 52

  • severe varicella (ie complications); thrombocytopaenia encephalitis, pneumonitis, hepatitis

  • scarring occurs uncommonly (only really following bacterial superinfection of lesions)
Term
[image]
Definition

Vitiligo


= an acquired depigmenting skin disorder due to autoimmune mediated melanocyte dysfunction


Aetiology

  • occurs in all races

  • 50% begins before 20yrs old, 80% before 30yrs old

  • 20% have genetic link

  • Even though most people with vitiligo are in good general health, they face a greater risk of having autoimmune diseases such as diabetes, thyroid disease (in 20% of patients over 20 years with vitiligo), pernicious anaemia (B12 deficiency), Addison's disease, SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and alopecia areata (round patches of hair loss).


Etiology

  • autoimmune melanocyte destruction of unknown cause


Clinical

  • complete pigmentation loss at any melanocyte area within the body (including hair)

  • can follow

    • skin trauma

    • emotional distress

  • varying severity with no way to predict how much will be affected or over what period of time

  • may stabilise and then recur / progress later on


Dx

  • clinical

  • consider thyroid, B12 and auto-antibody screen for associated conditions


Rx

 

  • often unsuccessful

  • ensure affected skin is protected (eg sun damage)

  • trial

    • moderate corticosteroids for trunk / limbs

    • calcineurin inhibitors for head / flexures

  • consider specialist referral for phototherapy, oral therapy

  • consider psychological impacts of condition
Term
What disease associations occur with vitiligo
Definition
Even though most people with vitiligo are in good general health, they face a greater risk of having autoimmune diseases such as diabetes, thyroid disease (in 20% of patients over 20 years with vitiligo), pernicious anaemia (B12 deficiency), Addison's disease, SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and alopecia areata (round patches of hair loss).
Term
Describe the disease progression of symptoms with menieres
Definition

 

    • during the early stages, symptoms remit between episodes; symptom-free interludes may last > 1 yr

    • as the disease progresses, hearing impairment persists and gradually worsens, and tinnitus may be constant
Term
Differentiate between the common causes of vertigo
Definition

[image]

[image]

Term
Discuss four of the important causes of Sensorineural Hearing Loss (SNHL)
Definition

 

    • noise-induced hearing loss

      • due to exposure at work, recreation or in the home

      • one of the most common causes of hearing impairment worldwide

      • prolonged exposure to noises >85dB

      • industrial workplaces expose to noises in the 90-100+ dB range, with some hand-operated machinery producing noise up to 120dB

      • the cumulative effect is permanent damage to the auditory nerve

      • can be avoided by use of well-fitting earmuffs or earplugs

      • hearing aids may be of benefit

    • presbycusis

      • the progressive, symmetrical high-frequency hearing loss that occurs with age

      • not clear why only some people develop, and we cannot predict who will be affected

      • presentation; reduced speech discrimination, particularly in noisy environments

      • benefit from hearing aids

    • sudden onset SNHL

      • usually unilateral and associated with tinnitus

      • may be difficult to isolate cause and thus prompt referral to ENT should occur

      • mostly viral in origin, it may occasionally be due to vascular disease, autoimmune disease or neurodegenerative diseases

      • steroids

        • 65% of people will spontaneously recover without any treatment and evidence shows no benefit with Rx

        • despite this high-dose oral steroids (prednisolone 1mg/kg for five days) are usually given because of the devastating effect for the 35%

      • thus recommendations are; In patients for whom steroids are not contraindicated and who have presented within 48 hours initiate an oral course of prednisolone and phone ENT

    • Acoustic neuroma

      • rare, benign slow-growing tumours of the auditory nerve

      • most commonly present with a unilateral hearing loss

      • if large enough they may present with imbalance or facial weakness due to compression of the facial or vestibular nerve

      • all patients with a unilateral sensorineural hearing loss on audiological testing must be referred to an ENT surgeon for review to exclude an acoustic neuroma

      • most are identified while still small and asymptomatic and are monitored with MRI scans on a yearly basis
Term
Discuss four of the important causes for conductive hearing loss
Definition

 

    • chronic otitis media with effusion

      • far more common in children but still does occur in adults

      • defined as a persistent effusion lasting more than 12 weeks

      • most likely to be due to associated rhinosinusitis or other nasal pathology leading to secondary eustachian tube dysfunction

      • barotrauma (eg diving or air travel) may also precipitate OME.

      • Rx

        • control the underlying disease process if rhinitis is cause

        • Valsalva or Frenzel manoeuvres

      • if > 12 weeks must be referred to an otolaryngologist for review to exclude a nasopharyngeal tumour obstructing the eustachian tube orifice

    • Cholesteatoma

      • squamous epithelium in the middle ear or mastoid cavity

      • thought to arise from a combination of factors, including tympanic membrane retraction due to eustachian tube dysfunction, and chronic inflammation of the middle ear

      • presentation (from most to least likely based on size of lesion)

        • hearing loss

        • recurrent purulent ottorrhoea

        • tinnitus

        • imbalance

        • facial nerve palsy

      • otoscopy = retracted pocket of tympanic membrane which often has a pearly appearance

    • tympanic membrane perforation

      • present with bloody otorrhoea and a conductive hearing loss

      • frequently heal completely within a few weeks and require no special intervention

      • important to advise the patient to take precautions with water and to not try to clean their ear, as this may introduce bacteria into the middle ear, with subsequent infection

      • if persists at six weeks, it is unlikely to close spontaneously and should be referred to ENT

    • Otosclerosis

      • results from fixation of the stapes footplate

      • is more common in women and it's typical onset is during the third or fourth decade

      • presents as a slowly progressive hearing loss that may be unilateral or bilateral (often asymmetrical)

      • may be a positive family history

      • may worsens when pregnant or using oestrogen therapy

      • should also be referred to an ENT surgeon for consideration of a stapedectomy
Term
What are the findings for Webbers and Rinnes test in unilateral SNHL vs conductive hearing loss
Definition

 

  • Rinne’s test

    • high specificity for conductive hearing loss, but a low sensitivity

    • how to

      • gently strike a 256 or 512 Hz tuning fork against your knee, and then place it on the patient's’ mastoid process and ask the patient if they can hear it

      • then move it to the front of the ear and ask which sound is louder, the tuning fork in front of or behind the ear.

    • positive if air conduction is better than bone conduction, as is the case in a ‘normal’ ear

    • negative if bone conduction is louder than air conduction (= a conductive deficit)

  • Weber’s test

    • strike the tuning fork then place it on the patient’s forehead either in the midline

    • detects the better hearing cochlea, so it is heard in the midline in a patient with normal hearing

    • if conductive defect it localises towards the affected ear

    • if sensorineural deficit it localises away from the defect
Term
What three clinical features would be highly suggestive for Graves disease
Definition
  • Thyroid bruit (pathognomonic as no other causes of hyperthyroidism result in enough vascularlity to cause a bruit)
  • thyroid opthalmology; lid lag, proptosis, periorbital oedema
  • pretibial myxoedema
Term
Describe the etiology of Graves disease
Definition

 

  • can occur at any age but most common in 40-60

  • F:M = 10 : 1

  • genetic component / family Hx of same

  • increase prevalence in setting of smoking, postpartum and periods of stress

  • is an association with other autoimmune diseases eg coeliac
Term
Discuss the 7 most common causes for hyperthyroidism
Definition

Common

  • Graves
    • TSH receptor Ab increases thyroid hormone production and causes thyroid hyperplasia
    • F:M = 10:1, peak onset 40–60 years

    • diffuse symmetrical goitre, graves opthalmology, thyroid bruit

    • TRAb +ve, TPO Ab usually +ve

  • Toxic Multinodular Goitre or Toxic Adenoma
    • TMNG 50+, TA 30-50
    • TPO low or absent
  • Post Partum Thyroiditis
    • autoimmune: destruction of thyroid follicles with release of stored thyroid hormone
    • common in women with type 1 diabetes
    • typically 1–6 months after delivery, thyrotoxicosis for 1–2 months then hypothyroidism for 4–6 months; may be permanent (20%)

    • diffuse, small goitre

    • TPO elevated

  • Excess thyroxine / iatrogenic


Less common

  • Painless sporadic thyroiditis
    • Autoimmune: destruction of thyroid follicles with release of stored thyroid hormone
    • peak at 30–40 years of age

    • diffuse, small goitre

    • thyrotoxicosis for 1–2 months often followed by hypothyroidism for 4–6 months; hypothyroidism may be permanent (20%)

    • TPO positive

  • Painful subacute thyroiditis
    • Possibly caused by a viral infection. Destruction of thyroid follicles with release of stored thyroid hormone
    • Peak onset 20–60 years of age

    • Often follows an upper respiratory tract infection

    • Tender goitre

    • thyrotoxicosis for 1–2 months often followed by hypothyroidism for 4–6 months; hypothyroidism may be permanent (5%)

    • TPO low or absent. ESR >50

  • Amiodarone thyroiditis
    • Type 1 – excess iodine, Type 2 – destructive thyroiditis

Term
What is the adrenaline regime for a child with anaphylaxis and how should this be drawn up
Definition

Child

 

  • 10 mcg/kg  (max 500 mcg)

  • if >30kg give 1:1000 undiluted

  • if < 30kg then in a 10mL syringe draw up 9mL N. Saline and then 1mL of 1:1000 adrenaline

  • = 100mcg / mL

  • weight = (Age + 4) x2 (1-10yrs)
Term
What is the formula to calculate a childs weight
Definition

 

weight = (Age + 4) x2


(1-10yrs)

Term
Describe the pathophysiology of the two different type of glaucoma
Definition

 

  • pathophysiology for increased pressure is due to decreased aqueous flow. Aqueous is produced by the ciliary body and flows around the lens into the anterior chamber. Here it drains out through the trabecular meshwork, located in the drainage ‘angle’ between the posterior surface of the cornea and the anterior surface of the iris

[image]
  • pressure buildup in open-angle glaucoma is due to resistance of outflow through the trabecular meshwork  

  • in angle-closure glaucoma it is due to closure of the drainage angle
Term
Describe the differences in clinical presentation of the two types of glaucoma
Definition

 

  • Primary Open Angle Glaucoma (POAG)

    • affects peripheral vision preferentially and thus usually asymptomatic unless the disease is in a very advanced stage

    • does not cause pain or redness

  • acute angle closure

    • present with a unilateral painful red eye and blurred vision

    • also nausea and vomiting, headache, haloes around lights

    • pain worse in the dark as pupil must dilate further closing angle

    • can be confused with migraine
Term
  • unilateral painful red eye

  • blurred vision

  • nausea / vomiting, headache, haloes around lights

  • pain worse in the dark

Definition
Acute angle closure glaucoma
Term
Discuss the pathological and clinical features of early and late stage Age-related Macular Degeneration (AMD)
Definition
  • early stage characterised by

    • deposits of extracellular material (drusen) into the macula

    • of all patients with early AMD, about 5-15% progress to the late stages of the disease over the following 15 years

  • late stage classified into

    • neovascular (wet) (66%)

      • newly formed blood vessels grow from the choriocapillaris through Bruch’s membrane into the retina, thereby disrupting the retina

      • eventual scar formation can lead to subretinal fibrosis and atrophy

    • atrophic (dry) (33%)

      • leads to a slow atrophy of the choriocapillaris, retinal pigment epithelium and photoreceptors


Clinical 

  • early stages

    • usually asymptomatic

    • may have difficulties with dark adaptation and challenging lighting conditions (low contrast such as at dusk, dawn, night-time)

  • late-stage

    • neovascular leads to a rapid loss of central vision (50% at 3/12 and 75% at 3 yrs)
    • pxs at risk are given an Amsler grid and asked to monitor weekly. If change present need urgent referral (1-2 weeks) as may have rapid onset neovascularisation
Term
What is Charles Bonnet syndrome
Definition

Aetiology

  • vivid, elaborate and recurrent visual hallucinations in psychologically normal people who have low vision (akin to phantom limb effect)

  • most often occurs in older, visually impaired persons, with Age Related Macular Degeneration as the leading cause


Clinical

 

  • hallucinations can range from simple shapes and dots of colours, to detailed images of people, animals, landscapes or buildings

  • typically, the hallucinations last for a number of months before becoming less frequent However, it is highly variable and may never subside
Term
What is the pathophysiological difference between Hyperosmotic Hyperglycaemic Syndrome and Diabetic Ketoacidosis
Definition
  • HHS
    • more due to insulin resistance than lack of insulin
    • results in just enough intracellular glucose to prevent lypolysis and ketone production
  • DKA
    • do to lack of insulin resulting in lypolysis and ketone production
Term

Oral ulcers

Genital ulcers

+/- Eye symptoms

+/- Arthritis

Definition

Behcet syndrome

 

a small and large vessel vasculitis in 20year olds

Term

Middle aged with 

  • new onset asthma

  • new onset sinusitis

  • pulmonary infiltrates, sometimes transient

  • multiple mononeuropathy or polyneuropathy

Definition

Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)

aka Churg Strauss Syndrome


Aetiology 

  • characterized by extravascular necrotizing granulomas (usually rich in eosinophils), eosinophilia, and tissue infiltration by eosinophils

  • typically affects small- and medium-sized arteries


Diagnosis

  • American College of Rheumatology

  • Asthma

  • Eosinophilia of > 10% in peripheral blood

  • Paranasal sinusitis

  • Pulmonary infiltrates, sometimes transient

  • Histologic evidence of vasculitis with extravascular eosinophils

  • Multiple mononeuropathy or polyneuropathy

  • If ≥ 4 criteria are present, sensitivity is 85%, and specificity is 99.7%.


  • ANCA +ve in up to 40% of patients
Term
What are the clinical diagnostic criteria for Kawasaki Disease
Definition

 

    • fever for > 5/7

    • PLUS 4 of
      • rash; erythematous, maculopapular (+/- target lesions), with desquamation in later stages
      • oral; generalised oral erythema, strawberry tongue, dry cracked lips
      • eyes; conjunctival injection
      • peripheries; firm swelling of the hands and feet with palmar and sole erythema (characteristic fingertip desquamation in late/resolving stages)
      • lymph nodes; often unilateral neck
Term

Middle aged

  • destructive chronic sinusitis
  • middle ear symptoms (inflammation, balance, hearing)
  • pulmonary nodules (may / may not be symptomatic)
Definition

Wegener Granulomatosis

aka Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)

 

Aetiology 

  • characteristically, granulomas form with histiocytic epithelioid cells and often with giant cells resulting in Inflammation that affects tissues and vessels

  • micronecrosis, usually with neutrophils (microabscesses), occurs early

  • micronecrosis progresses to macronecrosis

Term
[image]
Definition

Dermatomyositis

 

an idiopathic inflammatory polymyopathy with characteristic cutaneous findings

Term
erythema, burning sensation and swelling of the hands and feet after exposure to heat and exercise
Definition

Erythromelalgia


Aetiology

  • primary

  • secondary

    • diabetes

    • haematological; polycythaemia rubra vera

    • connective tissue disease


Clinical

  • erythema, burning sensation and swelling of the hands and feet after exposure to heat and exercise


Rx

 

  • trial of aspirin or phenoxybenzamine

  • sympathectomy

Term
purpuric rash, arthritis, glomerulonephritis and abdominal pain
Definition

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura


a multisystemic immune mediated small vessel vasculitis resulting in a classic tetrad of palpable purpuric rash, arthritis, glomerulonephritis and abdominal pain

Term
What is the prognosis for Henoch Schonlein Purpura
Definition

 

  • managment is supportive with excellent prognosis

  • relapse

    • in 1/3 of cases

    • generally occurs within 4 months of the initial episode

    • more common in patients with nephritis, evidence of acute inflammation (eg. elevated ESR) and patients treated with corticosteroids

  • prednisolone 1mg/kg (max 80mg) daily indicated for severe abdominal manifestations
Term

 

    • raynaud (85%)

    • polyarthritis of the fingers (25%)

    • soft tissue swelling of the fingers causing a ‘sausage finger’ pattern
Definition

Scleroderma


Etymology

  • skleros (hard or indurated) and derma (skin), term originated in 1800’s

  • the systemic and progressive nature of the disease was recognised in 1945 with the term Progressive Systemic Sclerosis thus coined


Etiology

  • can occur in any age but peak onset is 30-50

  • M:F = 1:3


Aetiology

  • a systemic autoimmune disease of unknown origin

  • characterized by

    • excessive deposition of collagen and other connective tissue macromolecules in skin and multiple internal organs

    • prominent and often severe fibroproliferative alterations in the microvasculature

    • numerous humoral and cellular immunologic abnormalities


Clinical

 

  • varying clinical forms

    • limited systemic sclerosis

      • involves skin areas distal to the elbows and knees but may involve the face and neck

      • CREST syndrome (calcinosis, Raynaud phenomenon, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasias—although not all are needed for the disorder to be called CREST) is an older term used to describe this subset of limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis.

      • rarely involves end organs

    • diffuse skin sclerosis

      • skin thickening affecting the trunk and the skin of the extremities proximal to the elbows and knees besides involvement of the face

    • systemic sclerosis

      • most obvious in the skin; however, the gastrointestinal tract as well as the respiratory, renal, cardiovascular, musculoskeletal, endocrine, and genitourinary systems are frequently involved
Term
What are the diagnostic criteria for SLE
Definition

 

  • American Rheumatology Association

  • 4 of the following required

    • malar rash

    • discoid rash

    • photosensitivity

    • oral ulcers

    • non erosive arthritis

    • pleuritis or pericarditis

    • renal disorder

    • seizures or psychosis

    • haematological disorder; haemolytic anaemia, lymphopenia, leukopenia, thrombocytopaenia

    • immunological disorder; dsDNA abs, Sm Abs

    • positive ANA
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Amiodarone
Definition

 

    • primarily Class III antiarrhythmic activity via potassium channel blockade causing decreased intracellular K+ efflux and thus increased refractory period

    • also exhibits some beta blocker and calcium channel blocker activity

    • result is; decreases sinus node and junctional automaticity, slows atrioventricular (AV) and bypass tract conduction and prolongs refractory period of myocardial tissues
Term
What serious adverse effects may amiodarone have
Definition

 

  • pulmonary toxicity

    • two main types

      • an acute inflammatory disorder, which can develop early or late, is reversible if drug withdrawn early and may respond to corticosteroids

      • a chronic fibrotic form associated with prolonged exposure, which is less reversible

  • thyroid dysfunction

    • hypothyroidism occurs mainly within the first 2 years and is more common in patients with thyroid disease

    • thyrotoxicosis can occur, even months after stopping amiodarone. Iodine-induced thyrotoxicosis is more common in patients with thyroid disease. A destructive thyroiditis can also occur

  • ocular effects

    • reversible benign corneal microdeposits occur in most patients but rarely affect vision (photophobia, visual haloes may occur). Stop amiodarone if optic neuropathy or neuritis occurs
Term
What monitoring is required for patients on long term Amiodarone therapy
Definition

 

    • 6 monthly thyroid function, liver function and serum electrolytes (including for 12 months post cessation)

    • annual chest x-ray and ECG

    • if dyspnoea or non-productive cough develop, perform chest x-ray and pulmonary function tests as soon as possible and monitor closely
Term
What family history of bowel cancer would prompt earlier screening than the general population
Definition
If there is a stronger family history (eg a first-degree relative with a past history of colorectal cancer aged <55, or multiple relatives affected), family members should be offered regular screening by colonoscopy
Term
What are the risk factors for ovarian cancer
Definition
  •  >50
  • family history
  • changes in the genes BRCA1 or BRCA2
  • increased lifetime oestrogen exposure
    • menarche <12yo
    • late menopause
    • first child after 30 or nulliparity
    • never taking oral contraceptives
    • using oestrogen only hormone replacement therapy or fertility treatment
Term
What symtpoms does ovarian cancer commonly present with
Definition
 Despite the belief that ovarian cancer is a ‘silent killer’, most women with this diagnosis experience symptoms in the months and weeks before diagnosis;1 less than 10% are diagnosed incidentally. The most common symptoms are pelvic or abdominal pain, abdominal swelling or bloating (persistent or frequent) and urinary frequency/urgency, but the positive predictive value of these symptoms (the percentage of women who present with the symptoms who actually have ovarian cancer) for ovarian cancer is low because ovarian cancer is uncommon
Term
How is a suspicion of ovarian cancer investigated
Definition
  • Transvaginal USS
    • good sensitivity but average specificity for non malignant ovarian lesions (eg cyst)
  • CA125
    • poor sensitivity in early disease
    • good sensitivity in advancing disease but false positives with other cancer, ovulation, endometriosis, liver / kidney disease
Term
Differentiate between primary and secondary dysmenorrhoea
Definition

 

= painful menstruation and is differentiated into primary (onset 6-12 months post menarche) and secondary (onset later in life and ass with pathology)

Term
What is the mechanism of action for NSAIDs in dysmenorrhoea and describe their most effective use based on this
Definition

 

      • inhibits prostaglandins thus preventing the pain (as opposed to directly treating it)

      • 70% efficacy, similar between all preparations (most important factor is correct use)

      • instructions for use

        • start NSAID as soon as you know that your period is imminent (48 hours before is ideal)

        • continue taking at regular maximum dose for first 2-3 days of period (is when prostaglandin levels are maximal)
Term
What are "chocolate ovarian cysts" indicative of
Definition

Endometriosis

 

 

  • extrauterine endometrial tissue is responsive to hormones therefore undergoes cyclical bleeding which causes a local chronic inflammatory reaction and subsequent fibrosis

  • commonly ovaries resulting in ‘chocolate cysts’ or endometriomas
Term
Differentiate between the four common infectious causes of a vaginal discharge
Definition
  • Thrush
    • an overgrowth of normal vaginal organisms
    • candida albicans accounts for 90%
  • Trichomoniasis
    • a sexually transmitted protazoan
    • causes an inflammatory mucosal infection thus examination may show erythematous mucosa + a 'strawberry cervix' due to multiple puntate haemorrhages
  • Bacterial vaginosis
    • when vaginal Lactobacillus is replaced by polymicrobial anaerobic bacteria
    • is a superficial infection and thus characterised by a lack of inflammatory reaction, absence of white cells in the discharge (thus vaginosis and not vaginitis)
    • the diagnosis of BV can be made using the Amsel criteria, whereby three of the following features must be present:
      • thin, white, homogeneous discharge
      • vaginal fluid pH more than 4.5
      • clue cells 
      • fishy odour when adding alkali (potassium hydroxide 10%) to discharge
  • Chlamydia / gonorrhoea
Term
What is the difference between lichen planus and lichen sclerosus
Definition
Lichen sclerosus (LS) and lichen planus (LP) are both immunologically mediated diseases with a preference for the genitalia. The basic principles of management of vulval LS and vulvovaginal LP are the same and involve explanation of the disease, emphasizing the chronic nature of the condition and outlining treatment options. The main difference between the two conditions is that LP has a propensity to involve the mucous membranes including the mouth and vagina which are rarely affected in LS. First-line treatment for LS is a super-potent topical corticosteroid ointment which has a high response rate. Erosive vulvovaginal LP is more challenging to treat. Second-line therapies include topical calcineurin inhibitors and systemic agents. There is limited evidence for systemic treatments for both conditions. The risk of vulval squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) is increased in both LP and LS, and it is not known how treatment affects this risk.
Term
How does the risk of VTE with the vaginal ring compare to COCP
Definition
It is the same as the vaginal ring contains both oestrogen and progesterone components that are absorbed systemically
Term
Explain the statement "menopausal women exist in a state of unopposed oestrogen"
Definition

 

    • menopause commences when there are only a few thousand primordial follicles remaining in the ovary (an insufficient number to stimulate cyclical activity)

    • aging follicles become increasingly resistant to the effects of FSH resulting in lower oestrogen levels. These falling oestrogen levels results in loss of negative GnRH feedback induced rise in LH and FSH levels.

    • without a follicular source, the larger proportion of postmenopausal estrogen is derived from ovarian stromal and adrenal secretion of androstenedione, which is aromatized to estrone in the peripheral circulation. Estrogen production also occurs in extragonadal sites (adipose tissue, muscle, liver, bone, bone marrow, fibroblasts, and hair roots)

    • thus menopausal women exist in a state of unopposed oestrogen as no progesterone is produced by a corpus luteum (hence the risk for endometrial hyperplasia increases)
Term
Bilateral heel pain in an active 8-14 year old
Definition

Sever Disease

(calcaneal apophysitis)


Etiology

  • M>F

  • 8-14yo


Aetiology

 

  • repetitive trauma to the weaker structure of the apophysis, induced by the pull of the tendo calcaneus (Achilles tendon) on its insertion[image]

Term
What are the general rates of conception in the first and second year of trying
Definition

 

  • 80% of couples will conceive within the first year without contraception

  • half will again in the next year (ie 90% cumulative)

Term
What are the risk factors for prostate cancer
Definition

 

    • age

    • family member dx <70yo

    • more than one family member (including second degree relatives)

    • FHx BRCA gene breast Ca
Term
What factors can cause false positives and false negative in measuring a PSA
Definition

 

    • false positives

      • an active urinary infection

      • ejaculated in the last 48 hours

      • exercised vigorously in the last 48 hours

      • had a prostate biopsy in the last 6 weeks

      • had a DRE in the past week

    • false negatives

      • use of 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors (eg finasteride), thiazide diuretics or statins

Term

 

what are the 7 S’s of an innocent paediatric cardiac murmur

Definition
  • Sensitive; changes with the child's position or respiration

  • Short duration; not holosystolic

  • Single; no associated clicks or gallops

  • Small; murmur isolated to small area and does not radiate

  • Soft; low amplitude

  • Sweet; not harsh sounding

  • Systolic; is only limited to systole

Term
What is a delta wave on an ECG
Definition

Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome (WPW)

  • the existence of an accessory atrioventricular pathway resulting in tachydysrhythmias

  • usually first presents in early adulthood or pregnancy[image]


Term
What is the most common cause of hypertension in paediatric populations
Definition

 

secondary causes of hypertension are relatively higher than in adults but essential HTN remains the most common cause

Term
Describe the functional anatomy of the adrenal gland
Definition

Adrenal Glands


  • G F R

  • the deeper you go the sweeter you get (salty, cortisol, sexy)

[image]

 

Term
What is the function of Aldosterone
Definition
aldosterone secretion is stimulated by low juxtaglomerular apparatus perfusion (low BP), low Na and high K and functions to increase Na and H2O resorption from the DCT in exchange for K excretion. Its release is inhibited by the reverse of these as well as Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) which is secreted by the heart when blood pressure rises (thus natriuretic = salty urine)
Term
Weakness, weight loss, electrolyte dysfunction, generalised hyperpigmentation
Definition

Addison's disease

 

 

    • chronic = addison's disease and symptoms result from

      • cortisol deficiency

        • weakness (99%), fatigue

        • weight loss (97%)

        • flank or abdominal pain (34%)

        • anorexia progressing to nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea (20%)

        • constipation (19%)

        • low blood glucose levels (esp fasting BSL). Nb/ may be the presentation in setting of a Type 1 DM px

        • hyperthermia

      • aldosterone deficiency

        • hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, acidosis, tachycardia and hypotension

        • Suggestive symptoms are postural hypotension and salt cravings

      • excess ACTH (is only present in primary adrenal insufficiency)

        • increased melanin production resulting in generalised hyperpigmentation (including non sun exposed areas and buccal mucosa)

      • can also cause psychiatric symptoms

        • eg memory impairment, confusion, apathy, depression and psychosis

        • regress on treatment with replacement corticosteroids
Term
Differentiate between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency syndromes
Definition
  • Primary
    • due to the destruction of the entire adrenal cortex thus aldosterone and cortisol hormone levels are affected
    • zona reticularis only produces a small amount of testosterone thus the effects of its loss are not prominent
  • Secondary
    • due to HPA failure
    • mineralocorticoid therefore not affected as release is via RAAS
    • effects are thus from decreased ACTH mediated cortisol deficiency

 

Term
What is Cushings syndrome and what are the different causes
Definition

 

  • caused by excessive activation of glucocorticoid receptors

    • ACTH-dependent

      • pituitary adenoma; hypersecretion of ACTH (aka Cushings disease), accounts for ~80% of all non iatrogenic causes

      • ectopic ACTH syndrome; bronchial carcinoid, small cell lung Ca, pancreatic neuro-endocrine tumour

      • iatrogenic; ACTH therapy

    • Non-ACTH dependent

      • bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

      • Adrenal tumour; adenoma or carcinoma

      • iatrogenic; steroid use

    • Psuedo-cushings syndrome (cortisol excess as part of another illness)

      • ETOH

      • depression

      • obesity

Term
What are the clinical manifestations of Cushings syndrome
Definition
  •  Skin
    • hyperpigmentation due to ACTH action on melanocytes
    • bruising
    • hair loss
    • acne
    • predisposed to skin infections / poor wound healing
    • thinning of skin
    • hirsutism
  • CNS
    • psychosis, depression
  • Body changes
    • Moon face
    • Central adiposity, striae
  • MSK
    • OP +/- crush #s
    • Proximal myopathy
  • GIT
    • peptic ulcer
  • Metabolic
    • Hyperglycaemia
  • HTN
  • O+G
    • menstrual changes, amenorrhoea
Term
What is Conn syndrome and how does it present
Definition

Hyperaldosteronism

(Conn Syndrome)


Aetiology

  • most commonly due to an adrenal adenoma

  • results in Na and H20 retention with K excretion


Clinical

  • usually asymptomatic but any sxs are due to low K

    • weakness

    • cramps

    • paresthesia

    • polyuria

    • polydipsia


Ix

 

  • aldosterone (serum and urine)

  • plasma renin decreased

  • Na increased

  • K decreased

  • alkalosis
Term

middle aged

PLUS

nerve compression syndromes (especially carpal tunnel) PLUS

new onset snoring +/- OSA

Definition

Acromegaly


Etiology

  • most common onset in middle age

  • insidious onset with slow progression (and thus diagnosis)

  • 4 cases per million


Aetiology

  • 95% due to an oversecretion of growth hormone from a pituitary somatotroph adenoma

  • untreated results in increased rate of death via CVD


Clinical

 

  • gradual change in appearance of soft tissue and cartilage

  • not usually noticed by those in daily contact

  • enlargement of the hands, feet and jaw

  • nerve compression syndromes may occur, particularly carpal tunnel

  • may undergo premature and widespread osteoarthritis of weight bearing joints

  • snoring is universal and may lead to OSA
Term
Two main causes of galactorrhoea
Definition
pituitary adenoma or antipsychotics
Term
Which hormones are secreted by the anterior and posterior pituitary glands
Definition

The Anterior Pituitary Likes Getting Fed

= TSH, ACTH, Prolactin, LH, GH, FSH

 

the posterior is POV

= Posterior Pit = Oxytocin, Vasopressin

Term
What are the three functions of PTH
Definition

 

  • PTH stimulated by low Ca level res in

    • bones

      • activates osteoclasts stimulating rel of Ca and PO4 from bones into blood

    • small intestines

      • enhances intestinal absorption of Ca indirectly by stimulating the kidneys to transform Vit D to its active form of Calcitriol which is req for Ca absorption from small intestines

    • kidneys

      • increases Ca reabsorption by the kidneys  while increasing PO4 excretion thus preventing Ca salt deposition in bones or soft tissues

      • calcium is reabsorbed by the kidneys via

        • passive at proximal convoluted tubule

        • PTH influenced Ca-ATPase pump at distal convoluted tubule (primary pathway)
Term
Define anorchidism and cryptorchidism
Definition

anorchidism (congenital absence of one or both testes)

cryptorchidism (undescended) in males

Term
Distinguish between hyper and hypo gonadotropic hypogonadism and define primary, secondary and tertiary hypogonadism
Definition

 

  • gonads = testes in males and ovaries in females

  • the nomenclature distinguishes causes of hypogonadism based where the defect occurs in the hypothalamo-pituitary-gonad axis

  • unfortunately it is stupid and uses stupidly long words

  • primary hypogonadism (ie the problem is with the testes) is called hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism because there is a high gonadotrophic state to try stimulate an underfunctioning gonad

  • secondary hypogonadism (ie the problem is with the pituitary) or tertiary (prob with hypothalamus) is referred to a hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
Term

short stature + webbed neck + facies


[image]

Definition
Turners syndrome
Term
What is carcinoid syndrome
Definition

 

  • Neuroendocrine tumours are tumours of neuroendocrine cells which are located throughout the body and release hormones in response to a variety of stimuli to regulate a wide range of normal physiological functions
  • most commonly found in the gastrointestinal tract and pancreas
  • 10% of NETs
  • the clinical manifestation of excess serotonin and histamine substances
  • serotonin is well metabolised by the liver thus NETs of GIT origin will often not cause carcinoid syndrome until metastatic disease occurs, thus bypassing first pass metabolism
  • characteristic symptoms 
    • intermittent or progressive facial flushing 
    • secretory diarrhoea (characterised by lack of response to fasting)
    • abdominal cramps
    • wheezing
Term

 

      • intermittent or progressive facial flushing

      • secretory diarrhoea (characterised by lack of response to fasting)

      • abdominal cramps

      • wheezing
Definition

 

  • Carcinoid syndrome

    • 10% of NETs

    • the clinical manifestation of excess serotonin and histamine substances

    • serotonin is well metabolised by the liver thus NETs of GIT origin will often not cause carcinoid syndrome until metastatic disease occurs, thus bypassing first pass metabolism

    • characteristic symptoms

      • intermittent or progressive facial flushing

      • secretory diarrhoea (characterised by lack of response to fasting)

      • abdominal cramps

      • wheezing
Term
What is Chromogranin A
Definition

 

  • used in the diagnosis of Neuroendocrine Tumours

  • often difficult to diagnose given the wide range of potential hormones secreted. Investigation is based on presenting symptoms guiding investigation. Chromogranin A would seem to be the most widely used general test however it's accuracy is not ideal

  • Chromogranin A

    • produced by most neuroendocrine tumours and can be measured in a fasting blood sample

    • PPV ~ 75%, NPV ~ 60%

    • false positives

      • proton pump inhibitors and H2 antagonists

      • chronic atrophic gastritis type A

      • liver and renal disease

      • systemic inflammatory disorders especially inflammatory bowel disease

      • prostate cancer
Term
What are the four main causes of Diabetes Insipidus
Definition

 

  • a disease of polyuria not related to the osmotic effects of glucose

  • can be due to

    • Central DI

      • posterior pituitary dysfunction resulting in hyposecretion of ADH

    • Nephrogenic DI

      • decreased renal sensitivity to ADH

      • may relate to electrolyte disturbances (hypercalcaemia, chronic hypokalaemia), systemic diseases affecting renal tubules (for example, Sjögren syndrome, amyloidosis, sickle cell disease), drugs (for example, lithium), nephrotoxins, post kidney transplantation, and hereditary causes

    • Dipsogenic DI

      • a defect of the thirst mechanism of the hypothalamus

    • drugs
Term
In diabetes insipidus describe the serum vs urine osmolality
Definition

Diabetes Insipidus


Aetiology

  • a disease of polyuria not related to the osmotic effects of glucose

  • can be due to

    • Central DI

      • posterior pituitary dysfunction resulting in hyposecretion of ADH

    • Nephrogenic DI

      • decreased renal sensitivity to ADH

      • may relate to electrolyte disturbances (hypercalcaemia, chronic hypokalaemia), systemic diseases affecting renal tubules (for example, Sjögren syndrome, amyloidosis, sickle cell disease), drugs (for example, lithium), nephrotoxins, post kidney transplantation, and hereditary causes

    • Dipsogenic DI

      • a defect of the thirst mechanism of the hypothalamus

    • drugs

 

Ix

 

  • formal diagnosis involves demonstrating an inappropriately low or ‘normal’ urine osmolality in the context of high serum osmolality. This often requires a formal water deprivation test
Term
What are the two most common causes of hypercalcaemia and how is this reflected in the PTH
Definition

 

  • By far the two most common are

    • primary hyperparathyroidism; normal to elevated PTH level

    • malignant hypercalcaemia; low (ie suppressed) PTH level

Term
  • usually young women (teens or 20s) 
  • recurrent unexplained abdominal pain crises

  • recurrent psychiatric illnesses

  • abnormal behaviour

  • acute peripheral or nervous system dysfunction (e.g. peripheral neuropathy, hypotonia)

  • red urine

  • hyponatraemia (can be severe)

Definition

Acute intermittent porphyria


Aetiology

  • autosomal dominant disorder

  • due to a deficiency of porphobilinogen (PBG) deaminase

  • usually young women (teens or 20s)


Clinical

  • clinically silent in the majority of patients who carry the trait

  • recurrent unexplained abdominal pain crises

  • recurrent psychiatric illnesses

  • abnormal behaviour

  • acute peripheral or nervous system dysfunction (e.g. peripheral neuropathy, hypotonia)

  • uroporphyrin turns urine red

  • attacks precipitated by various drugs (e.g. anti- epileptics, alcohol, sulphonamides, barbiturates)


Ix

  • PBG in urine during attack

  • hyponatraemia (can be severe)

 

Term
  • usually diagnosed from age 2-5

  • weakness in hip and shoulder girdles

  • delayed onset walking

  • bulky calves

  • most are in a wheelchair by age 10

  • +/- intellectual retardation

  • Gowers sign; patient uses ‘trick’ method by using hand to climb up their legs when rising to an erect position from the floor

Definition

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy


Etiology

  • usually diagnosed from age 2-5


Aetiology

  • a progressive proximal muscle weakness disorder with replacement of muscle by connective tissue

  • an X-linked recessive condition


Clinical

  • weakness in hip and shoulder girdles

  • delayed onset walking

  • pseudohypertrophy of muscles, especially the calves

  • most are in a wheelchair by age 10

  • +/- intellectual retardation

  • Gowers sign; patient uses ‘trick’ method by using hand to climb up their legs when rising to an erect position from the floor


Cx

  • mortality by 25 yo due to respiratory failure


Dx

  • elevated serum CK

  • electromyography

  • gene testing

  • muscle biopsy


Rx

 

  • nil available

  • corticosteroids delay progression
Term
What is Gowers sign
Definition

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

 

Gowers sign; patient uses ‘trick’ method by using hand to climb up their legs when rising to an erect position from the floor

Term

 

  • frequently not suspected until school age or adolescence, depending on the severity of the symptoms

  • physical

    • large, protuberant ears, a prominent chin and forehead, a high arched palate, and, in postpubertal males, macroorchidism

    • joints may be hyperextensible

    • heart disease (mitral valve prolapse) may occur

  • cognitive

    • may include mild to moderate intellectual disability

    • features of autism may develop, including perseverative speech and behavior, poor eye contact, and social anxiety

  • premutation

    • usually asymptomatic

    • women with the premutation may have premature ovarian failure; sometimes menopause occurs in the mid-30s.
Definition

Fragile X


Etiology

  • the most common inherited cause of developmental disability

  • affects about 1:4000 males and 1:8000 females

  • inherited in an X-linked pattern and does not always cause clinical symptoms


Aetiology

  • caused by an abnormality of the FMR1 gene on the X chromosome. The abnormality is an unstable triplet repeat expansion; normal people have < 60 CGG repeats and people with fragile X syndrome have > 200. People with 60 to 200 CGG repeats are considered to have a premutation because the increased number of repeats increases the likelihood that further mutation will result in > 200 repeats in a subsequent generation. Because of the relatively small number of base pairs involved, Fragile X syndrome is not considered a chromosome abnormality


Clinical

  • frequently not suspected until school age or adolescence, depending on the severity of the symptoms

  • physical

    • large, protuberant ears, a prominent chin and forehead, a high arched palate, and, in postpubertal males, macroorchidism

    • joints may be hyperextensible

    • heart disease (mitral valve prolapse) may occur

  • cognitive

    • may include mild to moderate intellectual disability

    • features of autism may develop, including perseverative speech and behavior, poor eye contact, and social anxiety

  • premutation

    • usually asymptomatic

    • women with the premutation may have premature ovarian failure; sometimes menopause occurs in the mid-30s.


Diagnosis

  • DNA testing

  • boys with autism and intellectual disability should be tested for fragile X syndrome


Treatment

  • supportive measures

  • early intervention, including speech and language therapy and occupational therapy, can help children with fragile X syndrome maximize their abilities

  • stimulants, antidepressants, and antianxiety drugs may be beneficial for some children

 

Term
Describe the aetiology of Huntington Disease
Definition

 

  • results from a mutation in the Huntington (HTT) gene , causing abnormal repetition of the DNA sequence CAG, which codes for the amino acid glutamine. The resulting gene product, a large protein called Huntington, has an expanded stretch of polyglutamine residues, which accumulate within neurons and lead to disease via unknown mechanisms

  • the more CAG repeats, the earlier the onset of disease and the more severe its expression (phenotype)

  • the number of repeats can increase with successive generations and, over time, lead to increasingly severe phenotypes within a family (called anticipation)
Term

 

  • symptoms usually develop between ages 5 and 35

  • in 50% the first symptom is hepatitis—acute, chronic active, or fulminant

  • in 40% the first symptoms reflect CNS involvement

    • motor deficits are common, including any combination of tremors, dystonia, dysarthria, dysphagia, chorea, drooling, and incoordination

    • sometimes the CNS symptoms are cognitive or psychiatric abnormalities.

Definition

Wilson disease


Etiology

  • prevalence of 1 in 30,000


Aetiology

  • affected people are homozygous for the mutant recessive gene, located on chromosome 13. Heterozygous carriers, who constitute about 1.1% of the population, are asymptomatic

  • the genetic defect impairs copper secretion into bile, thus causing the copper overload and resultant accumulation in the liver, which begins at birth

  • the impaired transport also interferes with incorporation of copper into the copper protein ceruloplasmin, thus decreasing serum levels of ceruloplasmin

  • copper diffuses out of the liver into the blood, then into other tissues. It is most destructive to the brain but also damages the kidneys and reproductive organs and causes hemolytic anemia. Some copper is deposited around the rim of the cornea and edge of the iris, causing Kayser-Fleischer rings


Clinical

  • symptoms usually develop between ages 5 and 35

  • in 50% the first symptom is hepatitis—acute, chronic active, or fulminant

  • in 40% the first symptoms reflect CNS involvement

    • motor deficits are common, including any combination of tremors, dystonia, dysarthria, dysphagia, chorea, drooling, and incoordination

    • sometimes the CNS symptoms are cognitive or psychiatric abnormalities.

  • in 10% the first symptom is Kayser-Fleischer rings, amenorrhea, repeated miscarriages or hematuria.


Diagnosis

  • serum ceruloplasmin and 24-h urinary copper excretion

  • sometimes confirmation by penicillamine provocation test or liver biopsy


Prognosis

  • prognosis for patients with Wilson disease is usually good, unless disease is advanced before treatment begins

  • untreated Wilson's disease is fatal, usually by age 30.


Treatment

 

  • Penicillamine or trientine; chelating drugs

  • low-copper diet

Term
Dysphagia, elderly, slowly progressive difficulty getting solid foods to pass the throat
Definition

 

  • cricopharyngeal bar

    • occurs as a result of an inability of the cricopharyngeus to relax during swallowing resulting in degenerative changes in the cricopharyngeus muscle

    • more common in the elderly

    • most (even large) cricopharyngeal bars can be asymptomatic and the finding is often  incidental

    • typical presentation is difficulty getting solid foods to pass the throat

Term
typically presents with regurgitation of food that was eaten some time ago, or worsening of dysphagia towards the latter part of the meal
Definition

 

  • Zenker’s diverticulum (pharyngeal pouch)

    • thought to develop consequent to a cricopharyngeal bar

    • annual incidence is two per 100,000

    • typically presents with regurgitation of food that was eaten some time ago, or worsening of dysphagia towards the latter part of the meal as the pouch starts filling up with ingested food

    • best Ix = barium swallow, as they are often missed during endoscopy

Term

 

      • young adults in their 20s and 30s, particularly males and Caucasians

      • usually associated with atopy including asthma and eczema

    • typical presentation are either

      • acute food bolus obstruction

      • chronic non-progressive dysphagia

Definition

 

  • eosinophilic oesophagitis

    • etiology

      • incidence = five per 10,000

      • young adults in their 20s and 30s, particularly males and Caucasians

    • aetiology

      • oesophageal eosinophilic infiltration causing fibrosis, impairment of peristalsis, and ultimately mechanical obstruction due to formation of strictures

      • usually associated with atopy including asthma and eczema, and peripheral eosinophilia, and is presumed to be caused by allergy to one or more foods or possibly inhaled allergens

    • typical presentation are either

      • acute food bolus obstruction

      • chronic non-progressive dysphagia

    • other symptoms = chest pain and reflux-type symptoms

    • Ix

      • endoscopy = multiple concentric mucosal rings and linear furrowings, and microabscesses

      • diagnosis is made by histological analysis of the number of eosinophils on oesophageal mucosal biopsies

    • Rx

      • trial PPI therapy because of overlap with reflux disease and because some patients with eosinophilic oesophagitis respond directly to this therapy

      • swallowed steroids, such as fluticasone 500μg twice a day are given for at least 8-12 weeks. After this it can be stopped, although most patients do relapse and require repeat or longer course(s) of treatment

      • oral prednisolone is used in resistant cases

      • elimination diets

        • common treatment in children but have yet to achieve mainstream status in adults

        • Nevertheless, a six-food elimination diet (cows milk protein, wheat, soy, eggs, seafood and peanuts) has been shown to reduce symptoms in up to 90% of patients and improve the histological appearances
Term
What is a Schatzki’s ring
Definition

 

  • Schatzki’s ring

    • A Schatzki’s ring is a mucosal ring found at the gastroesophageal junction, and is thought to be a result of reflux disease

    • found in 7% of the general population, although most are incidental findings and do not cause symptoms

    • typically leads to symptoms during swallowing of large solid boluses

    • Ix; barium swallow or endoscopy

    • Rx; endoscopic dilations + PPI
Term
What is achalasia
Definition

 

  • achalasia

    • impaired relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter and defective peristalsis

    • incidence of two per 100,000

    • caused by immune mediated degeneration of oesophageal motor nerves

    • clinical; dysphagia (90%) but also difficulty belching, regurgitation (particularly during recumbency), chest pain, heartburn and weight loss

    • Ix; barium swallow and endoscopy

    • Rx; balloon dilation, botulinum toxin injection or surgical myotomy
Term

 

  • upper abdominal discomfort/bloating

  • early satiety

  • nausea, postprandial vomiting (1-3 hours after meals)
Definition

Gastroparesis


Aetiology

  • delayed gastric emptying

  • more common causes

    • diabetic gastroparesis

    • postsurgical gastroparesis, e.g. vagotomy , fundoplication

    • trauma

    • idiopathic (de novo)

  • less common causes

    • connective tissue disorders (e.g. scleroderma)

    • vasculitides

    • myopathic disorders (e.g. muscular dystrophy)

    • thyroid dysfunction

    • hypokalaemia

    • pancreatitis


Clinical

  • upper abdominal discomfort/bloating

  • early satiety

  • nausea, postprandial vomiting (1-3 hours after meals)

  • abdominal pain


Diagnosis

  • endoscopy; significant gastric residue

  • barium swallow with follow through

  • nuclear medicine gastric emptying test (gastric retention of 60% after 2 hours is abnormal)


Cx

  • malnutrition

  • dehydration


Management

 

  • eat small, frequent meals, with careful chewing of food

  • avoid large pieces of bread especially doughy bread (encourage toasting)

  • avoid fat, raw fruit and vegetables

  • prokinetics

    • domperidone / metoclopramide / erythromycin

Term
What are the diagnostic criteria for Irritable Bowel Sydrome
Definition

 

  • Rome II diagnostic criteria

    • at least 3/12 of (not necessarily consecutively) abdominal discomfort or pain with two of the following:

      • relieved by defecation

      • onset associated with change in stool frequency

      • onset associated with change in stool form
Term
Discuss the epidemiology of Haemophilia
Definition

 

  • an inherited disorder

  • because the specific genes are located on the X chromosome, hemophilia affects males almost exclusively

  • daughters of men with hemophilia are obligate carriers, but sons are normal

  • each son of a carrier has a 50% chance of having hemophilia, and each daughter has a 50% chance of being a carrier

  • Nb that many haemophilia A patients are hep B/C / HIV +ve due to infected factor VIII transmissions in the 1980s

Term
Describe the aetiology of Haemophilia
Definition

 

  • results from mutations, deletions, or inversions of genes affecting

    • factor VIII

      • hemophilia A

      • 80% of patients

    • factor IX gene

      • hemophilia B

  • normal hemostasis requires > 30% of normal factor VIII and IX levels. Most patients with hemophilia have levels < 5%; some have extremely low levels (< 1%) with variation depending on the specific gene mutation

  • carriers usually have levels of about 50%

Term
What is purpura simplex
Definition

Purpura simplex

(simple purpura / easy bleeding syndrome)


Etiology

  • extremely common

  • usually affects women with onset in young adulthood


Aetiology

  • cause and mechanism are unknown

  • may represent a heterogeneous group of disorders or merely a variation of normal


Clinical

  • bruises develop on the thighs, buttocks, and upper arms in people without known trauma

  • history usually reveals no other abnormal bleeding and serious bleeding does not occur


Ix

  • platelet count and tests of platelet function, blood coagulation, and fibrinolysis are normal


Rx

  • no drug prevents the bruising

  • patients are often advised to avoid aspirin, but there is no evidence that bruising is related to or worsened by their use

  • reassure that the condition is not serious

  • all patients should be evaluated for the possibility of physical abuse.

 

Term
What is the function of von Willebrand Factor
Definition

 

  • VWF is synthesized and secreted by vascular endothelium to

    • promote platelet adhesion to the vessel wall and other platelets

    • maintain normal plasma factor VIII levels
Term
What is the aetiology of von Willebrand Disease
Definition

 

  • platelet dysfunction and factor VIII deficiency due to a hereditary deficiency of vWF

  • VWF is synthesized and secreted by vascular endothelium to

    • promote platelet adhesion to the vessel wall and other platelets

    • maintain normal plasma factor VIII levels

  • the disease can be a quantitative (Type 1), qualitative (Type 2) or  absence (Type 3) of vWF
Term
What is the lifespan of a platelet and from which cells do they originate
Definition

 

    • bud from megakaryocytes thus no cell nucleus

    • lifespan 7-10/7

Term
what is the function of prostacyclin in haemostasis
Definition

 

    • platelets remain in an inactivated state due to

      • an intact vascular endothelium

      • the absence of activating factors

      • the production of prostacyclin (aka prostaglandin I2)

        • produced via conversion of arachidonic acid by cyclooxygenase 1 and 2 (COX 1 and 2)

        • functions

          • directly inhibit platelet activation

          • prevent adhesion of activated platelets onto non injured vascular endothelium
Term
Describe the end result of haematopoeisis for 8 common cell lines
Definition
[image]
Term
What is the function of a megakaryocyte
Definition
Platelet formation
Term
  • older person

  • fatigue

  • headache, dizziness, tinnitus

  • pruritus after hot bath or shower

  • epistaxis

  • facial plethora

Definition

Polycythaemia Vera


  • a malignant proliferation of RBCs +/- WBCs and PLTs

  • clinical

    • older person

    • fatigue

    • headache, dizziness, tinnitus

    • pruritus after hot bath or shower

    • epistaxis

    • facial plethora

    • splenomegaly

    • thrombosis

Term
Discuss vaccinations, antibiotics, travel medicine and animal handling in an asplenic patient
Definition

 

  • vaccination

    • 23 valent polysaccharide pneumococcal vaccine

      • initial vaccine is given around the time of splenectomy

      • booster after 5 years

      • second booster given either after a further 5 years or at 65 years of age (or 50 years of age for indigenous adults), whichever is the later

    • H. influenzae type b

    • N. meningitidis

      • initial dose of the conjugate serogroup C vaccine

      • 6–8 weeks the quadrivalent meningococcal vaccine

      • booster quadrivalent vaccine after 5 years

    • influenza

      • annually

      • important because influenza may be complicated by secondary bacterial infection due to S. pneumoniae

  • preventive antibiotics

    • daily antibiotics for at least 2 years post splenectomy

    • usually amoxicillin 250–500 mg/ day or phenoxymethylpenicillin 250–500 mg twice per day

      • amoxicillin is often favoured because it is taken once daily and is not required to be taken on an empty stomach

    • long term antibiotics should be strongly considered for those patients who have an additional underlying ongoing immunosuppressive condition

  • emergency antibiotics

    • patients should keep an emergency or standby antibiotic supply. These should be taken at the onset of fever and shivers, especially when urgent medical review is unavailable

    • current recommendations suggest amoxicillin 3 g, or in a person with penicillin allergy, a macrolide

  • malaria

    • increased risk of severe malaria

    • travel advice should include; malaria chemoprophylaxis, vector avoidance, antimalarial medications, and early medical attention in the setting of symptoms

  • animal handling

    • increased risk of severe overwhelming post splenectomy infection (due to C. canimorsus), following dog, cat or other animal bites

    • tick bites are also a concern

    • early medical attention is recommended
Term
  • Stage 1 (haemolymphatic)

    • incubation period about 3 weeks

    • fever, headache and a skin chancre or nodule

    • lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly

  • Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic)

    • weeks or months later

    • cerebral symptoms including hypersomnolence

Definition

African trypanosomiasis

(sleeping sickness)


Aetiology

  • is an illness endemic to sub-Saharan Africa

  • caused by 2 subspecies of the flagellate protozoan Trypanosoma brucei

  • transmitted to human hosts by bites of infected tsetse flies


Clinical

  • Stage 1 (haemolymphatic)

    • incubation period about 3 weeks

    • fever, headache and a skin chancre or nodule

    • lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly

  • Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic)

    • weeks or months later

    • cerebral symptoms including hypersomnolence


Diagnosis

  • demonstrating trypomastigotes in peripheral blood smear or chancre aspirate


Prevention

 

  • avoid bites of the tsetse fly. If visiting areas of East, Central and West Africa, especially the safari game parks, travellers should use insect repellent and wear protective light-coloured clothing, including long sleeves and trousers.

Term
What is Chikungunya
Definition

 

  • an alpha viral mosquito borne infection

  • similar clinical picture to dengue fever

  • can cause haemorrhagic fever

  • is encountered in tropical south east asia, indian ocean islands and parts of africa

Term
Describe the pathophysiology of cholera symptoms
Definition

 

  • characterised by the sudden onset of painless, profuse, watery diarrhoea

  • severity can range from life threatening to subclinical

  • the cholera toxin does not produce intestinal inflammation but instead induces secretion of increased amounts of electrolytes into the intestinal lumen, resulting in mild to severe dehydration and, in some cases, metabolic acidosis.

Term
Discuss cholera vaccination
Definition
  • is a substantial health burden in developing countries and is considered to be endemic in Africa, Asia, South America and Central America

  • epidemics are common in circumstances where food and water supplies can become contaminated, such as after natural disasters and civil unrest

  • in Australia (about 2 to 6 cases a year) almost always occur in individuals who have been infected in endemic areas overseas. However, the overall risk of cholera to travellers with access to a safe water source and hygienic food preparation is considered to be low, even when visiting countries where cholera is endemic

 

  • vaccines

    • live attenuated vaccines exist and have been studied to show ? 50% residual protection at 6 months and minimal at 12 months

    • thus routine cholera vaccination is not recommended as the risk to travellers is very low, despite the endemicity of cholera in some countries often visited by Australians. Careful and sensible selection of food and water is of far greater importance to the traveller than cholera vaccination

    • vaccination should be considered for

      • travellers at increased risk of acquiring diarrhoeal disease

        • achlorhydria

      • travellers at increased risk of severe or complicated diarrhoeal disease

        • poorly controlled diabetes

        • inflammatory bowel disease

        • HIV/AIDS

        • immunocompromise

        • significant cardiovascular disease

    • Cholera vaccination should also be considered for travellers with considerable risk of exposure to, or acquiring, cholera, such as humanitarian disaster workers deployed to regions with endemic or epidemic cholera.

Term
What is Ciguatera
Definition

Aetiology

  • a type of food poisoning caused by eating tropical fish, especially large coral trout and large cod, caught in tropical waters (e.g. the Caribbean and tropical Pacific)

  • due to a type of poison that concentrates in the fish after they feed on certain micro-organisms around reefs


Clinical

  • presents within hours as a bout of gastroenteritis (vomiting, diarrhoea and stomach pains) and then symptoms affecting the nervous system, such as muscle aching and weakness, paraesthesia and burning sensations of the skin, particularly of the fingers and lips


Rx

 

  • supportive

  • prognosis is excellent

Term
What is the prognosis of Japanese encephalitis
Definition
high case-fatality rate (approximately 30%) and there is a high prevalence of neurological sequelae (up to 50%) in those who survive the acute illness
Term
Japanese encephalitis
Definition

Clinical

 

  • range of severity

    • most infections are asymptomatic

    • milder forms include febrile illness with headache, and aseptic meningitis

    • a typical symptomatic illness is an acute neurological illness, characterised by headache, fever, convulsions, focal neurological signs and depressed level of consciousness
Term

 

cutaneous leishmaniasis

Definition

 

    • classically has one to multiple skin lesions, which can spontaneously heal in 2-10 months

    • inoculation occurs after a sandfly bites an exposed part of the body (usually the legs, arms, neck, or face)

    • incubation occurs over weeks to months, followed by the appearance of an erythematous papule, which can evolve into a plaque or ulcer. These lesions are usually painless

    • no systemic symptoms are evident
Term

 

  • [image]

 

    • skin lesions

      • hypopigmented or reddish maculopapules or annular lesions

      • +/- loss of sensation

    • thickened peripheral nerves with loss of sensation, e.g. ulnar (elbow), median (wrist), common peroneal (knee) and greater auricular (neck) peripheral neuropathy or motor nerve impairment


Definition

Leprosy


Aetiology

  • caused by the acid-fast bacillus Mycobacterium leprae

  • a disorder of tropical and warm temperate regions, especially South-East Asia

  • transmitted by nasal secretions

  • incubation period of 2 - 6 years


Clinical

 

  • diagnosis is one or more of

    • skin lesions

      • hypopigmented or reddish maculopapules or annular lesions

      • +/- loss of sensation

    • thickened peripheral nerves with loss of sensation, e.g. ulnar (elbow), median (wrist), common peroneal (knee) and greater auricular (neck) peripheral neuropathy or motor nerve impairment

    • demonstration of acid-fast bacilli in a skin smear or on biopsy

Term
Yersinia pestis causes which disease
Definition

Plague


Aetiology

  • gram negative bacterium Yersinia pestis

  • endemic in parts of Asia, Africa and Americas

  • transmitted by flea which have been exposed to infected rats


Clinical

 

  • two types

    • bubonic plague

      • painful suppurating inguinal or axillary lymphadenitis

    • pneumonic plague

      • flu like sxs with haemoptysis, septicaemia and fatal haemorrhagic illness

  • there is rapid onset of high fever, prostration and black patches of the skin due to subcutaneous haemorrhage

Term
  • the first clinical sign is a local skin reaction at the site of penetration of the parasite (it then invades liver, bowel and bladder)

  • within a week or so there is a generalised allergic response, usually with fever, malaise, myalgia and urticaria

  • a gastroenteritis-like syndrome can occur (nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea) and respiratory symptoms, particularly cough

  • lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly can occur

Definition

Schistosomiasis


Aetiology

  • caused by parasitic organisms (schistosomes) whose eggs are passed in human excreta, which contaminates watercourses (notably stagnant water) and irrigation channels in Egypt, other parts of Africa, South America, some parts of South-East Asia and China

  • freshwater snails are the carriers (vectors)


Clinical

  • the first clinical sign is a local skin reaction at the site of penetration of the parasite (it then invades liver, bowel and bladder)

  • within a week or so there is a generalised allergic response, usually with fever, malaise, myalgia and urticaria

  • a gastroenteritis-like syndrome can occur (nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea) and respiratory symptoms, particularly cough

  • lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly can occur


Diagnosis

  • clinical + eosinophilia in acute stage will most likely be the only positive findings

  • serology

    • may take 3-5 months before is positive

    • all travellers to endemic areas who have had even a one-minute exposure to fresh water should be tested with serology three months post travel. Many cases of schistosomiasis in travellers will be asymptomatic, but there have been numerous case reports of late complications including infertility

  • detecting eggs in the stools, the urine or in a rectal biopsy

    • only positive after 30-50 days as the schistosomes enter this phase of the life cycle


Rx

 

  • Praziquantel is an effective treatment against the adult worm and must be prescribed only after sufficient time has passed to ensure the parasite is now mature. Three months post-exposure is recommended

  • travellers are often advised by locals to take a dose of praziquantel immediately after swimming – this is not only ineffective but has been shown to delay the detection of eggs by up to 11 months, and should thus be avoided
Term
Discuss the investigation and treatment of schistosomiasis
Definition

Schistosomiasis


Aetiology

  • caused by parasitic organisms (schistosomes) whose eggs are passed in human excreta, which contaminates watercourses (notably stagnant water) and irrigation channels in Egypt, other parts of Africa, South America, some parts of South-East Asia and China

  • freshwater snails are the carriers (vectors)

 

Diagnosis

  • clinical + eosinophilia in acute stage will most likely be the only positive findings

  • serology

    • may take 3-5 months before is positive

    • all travellers to endemic areas who have had even a one-minute exposure to fresh water should be tested with serology three months post travel. Many cases of schistosomiasis in travellers will be asymptomatic, but there have been numerous case reports of late complications including infertility

  • detecting eggs in the stools, the urine or in a rectal biopsy

    • only positive after 30-50 days as the schistosomes enter this phase of the life cycle


Rx

 

  • Praziquantel is an effective treatment against the adult worm and must be prescribed only after sufficient time has passed to ensure the parasite is now mature. Three months post-exposure is recommended

  • travellers are often advised by locals to take a dose of praziquantel immediately after swimming – this is not only ineffective but has been shown to delay the detection of eggs by up to 11 months, and should thus be avoided
Term
  • abrupt onset febrile illness with headache and myalgia

  • a black eschar at the site of the bite with regional and generalised lymphadenopathy

  • short-lived macular rash

  • can develop severe complications (e.g. pneumonitis, encephalitis)

Definition

Scrub Typhus


Aetiology

  • found in Southeast Asia, northern Australia and the western Pacific

  • caused by Rickettsia tsutsugamushi, which is transmitted by mites


Clinical

  • abrupt onset febrile illness with headache and myalgia

  • a black eschar at the site of the bite with regional and generalised lymphadenopathy

  • short-lived macular rash

  • can develop severe complications (e.g. pneumonitis, encephalitis)


Diagnosis

 

  • Serological assays

Term
  • usual incubation period of 7 to 14 days (range 3 to 60 days)

  • presentations can be quite variable but typically

    • low-grade fever which increases in ‘stepladder’ manner over 4 days

    • dull frontal headache

    • malaise, myalgia, anorexia

    • dry cough

    • the fever tends to increase as the disease progresses

    • constipation (more typically diarrhoea in young children), abdominal tenderness, relative bradycardia

    • splenomegaly

  • relapse

    • occurs in up to 10% of patients

    • usually 2 to 3 weeks after the initial fever resolves

Definition

Typhoid fever


Etiology

  • humans are the sole reservoir of S. Typhi

  • shed in the faeces of those who are acutely ill and those who are chronic asymptomatic carriers of the organism; transmission usually occurs via the ingestion of faecally contaminated food or water.

  • vast majority of typhoid fever cases occur in less developed countries, where poor sanitation, poor food hygiene and untreated drinking water all contribute to endemic disease, with moderate to high incidence and considerable mortality. Geographic regions with high incidence (>100 cases per 100 000 population per year) include the Indian subcontinent, most Southeast Asian countries and several South Pacific nations, including Papua New Guinea.

  • in developed countries, typhoid fever is predominantly a travel-related disease, with a considerably greater risk following travel to the Indian subcontinent than to other regions. Those who travel to endemic regions to visit friends and relatives (e.g. immigrants who travel to their former homelands) appear to be at considerably greater risk of acquiring typhoid fever than other travellers. There are typically fewer than 150 cases of typhoid fever reported in Australia each year, with most following travel to regions with endemic disease


Aetiology

  • a clinical syndrome caused by a systemic infection with Salmonella enterica subspecies enterica serovar Typhi (S. Typhi). Paratyphoid fever, caused by infection with S.enterica serovar Paratyphi A or B, is similar to, and often indistinguishable from, typhoid fever

  • the two infections are collectively known as enteric fever, have largely overlapping geographic distributions, and, although there is no vaccine specifically targeted against paratyphoid fever, there is evidence to suggest some cross-protection from the oral live attenuated typhoid vaccine against Paratyphi B

  • chronic asymptomatic biliary carriage of S. Typhi occurs in up to 5% of patients with typhoid fever, even after treatment. Chronic carriage is defined by the continued shedding of the organism for longer than 1 year. Carriers serve as an important reservoir in endemic areas and are of public health significance (e.g. if a carrier works in the food industry)


Clinical features

  • usual incubation period of 7 to 14 days (range 3 to 60 days)

  • presentations can be quite variable but typically

    • low-grade fever which increases in ‘stepladder’ manner over 4 days

    • dull frontal headache

    • malaise, myalgia, anorexia

    • dry cough

    • the fever tends to increase as the disease progresses

    • constipation (more typically diarrhoea in young children), abdominal tenderness, relative bradycardia

    • splenomegaly

  • relapse

    • occurs in up to 10% of patients

    • usually 2 to 3 weeks after the initial fever resolves


Complications

  • occur in 10 to 15% of patients and tend to occur in patients who have been ill for more than 2 weeks

  • include gastrointestinal bleeding, intestinal perforation and typhoid encephalopathy


Ix

  • blood and stool culture for salmonella


Rx

 

  • prevention

    • vaccination comes in the form of IM injection or oral

    • evidence varies on length of cover but recommendation is 3 years for both

Term
Discuss yellow fever vaccination
Definition
  • vaccine

    • immunity is long-lasting and perhaps life-long with considerable observational evidence of excellent efficacy

    • a booster dose is recommended for

      • those individuals who do not respond optimally to yellow fever vaccination

        • pregnant when vaccination

        • immunosuppressed when vaccinated

        • a higher risk of yellow fever virus infection (e.g. if living in a high-risk location for an extended period of time or travelling to an area with ongoing outbreaks).


Vaccine adverse events

  • generally mild

    • headaches, myalgia and low-grade fevers or other minor symptoms in the first 5 days after vaccination, which can last up to 2 weeks

  • immediate hypersensitivity reactions

    • very rare, with an incidence of less than 1 in 1 million, and occur principally in people with anaphylactic sensitivity to eggs

  • Yellow fever vaccine-associated neurotropic disease (YF-AND)

    • a rare complication with at least 25 cases reported

    • 15 of these cases occurred in the 1950s in infants ≤7 months of age. Following recommendations in the early 1960s not to vaccinate young infants, the incidence of vaccine-associated meningoencephalitis declined considerably

    • the risk is greater in persons ≥60 years of age

  • yellow fever vaccine-associated viscerotropic disease (YF-AVD)

    • very rare (and often fatal) complication with 27 reported cases

    • characterised by multi-organ system failure

    • it appears that overwhelming infection with the 17D vaccine virus is responsible

    • risk factors

      • increasing age, particularly in those aged ≥60 years

      • pre-existing thymus disease (4 of the 27 reported cases had a history of thymic tumour and thymectomy)


Vaccine recommendations

 

  • people with a history of any thymus disorder, including myasthenia gravis, thymoma, thymectomy and DiGeorge syndrome, or thymic damage from chemoradiotherapy or graft-versus-host disease, should not be given the yellow fever vaccine

  • adults aged ≥60 years should be given yellow fever vaccine only if they intend to travel to endemic countries (as recommended above) and they have been informed about the (albeit very low) risks of developing a severe complication

  • the administration of other parenteral live viral vaccines (e.g. MMR, MMRV, varicella or zoster vaccine) should be on the same day as yellow fever vaccine, or separated by a 4-week interval
Term

 

  • clinical spectrum varies from a nonspecific febrile illness to fatal haemorrhagic fever

  • incubation period of 3 to 6 days

  • begins abruptly with an intense viraemia

    • fever, prostration, myalgia and headache

    • congestion of the conjunctivae

  • may be followed by a ‘period of remission’

    • fever and symptoms settle over 24 to 48 hours, during which the virus is cleared by immune responses

  • Approximately 15 to 25% of patients may then relapse with ‘the period of intoxication’

    • high fever, vomiting, epigastric pain, jaundice, renal failure and haemorrhage
Definition

Yellow Fever


Etiology

  • occurs in tropical regions of Africa and Central and South America where it is enzootic in rainforest monkeys and canopy mosquito species

  • human vector = Ae aegypti

  • epidemics of ‘urban yellow fever’ occur when a viraemic individual (with yellow fever) infects local populations of Ae. aegypti; such epidemics can be large and very difficult to control

  • although Ae. aegypti also occurs throughout much of tropical Asia and Oceania (including north Queensland), yellow fever has never been reported from these regions.

  • the risk of susceptible travellers acquiring yellow fever varies considerably with season, location, duration of travel and utilisation of mosquito avoidance measures

  • there have been reported cases of yellow fever, all fatal, in unvaccinated travellers to Africa and South America


Aetiology

 

  • a viral haemorrhagic fever caused by an RNA flavivirus

  • vector = Aedes aegypti

  • the case-fatality rate varies widely, but can be more than 20% in local populations
Term
  • the first sign is local irritation or a creeping eruption at the point of entry. This subsides within 2 days or so

  • followed 1- 2 weeks later by respiratory symptoms, which may be associated with bronchitis and bronchopneumonia

  • can cause iron/protein deficiency anaemia in chronic infestation

Definition

Hookworm


Aetiology

  • found in humid tropical regions but are now uncommon in northern Australia

  • ~1.5 cm long

  • acquired by walking barefoot (or wearing thongs or sandals) on earth contaminated by faeces

  • larvae penetrate the skin, travel through the lungs and settle in the small intestine

  • is the commonest cause of iron deficiency anaemia in the world


Clinical

  • the first sign is local irritation or a creeping eruption at the point of entry. This subsides within 2 days or so

  • followed 1- 2 weeks later by respiratory symptoms, which may be associated with bronchitis and bronchopneumonia

  • can cause iron/protein deficiency anaemia in chronic infestation


Diagnosis

 

  • by finding eggs on microscopy of faeces

Term

Aetiology

  • a ubiquitous parasite infesting mainly children of all social classes

  • virtually all children have been infected by the time they reach high school but at any one time approximately 50% of the 5 - 10 years age group affected


Clinical

  • usually asymptomatic

  • pruritus ani (in about 30% of cases)

  • diarrhoea (occasionally)

Definition

Pinworm

threadworm


Aetiology

  • a ubiquitous parasite infesting mainly children of all social classes

  • tiny white worms about 1 cm long that multiply profusely and are spread readily between individuals by close contact

  • virtually all children have been infected by the time they reach high school but at any one time approximately 50% of the 5 - 10 years age group will harbour pinworms


Clinical

  • usually asymptomatic

  • pruritus ani (in about 30% of cases)

  • diarrhoea (occasionally)


Diagnosis

  • inspect anus in child about 1 hour after going to sleep

  • collect eggs with adhesive tape on perianal skin early morning and send to laboratory


Treatment

 

  • scrupulous hygiene by family

  • hands should be washed thoroughly after toileting and before handling food

  • clip fingernails short (eggs lodge under nails)

  • wear pyjamas (not nightgowns)

  • shower each morning

  • bed linen, nightwear and underwear changed and washed in very hot water daily for several days

  • vacuum room of affected person daily

  • have a veterinarian check any pets, especially dogs

  • antibiotics as per eTG

Term
What is Botulism
Definition



Aetiology

  • food poisoning caused by the neurotoxin of Clostridium botulinum

  • incubation 12 - 36 hours after ingesting the toxin from canned, smoked or vacuum packed food


Clinical

 

  • visual problems such as diplopia

  • muscle paralysis

  • prostration

Term
  • spread from wild or domestic (sheep, pigs, cattle, dogs) animals to humans via body fluids

  • incubation 1-3 weeks


Clinical

  • insidious onset malaise, headache, weakness

  • fever is classically undulant (up and down) and the most common sx

  • possible; arthralgia, LN, hepatosplenomegaly, spinal tenderness

Definition

Brucellosis


Etiology

  • remains a large public health problem worldwide but domestic vaccination of animals and pasteurisation of milk has significantly decreased disease burden


Aetiology

  • a zoonotic disease with the bacteria Brucella which is spread from wild or domestic (sheep, pigs, cattle, dogs) animals to humans via body fluids

  • incubation 1-3 weeks


Clinical

  • insidious onset malaise, headache, weakness

  • fever is classically undulant (up and down) and the most common sx

  • possible; arthralgia, LN, hepatosplenomegaly, spinal tenderness


Ix

 

  • bloods

    • culture

    • Brucella agglutinin

Term

Aetiology

  • infection is via zoonotic transmission by infected urine of many animals including pigs, cattle, horses, rats and dogs

  • incubation 3-20 days


Clinical

 

  • abrupt fever, chills, myalgia

  • severe headache

  • macular rash

  • light sensitive conjunctivitis

  • some may develop the immune phase (after an asymptomatic period of 1-3 days) with

    • aseptic meningitis

    • jaundice

    • nephritis

    • significant mortality

Definition

Leptospirosis


Etiology

  • in Australia it is almost exclusively an occupational infection of farmers (especially with flooded farmland in the tropics) and workers in the meat industry


Aetiology

  • infection is via zoonotic transmission of Leptospira by infected urine of many animals including pigs, cattle, horses, rats and dogs

  • incubation 3-20 days


Clinical

 

  • abrupt fever, chills, myalgia

  • severe headache

  • macular rash

  • light sensitive conjunctivitis

  • some may develop the immune phase (after an asymptomatic period of 1-3 days) with

    • aseptic meningitis

    • jaundice

    • nephritis

    • significant mortality

Term
Discuss antibiotic use in pertussis infections
Definition

Treatment

  • antibiotics have been shown to decrease the period of transmission to uninfected patients but does not decrease the course of the disease


Prophylaxis

  • the need for antibiotic prophylaxis for contacts of a pertussis case depends on

    • the likelihood of secondary transmission to children younger than 6 months;

    • children younger than 2 years who have not been vaccinated

    • women in the last month of pregnancy

  • consider the vaccination status of contacts and the degree of contact with the index case

 

  • if indicated, start antibiotic prophylaxis as soon as possible, using the same regimen as for treatment

  • prophylaxis is not beneficial if it is started more than 3 weeks after contact with an infectious patient.
Term
Discuss pertussis as it affects adults
Definition

Pertussis

(whooping cough)


Etiology

  • accounts for up to 7% of cough illnesses per year in adults and is generally believed to be significantly under-diagnosed

  • Despite a long-standing immunisation program, pertussis remains highly prevalent in Australia and the least well controlled of all vaccine-preventable diseases. Epidemics occur every 3 to 4 years

  • even in adults, pertussis can be associated with significant morbidity eg

    • cough persisting for up to 3 months

    • sleep disturbance

    • or, rarely, rib fracture

  • death is rare in people aged 10–70 years. However, the case-fatality rate in unvaccinated infants <6 months of age is estimated to be 0.8%. The most common cause of death in persons with pertussis infection is pertussis pneumonia, sometimes complicated by seizures and hypoxic encephalopathy

  • neonatal deaths

    • a high proportion of hospitalisations, and almost all deaths, attributed to pertussis occur in infants too young to have received more than 1 dose of pertussis-containing vaccine

    • thus the prevention of severe pertussis morbidity and deaths in infants <3 months of age is the target of two vaccination strategies

      • cocoon strategy; indirect protection from immunisation of household contacts and carers of newborn infants

      • direct protection from immunisation of the mother during the last trimester of pregnancy. (Vaccination of pregnant women with dTpa has been shown to be effective in preventing pertussis disease in newborn infants via the transfer of maternal antibodies in utero. Vaccination of mothers at least 7 days before delivery reduced pertussis disease by 91% in infants <3 months of age)


Aetiology

  • the bacterium Bordetella pertussis is a gram negative bacillus

  • incubation 7 - 20 days

  • highly infectious (especially in unvaccinated), spreading by aerosols to 90% of susceptible household contacts

  • natural infection does not provide long-term protection and repeat infection can occur


Clinical

 

  • It typically presents with a persistent cough (longer than 2 weeks' duration) with one or more of:

    • paroxysms of coughing

    • inspiratory whoop

    • post-tussive vomiting.
Term
What infective agent causes whooping cough
Definition
the bacterium Bordetella pertussis is a gram negative bacillus
Term
  • may be insidious or dramatically acute in onset

  • fever, malaise, myalgia

  • headache

  • cough (usually dry)

  • minimal chest signs

  • splenomegaly (sometimes)

  • mortality as high as 20% if untreated

Definition

Psittacosis


Etiology

  • 5% of hospital pneumonia admissions


Aetiology

  • Chlamydia psittaci from birds

  • incubation 1-2 weeks


Clinical

 

  • may be insidious or dramatically acute in onset

  • fever, malaise, myalgia

  • headache

  • cough (usually dry)

  • minimal chest signs

  • splenomegaly (sometimes)

  • mortality as high as 20% if untreated

Term
Coxiella burnetti causes which disease
Definition

Q Fever


Etiology

  • the most common abattoir associated infection in Australia

  • also in farmers and hunters


Aetiology

  • a zoonotic disease due to Coxiella burnetti

    • very virulent; even a single organism can cause infection

    • resists inactivation

    • remains viable in dust and stool for months

  • incubation 1 - 3 weeks

  • transmission

    • usually by inhalation of infected aerosols

    • ingesting infective raw milk

    • very rarely, the disease is transmitted from person to person


Clinical

  • sudden onset fever, rigors, myalgia

  • dry cough

  • possible abdominal pain

  • persistent infection may result in a pneumonia, IE or hepatitis

  • the acute illness may resolve spontaneously but a chronic relapsing disease may follow

  • untreated chronic infection is fatal


Rx

 

  • vaccination for abattoir workers

Term
  • abattoir worker, farmer or hunter

  • sudden onset fever, rigors, myalgia

  • dry cough

  • possible abdominal pain

  • persistent infection may result in a pneumonia, IE or hepatitis

  • the acute illness may resolve spontaneously but a chronic relapsing disease may follow

  • untreated chronic infection is fatal

Definition

Q Fever


Etiology

  • the most common abattoir associated infection in Australia

  • also in farmers and hunters


Aetiology

  • a zoonotic disease due to Coxiella burnetti

    • very virulent; even a single organism can cause infection

    • resists inactivation

    • remains viable in dust and stool for months

  • incubation 1 - 3 weeks

  • transmission

    • usually by inhalation of infected aerosols

    • ingesting infective raw milk

    • very rarely, the disease is transmitted from person to person


Clinical

  • sudden onset fever, rigors, myalgia

  • dry cough

  • possible abdominal pain

  • persistent infection may result in a pneumonia, IE or hepatitis

  • the acute illness may resolve spontaneously but a chronic relapsing disease may follow

  • untreated chronic infection is fatal


Rx

 

  • vaccination for abattoir workers

Term
  • polyarthritis (75%) mainly peripheral

  • maculopapular rash; widespread, mainly trunk and limbs

  • myalgia

Definition

Ross River Fever


Etiology

  • occurs in all states of Australia but most common in tropics during summer


Aetiology

  • mosquito borne Ross River Virus

  • incubation 3-21 days


Clinical

  • subclinical infection is common

  • major sxs

    • polyarthritis (75%) mainly peripheral

    • maculopapular rash; widespread, mainly trunk and limbs

    • myalgia

  • other sxs

    • pyrexia (mild)

    • headaches

    • nausea

    • fatigue with exercise

  • illness lasts 2-4 weeks, most feel normal at 3 months but some with a more severe arthritis enter a chronic phase lasting 18 months or more


Ix

  • serum RRV Abs


DDx

  • other viral infections that cause arthritis; Hep B, Rubella, Barmah Forrest Virus, dengue

  • early RA and rheumatic fever


Rx

 

  • symptomatic with bed rest and simple analgesia

  • PO corticosteroids may be used but should be avoided

Term
What organism causes tetanus
Definition
Clostridium tetani
Term
What is the method of transmission for Toxoplasmosis
Definition

Toxoplasmosis


always consider EBV, CMV, HIV and Toxoplasmosis as DDx for mononucleosis like presentations


Etiology

  • worldwide (though rare) infection


Aetiology

  • caused by Toxoplasma gondii, an obligate intracellular protozoan

  • the definitive host in its life cycle is the cat (also pig or sheep) and the human is the intermediate host

  • infection in humans usually occurs through eating foodstuffs contaminated by infected cat faeces


Clinical

  • major clinical forms

    • asymptomatic lymphadenopathy

      • most common

    • lymphadenopathy with febrile illness

      • similar to mononucleosis

      • fever, rash, myocarditis, pneumonitis, hepatosplenomegaly, retinitis

    • neurological

      • headaches, neck stiffness, sore throat, myalgia

    • congenital toxoplasmosis

      • rare with poor outcome


Ix

  • toxoplasmosis antibodies


Rx

 

  • mild requires no Rx

  • children under 5 must be treated to avoid retinitis

  • immunocompromised and pregnant pxs must be treated

Term
Differentiate between upper and lower motor neurone palsy
Definition

upper motor neuron facial paralysis (eg stroke) spares wrinkling of forehead as these muscles are innervated by both ipsilateral and contralateral neurons (orange and yellow)


[image]

Term
What is Bells Palsy
Definition

Bell’s Palsy


an acute, unilateral, peripheral, lower-motor-neuron facial-nerve (VII) paralysis that gradually resolves in 90% of cases[image]


Aetiology

  • upper motor neuron facial paralysis (eg stroke) spares wrinkling of forehead as these muscles are innervated by both ipsilateral and contralateral neurons (orange and yellow)

  • Bell's palsy (lower motor neuron) has complete unilateral facial paralysis (as LMN lesion will involve both orange and yellow)

  • cause

    • primarily idiopathic

    • if due to HSV is known as Ramsay Hunt Syndrome and may have vesicles on the ipsilateral ear

  • associations

    • DM

    • HTN

    • thyroid disease


Rx

 

  • mixed evidence for burst high dose corticosteroids

  • ensure no corneal ulceration

    • consider eye drops / patch

Term
  • leg weakness

  • variable distal sensory loss

  • muscle atrophy with characteristic ‘inverted champagne bottle’ leg appearance

Definition

Charcot Marie Tooth Syndrome

(Peroneal Muscular Atrophy)


Etiology

  • insidious onset starting in puberty

  • strong family history


Aetiology

  • inherited autosomal dominant polyneuropathy


Clinical

  • leg weakness

  • variable distal sensory loss

  • muscle atrophy with characteristic ‘inverted champagne bottle’ leg appearance


Dx

 

  • electrodiagnostic studies

  • genetic testing

Term
Describe cranial nerve palsies causing extra ocular movment disorders
Definition

 

  • ensure is binocular (monocular implies pathology of the eye itself)

  • test EOM

    • SO4 = superior oblique CN IV

    • LR6 = lateral rectus CN VI

    • the rest are CNIII

    • palsies

      • III; turned down and out (due to unopposed action of the lateral rectus and superior oblique muscles)

      • IV; typically, this will result in an excyclotorsion (outward rotation), along with a lesser hypertropia and esotropia (upward and inward movement) of the affected eye.  People with this condition will experience both a vertical and a torsional diplopia, and they will compensate for this by tilting the head toward the shoulder of the unaffected eye. Test via the Bielschowsky head-tilt test, the person is told to tilt his/her head toward the shoulder of the affected eye.  An overaction of the inferior oblique, and an elevation of the affected eye (and marked diplopia), will result

      • VI; not able to look outward past the midline, and it will be somewhat turned inward when the other eye is fixating straight ahead
Term
Describe cranial nerve palsies causing extra ocular movment disorders
Definition

 

  • ensure is binocular (monocular implies pathology of the eye itself)

  • test EOM

  • [image]

    • SO4 = superior oblique CN IV

    • LR6 = lateral rectus CN VI

    • the rest are CNIII

    • palsies

      • III; turned down and out (due to unopposed action of the lateral rectus and superior oblique muscles)

      • IV; typically, this will result in an excyclotorsion (outward rotation), along with a lesser hypertropia and esotropia (upward and inward movement) of the affected eye.  People with this condition will experience both a vertical and a torsional diplopia, and they will compensate for this by tilting the head toward the shoulder of the unaffected eye. Test via the Bielschowsky head-tilt test, the person is told to tilt his/her head toward the shoulder of the affected eye.  An overaction of the inferior oblique, and an elevation of the affected eye (and marked diplopia), will result

      • VI; not able to look outward past the midline, and it will be somewhat turned inward when the other eye is fixating straight ahead
Term
  • tremor = fine, postural, worse with anxiety, relieved by alcohol

  • usually starts in both hands and may progress to involve the head, chin, tongue and rarely trunk / legs

Definition

Essential Tremor


Etiology

  • often begins in early adulthood


Aetiology

  • autosomal dominant disorder


Clinical

  • tremor = fine, postural, worse with anxiety, relieved by alcohol

  • usually starts in both hands and may progress to involve the head, chin, tongue and rarely trunk / legs

  • differentiate from Parkinsonian via

    • no micrographia

    • no pill rolling

    • normal arm swing and gait

    • twice the Hertz in frequency


Rx

 

  • usually only requires explanation

  • consider

    • propranolol

    • ETOH

      • one drink is usually enough and drinking more has no additional benefit

  • anti anxiety strategies

Term
Describe the aetiology of Guillian Barre Syndrome
Definition

Guillain Barre Syndrome

(Acute Idiopathic Demyelinating Polyneuropathy)

 

Aetiology

 

  • segmental demyelination of the peripheral nerves and nerve roots (thus lower motor neurone lesion) causing an acute, usually rapidly progressive but self-limited inflammatory polyneuropathy characterized by muscular weakness and mild distal sensory loss
Term
is a painful, asymmetrical, asynchronous sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy involving isolated damage to at least 2 separate nerve areas
Definition

Mononeuritis multiplex


  • is a painful, asymmetrical, asynchronous sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy involving isolated damage to at least 2 separate nerve areas

  • as the condition worsens, it becomes less multifocal and more symmetrical

  • is not a true, distinct disease entity but rather an associated with one of the following

  • Diabetes mellitus

  • Vasculitis

  • Amyloidosis

  • Direct tumor involvement - Lymphoma, leukemia

  • Polyarteritis nodosa

  • Rheumatoid arthritis

  • Systemic lupus erythematosus

  • Paraneoplastic syndromes

 

Term
Discuss the pathophysiology and classification of Motor Neurone Disease
Definition
  • 90% of cases are sporadic

  • the underlying mechanism by which neuronal degeneration is initiated is unknown


Aetiology

  • Wallerian degeneration = a process that results when a nerve fiber is damaged, in which the part of the axon separated from the neuron's cell body degenerates distal to the injury

  • in ALS the death of the anterior horn cell body leads to Wallerian degeneration of the associated motor axon

  • as the axon breaks down, surrounding Schwann cells catabolize the axon's myelin sheath and engulf the axon, breaking it into fragments. This forms small ovoid compartments containing axonal debris and surrounding myelin, termed myelin ovoids. Ovoids then are phagocytized by macrophages recruited into the area to clean up debris.


Classification

 

  • MND refers to group of conditions in which different pathophysiologic cascades share the common consequence of causing preferential progressive loss of motor neurons

  • different subtypes include

    • Classic ALS

      • diagnosis requires the presence of upper motor neurone features (eg spasticity and hyperreflexia), coexisting with lower motor neuron abnormalities (eg fasciculation, wasting); all in the same body region

      • spreads gradually from that body region to the rest of the body

      • ventilatory failure results in death 3 years, on average, after the onset of focal weakness

    • Progressive muscular atrophy

      • disease restricted to LMNs

      • asymmetrical sxs

    • Primary lateral sclerosis

      • only UMNs are involved

      • differs from that of ALS in that course is usually measured in decades
Term
Differentiate the pathophysiology of Motor Neurone Disease, Multiple Sclerosis and Myasthenia Gravis
Definition
  • Motor Neurone Disease (aka Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis) is an idiopathic degeneration of anterior horn cell body resulting in progressive degeneration of the nerve distal to this site of injury. Can be UMN, LMN or both
  • Multiple Sclerosis is a relapsing and remitting autoimmune mediated demyelination of central neurons causing only UMN defects
  • Myasthenia Gravis is an autoimmune mediated destruction of acetylcholine receptors on the muscle end plate
Term
Differentiate between neurogenic and myogenic weakness
Definition
[image]
Term
Differentiate between the four major causes for ptosis
Definition
  • CN III palsy

    • ptosis

    • eye = down and out

    • dilated pupil (mydriasis) with sluggish light reflex

  • Horner syndrome

    • ptosis

    • miosis (constricted pupil)

    • anhidrosis (loss of sweating)

  • Mitochondrial myopathy

    • progressive ophthalmoplegia with activity

    • +/- limb weakness

    • no pupil involvement

  • Myasthenia Gravis

    • ptosis + diplopia

    • no pupil involvement


Thus

 

  • is the pupil involved

    • yes

      • dilated = CNIII palsy

      • constricted = Horner syndrome

    • no

      • is there diplopia

        • no = Mitochondrial myopathy

        • yes = MG
Term
Discuss the potential causes for the four different types of tremor
Definition
  • resting tremor

    • Parkinson's

      • pill rolling

      • increases with distraction

      • decreases with intention


  • action or postural tremor

    • fine tremor that is present throughout movement

    • causes

      • essential tremor

      • senile tremor

      • physiological / anxiety

      • hyperthyroid

      • Drugs

        • caffeine

        • ETOH

        • illicit

        • lithium

        • sympathomimetics eg Salbutamol

        • sodium valproate

        • heavy metals eg mercury

        • phaeochromocytoma


  • intention tremor

    • cerebellar disease

      • coarse tremor

      • exacerbated by action and increases as the target is approached (eg finger nose)

      • relieved by rest

 

  • metabolic tremor

    • extended arms and extended wrists causes slow coarse jerky movements

    • causes

      • Wilson syndrome

      • hepatic encephalopathy

      • uremia

      • hypercarbia

      • lesions of the red nucleus of the midbrain

Term
Differentiate clinically between upper and lower motor neuron lesions
Definition
[image]
Term

What is Burkitt Lymphoma


Definition

 

a highly aggressive B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma


Etiology

  • three distinct forms (1) endemic (African), (2) sporadic, and (3) immunodeficiency associated subtypes. Although these forms differ in their clinical presentation and their epidemiology, they share the same aggressive clinical behavior and are histologically identical


Aetiology

  • The exact cause and pathophysiologic mechanisms leading to the development of Burkitt lymphoma are not known. Several theories exist including Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and malaria infection as well as C-myc oncogene activation.


Clinical

  • rapid and aggressive clinical course

  • frequent bone marrow and central nervous system (CNS) involvement

  • subtypes

    • Endemic (African) Burkitt lymphoma (eBL) most commonly involves the jaw and facial bone (orbit) (>50% of cases).

    • Sporadic Burkitt lymphoma (sBL) most often presents as abdominal tumors with bone marrow involvement.

    • Immunodeficiency-related Burkitt lymphoma cases usually as with nodal involvement with frequent bone marrow involvement

 

Term
Differentiate the age groups, pathophysiology and clinical presentations of the four different types of Leukaemia
Definition

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

  • peak incidence of 3-6yo

  • alterations to immunoglobulin, T-cell receptor and tumour suppressor genes result in the lymphoblasts being ‘frozen’ at an early stage of development

  • clinical

    • fever

    • bone marrow replacement decreases myeloid line resulting in

  • anaemia

  • thrombocytopenia

  • bleeding

  • petechiae (particularly on lower extremities) and ecchymoses

  • neutropaenia

    • infections, including pneumonia

  • bone pain (severe and often atypical)

  • disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) at diagnosis (about 10% of cases)

  • palpable lymphadenopathy

  • large mediastinal mass

  • splenomegaly (20%)

  • rashes from skin infiltration with leukemic cells


Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

  • maturational arrest of bone marrow cells in the earliest stages of development

  • as per ALL present with symptoms resulting from bone marrow failure and organ infiltration with leukemic cells

  • median age of onset = 70yo, M>F


Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia

  • 40-60 yo

  • increased proliferation of the granulocytic cell line without the loss of their capacity to differentiate

  • insidious onset; malaise, weight loss, fever, night sweats, anaemia

    • Dx is usually made as an incidental finding of a high WBC

  • splenomegaly (very large)

  • marked elevation in WCC with left shift (increased immature blood cells seen on microscopy)


Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia

 

  • progressive accumulation of functionally incompetent lymphocytes

  • late middle age - elderly

  • insidious onset; malaise, weight loss, fever, night sweats

    • 50% pxs asymptomatic at time of diagnosis (which is incidental)

  • lymphadenopathy (80%); neck, axilla, groin

  • hepato +/- splenomegaly (50%)

  • mild anaemia

  • lymphocytosis > 15 with “mature’ (? right shift) cells observed on film
Term
If a urine dipstick shows proteinuria and haematuria are the RBCs causing a false positive for the protein
Definition

 

  • urine protein (on dipstick) or protein:creatinine

    • proteinuria is seldom, if ever, secondary to microscopic haematuria even if the amount of bleeding is strongly positive on dipstick. Thus the presence of significant proteinuria should usually guide management to the nephrological pathway and makes urological investigation redundant.
Term
Discuss the possible causes of microscopic haematuria
Definition
  • historically urological stones and cancers were the primary diagnoses of concern with haematuria. This, however missed the essential diagnosis of renal parenchymal disease.


Aetiology

 

  • broadly divided into

    • nephrological

      • any glomerular disease can cause

        • acute nephritis (glomerular or interstitial)

          • usually associated with large numbers of red blood cells and casts

        • the heavy proteinuria conditions (eg, nephrotic syndrome and membranous nephritis)

          • usually associated with fewer numbers of red blood cells.

        • immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy

        • thin-membrane disease

        • hereditary nephritis

    • urological

      • tumours of the urinary tract

      • stone disease

      • UTI

      • benign prostate conditions
Term
a multisystem disorder of unknown aetiology characterised by non-caseating granulomas in affected organs (most commonly pulmonary 90%)
Definition
Sarcoidosis
Term
What is Löfgren’s syndrome
Definition

 

    • is comparable to incidental finding on CXR as the most common presentation for sarcoidosis

    • erythema nodosum, hilar lymphadenopathy, fever and arthralgia, which resolves quickly over a few weeks

Term
erythema nodosum, hilar lymphadenopathy, fever and arthralgia, which resolves quickly over a few weeks
Definition

 

  • sarcoidosis

  • most common presentation is either

    • Löfgren’s syndrome: erythema nodosum, hilar lymphadenopathy, fever and arthralgia, which resolves quickly over a few weeks

    • incidental chest X-ray finding
Term
What is the pathophysiology of sarcoidosis
Definition

 

  • a multisystem disorder of unknown aetiology characterised by non-caseating granulomas in affected organs (most commonly pulmonary 90%)

  • granulomas are the outcome of an autoimmune response to unrecognised antigen(s) in genetically susceptible tissues (mainly pulmonary tissue)

Term
Discuss the utility of serum Angiotensin Converting Enzyme in Sarcoidosis diagnosis
Definition
serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE); sensitivity 70% and specificity 90% thus does not remove the need for a tissue diagnosis
Term
Discuss the prognosis and treatment of Sarcoidosis
Definition

 

  • more common and severe in patients with an Afro-Caribbean background

  • Rx

     

    • consideration needs to be given to who to treat as spontaneous remission is common

      • stage I disease (55-90%), stage II disease (40-70%), stage III (10-20%)

      • occurs mainly in the first six months

      • is variable, so predicting course and prognosis is difficult

    • thus if mild disease often watch and wait

    • oral corticosteroids are indicated in dyspnoeic patients with pulmonary infiltrates and worsening pulmonary function tests
Term

On the penis

[image][image]

Definition

Fordyce spots


Aetiology

  • a variant of sebaceous glands without hair follicles

  • present in 80–95% of adults

  • probably present at birth but become bigger and more visible from puberty onwards

  • may cause anxiety but they are completely harmless whether on the lips or on the genitals

  • are not a sexually transmitted disease and they are not infectious


Clinical

  • small (1–5mm), slightly elevated yellowish or white papules or spots that can appear on the glans or shaft of the penis, or the vulva of the female, the inside of the cheeks and on the vermilion border of the lips

  • may occur as a solitary lesion or more frequently in crops of about 50–100

  • easier to see when the skin is stretched

 

Rx

 

  • harmless and do not require any treatment

  • avoid picking or squeezing the spots

  • can be a cause of cosmetic concern for some patients. Electrosurgery and vaporising laser treatment(CO2 laser) have been used successfully to remove the spots. Other reported treatments for Fordyce spots include bichloracetic acid, photodynamic therapy, micro-punch excision surgery and oral isotretinoin

Term
Phimosis vs paraphimosis
Definition

Phimosis = cannot retract

Paraphimosis = retracted foreskin with swelling and pain

Term
[image]
Definition

Pearly penile papules


= angiofibromas on the corona of the glans penis



normal variants


require no Rx but patient may want given aesthetics

Term
  • typically painful erections with abnormal curvature

  • a non tender hard plaque may be present at this site of deformity

  • [image]

Definition

Peyronie disorder


= a fibrotic disorder that results in an uncomfortable deformity on erection


Etiology

  • sometimes associated with Dupuytren's contracture

  • may result from trauma to erect penis

  • usually 45 - 60yo


Clinical

  • typically painful erections with abnormal curvature

  • a non tender hard plaque may be present at this site of deformity


Rx

 

  • mild

    • reassurance; may worsen or self resolve over 1-2 years

  • moderate (ongoing discomfort or sexual dysfunction that distresses the patient)

    • surgical treatment by penile plication (a sutured tuck on the opposite side to straighten the deformity)

  • severe

    • incision and grafting of the scar or implants can be considered

    • steroid injections are not recommended.

Term
At what age could phimosis be considered abnormal
Definition

Phimosis


= tightness of the foreskin preventing free retraction over the glans


  • the foreskin can be adherent to the glans penis even up to 6 yo

  • forcible retraction should never be undertaken

  • if foreskin cannot be retracted by age 7 and is causing sxs (eg balanitis) then circumcision should be considered

  • ballooning of foreskin commonly occurs with urination whilst the foreskin is separating from the glans. As long as the urine drains freely and there is no pain this is not of concern


Rx

 

  • inflammatory phimosis can be treated with local corticosteroid (betamethasone 0.05% QID for 4 weeks applied to where the foreskin meets the glans

  • circumcision is rarely needed
Term
At what age could phimosis be considered abnormal
Definition

Phimosis


= tightness of the foreskin preventing free retraction over the glans


  • the foreskin can be adherent to the glans penis even up to 6 yo

  • forcible retraction should never be undertaken

  • if foreskin cannot be retracted by age 7 and is causing sxs (eg balanitis) then circumcision should be considered

  • ballooning of foreskin commonly occurs with urination whilst the foreskin is separating from the glans. As long as the urine drains freely and there is no pain this is not of concern


Rx

 

  • inflammatory phimosis can be treated with local corticosteroid (betamethasone 0.05% QID for 4 weeks applied to where the foreskin meets the glans

  • circumcision is rarely needed
Term
Discuss pharmacological options for Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy
Definition
    • note that

      • surgery is the definitive option

      • the course of BPH is variable / unpredictable

      • medication efficacy studies show a 40% placebo rate

    • alpha1 blockers

      • used to treat obstructive sxs

      • decrease the sympathetic mediated smooth muscle tone of the urinary tract

      • can improve sxs within 48 hours, maximum effect is at 6 weeks

      • SEs

        • hypotension

      • options

        • prazosin

          • older med, no PBS restrictions

          • when used for more than two years, prazosin becomes less effective

        • Terazosin

          • longer half life than prazosin and can be given once a day but effectiveness is similar.

          • PBS Authority = Benign prostatic hyperplasia Clinical criteria: Patient must be one in whom surgery is inappropriate; OR Patient must have failed to respond to other drug treatment or other drug treatment must be contraindicated

        • Tamsulosin

          • long acting

          • possible decreased side effect profile over Terazosin

          • dosing is just 400 mg daily (consider at night to avoid SEs but beware getting up at night time)

          • SEs are primarily altered ejaculation, dizziness

    • 5 alpha reductase inhibitors

      • block the conversion of testosterone into its more active form dihydrotestosterone. This is the androgen primarily responsible for prostatic growth

      • induce prostatic epithelial cell apoptosis, thereby reducing prostate size by up to 25% and reducing PSA by 50% over a 6–12 month period

      • two dihydrotestosterone isoforms exist, with type 2 predominating in the prostate. Finasteride inhibits only type 2, while dutasteride inhibits both type 1 and type 2 isoforms.

      • Finasteride

        • 5mg daily with or without food

        • PBS Authority = Benign prostatic hyperplasia Clinical criteria: Patient must be one in whom surgery is inappropriate; OR Patient must have failed to respond to other drug treatment or other drug treatment must be contraindicated.

        • has a very low risk of adverse effects and few interactions with other medications. In clinical trials, only 2% of patients ceased finasteride because of adverse effects which include a decrease in the volume of ejaculate, impotence and decreased libido.

      • if sxs improve / prostate does decrease in size the medications must be taken life long otherwise cessation will result in the prostate regrowing to the same size

      • as there is a reduction in prostate volume, the concentration of PSA falls by 50% from pretreatment levels. This fall must be taken into consideration at the routine annual check. Failure of PSA to decrease during treatment may signal unrecognised prostate cancer or noncompliance. However, a decrease in PSA does not exclude prostate cancer. An increase of more than 0.75 nanogram/mL is an indication for referral and possible biopsy.

    • Anticholinergics

      • commonly propantheline bromide or amitriptyline, but penthienate bromide and oxybutynin can be tried if these fail

      • these drugs are not used for obstruction due to BPH, but rather for bladder instability (frequency, urgency) which may mimic or coexist with BPH.

      • these drugs should only be considered after a urodynamic assessment which confirms bladder instability and excludes significant obstruction

      • patients must be warned that the drugs can precipitate retention.

      • the dose is titrated against response to find the smallest dose which will provide adequate symptomatic relief

      • adverse effects include dry mouth, drowsiness and constipation and these medications should not be used in patients with glaucoma.
Term
Discuss testosterone measurement in male hypogonadism
Definition

 

  • remember that hypogonadism is a clinical diagnosis supported by biochemical markers, not the other way round

  • testosterone

    • of the total circulating testosterone, 60% is tightly bound to SHBG, 38% is loosely bound to albumin and only 2% is free. Bioavailable testosterone refers to albumin-bound and free testosterone

    • the initial diagnostic test in suspected androgen deficiency is measurement of fasting morning total testosterone in men with consistent symptoms and signs. Patients should be well or medically stable, without acute decompensation of any underlying comorbidity

    • as testosterone release is diurnal, with the highest levels in the early morning, blood samples should be taken close to 8am. Food intake can reduce total testosterone acutely by as much as 25%, explaining the importance of a fasting blood sample

    • there is marked variability in testosterone levels not only between individuals but also within an individual. Therefore, repeated measurements are necessary to confirm a low testosterone level and a diagnosis of hypogonadism should never be based on a single testosterone level.

    • there is no general agreement on the acceptable normal range of testosterone. Reference intervals also vary between laboratories because of differences in assay methods and/or reference population of men. In practice, if the total testosterone level is

      • 12 nmol/L or above, the patient is usually eugonadal and further testing is generally not required

      • less than 12 nmol/L (+ sxs / signs), a repeat measurement of fasting morning testosterone level is suggested. Levels of 8–12 nmol/L may be considered borderline and <8 nmol/L low. If a testosterone level is borderline, requesting measurement of free testosterone may be helpful because the levels of total testosterone can be affected by alterations in levels of SHBG and albumin. Men with obesity and diabetes commonly have a low SHBG and here a normal free testosterone can be reassuring that such men are not, in fact, hypogonadal.

    • in general, a repeatedly low testosterone level is more indicative of hypogonadism in younger, healthier and leaner men but more difficult to interpret in older obese men with chronic disease and non-specific symptoms
Term
Discuss the differential diagnoses of a monoarthropathy
Definition

Crystal arthropathy

  • Monosodium urate deposition disease, or gout, is one of the most common cause of an acute monoarthritis.

  • Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease, or pseudogout, can also present in such a manner.

  • Less commonly, calcium oxalate and apatite crystals can also present as a monoarthritis.

Septic arthritis

  • Gonococcal infection: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is an important cause of septic arthritis in sexually active adults. Other clinical findings may include tenosynovitis, a new rash and a history of urethral discharge.

  • Non-gonococcal bacterial infection: Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most common causes of non-gonococcal septic arthritis. This can occur in the context of recent skin infection, prosthetic joint, intravenous drug use, joint surgery and immunosuppression.

Osteoarthritis

  • Acute exacerbations with swelling can occur. Symptoms are generally mild, typically with non-inflammatory synovial fluid.

Monoarthritis as an initial presentation of a systemic rheumatic condition

 

  • Rheumatoid arthritis rarely presents as a monoarthritis.

  • Psoriatic arthritis, reactive arthritis and inflammatory arthropathy associated with inflammatory bowel disease are also known to cause monoarthritis, especially involving the lower extremity.
Term
What is the pathophysiology of Paget disease
Definition
histologically characterised by excessive bone resorption by osteoclasts and a compensatory but disorganised increase in bone formation by osteoblasts. Bone remodelling is increased and disorganised, with persistence of woven bone at pagetic sites, resulting in bone which is structurally impaired and prone to deformity and fracture
Term

commonly seen in typists, gymnasts and other sportspeople


Clinical

  • localised pain and tenderness, often severe, along the upper part of the medial scapular border, with radiation around the chest wall and shoulder girdle to the neck

  • pain is usually worse with prolonged shoulder use towards the end of the day

Definition

Scapulocostal Syndrome


Aetiology

  • friction between the scapula and thoracic wall plus myofascial strain

  • commonly seen in typists, gymnasts and other sportspeople

  • is related to poor posture


Clinical

  • localised pain and tenderness, often severe, along the upper part of the medial scapular border, with radiation around the chest wall and shoulder girdle to the neck

  • pain is usually worse with prolonged shoulder use towards the end of the day


Mx

 

  • avoid movements that produce the pain

  • posture and re-education exercises and scapula stretching

  • deep friction massage

Term
  • severe, frequently intermittent, often pleuritic pain begins suddenly in the epigastrium, abdomen, or lower anterior chest

  • may have fever, headache, sore throat, and malaise

  • the involved truncal muscles may become swollen and tender

  • symptoms usually subside in 2 to 4 days but may recur within a few days and persist or recur for several weeks


Definition

Bornholm Disease

Epidemic Pleurodynia


Etiology

  • may occur at any age but is most common among children


Aetiology

  • caused most commonly by a group B coxsackievirus


Clinical

  • severe, frequently intermittent, often pleuritic pain begins suddenly in the epigastrium, abdomen, or lower anterior chest

  • may have fever, headache, sore throat, and malaise

  • the involved truncal muscles may become swollen and tender

  • symptoms usually subside in 2 to 4 days but may recur within a few days and persist or recur for several weeks


Diagnosis

  • is not routinely necessary; it consists of detecting the virus in a throat or stool sample or, less commonly, demonstrating seroconversion


Treatment

 

  • symptom relief, including NSAIDs

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