Shared Flashcard Set

Details

Exam Questions
from old exams
563
Microbiology
Graduate
11/01/2010

Additional Microbiology Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term

 

 

Clostridium

chauvoei

Definition

 

 

 

Cause of blackleg in ruminants

Term

 

 

Haemophilus

paragallinarum

Definition

 

 

 

Cause of fowl coryza

Term

 

 

Haemophilus parasuis

Definition

 

 

 

Cause of Glasser's disease in swine

Term

 

 

Serosal surfaces and joints

(polyserositis)

Definition

 

 

 

What are the tissues/ organ systems involved in Glasser's disease?

Term

 

 

 

Clostridium

piliforme

Definition

 

 

 

Cause of enteritis in young rodents with focal hepatic necrosis, jaundice, and enterocolitis in older rodents

Term

 

 

 

Taylorella

equigenitalis

Definition

 

 

 

Cause of contagious equine metritis

Term

 

 

 

Bordetella

pertussis

Definition

 

 

 

Cause of whooping cough in humans

Term

 

 

 

Actinobacillus

lignieresii

Definition

 

 

 

Cause of wooden tongue in cattle

Term

 

 

 

Oral cavity and GI tract of

Ruminants

Definition

 

 

 

Natural habitat of the organism that causes wooden tongue

Term

 

 

 

Actinobacillus

pleuropneumoniae

Definition

 

 

 

Cause of contagious pleuropneumonia in swine

Term

 

 

 

Fusobacterium

necrophorum

Definition

 

 

 

Anaerobe commonly found in uterine infections of

dairy cattle

Term

 

 

 

Fusobacterium

necrophorum

Definition

 

 

 

Anaerobe commonly causing thrush in horses

(frog infection)

Term

 

 

 

Brachyspira

hyodysenteriae

Definition

 

 

 

Causes bloody dysentery in swine

Term

 

 

 

Campylobacter

jejuni

Definition

 

 

 

Common cause of infectious food poisoning associated with improperly handled poultry meat

Term

 

 

 

Brucella

melitensis

Definition

 

 

 

Most pathogenic Brucella species in humans

Term

 

 

 

Brucella

suis

Definition

 

 

 

Brucella species with the widest host range

Term

 

 

 

Lawsonia

intracellularis

Definition

 

 

 

cause of several manifestations of porcine proliferative enteropathy

Term

 

 

 

Ticks and cotton-tailed rabbits

Definition

 

 

 

Two common causes of Francisella tularensis transmission in humans

Term

 

 

 

Septic shock

(DIC and endotoxemia)

Definition

 

 

Major cause of death in individuals that develop fulminating infections of Neisseria meningiditus and N. gonorrhoeae

Term

 

 

 

Vibrio

cholerae

Definition

 

 

 

Cause of cholera in humans

Term

 

 

 

Brucella

abortus

Definition

 

 

 

Commonly involved in fistulous withers in horses

Term

 

 

 

Eradication in the US

Definition

 

 

 

Why is fistulous withers not seen as caused by Brucella abortus anymore?

Term

 

 

 

Abortion and hepatitis

Definition

 

 

 

Two most important clinical diseases of Leptospira interrogans in domestic animals

Term

 

 

 

Black disease

Definition

 

 

 

Disease primarily Clostridium novyi type B

Term

 

 

 

YAWS

Definition

 

 

 

Caused by Treponema pallidum subspecies partenue in humans

Term

 

 

 

Redwater disease

This is associated with Clostridium hemolyticum

Definition

 

 

 

Disease of cattle associated with damage by liver flukes

Term

 

 

 

Limberneck

Definition

 

 

 

Common disease of waterfowl caused by Clostridium botulinum

Term

 

 

Clostridium botulinum grows in sediment at the bottom of ponds because it is anerobic.  They eat veatation from the bottom of the pond and ingest it.

Definition

 

 

 

Where do waterfowl get the toxin that causes limberneck?

Term

 

 

 

Delayed calving, poor conception rates, and heifers keep coming into heat for 4-5 months before settling.

Definition

 

 

What is the predominant clinical presentation of Camplobacter fetus subspecies vernerealis when first introduced to a herd of cattle?

Term

 

 

 

A) the amount of Leukotoxin produced

B) Whether it is a biotype A organism

Definition

 

 

 

What determines whether Fusobacterium necophorum is able to survive within the liver and produce abscesses?

Term

 

 

The toxins bind to the target sites irreversibly and produce long-term inhibition of function, so treatment needs to be administered until regeneration occurs.

Definition

 

 

 

Why do treatments for tetanus and botulism need to be continued for several weeks to several months

Term

 

 

 

Bordetella bronchiseptica causes mild destruction of the nasal turbinates by releasing dermonecrotic toxin.  This allows for colonization with Pasteurella multocida, which has a toxin that causes turbinate atrophy.

Definition

 

 

 

What is the role of Bordetella bronchiseptica in atrophic rhinitis in swine?

Term

 

 

 

Chronic (4-6 wks), dry, non productive cough, vomiting

 

Cause: damaged tracheal ciliated epithelium

Definition

 

 

What is the clinical presentation of infectious canine tracheobronchitis?

Term

Pseudomembranous colitis in humans is E)both associated with antimicrobial therapy that destroys normal flora and predisposes the intestine for infection, and is caused by Clostridium difficile.

 

 

Although guinea pigs , rabbits and hamsters may get infected with C. difficile, the major Clostridial infection effecting LAB RODENTS is Clostridium piliformae.

Definition

Pseudomembranous colitis in humans:

 

A) commonly associated with antimicrobial therapy that destroys the normal intestinal flora

B) is caused by Clostridium difficile

C) is associated with lab rodents, cats and other species

D) All of the above are correct

E) only A and B are correct

Term

Leptospira interrogans is a UNIQUE bacterial pathogen because A) it can actively invade mucosal surfaces such as eyes, mouth, nose, genitalia, water-softened skin, wounds. It does so VERY AGGRESSIVELY and only needs a few seconds of contact to penetrate.


Leptospira interrogans DOES survive in ponds & streams.

It also IS SHED IN URINE, as most serovars can be naturally found in proximal convoluted tubule of kidneys.

It DOES NOT require an intermediate host, but MAY cause life threatening disease.

Definition

Leptospira interrogans is rather unique among bacterial pathogens because:

 

A) It can actively invade through mucosal surfaces

B) It survives in ponds and streams

C) It is transmitted in urine

D) It requires an intermediate host

E) It almost always causes life-threatening disease

Term

 

 

 

D) serological tests to detect antibody against toxin is LEAST effective in detecting organisms involved in Clostridium infections because the diseases are too acute to generate antibody

Definition

Which of the following would be least effective method for detecting organisms involved in Clostridium infections:


A) Gas- liquid chromatography of isolated bacteria

B) Anaerobic carbohydrate fermentation tests with isolated bacteria

C)Flourescent antibody test on affected tissues

D)Serological tests to detect antibody against toxin

E) Toxin detection tests

Term

Foot rot in sheep B) can be transmitted in sale barns by turning sheep into pens that recently held infected sheep. 

 

The organism can survive in a pen for a week or two.

Contagious foot rot in sheep is caused by Dichelobacter nodosus, Fusobacterium necrophorum is the primary invader that causes EPIDERMIS only.

It is most often seen in LUSH, DAMP pastures

It is also quick spread and hard to eliminate.

Definition

Foot Rot in sheep:

 

A) is easily eliminated from a flock

B) can be transmitted in sale barns by turning sheep into pens that recently were occupied by infected sheep

C) is more likely seen in dry seasons where cracking of the hoof causing predisposing lesions

D) is primarily caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum

E) none of the above

Term

Rusty nails are good at inducing tetanus because E) the rust reduced the Eh in the local area where sore are introduced, allowing spores to germinate AND are contaminated with facultative anaerobes that remove oxygen from the injury site

 


Definition

Rusty nails are good at inducing tetanus because:

 

A) the rust reduced Eh in the local area where sores are introduced, allowing spores to germinate

B) Rusty nails are contaminated with facultative anaerobes that remove oxygen from the injury site

C) The rust elicits a stronger inflammatory response allowing the toxin to be carried into the bloodstream faster

D) All of the above

E) Only A and B above

F) This is actually a myth

Term

Brucella abortus is true of E) none of the above.

 

Brucella species are susceptible to most chemical disinfectants.

B. abortus can cause disease in cattle, humans, SHEEP, GOATS, horses, boars, wild undulates and other animals.

It causes LATE TERM abortion in cattle.

It can cause EPIDIDYMITIS and ORCHITIS leading to sterility in BULLS.

Definition

Brucella abortus:

 

A) is resistant to many common disinfectants

B) only causes diseases in humans, cattle and horses

C) causes primarily an early term abortion in cattle

D) Does not cause significant disease in bulls

E) None of the above

Term

Reduction of nitrates in cured meats could lead to a higer incidence of C) Botulism

 

 

This is why nitrites are added to cured meats preserve them.

Meat transmission of Campylobacteriosis is often assocaited with the chilling process in poultry.

Vibrio parahaemolyticus infections are most often caused by shellfish.

Definition

 

Reduction of nitrates in cured meats could lead to a higher incidence of:

 

A) Campylobacteriosis

B) Vibrio parahaemolyticus infection

C) Botulism

D) All of the above

E) Only B and C

Term

 

Brucella suis is A) more likely to cause sterility than other Brucella spp.

 

Brucella suis is NOT eradicated, but not often found in the US, except FERAL swine.

Swine DO NOT produce a Humoral reponse, and are thus diagnosed by AGGLUTINATION test.

The DISEASE of Brucella is generalized and causes focal abscesses in organs, lamness, and sterility

 

Definition

Brucella suis:

 

A) is more likely to cause sterility than other Brucella sp

B) is commonly found in commercial swine in southern US

C) has been eradicated from the US

D) is easily detected by serologic testing

E) is localized to the reproductive tract

Term

 

Brucella canis is unique among the Brucella species because B) it is shed in urine and other excretions of male and female dogs

 

Brucella canis PRIMARILY causes disease in dogs, but can infect humans. Felines DO NOT serve as a reservoir host. 

Also it produces a PERSISTANT BACTEREMIA.

Definition

Brucella canis is unique among the Brucella species because:

 

A) it only causes diseases in dogs

B) it is shed in urine and other excretions of male and female dogs
C) is a reservoir host in domestic cats and felines

D) it is readily cleared by immune system to produce short term infections

E) All of the above

Term

 

The main receptors of the epsilon toxin of Clostridium perfringens type D are located E) in the vasculature of the brain causing neurological signs.

 

C. perfringens type D causes Enterotoxemia known as OVEREATING disease in sheep. 

It DOES cause Pulpy Kidney, but not main receptor site.

Definition

The main receptors of the epsilon toxin of Clostridium perfringens type D:

 

A) are in the kidneys causing "pulpy kidney" disease

B) are in the liver causing severe hepatitis
C) are in the neurons causing neurological signs

D) are in the small and large intestines causing severe enteritis

E) are in the vascular endothelium of the brain causing neurological signs

Term

 

 

 

FALSE

IgA is the protective antibody of the VAGINA, immobilizing the organism to prevent it from ascending the reproductive tract.

Definition

 

 

Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis is cleared from the uterus of cattle when specific IgA is produced thus preventing invasion of the endometrium

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE


Clostridium tetani DOES NOT ACTIVELY INVADE and multiply. The organism relys solely on toxin production at local tissue sites.

Definition

 

 

Clostridium tetani found in horse feces is more invasive and produces higher quantities of tetanospasmin.

 

True or False

Term

 

 

 

TRUE

Definition

 

 

Tetanus is frequently associated with improper use of elastrators in tail docking and castration

 

True or False

Term

 

 

FALSE


The Brucella abortus RB51 vaccine is infectious for humans (as well as the old strain 19 vaccine, which was infectious to the testes of bull calves)

Definition

 

 

Brucella abortus RB51 vaccine is not pathogenic for any species of animal

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

TRUE

Definition

 

Animals infected with Brucella abortus are infected for life unless early and aggressive antimicrobial therapy is administered.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

TRUE

 

SYMMETRICAL weakness to flaccid paralysis occurs following infection.  The epitopes of lipopolysaccharide of organism mimic host neural tissue, causes host to make anti-bodies against it own neurons.

Definition

 

Guillian-Barre syndrome is currently thought to be associated with auto-immune antibody stimulated by ganglioside-like epitopes produced by Campylobacter jejuni

 

True or False

Term

 

 

 

FALSE

 

Brucella melitensis is NOT found in the US, but is common in the Mediterranean, central Asia, Latin America, and Mexico. Primarily effects GOATS, but can be fatal in humans.

Definition

 

 

Brucella melitensis is widespread is US goat populations but exact prevalence figures are not known because there is no eradication program in place.

 

True or False

Term

 

 

 

FALSE

Brachyspira pilosicoli is an organism all by itself, causing porcine intestinal spirochetosis. 

Both of these organisms are in the Order Spirochaetale.

Definition

 


Brachyspira pilosicoli is an old name for Leptospira interrogans.

 

True or False

Term

 

 

 

TRUE

 

Pretty much the only thing Lyme, Connecticut has brought to us...

Definition

 

Lyme disease seems to be localized not only to specific regions of the US, but is also much more prevalent in specific sections of these regions.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

FALSE

 

There is no mentioned OspB in the reading material, and the OspA (a lipoprotein) vaccine is currently the better product, despite causing autoimmune reactions.

 

Im asking him about this and will update it...

Definition

 

 

OspA vaccines to prevent infection with Borrelia burgdorferi were recently replaced with vaccines containing OspB component

 

True or False

 

SORRY NEXT EXAM

Term

 

 

Enterotoxemia

Overeating disease

Pulpy liver disease

 

 

Definition

 

 

What is the name of the disease caused by Clostridium perfringens type D in sheep?

Term

 

 

 

Vibrio cholerae

Definition

 

It is the cause of severe diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps in humans. The diarrhea can result in tremendous fluid loss.

Term

 

 

 

 

THRUSH

Definition

 

What is the name of the frog infection cause by Fusobacterium necrophorum and other bacteria?

Term

 

 

 

 

TETANOSPASMIN

Definition

 

 

What is the name of the toxin that is produced by Clostridium tetani that produces clinical signs?

Term

 

 

 

 

Mannheimia haemolytica

Definition

 

 

What is the most important bacterial agent that is involved in respiratory disease of cattle and sheep in the US?

Term

 

 

 

 

Pasteurella multocida

Definition

 

 


What is the cause of Fowl Cholera?

Term

 

 

 

 

Lawsonia intracellularis

Definition

 

 

 

What is the cause of proliferative enteritis in swine and horses?

Term

 

 

 

 

Bordetella bronchiseptica

Definition

 

 

 

What is the organism that causes kennel cough in dogs?

Term

 

 

 

 

Mannheimia haemolytica

Definition

 

 

Which orgnaism produces an RTX toxin that is specific for ruminant leukocytes and platelets?

Term

 

 

 

 

Clostridium sordellii

Definition

 

 

Which organism is frequently involved in clostridial infections but does not cause a specific disease on its own?

Term

 

 

 

 

Clostridium novyii type D

Definition

 

 

 

Which organism causes severe and often fatal hemolytic anemia in cattle and is often associated with migration of larvae of liver flukes?

Term

 

 

 

 

Brucella canis

Definition

 

 

Which organism causes epididymitis and testicular atrophy in dogs? In the US is most common in large kennels.

Term

 

 

 

 

Actinobacillus equuli

Definition

 

 

Which organism causes shigellosis or equulosis in foals?

Term

 

 

 

Arcanobacterium pyogenes

& Fusobacterium necrophorum

Definition

 

 

What are two organisms that contribute to development of footrot in sheep but are not a cause of footrot in cattle?

Term

 

 

 

 

Clostridium colinum

Definition

 

 

What is the cause of ulcerative enteritis or "quail disease" in avain species?

Term

 

 

 

 

Clostridium difficile

Definition

 

 

What is the cause of mesocolonic edema resulting in diarrhea in neonatal pigs?

Term

 

 

 

Tyzzer's Disease

Definition

 

 

What is the name of the disease caused by Clostridium piliforme in laboratory rodents?

Term

 

 

 

Branhamella ovis

Definition

 

 

 

What is the Gram negative organism that is found in high numbers in bovine keratoconjunctivitis but is not the real cause of the disease?

Term

 

UV light

Dust

Trauma from long stemmy grass

Face flies

Mycoplasma bovoculi

 

Definition

 

 

What are 3 common predisposing factors in infectious bovine keratinoconjunctivitis?

Term

 

 

 

Septicemia

TEME (Throboembolic Meningioencephalitis)

Pneumonia

Definition

 

 

What are 2 MAJOR diseases caused by Haemophilus somnus in cattle?

Term

 

 

Feeder lambs are on a high energy grain ration (older ewes are not), this provides the necessary environment for Clostridium perfringens type D that produces epsilon toxin

Definition

 

 

Why do we only see enterotoxemia in feeder lambs and NOT in breeding-age ewes?

Term

 

 

 

 

TRUE

Definition

 

 

 

Pasteurella multocida capsular type A is most commonly seen as the cause of respiratory disease in mammals

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE

 

Pasteurella multocida capsular type A causes fowl cholera.  Birds are effected as an acute septicemia, not respiratory.

Definition

 

 

 

Pasteurella multocida capsular type A is most commonly seen as a cause of respiratory disease in birds

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

 

TRUE

Definition

 

 

Typical lesions of Tularemia in rabbits are small, necrotic granulomatous foci in liver, spleen, and lymph nodes.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE

 

The immune response to Fransciella tularensis cell mediated, making live attenuated vaccines the best prevention. The organism survive for a long time inside monocytes allowing for relapse.

Definition

 

 

Immunity to Tuleremia is primarily humoral and is readily generated in susceptible animals with immunization with killed bacterins

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

TRUE

 

The pneumonic form in humans is if the organism is inhaled.

The typhoidal form is if the organism is ingested.

Definition

 

 

 

Tuleremia in humans can occur in pneumonic and thyoidial forms

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

TRUE

 

Blackleg is caused by Clostridium chauvoei in ruminants, effecting the best of the herd (unusually fat rapid growing animals).  This lesion appears as black necrotic muscle with gas bubbles.

Definition

 

 

Blackleg usually effects cattle 6 months to 2 years of age but may effect older animals

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE

 

There is a vaccine of aluminum hydroxide-precipitated from formalinized cultures. 

Black leg is caused by Clostridium chauvoei

Definition

 

 

The most common method for protecting cattle against blackleg is to give tetracycline in the feed until they are beyond 2 years of age

 

True or False?

Term

 

TRUE

 

Clostridium novyi is normally present in low numbers in the liver, so would be an insignificant finding of liver culture.  The alpha is readily absorbed into the bloodstream and can be tested for in serum or tissue.

Black disease = infectious necrotic hepatitis

Definition

 

 

Diagnosis of Black Disease in sheep is dependent upon demonstrating the presence of alpha toxin of Clostridium novyi in effected tissues or serum.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

FALSE

 

In the US, it is only a problem in feral swine, but it occurs commonly in most swine-raising countries.

2004 question 39

Definition

 

 

 

Brucella suis is only a problem in feral swine in the US.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

TRUE


The other species are more localized:
Brucella abortus - placenta, epididymus (cattle), liver (humans)

Brucella canis - epididymus, testes

Definition

 

 

Brucella suis causes a more generalized infection than other species

 

True or Flase

Term

 

 

 

 

TRUE



Definition

 

 

Brucella suis is a problem in reindeer in Alaska

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE

 

Brucella maris is the proposed name of a Brucella species that has been isolated in marine mammals.

Include: B. pinnipediae and B. cetaceae

Definition

 

 

Brucella maris has been associated in a high number of infections in mares in the US.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE

 

Although Brucella abortus IS nearly eradicated in the US, calfhood vaccination (as well as blood testing, and culling of positive cattle) is part of the STATE-FEDERAL cooperative control program. 

The vaccine used is the LIVE RB51. 

Definition

 

 

With near eradication in the US it is not necessary to vaccinate calves against Brucella abortus.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE

 

The Ring Test is part of the STATE-FEDERAL COOPERATIVE CONTROL PROGRAM in the US, which requires each dairy herd to be tested 3 times per year.

Definition

 

 

With near eradication of Brucella abortus in the US, we no longer require the ring test on dairy herds.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE

 

Brucella melitensis causes the most signifcant disease in humans. Typically asymptomatic in the primary host of goats, it can often be FATAL in humans who have consumed unpasteurized milk.

Definition

 

 

Brucella abortus is the species of Brucella that causes the most significant disease in humans.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

 

TRUE

Definition

 

 

Brucella abortus can localize in the liver, lymph nodes and bone and remain in these sites for years.

 

True or False

Term

 

FALSE

 

Brucella melitensis is typically asymptomatic - mild in infected goats, but when infected, unpasteurized milk is consumed by humans it can be FATAL.

Definition

 

 

Brucella melitensis usually causes severe disease in infected goats.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

TRUE

 

The Strain 19 and the newer RB51 vaccine both cause infections of the testes and should not be administered to bull calves.

Definition

 

 

Bull calves are not vaccinated against Brucella abortus because it causes orchitis.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

 

TRUE

Definition

 

 

The strains of Dichelobacter nodosus that can cause ovine footrot are obligate parasites of the hooves of sheep and will not survive more than a few days in the environment, even under ideal conditions.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

 

FALSE**

Definition

 

 

The immune mediated response against Dichelobacter nodosus in ovine footrot is primarily cell mediated.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

Somatic antigens

Capsular antigens

Definition

 

 

The systems for typing Pasteurella multocida are based on what two antiges?

Term

 

 

 

Mannheimia haemolytica

Definition

 

 

Which organism causes the gangernous mastitis known as "Blue Bag" in sheep?

Term

 

 

 

 

Pasteurella multocida

Definition

 

 

What is the most common cause of chronic respiratory tract infections in commerical and laboratory rabbits?

Term

 

 

 

 

Bibersteinia trehalosi

Definition

 

 

What organism has been associated with severe respiratory disease in dairy cattle, especially in the Northwestern US, and septicemia in lambs?

Term

 

 

 

 

Campylobacter jejuni

Definition

 

 

 

What is the cause of severe enteritis in humans and late term abortion in sheep?

Term

 

 

 

 

Fusobacterium necrophorum

Definition

 

 

 

Which obligate anaerobe is often found in post-martem metritis of dairy cattle?

Term

 

 

 

 

FOWL CHOLERA

Definition

 

 

 

What is the name of the disease caused by Pasteurella multocida in chickens, turkeys, ducks and other birds?

Term

 

 

 

 

FOWL CORYZA

Definition

 

 

 

What is the common name for the disease caused by Haemophilus paragallinarum in chickens?

Term

 

 

 

 

Lawsonia intracellularis

Definition

 

 

What organism causes proliferative enteritis in foals?

Term

 

 

 

Vibrio cholerae

Definition

 

 

What organism causes disease pandemics initially asssociated with undercooked shellfish?

Term

 

 

 

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

Definition

 

 

Which halophilic organism causes moderate to severe enterocolitis in association with infected shellfish?

Term

 

 

 

 

EPSILON TOXIN

Definition

 

 

 

What is the primary toxin associated with enterotoxemia in feeder lambs?

Term

 

 

A - Abortus

M - Melitensis

R - Rough

Definition

 

 

What are the A, M, and R antigens of Brucella?

Term

 

 

 

This toxin has an A-B structure.

The A subunit enters the intestinal epithelial cell,

acts as a adenylate cyclase.

Definition

 

 

What is the mechanism of action in Cholera toxin?

Term

 

 

1) Too many fibrial types that would need to be included in vaccine.

 

2) Limited antibody is present in the area of lesions, until lesions are severe.

Definition

 

 

What are two reasons why the vaccine against ovine footrot has limited efficacy?

Term

C) Bibersteinia trehalosi produces a RTX toxin that is toxic SPECIFICALLY to ruminant leukocytes and platelets.

 

Fransciella tularensis - no mention of toxins

Clostridium septicum - produces 4 toxins, none described, but produce edema

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae - produces 3 RTX toxins but against SWINE

Histophilus somni - effects ruminants, mainly produces ENDOTOXIN

Definition

Which of the following organisms produces an RTX toxin that is toxic to ruminant leukocytes and platelets?

 

A) Fransciella tularensis

B) Clostridium septicum

C) Bibersteinia trehalosi

D) Actinobacillus pleuropneumonia

E) Histophilus somni

Term

The most common method for diagnosing Tuleremia is an E) Agglutination test on patient serum.

 

This organism is difficult to grow on isolation, and biochemical indentification is difficult and hazardous.

 

ALSO, fluorescent antibody test can be used to identify the organism itself.

Definition

What is the most common method for diagnosing Tularemia?

 

A) Culture of lymph node aspirate and blood, followed by biochemical idenification in the lab.

B) Observation of clinical signs and hostory of contact with ticks or rabbits.

C) Innoculation of guinea pig and observation of clinical signs

D) Response to specific therapy

E) Agglutination test on patient serum

Term

Actinobacter species C) are commonly resistant to available antibiotics.

 

Actinobacter species typically causes tissue infections, septicemia, enteritis, respiratory disease.

Not a disease of goats.

Definition

Actinobacter species:

 

A) Are some of the most common urinary tract pathogens

B) Are most commonly involved in meningitis in goats
C) Are commonly resistant to available antibiotics

D) All of the above
E) None of the above

Term

 

 

 

TRUE


Several sertypes are needed to cause disease in sheep and goats which includes septicemia in newbrons, pneumonia in adults, and mastitis (BLUE BAG) in sheep.

Definition

 

 

The disease caused by Mannheimia haemolytica in sheep and goats is caused by many serotypes of the organism.

 

True or Flase?

Term

 

 

 

FALSE

 

The habitat of Fransciella tularensis is within ticks and in wild rodents and rabbits that all act as reservoirs. 

Disease primarily occurs in rabbits and humans.

Definition

 

 

Fransciella tularensis is commonly found in the oropharynx of cats and is readily transferred in bit wounds.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE****

 

It is under control in the US, and is not found in the general population.  There are strict regulations on importing, and horses must have 2 negative tests.


Definition

 

 

Taylorella equigenitalis has been eradicated from the US but is present in many other countries that ship horses to the US.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE

 

Although this organism is isolated to the reproductive tract causing contagious equine metritis, vaginitis, cervicitis, and endometritis this organism DOES NOT CAUSE ABROTION.

Definition

 

 

Taylorella equigenitalis is a common cause of abortion in horses.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

TRUE

 

Bovine foot rot is caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum and this organism has miminal to no invasive capabilities but can enter and multiply in damaged tissues. Typical lesions have a FOUL ODOR.

Definition

 

 

Bovine footrot requires some sort of damage to the foot because the main causitive organism is not highly evasive.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE

 

Contagious Ovine Footrot, typically caused as by an injury + invasion of Fusobacterium necrophorum then infection with Dictelobacter nodosus, is a rapidly spreading disease.  The disease is both severe and difficult to eliminate and treat.

Definition

 

 

Ovine footrot tends to be a rather mild disease and is not a big problem in flocks that have it.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE

 

Calves vaccinated with RB51 are serologically negative for Brucella on standard testing, which includes the card test.

Definition

 

 

If the Card test for Brucella abortus is positive, it usually means the animals was vaccinated with RB51 when the animal was too old.

 

True or False?

Term

 

TRUE

 

Brucella abortus has been eliminated from almost all of the US

 

B. melitensis, B. ovis, canis and maris do not typically occur in cattle.

Definition

 

The incidence of Bovine Bruceolisis is very low in the US, but when it does occur Brucella suis is the most common agent involved.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

 

TRUE

Definition

 

A positive RSAT (rapid slide agglutination test) for canine brucellosis should be repeated id the dog's serum has been treated with a reducing agent to destroy cross-reactive IgM antibodies.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE

 

Brucella canis does NOT typically present with clinical signs.  In humans, there have been relatively rare and mild infections.

Definition

 

 

Most dogs infected with Brucella canis have no clinical signs of infection but infection in humans is commonly severe and fatal.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

TRUE

 

Brucella pinnipediae and Brucella cetaceae are lumped into the category Brucella maris and are the appearent cause of abortion in marine mammals.

Definition

 

 

The names Brucella pinnipediae and Brucella cetaceae have been proposed as the names for Brucella species found in marine mammals.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

FALSE


Campylobacter fetus subspecies fetus is best diagnosed by characteristic liver lesions, or smears from cotyledon and stomach contents.

Definition

 

Diagnosis of Campylobacter fetus subspecies fetus infection is best accomplished by direct examination of fetal membranes or detection of antibody in serum.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

FALSE


clearing of the uterus by IgA is a mechanism assocaited with Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis. IgG would be the antibody to clear the organism from the uterus and oviducts.

Definition

 

 

The role of IgA antibody in Campylobacter fetus subspecies fetus infection is to clear it from the uterus.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE


Campylobacter species are all transmitted from feces to oral, and are inhabitants of the intestinal tract.

This is except for C. fetus subspecies fetus which is spread venereally and lives in the genatalia.

Definition

 

 

Campylobacter species are almost always transmitted venereally.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

TRUE *** i copied down false 2003

 

The cytotoxin of Maxorella bovis/bovoculi is an RTX toxin that lyse corneal epithelial cells and neutrophils.  Extensive ocular damage is caused by the neutrophilic degrading enzymes being released.

Definition

 

 

The cytotoxin of Maxorella bovis/Maxorella bovoculi is a cytotoxin that lyses corneal epithelial cells and neutrophils.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

CAUSE: Clostridium septicum


HOST: cattle, horses, humans and others

Definition

 

 

 

What is the most common cause and host of MALIGNANT EDEMA?

 

 

Term

 

 

 

 

Clostridium perfringens type A

Definition

 

 

 

What is the cause of Hemorrhagic bowel syndrome in adult dairy cattle?

Term

 

 

 

 

MILD ENTERITIS

Definition

 

 

 

What major lesion caused by Clostridium perfringens type A in PIGS?

Term

 

 

 

 

Clostridium perfringens type C

Definition

 

 

What causes enterotoxemia in pigs?

Term

 

 

 

 

Clostridium novyi type B

Host: Sheep

Definition

 

 

What organism causes Black disease, and what is the primary host?

Term

 

 

HOST: Primarily CATTLE

 

DISEASE: EARLY embryonic death and infertility

Definition

 

 

 

What species does Campylobacter fetus subspecies verenealis commonly effect, and what are the typical lesions seen?

Term

 

 

 

 

Clostridium botulinum

Definition

 

 

 

 

What causes FLACCID PARALYSIS in WATERFOWL?

Term

 

 

 

 

Fusobacterium necrophorum

Definition

 

 

What organism causes THRUSH in HORSES?

Term

 

 

 

 

Clostridium difficile

Definition

 

 

 

 

What organism causes MESOCOLONIC EDEMA in SWINE?

Term

 

 

 

 

Dichelobacter nodosus

Definition

 

 

 

 

What organism causes foot rot in sheep?

Term

 

 

 

 

Brucella melitensis

Definition

 

 

 

 

What organism causes brucellosis in goats?

Term

 

 

 

 

Bordetella pertussis


HOST: HUMANS

Definition

 

 

What causes the disease PERTUSSIS and what species is effected?

Term

 

 

 

 

Bordetella avium

Definition

 

 

 

What causes Rhinotracheitis in turkey poults?

Term

 

 

 

 

Fransciella tularensis biovar tularensis

Definition

 

 

 

What causes Tuleremia in cottontail rabbits?

Term

 

 

 

Lesions/Diseases: QUAIL'S DISEASE, ulcerative colitis

 

HOST: Quails, many other bird species

Definition

 

 

 

 

What lesions or diseases are caused by Clostridium colinum and what host(s) are effected ?

Term

 Normal flora of bovine UPPER respiratory tract + Stress → entry to LOWER respiratory tract → pneumonia

→ enters monocytes → carried to bloodstream

→ joints, pericardium (SEPTICEMIA)

 

= Endotoxin → apoptosis vascular endothelium → TEME

= Fc receptor protein → release of GMP, adenine, guanine → inhibited phagosome/lysosome function → inhibited host immune function

Definition

 

 

 

What is the pathogenesis of Haemophilus somni?

Term

 

 

Spread via water → infects trachea of turkey poults →

damage to cilliated epithelium → secondary invaders enter respiratory tract (E. coli) → toxins and virulence factors released like Histamine sensitizing factor

Definition

 

 

 

 

What is the pathogenesis of BORDETELLOSIS in TURKEY POULTS?

Term

 

 

 

The PRIMARY HOST is YOUNG HUMANS,

and older vaccines were composed of type B polysaccharide antigen, that humans less than 2-3 yo could not build an immune response against.

Definition

 

 

 

Why do older versions of the Haemophilus influenza

type B vaccine fail to be useful in protecting the primary age group effected by this organism?

Term

 

 

The most common source of botulinum toxin in horses comes from small animals being baled in hay.

 

The organism is in the normal intestinal flora and is released with decay, toxins are produced, and consumed by the horse.

Definition

 

 

 

What is the common source of Botulinum toxin in horses?

Term

 

 

Clostridium difficile

 

This organism is associated with enteric infections of primarily horses and humans as a result of notmal flora destruction by antimicrobial therapy.

Definition

 

 

 

What is a Clostridium organism that causes enteric infections subsequent to antimicrobial therapy?

Term

 

 

 

Bordetella bronchiseptica

 

This can be transmitted between cats and dogs in the same household, and vaccinations are recommended in shelters, kennels and catteries.

Definition

 

 

 

What organism causes rhinitis, tracheobronchitis, and sometimes pneumonia in cats (most likely associated with a viral agent)?

Term

 

 

Clostridium colinum

 

Causing Quail disease or ulcerative enteritis that is transmitted orally.

Definition

 

 

 

Which organism causes ulcerative enteritis in the lower 1/3 of intestines in a variety of wild and domestic birds?

Term

 

 

 

Brucella ovis

Definition

 

 

 

What is the cause of contagious epididymitis in rams, and abortion and fertility in ewes?

Term

 

 

 

Campylobacter jejuni

Definition

 

 

 

What organism causes abortion in sheep and enteritis in humans?

Term

 

 

Actinobacillus lignieresii

 

Causes WOODEN TONGUE in cattle, occurs primarily in soft tissue and causes granulomatous abscesses and granules of the bacteria are found in these as causes by their cementing gylcocalyx.

Definition

 

 

What facultative anaerobic organism that causes granulomatous, tumor-like lesions in the head and neck area of cattle?

Term

 

 

 

Haemophilus paragallinarum

 

The cause of FOWL CHORYZA in chickens

Definition

 

 

What organism causes acute inflammation of the nasal turbinates, acute air sacculitis, swelling of the head and wattles, decreased food intake and marked loss in egg production in egg-laying hens?

Term

 

 

Taylorella equigenitalis

 

Very difficult to culture, and will only make pinpoint colonies.  Spread venereally, and causes CONTAGIOUS EQUINE METRITIS.

Definition

 

 

 

Which difficult to culture organism that is venereally but which has been virtually eradicated from the US horse population?

Term

 

 

Bordetella pertussis

 

Obligate anaerobe causing WHOOPING COUGH in humans

Definition

 

 

 

Which organism causes tracheobronchitis and chronic paroxysmal coughing and toxemia in humans?  It is most damaging to infants under 1 year of age.

Term

 

 

Clostridium septicum

 

Causes disease in various species that includes pitted edema which results in malignant edema.  This is primarily assocaited with wound invasion, and can be a secondary agent in blackleg.

Definition

 

 

 

What organism causes pitted edema and occasionally infects wounds?

Term

 

 

 

Clostridium piliformae

 

This organism causes hepatic necrosis and enteritis in laboratory rodents called TYZZER's DISEASE.  This occurs primarily in younger, stressed animals.


Definition

 

 

 

Which organism causes enteritis and focal hepatic necrosis in laboratory rodents?

Term

 

 

GUILLIAN - BARRE syndrome


This often symmetrical paralysis is associated with infection with Campylobacter jejuni. The ganglioside-like epitopes of endotoxin that mimic host neural tissue. This causes an autoimmune response against neurons. 

Definition

 

 

 

What is the name of the syndrome involving flaccid paralysis subsuquent to infection with Campylobacter jejuni.

Term

 

 

Haemophilus influenza and Neisseria menigiditis

 

Neisseria is the PRIMARY cause of human meningitis, effect adults

Haemophilus is the leading cause of INFANT bacterial meningitis

Definition

 

 

 

What are the two main causes of bacterial meningitis in humans?

Term

 

 

Clostridium novyi Type B and Clostridium haemolyticum (novyi Type D)

Definition

 

 

 

What are two organisms that cause disease in ruminants that is assocaited with swampy areas and liver fluke migration?

Term

 

 

 

 

Fransciella tularensis

Definition

 

 

Which organism usually enters via a wound, tick bite or conjunctiva of humans? It spreads through the regional lymph nodes to the spleen, liver, bone marrow, and lymhoid tissue, forming granulomatous nodules that tend to ulcerate.

Term

 

 

 

Clostridium botulinum

The main cause of forage poisoning in horses - specifically from baled up animals decomposing and releasing C. botulinum from intestines.

Definition

 

 

 

 

What is the cause of forage poisoning in horses?

Term

 

 

 

Brucella canis

 

Dogs often have NO clinical signs, and may present with generalized lymphadenitis, splenitis, embryonic death and UNILATERAL testicular atrophy

Definition

 

 

 

What is a cause of persistant bacteremia, epididymitis, and testicular atrophy in dogs?

Term

 

 

 

 

NAD

Definition

 

 

What is the substance that is supplied to some Haemophilus species by a Staphylococcus nurse colony?

Term

 

 

 

 

RB51 vaccine

Definition

 

 

 

What vaccine is currently used to prevent brucellosis in cattle?

Term

Clostridium perfringens Type D

EPSILON TOXIN

 

Causes "overeating disease/ pulpy kidney disease" in sheep (enterotoxemia)

The Spsilon toxin is activated by cleavage of prototoxin by trypsin, and has permease activity to enahnce its absorption.  There are receptors in vascular endothelium of brain which causes liquefactive necrosis, edema and hemorrhage

Definition

 

 

 

Which clostridial toxin produces liquefactive necrosis, edema and hemorrhage in the brains of sheep?

Term

 

 

LEUKOTOXIN

 

This toxin is potent against neutrophils, macrophages, and hepatocytes by inducing apoptosis at low concentrations, and lyses them at higher concentrations.

Definition

 

 

 

What is the major toxin in infections with Fusobacterium necrophorum?

Term

 

 

 

Brucella melitensis

 

In prevalent in Mexico, often associated with consumption of unpasteurized milk, causing severe disease to fatality.

Although Brucella abortus also effects humans by causing uldulant fever, but is less severe.


Definition

 

 

 

What is the most pathogenic species of Brucella for humans?

Term

 

 

 

 

Brucella abortus

 

It also is the primary cause of abortion in cattle.

Definition

 

 

 

 

What is the cause of undulant fever in humans?

Term

 

 

 

RING TEST

This is used to detect immunoglobulins in milk and is run 3 times a year on dairy herds as part of State-Federal cooperative control program in the US.

Definition

 

 

 

What is the test that is used to screen milk samples for Brucella abortus in infected cows?

Term

 

 

It is difficult to ISOLATE, easy to grow on culture.

Also the clinical presentation is very characteristic of Fusobacterium necrophorum.

Definition

 

 

 

Why do we NOT routinely preform bacterial cultures for Fusobacterium necrophorum?

Term

 

 

 

Fowl cholera (acute septicemia) - Capsular type A  - birds

Cat and Dog bite wounds - Type D - Cats and dogs

Hemorrhagic septicemia - B&E - bison, cattle, water buffalo

Definition

 

 

 

What are the three diseases in which Pasteurella multocida is NOT a primary respiratory tract antigen? What are the capsular types and hosts involved?

Term

 

The leukotoxin of Mannheimia haemolytica is toxic for ruminant leukocytes and platelets.

In low concentrations it causes inhibiton of leukocytes.

In high concentrations it causes lysis of leukocytes and releases hydrolytic enzymes from neutrophils.

Definition

 

 

 

By what mechanism does the leukotoxin of Mannheimia haemolytica causes a marked inflammatory reaction in pulmonary tissues?

Term
Definition

 

 

Why are some clostridial immunizing products toxoids and some formalinized whole cells?

 

Term

DESCENDING TETANUS


Wound → organism enters as SPORE → germination of spores → production of tetanospasmin →

absorption into BLOOD AND LYMPH →

acts as protease & blocks neurotransmittor release →

 first nerves effected are those most sensitive of the head and neck @ level of spinal cord / brain stem →

LOCKJAW → respiratory muscles then effected

Definition

 

 

 

 

What is the pathogenesis of descending tetanus?

Term

POLYVALENT ANTITOXIN

Clostridium botulinum has many types of toxins.

To produce an antitoxin that is inclusive of all toxin strains → hyperimmunize a horse with toxoids of all the main types of toxins

Then TITER to make sure you have adequate serum antibody against ALL toxins

Then COMBINE different antibodies to produce a POLYVALENT antitoxin

 

Definition

 

 

 

How is a Clostridium botulinum polyvalent antitoxin generated?

Term

 

 

TRUE

 

Calves do not maintain infections, but adults (both male and female) carry the organism for life.  Cows can shed the organism post partuition.

Definition

 

 

 

 

Young calves do not usually maintain infection with Brucella abortus.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

TRUE

Definition

 

 

 

In the US, brucellosis in cattle is now more commonly caused by Brucella suis than by Brucella abortus.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE

 

It causes coryza in turkey poults, which is a rhinotracheoitis.

Kennel cough is associated with Bordetella bronchiseptica infections in dogs that causes a tracheobronchitis.

Definition

 

 

Bordetella avium causes "kennel cough" in turkeys.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE

 

It is most often seen during periods of wet weather and is associated with transportation. Infection typically occurs 2-4 weeks after shipment.

Definition

 

 

Thromboembolitic meningioencephalitis (TEME) in feedlot cattle is usually seen in the spring and summer and is associated with a change in diet.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

TRUE

 

Both Mannheimia haemolytica and Bibersteinia trehalosi produce a similar RTX class leukotoxin (pore forming cytolysin) the is specifially toxic for ruminant leukocytes and platelets.

In low concentrations it inhibits function.

In high concentrations it lyses cells.

Definition

 

 

Essentially all serotypes of Mannheimia haemolytica and Bibersteinia trehalosi produce the same leukotoxin.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE

 

PIGS are NOT effected by Bibersteinia trehalosi  because the leukotoxin is specific for ruminant leukocytes and platelets ONLY>

Definition

 

 

Cattle, sheep, goats and pigs are the major domestic animal species effected by Bibersteinia trehalosi.

 

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE

 

It can also cause septicemia in feeder lambs, where entry is gained via esophagus.

Definition

 

 

Bibersteinia trehalosi causes only respiratory disease in domestic animals. 

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

 

TRUE

Definition

 

 

 

Mannheimia haemolytica type A2 is commonly found in the upper respiratory tract and tonsils of normal cattle.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

TRUE

 

Most adult cattle haev antibody to Fusobacterium necrophorum

Definition

 

 

 

Most cattle sent to slaughter in the US have antibody against the organism that causes foot rot in cattle.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

TRUE

 

Most adult cattle have antibody to Fusobacterium necrophorum, although a vaccine is available to limit liver abscesses. 

Definition

 

 

Most feeder cattle going to slaughter in the US have antibody to the organism that causes liver abscesses.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

TRUE

 

Actinobacillus equuli is often found in the joints of foals causing the lamness associated with Sleep foal syndrome. Other lesions include purulent nephritis and kidney abscesses. 

Definition

 

 

Actinobacillus equuli frequently infects leg joints of foals with "sleepy foal syndrome".

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

 

TRUE

Definition

 

 

Vaccinations in mares has been shown to be of benefit in preventing sleepy foal syndrome but treatment of foals with hyperimmune antisera is not effective.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

TRUE

 

It is also a disease of high health status swine, and the disease is more severe in older pigs.

Definition

 

 

Clinical disease caused by Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae are usually most severe in endemically infected herds of swine.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

FALSE

 

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae causes exudative and proliferative bronchopneumonia with fibrinous pleuritis.

Haemophilus parasuis causes polyserositis, arthritis and meningitis.

Definition

 

 

The clinical disease and lesions caused by Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae are almost indistinguishable from those caused by Haemophilus parasuis.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

FALSE 

 

The causative agent is Haemophilus paragallinarum.  Treatment is not usually preformed and control is maintained by depopulation. 

Definition

 

 

The best control mechanism for fowl coryza is to maintain the birds on therapeutic level of tetracycline in their rations for at least 3 weeks and then closely monitor their health for a month after.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

FALSE

 

 

SHEEP - Campylobacter jejuni

CATTLE - Brucella abortus, Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis and fetus


Definition

 

 

Histophilus somni is a major causative agent in abortion of cattle and sheep in the US.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

TRUE

 

Endotoxin is the major toxin, and the O-Ag side chain (LOS) lacks complexity, which induces apoptosis of endothelial cells.

Definition

 

 

 

Endotoxin is thought to be the major toxin of Histophilus somni involved in disease production.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

TRUE

Definition

 

 

 

Systemic infections with Histophilus somni in feedlot cattle usually occur 2 -4 weeks after shipment and are more common in cold, wet weather.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

FALSE

 

Contagious equine metritis is caused by Taylorella equigenitalis. Immunity of mares to this is poor and they often relapse.

Definition

 

 

The immune system response to contagious equine metritis is relatively good and mares and stallions will usually clear the infection in 3-4 weeks.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

TRUE

 

Both species are not invasive under normal circumstances.  Occurs in cattle especialyl in summer and fall, predispoing factors include dust, UV light,  and face flies.

Definition

 

 

 

Maxorella bovis and Maxorella bovoculi are not considered to be very invasive species under normal circumstances.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

FALSE

 

Fransciella tularensis biovar palaeartica is typically found in Russia and is known as the "beaver strain". The most prevalent strain in the US is biovar tularensis

Definition

 

 

 

Most of the cases of tuleremia in the US are cause by biovar palaeartica.

 

True or False?

 

Term

 

 

 

FALSE

 

ONLY RTX class cytolytic toxins form pores in target cell membranes.


Definition

 

 

Essentially all cytolytic toxins act by forming pores in target cell membranes.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

 

FALSE

Definition

 

 

Equine manure should not be used to fertilize gardens because it markedly increases the chances of the gardener getting tetanus.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

TRUE

 

subspecies necrophorum is more virulent to cattle, and produces higher amounts of leukotoxin.

Definition

 

 

Fusobacterium necrophorum subspecies funduliforme is more important in human disease than in diseases of domestic animals.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

FALSE

 

Campylobacter jejuni is the cause of sheep abortions, and cannot be prevented using antibiotics in feed.

Definition

 

 

 

Campylobacter abortions can easily be prevented by placing ewes on feed grade antibiotics beginning 6 weeks prior to lambing.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

TRUE

Definition

 

 

Campylobacter abortions in sheep can at least partly be prevented by vaccinating ewes during the early part of gestation.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

FALSE

 

It only seems to produce disease in humans, resulting in enteritis.  It is carried in the intestinal tract of pigs, but doesnt seem to produce disease in them.

Definition

 

 

 

Campylobacter coli is a relatively common cause of disease in both domestic animals and humans.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

TRUE/FALSE

According to our notes - it is transmitted from pig intestinal flora to humans. But th eexam exam from 2006 (#61) claims that this is false.

Definition

 

 

Campylobacter coli is thought to be transmitted to humans through normal intestinal flora of pigs.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

 

TRUE

 

Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis can be spread through semen.

Definition

 

 

It is important to identify the species of any Campylobacter species found in the semen of bulls bound for export.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

TRUE

 

Brucella abortus can cause sterility but as sequelae to epididymitis and orchitis.


Definition

 

 

Brucella suis is more likely to cause sterility in swine than any other Brucella species in their main hosts.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

 

TRUE

 

These are both under the grouping of Brucella maris

Definition

 

 

Brucella pinnipediae and Brucella cetaceae are proposed names of organisms that cause abortions in marine mammals.

 

True or False?

Term

E) HAEMOPHILUS PARASUIS does not have an RTX class cytotoxin

 

Maxorella bovis  has a RTX cytotoxin that lyses corneal epithelial cells and neutrophils

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae has 3 RTX toxins

Mannheimia haemolytica has a leukotoxin against ruminant leukocytes and platelets.

Actinobacillus suis has Apx1 and Apx2 RTX cytotoxins

Definition

Which of the following organisms does NOT have an RTX toxin that is important in disease production?

 

A) Maxorella bovis

B) Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

C) Mannheimia haemolytica

D) Actinobacillus suis

E) Haemophilus parasuis

Term

 

Clostridium perfringens type A does NOT cause

A) Malignant edema.

Malignant edema is caused by Clostridium septicum.

Definition

Which of the following is NOT caused by or associated with Clostridium perfringens type A?

 

A) Malignant edema

B) Yellow lamb disease

C) Enteritis in neonatal pigs

D) Gangrene in humans

E) Hemorrhagic bowel syndrome in some diary cattle

Term

When isolating Bordetella bronchiseptica it is best to use MacConkeys agar with 1% dextrose because A) it is one fo the few organisms that grows on MacConkeys and does NOT ferment dextrose or lactose.


Definition

MacConkey's agar with 1% dextrose is useful in isolating Bordetella bronchiseptica from nasal swabs because:


A) It is one of the few organisms that grow on MacConkeys and does NOt ferment dextrose or lactose

B) It is one of the few organisms in the nasal passage of pigs that grows on MacConkeys

C) It produces a green colony that is characteristic of this organism

D) All of the above

E) None of the above

Term

Turkey poults can be partially protected against rhinotracheitis (coryza) by D) All of the Above.

 

The cause of of turkeu poult coryza is Bordetella avium and it is routinely protected against by:

 

Maternal immunization in breeder hens

Antibiotics to newly hatched poults

Chlorination and sanitation of water

 

Definition

Turkey poults can be partially protected against rhinotracheitis (coryza) by:

 

A) Vaccinating the breeder hen turkeys so that antibody is passed to the egg.

B) Injecting all poults shortly after hatching

C) Keeping the water fountains cleared out and the water adequately cholrinated

D) All of the above

E) None of the above

Term

Pink eye vaccines in cattle protect by E) None of the above

 

Pink eye is caused Moraxella bovoculi/bovis and the antibody response in tears (which would be IgA) is not highly protective.

Vaccines against Moraxella bovoculi/bovis are fimbrial, and only reduce severity of disease.

Definition

In order to properly protect cattle, pink eye vaccines:

 

A) Need to stimulate IgM antibody production against multiple fimbrial strains

B) Need to stimulate IgA antibody production against the Ag-O antigen of M. bovis

C) Need to stimulate IgG antibody production against the cytotoxin/hemolysin

D) All of the above

E) None of the above

Term

Brucella species should be rerun after serum is treated with reducing agent because

C) the reducing agent breaks up non-specific IgM that could have been formed against other bacterial antigens similar to Brucella.

 

Definition

Serologic test for some Brucella species have to be rerun after treating an animals serum with a reducing agent because:

A) The reducing agent clarifies the serum so test result can be seen

B) The reducing agent breaks up non-specific IgG that could have formed against other bacterial antigens that are similar to those found in Brucella species

C) The reducing agent breaks up non-specific IgM that could have been formed against other bacterial antigens that are similar to those found in Brucella species

D) All of the above          E) None of the above

Term

Contagious foot rot in sheep is A) most common during wet season

 

Chances of Contagious foot rot in sheep in increased during periods of extended wet weather. 

The causing bacteria Dichtelobacter nodosus is difficult to eliminate from a flock involving;

Putting sheep on clean pasture, paring away necrotic areas, foot bath (which cannot be easy with sheep..), and topical sprays.

Definition

Contagious foot rot in sheep:

 

A) is most common during wet season

B) Is most common in arid areas where sheep have to forage over large distances and are more prone to foot trauma.

C) Can be easily eradicated from a flock of sheep with a single, relatively simple foot bath

D) Only A and C above

E) Only B and C above

Term

Treatment of Brucella canis is not recommended because A) it is difficult to completely clear and they remain carriers for life.

 

Euthanization is recommended for positive animals, and can be placed on antibiotics but owners should be warned that even long term antibiotics have equivocal results.

Definition

Treatment of dogs infected with Brucella canis is not usually recommended because:


A) It is difficult to completely clear the organism from the dogs and they ferquently remain carriers for life.

B) The organism is resistant to most antibiotics

C) The dogs are usually very debilitated due to the infection and do not respond well to treatment.

D) The dog can develop neurological signs following development of brain lesions and can become aggressive

E) Only A and C above

Term

 

 

 

Legionella pneumophila

Definition

 

 

 

What is the causative agent of Legionaire's disease?

Term

 

 

 

 

Actinobacillus suis

Definition

 

 

 

What is the cause of acute, fatal septicemia in 1-8 week old piglets, and pneumonia, arthritis and subcutaneous abscesses in older swine?

Term

 

Calf Diptheria


Foot Rot


Liver Abscesses


Metritis

Definition

 

 

 

What diseases of CATTLE are caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum?

Term

 

 

Clostridium botulinum

 

Most often from small mammals getting baled into hay, as natural flora of intestines it thrives when the animal deteriorates then horses comsume the infective hay.


Definition

 

 

 

What organism causes forage poisoning in horses?

Term

 

 

Clostridium perfringens type A

Definition

 

 

What is the cause of Yellow Lamb Disease?

Term

 

 

Clostridium perfringens type A

Definition

 

 

What Clostridial organism has been recently associated with mild diarrhea syndrome in piglets 1-30 days of age?

Term

 

 

Clostridium difficle

Definition

 

 

What is the cause of mesocolonic edema in pigs 1-7 days of age?

Term

 

 

ENTEROTOXEMIA

 

Overeating disease

 

Pulpy kidney disease

Definition

 

 

What disease in sheep is caused by Clostridium perfringens type D?

Term

 

 

Clostridium chauvoei

 

Which causes BLACKLEG the term associated with the gas producing necrotic lesions.

Definition

 

 

What is the cause of large necrotic lesions of cattle that are characterized by large amounts of gas?

Term

 

Clostridium hemolyticum

 

This disease is termed REDWATER DISEASE or Bacillary Hemoglobinuria, because of the blood in urine.

Disease assocaited with swampy areas and liver fluke migration.

Definition

 

What organism produces a toxin that causes massive intravascular hemolysis and capillary damage resulting in high mortality of cattle?

Term

 

 

Brucella suis

 

Can also effect other species such as humans, dogs, horses, rodents, and more.

Although only a problem in the US among feral swine, it is still found in most-swine raising countries.

Definition

 

What is the species of Brucella that is of major concern in feral swine and reindeer?

Term

 

 

 

Campylobacter jejuni

Most associated with undercooked or mishandled poultry, and can spread through the chilling step of poultry processing.

Definition

 

 

What is the number one cause of food borne bacterial disease in the world?

Term

 

 

 

BRUCELLA MILK RING TEST

 

Used to detect immunoglobulinin milk from a bulk tank, as part of the State-Federal cooperation control program in the US.

Definition

 

 

What is the test that is run to detect Brucella antibodies on Diary herds three times a year as regulated in the US?

Term

 

Brucella canis

 

Lacking A and M antigens. This organism causes generalized disease in dogs, often showing no clinical signs.  Few cases have been seen in human lab workers.

Definition

 

 

What organism is associated with large puppy mills in the US and is of major concern because it causes infections in humans?

Term

 

 

CELL SURFACE ANTIGENS

and

LEUKOTOXIN

Both components are needed to produce an adequate immunizing agent, because Leukotoxin alone failed to provide protection.

Definition

 

 

What are the two most important components of Mannheimia haemolytica that are targeted to produce an effective immunizing agent?

Term

 

Haemophilus paragallinarum


Occurs in CHICKENS causing acute inflammation of turbinates, acute air sacculitis, sneezing, conjunctivitis, swelling of head and wattles, decreased food intake and marked loss of egg production!

When this occurs in turkey poults it is caused by Bordetella avium.

Definition

 

 

What is the cause of FOWL CORYZA?

Term

 

 

Pasteurella multocida type A

 

This is one of the few NON respiratory diseases associated with Pasteurella multocida.

Definition

 

 

What is the cause of FOWL CHOLERA?

Term

 

 

Bordetella avium

Definition

 

 

What is the cause of Turkey CORYZA (rhinotracheitis)?

Term

 

TEME

PNEUMONIA

SEPTICEMIA

Lameness


Definition

 

 

What are three common disease manifestations of Histophilus somni infections in cattle?

Term

CONTAGIOUS EQUINE METRITIS

 

DOES NOT CAUSE ABORTION

Definition

 

 

What is the name of the disease caused by Taylorella equigenitalis?

Term

 

VENEREAL

 

Spreads the disease of Contagious Equine Metritis,

DOES NOT CAUSE ABORTION.

Definition

 

 

What is the route of transmission of Taylorella equigenitalis?

Term

 

Fransciella tularensis

Definition

 

What is the cause of rabbit fever?

Term

 

Pasteurella multocida type A

Causes "snuffles", a respiratory tract infection that can lead to pneumonia, septicemia, and death.

Bordetella bronchiseptica

Causes upper respiratory disease


Definition

 

What are two gram negative rods that commonly cause respiratory disease in domestic rabbits?

Term

IN CATTLE

Pasteurella multocida type A: is a component of shipping fever, can cause abscesses in lungs,

 

Pasteurella multocida type B & E: causes hemorrhagic septicemia and can effect water buffalo, reindeer, elk and bison

Definition

 

What is the difference in disease production in cattle in Pasteurella multocida type A versus type B & E?

Term

 

 

 

Chronic joint infections

Arthritis

Definition

 

In Pasteurella multocida type A infections in poultry, there is a high rate of mortality, but in those that survive what is the common sequellae?

Term

 

 

NASOPHARYNGEAL

Can be found in the nasopharynx in normal swine, is highly contagious and spread through aerosol and contact.


Definition

 

What is the common route of infection with Haemophilus parasuis in swine?

Term

 

The tetanspasmin (toxin) is produced locally at the site of infection and travels through the bloodstream and lymph.

This process referred to as descending tetanus.

At the level of the brain stem and spinal cord, tetanospasmin effects the most sensitive nerves first - -

which are those of the head and neck.

Lesions seen first are lockjaw, followed by respiratory problems.

Definition

 

Why would clinical signs begin in the head and neck if there is a local lesion like a nail puncture?

Term

 

It is difficult to diagnose Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis because it is present in contaminated environment and it is hard to find viable organisms among them. It is also biochemically inert.

 

For diagnosis we rely on clinical signs of poor conception rates in replacement animals.

OR direct smear of fetal membranes.

Definition

 

Why is it difficult for laboratories to diagnose Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis?

What do we rely on for diagnosis?

Term

 


SEVERE DEHYDRATION

 

Cholera toxin gets into cells and causes excessive cAMP production which stimulates fluid loss. Fluid replacement is the key to recovery.

Definition

 

What is the major cause of mortality in individuals infected with Vibrio cholerae?

Term

 

Antitoxin is a antibody to the toxin produced.

This is made by hyper immunizing a horse with toxoid and using the serum containing this toxin antibodies.

Definition

 

What is antitoxin, as it is given to humans and horses to treat and prevent tetanus, and how is it produced?

Term

 

Initial infection from Bordetella bronchiseptica, destroys nasal mucosa and predisposes the nasal cavity to colonization of Pasteurella multocida type D.

 

The Pasteurella causes dermonecrotic toxin increases the osteoclastic activity and decreases new bone formation.  This causes turbinate atrophy.

Definition

 

 

What is the sequential pathogenesis and organisms involved in the developemnt of atrophic rhinitis in swine?

Term

 

IgA in the serum can bind to Neisseria meningiditis and block IgG and IgM from binding.

Since IgA cannot opsonsize, so it does nothing to kill the bacteria which allows it to multiply and produce septicemia.

Definition

 

 

What is the role of IgA in meningococcal meningitis?

Term

 

Causative agent: Moraxella oculi

 

Predisposing agents: UV light, long grass, dust, flies and Mycoplasma bovoculi

Definition

 

What is the causative agent and three predisposing factors in contagious bovine keratinoconjunctivitis?

Term

 

 

LPS is found on the OUTER SHEATH of Spirochaetales,

which is the "envelope" of the organism that is analogous to the Outer Membrane of a gram negative organism.

 

Definition

 

 

Where is LPS found in organisms of the Order Spirochaetales?

Term

 

TRUE

 


Definition

 

In the Genus Leptospira, infection or vaccination with one member of a serogroup provides some protection against other members of that serogroup.

 

True or False?

Term

 

DARKFIELD or PHASE CONTRAST microscopy is best,

even though Spirochetes are gram-negative they do not stain well with Grams stain.

Definition

 

What is the best microscopic technique in identifing of the Order Spirochaetales ?

Term

 

FALSE

 

Spirochetes have flagella at both ends of the protoplasmic cylinder and attach at the basal insertion plate.  All of this in contained WITHIN the Outer sheath.

Definition

 

The periplasmic flagella of organisms in the Order Spirochaetales are not contained within the Outer Sheath.

 

True or False?

Term

 

 

VISCOTAXIS

Definition

 

What is the term used to describe the ability of Spirochetes to move through viscid substances ?

Term

 

SEROVAR

Definition

 

What is the basic taxonomic unit when classifying organisms in the Genus Leptospira?

Term

 

Motile, Spiral rods, one or both HOOKED ends.

Tightly coiled, thin

Outer envelope covered by a SLIME LAYER.

Two axial filaments that extend towards the middle but DO NOT OVERLAP.

 

Definition

 

How would the morphology of Leptospira be described?

Term

 

In liquid: Corkscrew (rotatory)


In semisolid: Serpentine, Flexing

Definition

 

What type of motility does Leptospira use in LIQUID media?

 

SEMISOLID media?

Term

 

TRUE

This is true for all organisms of the Order Spirochaetales

Definition

 

Leptospira organisms stain poorly with aniline dyes and are best visualized by Darkfield Microscopy.

 

True or False?

Term

 

Microaerophilic conditions

 

The growth is seen a few milimeters below the surface in an area known as a "DINGER ZONE"

Definition

 

What type of environment do Leptospira prefer to grow best in on primary isolation?

 

Term

 

Cytotoxic factor

 

Resistant to killing by Neutrophils and Complement

 

VISCOTAXIS

Definition

 

What are the Virulence factors of Leptospira?

Term

 

HOT and HUMID

Definition

 

What type of CLIMATE is Leptospira most commonly isolated from in animals?

Term


PROXIMAL CONVOLUTED TUBULE

of the KIDNEY

 

This means large numbers of the organism are shed in the URINE!

Definition

 

What is the natural habitat of most serovars of Leptospira?

Term

 

Since the organism is shed in urine,

the organism is transmitted by direct contact with urine or indirectly with contaminated water, food and soil.  

 

The organism enters through mucous membranes of the eye, mouth, nose, genitalia, and skin (abraded or water softened)

Definition

 

What is the route of transmission for infection with Leptospira?

Term

 

NOT clinically ill

 

** SHED organism for a LONG TIME **

(key to maintaining Leptospirosis in a population)

 

No high titer and fall rapidly

Definition

 

What are the characteristics of a Maintenance host of Leptospira?

Term

Clinically ill: Fever and Acute Illness

Acute sever hepatitis, jaundice, leading to nephritits

 

Shed organism in urine for a period of time

(not responsible for maintaining a population with leptosporosis)

 

Develop HIGH antibody titer

Definition

 

What are the characteristics of an Incidental host of Leptospira?

Term

 

THE LIVER

 

This occurs during a time of initial bacteremia (4-7 days)

The organism then spreads to many body sites.

Then organisms is cleared from the blood by circulating anitbodies (10-12 days), but remain localized in kidney, brain, liver, lung, where antibody cannot access.

Definition

 

Where does primary multiplication of leptospires take place in the body?

Term

Abortion without premonitory signs

stillbirths, weak calves

Low fertility syndrome

"cold mastitis" milk drop syndrome

Hemolytic anemia, icterus, hemoglobinuria

 

The common serovars are: Hardjo, Pomona, Grippotyphosa, Icterohaemorrhagiae

Definition

 

What are the diseases associated with Leptosporosis in Cattle?

Term

 

SWINE

 

They tend to shed large numbers of leptospires in urine

 

Most common serovars: POMONA, Grippotyphosa, Icterohaemorrhagiae, Bratislava

Definition

 

What species of animal is a good source of infection with leptospirosis to other animals and humans?

Term

 

Abortions, stillbirths, weak foals

 

Periodic opthalmia --

ANTERIOR UVEITIS

Caused by antibody-antigen complex deposition resulting in vasculitis.

Definition

 

What diseases are associated with leptospirosis in HORSES?

Term

Vaccines widespread for Canicola and Icterohemorrhagiae causing Pomona and Grippotyphosa to become more clinically prevalent.

 

Anaphylactic reactions have been associated in dogs with the vaccine

Definition

 

What are the issues with the canine Lepto vaccine causing an increase in cases?

Term

 

FALSE

 

Cats and Birds are not susceptible to Leptospira

Definition

 

Abortion and hemolytic anemia are assocaited with leptospirosis in dogs, cats and birds.

 

True or False?

Term
Icterohemorrhagiae which is highly virulent
Definition
What serovar is most associated with hepatic or renal failure in humans with Leptospirosis ?
Term

Microscopic agglutination test (MAT) - the standard, but is a biohazard since working with live organisms.

Urine PCR - rapid, but cannot determine serotype and false negatives if antibiotics have been given.

ELISA, CF, IHA - can have cross-reactions, antibiotics interfere. Paired serum samples recommended.

Culture - provides serotype, but EXPENSIVE and time consuming

Fluorescent Ab test (FAT) - rapid, and can detect when leptospires not viable

Darkfield Microscopy of urine - not accurate

Definition
What are the different ways to diagnose leptospirosis, and what are the problems with each?
Term

 

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

 

This produces a muco-hemorrhagic diarrhea primarily in weanling pigs.

Definition

 

What causes Swine Dysentery?

Term

Complex media (BJ) -

        Trypticase-soy agar with bovine blood, 5 antimicrobials, and extract from pig feces

Anaerobic

42 degrees C

Up to 6 days incubation

Definition

 

What is required to grow Brachyspira hyodysenteriae on primary isolation?

Term

 

Hemolysin

LPS

Attachment

Mucin (from lining of intestinal cells - acts as chemotactic stimulus for organism)

Definition

 

What virulence factors enhance the disease of Brachspira hyodysenteriae?

Term

FALSE

 

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae does NOT penetrate the lamina propria, only effecting the epithelial cells.

It DOES cause bloody diarrhea, and the epithelial lining of the intestines can become so havily involved that it can shed as a pseudomembrane.

Definition

 

The organism Brachyspira hyodysenteriae penetrates past the lamina propria in the cecum, colon, and rectum causing blood to be shed in the feces.

 

True or False?

Term

 

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

Definition
What organism produces the ring phenomenon on isolation where there is no surface colony but a ring of intensified Beta hemolysis occurs when a hole of agar is removed?
Term

 

Swine

Turkeys & Humans

Definition
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae has been isolated in causing disease in what species?
Term

Swine Dysentery

Ingestion (fecal-oral)

diarrhea -> mucoid diarrhea -> bloody diarrhea

epithelial pseudomembrane shed

recover -> 2-3 bouts of disease

shed in feces between bouts

complete recovery

shed in feces for 90 days

Full immunity -> passed in colostrum

Definition
What is the pathogenesis of the disease in swine associated with Brachyspira hyodysenteriae?
Term

 

Brachyspira pilosicoli

Definition

 

What organism is referred to as the "weakly beta-hemolytic intestinal spirochete"?

Term

TRUE 

 

Attach in large numbers

Definition

Brachyspira pilosicoli attaches to the colonic epithelium by only one end of the cell, referred to as "end-on" attachment.

 

True or False?

Term

 

Treponema succinifaciens - PIGS

Treponema bryantii - RUMINANTS

Definition

 

What are some spirochetes that are found as normal flora but are not associated with disease production?

Term

 

Treponema paralius cuniculi

 

Causes venereal lesions -- chancres on genitialia

This is an important disease of lab animal medicine.

Easily demonstrated by Darkfield microscopy

 

Definition

 

What is the cause of Syphilis in rabbits?

Term

 

Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum

 

Produces disease in 3 stages

Primary - genital chancres

Secondary - fever, rash, headache, lymphadenopathy

Tertiary - (immune complexes) neurosyphilis and cardiovascular syphilis

Definition

 

What is the cause of human syphilis?

Term

 

Treponema pallidum subspecies pertenue

Definition

 

What is the cause of YAWS in humans?

Term

FALSE

 

Treponema pallidum sbsp pertenue causes YAWS which is typically acquired during CHILDHOOD by direct contact.

The disease is seen in tropical regions of Africa, S. America, India, Indonesia and Pacific Islands.

The skin lesions found with this disease are granulomatous in nature.

Definition

 

The disease produced by Treponema pallidum subspecies pertenue is primarily transmitted venereally.

 

True or False?

Term

Treponema pallidum sbsp endemicum

 

primarily found in the Middle East in children in contact with unhygienic conditions.

Infected individuals will test positive for syphilis.

Definition

 

What organism produces Endemic Syphilis or Bejel?

Term

Treponema carateum

 

Disease is found in the tropical areas of Central and South America. It produces skin lesions (non granulomatous, differentiating in from Yaws).

Pinta can be treated with Penicillin.

Definition

 

What organism causes Pinta?

Term

 

Borrelia burgdorferi

 

This is the RASH (skin infection) associated with LYME DISEASE.

 

Definition

 

What organism produces the distinctive skin lesions "erythema chronicum migrans"?

Term

FALSE

 

Although the organism Borrelia burgdorferi is transmitted by ticks and CAN be passed from one stage of tick to another, it CANNOT be passed transovirally.

Definition

 

Several tick species can transmit the organism Borrelia burgdorferi and is passed from one stage of tick to another and is passed transovirally.

 

True or False.

Term

TRUE

 

Lyme disease often presents as minor, ambigious amnifestations and can delay diagnosis - allowing the disease to progress.

Definition

Subsequent complications of Lyme disease are arthritis, neuritis, cardiac complications, and even death.

 

True or False?

Term

OspA, (Outer surface protein A), a lipoprotein.

Although it can cause autoimmune reactions in dogs, and possibly people.

Definition

 

What is the basis of vaccines against Borrelia burgdorferi?

Term

Auto-immune reactions against the OspA vaccines.

Antigenic shift occuring on the outer membrane proteins.

Variations in the organism.

Definition
What are the difficulties in designing an appropriate vaccine for Borrelia burgdorferi?
Term

Fever, myalgia, anorexia, acute recurrent episodes of arthritis.

 

NO BONE LESIONS on radiographs

NO skin lesions, cardiac, or neurological signs.

High titers

Definition
What is the clinical presentation of Borrelia burgdorferi in dogs?
Term

 

Borrelia anserina

 

The disease of Fowl Spirochaetosis in not commonly seen in the US. It primarily effects young birds, chickens, turkeys, ducks, and geese.

 

Definition

 

What organism causes Fowl Spirochaetosis?

Term

 

Tick prevention - the disease is transmitted via tick bites

 

Bacterin - CEO : Chick Embryo Origin

Definition

 

How can disease caused by Borrelia anserina be prevented?

Term

 

Borrelia theileri

 


Disease is divided into the Louse borne and Tick borne

Definition

 

What is the cause of Human Relapsing Fever?

Term

 

Streptobacillus moniliformis

Rat Bite Fever : from a bite wound most often from laboratory rats.  The wound heals but develops a chronic relapsing illness of fever, rash, and polyarthralgia.

 

Also Spirillum minus but this is more common in Asia and Africa, and causes a dark purple lesion at the site of the bite.

Definition

 

What is the cause of Rat Bite Fever?

Term

 

Streptobacillus moniliformis

Haverhill Fever: Similar to rat bite fever, where relapsing illness occurs.  This is acquired most often from contaminated food or water.  The presentation of GI and respiratory signs are more common.

Definition

 

What orgainsm causes Haverhill fever in humans?

Term

 

Isolation of Streptobacillus moniliformis from blood or joint fluid

Definition

 

What is the best method of diagnosing Rat Bite Fever?

Term

 

Spirillum minus

Definition

 

What organism causes dark purple lesions assocaited with rat bites, occuring most commonly in Africa and Asia?

Term

 

Bartonella henselae

Definition

 

What is the primary organism associated with Cat Scratch Fever?

Term

CATS: NONE - Persistant bacteremia

 

HUMANS: Granulomatous regional lymphadenitis

Definition

 

What lesions are seen in cats infected with Bartonella henselae?

 

What about in humans?

Term

Skin Test

Lymph node aspirates - microscopic examination with Warthin-Starry stained smears

Definition

 

What is the best methods for diagnosing infection with Bartonella henselae?

Term

 

TRENCH FEVER

Definition

 

What is the disease produced by Bartonella quintana?

 


Term
Trench fever primarily effects HUMANS and is spread by the BODY LOUSE. This is most commonly associated with the socially disadvantaged.
Definition

What species does Trench Fever effect?

How is it spread?

Term
TRUE
Definition

Organisms in the Order Chlamydiae do not require vectors and have a developmental cycle.

 

True or False?

Term

FALSE

 

Rickettsiae DO require vectors (unlike Chlymadiae) and have no developmental cycle.

Definition

Organisms of the Order Rickettsiae do not require vectors and have no developmental cycle.

 

True or False?

Term

 

Chlamydia trachomatis Biovar II

This is the leading cause of sexually transmitted disease in the US.

Presents as urethritis in males, urethritis and infertility in females.

Definition
What specific organism is resposibly for causing the STD Chlamydia in humans?
Term

BIOVAR I

LGV - Lymphogranuloma venereum - sexually transmitted displaying enlarged lymph nodes

 

BIOVAR II

Sexually transmitted Chlamydia - urethritis and infertility (only in females) - #1 STD in US

 

Trachoma - Chronic Keratinoconhunctivitis - #1 cause of preventable blindness in the world

Definition
What diseases are associated with Chlamydia trachomatis in humans?
Term

BIOVAR II

This includes the Lymphoganuloma venerum (LGV) strains.

This species is invasive beyond mucosal membranes and infects many cells types.

The lesions produced are plagues - which allow the organism to exit the cell via lysis.

Definition
Which biovar of Chlamydia trachomatis is more invasive?
Term

Chlamydia trachomatis  Biovar II

 

Causes Trachoma = chronic keratinoconjunctivitis

Definition
What is the leading cause of preventable blindness in the World?
Term

 

Chlamydia trachomatis Biovar II

 

Causes Chlamydia which produces urethritis in males and females and infertility in females.

Definition
What is the leading cause of sexually transmitted disease in the US?
Term

Chlamydia trachomatis Biovar II

Causes Chlamydia which can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease and INFERTILITY

Definition
What causes Pelvic Inflammatory Disease in humans?
Term

 

Chlamydia pneumoniae

Definition
What organism can be spread from human to human causing pneumonia and encephalitis and has been linked to atherosclerosis, heart attacks and stroke?
Term

FALSE

 

Avian and mammalian strains of Chlamydophila psittaci are NOT antigenically similar.

 

BIRDS - infection precipitated by stress causing enlarged spleen and liver, ocular-nasal discharges and fibrinous pericarditis

MAMMALS - abortions, infertility, follicular conjunctivitis, polyarthritis

Definition

Avian strains and mammalian strains of Chlamydophila psittaci are closely related antigenically and cause similar disease across most species.

 

True or False?

Term

Chlamdophila abortus and Chlamydophila psittiaci

Chlamydophila pecorum has also been indicated but has lower virulence and is hardly mentioned.

Definition
What two species of Chlamydophila produce disease in ruminants?
Term

TURKEYS

Causes large outbreaks with high mortality

Definition
Avian chlamydiosis-psitticosis is most virulent in what species?
Term

The INTESTINAL TRACT

Chlamydophila abortus and psittaci are then shed in the feces and serve as a source of infection for other animals

Definition
In ruminants infected with Chlamydophila, where does multiplication of the organism occur?
Term

PIGEONS, and possibly other wild birds.

 

Chlamydophila psittaci is widespread in pigeons, and since they shed the organism in their discharges for a long time after recovery they serve to infect other animals.

Definition
What animal serves as a reservoir for Chlamydophila psittaci?
Term
TRUE
Definition

Chlamydial infections resulting in abortion are more common in sheep than in cattle.

 

True or False?

Term

Younger - Acute, severe disease

 

Older - few clinical signs

 

Latent, inapparent disease MOST COMMON - precipitated by STRESS

Definition
What effect does age have on the clinical appearance of Avian chlamydiosis-psittacosis?
Term

FALSE

 

Although infections with Chlamydophila do NOT REQUIRE a vector, transmission can be spread via face flies resulting in follicular conjunctivitis. This is often seen with polyarthritis.

However, last trimester abortion and infertility are spread directly by feces of infected cattle.

Definition

Chlamydophila infections in ruminants do not use a vector to produce clinical disease.

 

True or False?

Term

FALSE

 

The vaccine available for Chlamydophila felis is a modified-live vaccine. This is typical mixed in with rhinotracheitis, calici and panleukopenia viruses. 

However it is true that the vaccine does NOT provide solid immunity.

Definition

There is a killed bacterin vaccine available against Chlamydophilus felis, but there it doesnt provide solid immunity.

 

True or False?

Term

Phagocytosis - lysome fuses and organism is digested


Receptor-mediated endocytosis - endosome-lysosome fusion is inhibited and Chlamydiae survives

Definition
How do Chlamydophila species interact with phagocytes of the hosts?
Term

CMI - Cell Mediated Immunity

 

Phagocytes lysosomal-endomsal fusion can be blocked if endocytosis is receptor mediated.

The antibody response to Chlamydial infections can provide to opsonize, but are short lived and easily overwhelmed.

Definition
What is the most important aspect of host immunity against Chlamydial infection?
Term

Exfoliative Cytology

This is done on infected tissues that are stained with Gimenez, Giemsa or Macchiavello to observe cytoplasmic inculsions. 

Isolation of the organism is hazardous and can cause lab-acquired infections, they are also time consuming.

Serological ELISAs are available but there is cross reactivity.

Definition
What is the safest and most effective method in diagnosing Chlamydial infections?
Term
TRUE
Definition

Tetracyclines are used to treat Chlamydial infections, but they only supress growth and multiplication and do not eliminate the infection without an adequate immune system.

 

True or False?

Term

Enters cell - Parasite induced phagocytosis

Escapes digestion in phagolysosome

            Escape into cytoplasm

            Resist digestion from within vacule

Multiply via binary fission

            No developmental cycle

Released from cell

            Cell Lysis

            Endocytosis

 

Definition
What is the pathogenesis of Rickettsia (How does it enter and exit the cell)?
Term
Domestic turkeys
Definition
What is the most important reservoir of infection with Chlamydophila species?
Term

ALL of them

All strains of Chlamydophila pose a threat to humans, but the avian serovars are more infectious to humans.

Definition
Which strains of Chlamydophila are infectious to humans?
Term
TRUE
Definition

Avian serovars of Chlamydophila are more infectious to humans than mammalian serovars.

 

True or False?

Term

FALSE

 

Species in the order Rickettsia are OBLIGATE intracellular parasites, however they DO multiply by binary fission.

Definition

Species in the order Rickettsia are facultative intracellular parasites that multiply by binary fission.

 

 

True or False?

Term

Rickettesia enter host cells via parasite-induced phagocytosis - CMI

Escape digestion in the phagolysosome by resisting digestion and remaining in vacule or escaping into the cytoplasm.

Here they multiply via binary fission, then released when the cell is lysed or by exocytosis.

 

Definition

Explain the immune reaction that occurs within the host in response to Rickettsia organisms.

 

 

Term

Rickettsia prowazekii

it is spread by body louse (vector) and can be more readily spread in situations of war, poverty and famine.

 

The body louse will also spread the disease further by jumping off a host with the displeasure of an increase in body temperature associated with fever and move to another host.

Definition
What is the cause of Epidemic Typhus and how is it spread?
Term

Rickettsia typhi

spread by body louse or rat flea - - can be accidentally passed to humans

Definition
What is the cause of Mouse Typhus?
Term

"Chigger-borne typhus" or "Scrub typhus"

caused by Rickettsia tsutsugamusi

 

It is spread via Mite Larvae (Chiggers)

Definition

What organism causes fatal disease and is endemic in Japan, Korea, Australia, and Vietnam?

How is it spread?

Term
Rickettsia rickettsii
Definition

What is the cause of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

 

Term

The vector is Ixodid ticks, which maintains the organism in the environment by cycling through ticks, small rodents, wild animals and domestic animals.

DOGS are major carriers - often asymptomatic.

 

This causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.

Which is only accidentally contracted in humans.

 

Definition
How is infection with Rickettsia rickettsii spread?
Term

Vascular endothelium

here Rickettsia rickettsii invades and causes endothelial damage which results in thrombosis, microhemorrhage, necrosis, shock and death

Initial signs occur 2 days after tick bite

Definition
What host cell type is the target of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
Term

Coxiella burnetti

and it is spread TWO WAYS:

 

1. tick - vertebrate tranmission

2. ** airborne animal-animal transmission (most prevalent)

Definition

What is the cause of Q fever?

How is it spread?

Term

Ehrlichia ruminatium

Which causes Heartwater

 

Organism invades circulating leukocytes

Definition
What organism causes economically significant disease of Africa causes hydropericardium in ruminants?
Term

Ehrlichia canis

CANINE circulating leukocytes

Definition

What is the cause of canine erlichiosis?

What type of cell does it attack?

Term

The brown dog tick

Rhipicephalus sanguineus

 

YOU THOUGHT YOU WERE DONE WITH PARASITOLOGY MUAWHAHAHAHA

Definition
What is the vector for Ehrlichia canis?
Term

Occurs in Summer months

Acute: (first 2 wks) multiples in mononuclear cells - spread to tissues.  Mononuclear cells attack to endothelium - vasculitis - thrombocytopenia

Subclinical: (40 - 120 days) anemia, thrombocytopenia but last stage and eliminated by immunocompetent dogs

Chronic: terminal pancytopenia in susceptible dogs - esp German shepards

 

Definition
What are the effective stages of Canine Ehrlichiosis?
Term

Ehrlichia canis

Chronic phase

Definition
What causes terminal pancytopenia in German Shepard dogs?
Term

FALSE

 

Dogs that are not able to clear the orgnaism - immune to reinfection

If FULLY cleared - susceptible to mild reinfection

Definition

Recovered dogs with Ehrlichia canis are immune for life.

 

 

True or False?

Term

Ehrlichia equi

Can also infect dogs - but produces a more mild infection that with Ehrlichia canis

Definition
What is the cause of Equine ehrlichiosis?
Term

Neorickettsia risticii

PCR of Feces


Definition

What is the cause of Potomac Horse Fever?

How would you confirm diagnosis?

Term

Vector: Water borne insects

which are ingested by horses causing Potomac Horse Fever. 

Can also be spread by blood contact amungst horses

Definition
How is Neorickettsia risticii transmitted?
Term

Acute: Sudden depression, colitis, laminitis, fever, diarrhea, can be fatal if untreated.

Subacute: Depression and fever - NO DIARRHEA

Inapparent: Determined by serologica studies

 

Caused by Neorickettsia risticii -

KILLED VACCINE AVAILABLE

Definition
What are the stages of effective disease in Potomac Horse Fever?
Term

Neorickettsia risticii

Also invades macrophages, mast cells, and circulating monocytes

Definition
What Rickettsial organism grows in the intestinal epithelium of mammals?
Term

This is a pathognomonic combination of lesions that is associated with Neorickettsia helminthoeca

 

This can be FATAL within 7-10 days of clinical signs!

Definition
What organism would be suspected in a dog with sudden onset of high fever with enlarged lymph nodes?
Term

FALSE

 

Operculated eggs are highly suggestive, but not definitive and diagnosis should be confired with a GIEMSA stained smear of LN aspirates.

Definition

A fecal exam on a dog suspected to have Salmon poisoning is the best diagnostic method because trematods carry the organism and have very distinct operculated eggs.

 

True or false?

Term

Incubation: 3- 8 weeks

Developmen: Anemia occurs,

Convalescent: Reticulocyte count returns to normal

Carrier: clinically recovered animals, non detectable and act as reservoirs!

Definition
What are the stages of effective clinical disease assocaited with Anaplasma marginale?
Term

TRUE

Cattle younger than 6 months are relatively resistant

Definition

The mortality of infections with Anaplasma marginale increase with age.

 

 

True or False?

Term
centrally located inclusion in the RBC
Definition
Where would Anaplasma centrale be found in the host?
Term
TRUE
Definition

Anaplasma ovis causes disease in sheep and goats but is not found in cattle.

 

True or false?

Term
Basidiomycetes
Definition
What class of fungi are non pathogenic and is comprised of mushrooms, toadstools, smuts, and rusts of plants?
Term
Candida albicans
Definition
What yeast has been indicated in causing abortions and mastitis in cattle?
Term
Candida albicans
Definition
What yeast produces thick walled chlamydospores on Rice Infusion or cornmeal agar
Term

Overgrowths of the digestive tract

WHITISH plaques of the mouth, crop, proventriculus, and gizzard.

Definition
What lesions are produced in poultry by Candida albicans?
Term
Malassezia pachydermatis
Definition
What yeast is the major cause of canine otitis externa?
Term
Malassezia pachydermatis
Definition
Which yeast has characterisitic peanut shaped cells and grows strep like colonies?
Term
Trichosporons
Definition
What yeast has been indicated in causing superficial nodules on the distal portion of the hair?
Term
Rhinosporidium seeberi
Definition
What yeast will cause polyp formation?
Term
Sporothoriz schenckii
Definition
What organism forms characteristic "Cigar bodies" in yeast form?
Term

Sporothoriz schenckii

Invades skin incontact with soil

Definition
What is the cause of Rosegardener's disease?
Term
TRUE
Definition

Dermatophytes are unable to survive inflammatory reaction and move to the periphery creating a ringed lesion of alopecia with central healing.

 

 

True or False?

Term

FALSE

 

Microsporum LACK microconidia and macroconidia serve well for indentification

Definition

Microsporum growth is characterized by the presence of microconidia and tend to lack macroconidia.

 

 

True or False?

Term
Microsporum canis canis
Definition
Which zoophilic microsporum species is often subclinical in cats, more severe in dogs and often effects the head?
Term
Microsporum gypseum
Definition
What is the most common cause of ringworm in the US amungst dogs, cats, horses and man?
Term
Microsporum nanum
Definition
What is the most common cause of ringworm in swine?
Term
Trichophyton equinum
Definition
Which dermatophye requires nictonic acid for growth and can be isolated from horse skin?
Term
Trichophyton verrucosum
Definition
What "parking lot diagnosis" can be made of cattle with prolific plaques most often found in winter months?
Term
Trichophyton verrucosum
Definition
What is the cause of club lamb fungus?
Term

They are metabolites produced by fungus

Most involved are:

Aspergillus, Pennicillum and Fusarium

Definition
What are mycotoxins and who produces them?
Term
Aflatoxin
Definition
What mycotoxin seen in warm, humid areas is hepatotoxic and carcinogenic?
Term
Zearalenone - produced by Fusarium
Definition

What mycotoxin has estrogenic effects and can cause infertility in swine?

What produces this?

Term
Aspergillus fumigatus
Definition
What is the cause of brooder pneumonia?
Term
Aspergillus fumigatus
Definition
What has been indicated in respiratory disease of captive penguins?
Term
Aspergillus fumigatus
Definition
What fungus is most assocaited with gutteral pouch infections of horses?
Term
Cryptococcus neoformans
Definition
What neurotrophic fungus is associated with pigeon feces?
Term
Chronic granulomatous and suppurative lesions that tend to start as pulmonary infections because it can be readily inhaled.
Definition
What type of lesions are seen with infections with Blastomyces dermatitidis?
Term

Coccidiodes immitis

Rapidly forms arthrospores and be inhaled and potentially dangerous to lab workers

Valley fever is the pulmonary and most common form of infection and produces granulomatous lesions in the lungs.

Definition
What is the cause of Valley Fever?
Term
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
Definition
What organism produces very little surface colony and appears as a zone of complete hemolysis that can be enhanced by removing a plug of agar under the colony?
Term
Microsporum canis
Definition
What is the only dermatophyte that produces metabolic byproduct that fluoresces when exposed to a UV light?
Term
Streptococcus agalactiae
Definition
What organism is an obligate intramammary pathogen of cattle?
Term
Viscotaxis
Definition
What term denotes the ability od an organism to move through a viscous substrate such as mucus?
Term
Serovariety
Definition
What is the basic taxonomic unit to identify members of the genus Leptospira?
Term

Liver

The organism then spreads to many body sites where immune response is initiated.

Organisms then localize in the kidney, brain, and lung where antibodies cannot readily access them.

Definition
Where is the site of primary multiplication of leptospires in the first week of infection?
Term

Smasmorsion

(abortion)

Definition
What is the major clinical manifestation of Leptospirosis in cattle?
Term
Vascular endothelium
Definition
What is the primary cell type infected by members of the genus Rickettsia?
Term
Tricothecenes
Definition
What are produced by Fusarium and primarily cause a feed refusal syndrome?
Term
Saprophyte
Definition
What is a heterotrph that can live on dead or decaying organic matter?
Term
Protein A
Definition
What is the Fc-receptor protein of Staphylococcus aureus?
Term
M protein
Definition
What is the name of a protein antigen that is of major importance in development of resistance to Group A Streptococci?
Term

Coagulase** Most important: Staphylocoagulase + prothrombin = staphylothrombin (which cleaves fibrinogen into fibrin)

DNase: works on RNA and DNA, stimulate the production of abscesses

Definition
What are two Staphylococcus aureus enzymes that are most closely related to pathogenicity of the organism?
Term
Yersinia enterocolitica
Definition
What organism is harbored in the intestinal tracts of animals and causes mesenteric lymphadenitis and sever enterocolitis in humans that can sometimes mimic appendicitis?
Term
Mycoplasma
Definition
What is the bacterial genus that may be able to fuse with host membranes and thus exchange antigens with those membranes?
Term
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Definition
What organism commonly invades burn wounds and can ultimately cause the death of the patient?
Term

Burkholderi mallei

 

 

Pulmonary

Nasal

Farcy or Cutaneous glanders

Definition

What is the cause of glanders in solipeds?

What three types of disease does it produce?

Term

Burkholderi pseudomallei

Can be transmitted via biting insects and is harbored in rodents and water

Common in military dogs

Definition
What is the cause of meliodoisis?
Term

Burkholderi pseudomallei

Ehrlichia canis

Definition
What organisms are commonly isolated from disease in military dogs?
Term
Flavobacterium columnare
Definition
What is the cause of columnaris disease in catfish ?
Term
Flavobacterium psychrophilum
Definition
What is the cause of coldwater disease of adult freshwater salmon and trout and rainbow trout fry syndrome?
Term
Hemorrhagic septicemia
Definition
What is the name of the disease in water buffalo, bison, and cattle that is caused by Pasteurella multocida type B and E ?
Term
Bibersteinia trehalosi
Definition
What organism canbeen assocaited with severe respiratory disease in adult cattle especially in the western US, and respiratory disease in goats and septicemia in lambs?
Term
Actinobacillus lignieresii
Definition
What is the cause of granulomatous, tumor-like lesions in the soft tissues of the head and neck of cattle?
Term
Actinobacillus suis
Definition
What organism causes fatal, acute septicemia in 1-8- week old pigs and is also recognized as a cause of arthritis, pneumonia dn subcutaneous abscesses?
Term

Histophilus somni

LOS has lacked complexity of the O-Ag side chain: induces apoptosis of endothelial cells.

releases Adenine, Guanine, and GMP which are important for the intracellular survival of the organism

Definition
What respiratory tract pathogen of cattle produces LOS instead of LPS, has one or more Fc-receptor proteins and releases RNA components?
Term
Bordetella avium
Definition
What is the cause of rhinotracheitis or coryza in turkey poults?
Term
Tetanospasmin
Definition
What is the clostridial toxin that blocks the release of glycine and gamma-aminobutyric acid at the level of the spinal cord and brainstem resulting in spastic paralysis?
Term
Clostridium chauvoei
Definition
What is the cause of blackleg in ruminants?
Term
Clostridium colinum
Definition
What is the cause of quail disease (ulcerative colitis) in birds?
Term

Lawsonia intracellularis

survives inside epithelial cells of the ileum and is shed when the cells are sloughed off.

Definition
What is the cause of proliferative enteritis in pigs, foals, hamsters, and possibly other animal species?
Term
It forms spores which are resistant to heat
Definition
What allows Clostridium botulinum to survive the processing of foods?
Term
Because there are a number of serologically distinct toxins and the clinical signs are roughly the same
Definition
Why do we need to treat botulism with polyvalent antitoxin?
Term

Afalatoxin

Zearalenone

Ochratoxin

Ergot alkaloids

Definition
What are the four major mycotoxins?
Term

It increases cAMP inside of target cells which initiates fluid loss

Produced by Vibrio cholerae and is antigenically similar to the LPS toxin of E. coli

Definition
What is the mechanism of cholera toxin?
Term

It gets into target cells and increases cAMP initiating fluid loss

this is produced by Bacillus anthracis

Definition
What is the mechanism of Edema factor ?
Term

It forms pores in target cell membranes

This is produced by Mannheimia hemolytica

Definition
What is the mechanism of Leukotoxin?
Term

TSST1 acts as a superantigen

It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus

Definition
What is the mechanism of TSST1?
Term

It forms pores in target cell membranes

This is produced by Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae and Actinobacillus suis

Definition
What mechanism does ApX1 utilize?
Term

It increased cAMP inside target cells which stimulates fluid loss

this is produced by E. coli

Definition
What is the mechanism of LT toxin?
Term

It inhibits protein synthesis by NAD-dependent ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2

This is produced by E. coli

Definition
What is the mechanism of Edema disease toxin?
Term

It destabilizes and lyses cell membranes by sequestering membrane cholesterol

It is produced by Streptococcus spp

Definition
What is the mechanism of Sterptolysin O?
Term

It destabilizes and lyses the phagosomal membrane

It is produced by Listeria monocytogenes

Definition
What is the mechanism of Listeriolysin O?
Term

It hydrolyzes glycerophospholipids and sphingolipids in cell membranes

Causes BETA HEMOLYSIS

Definition
What is the mechanism of Phospholipase C?
Term

They compete with para-aminobenzoic acid in folic acid synthesis

 

Definition
What is the mechanism of Sulfonamides as an antibiotic?
Term
Binds to bacterial transpeptidases and clocks cross brindging in peptidoglycan
Definition
What is the mechanism of Penicillin as an antibiotic?
Term
They inhibit DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA gyrase A
Definition
What is the mechanism of 4-fluoroquinolones as an antibiotic?
Term
They bind to bacterial transpeptidases and block crossbridging in peptidoglycan
Definition
What is the mechanism of cephalosporins as an antibiotic?
Term
Intestinal tract of swine, turkeys, and many other animals
Definition
What is the major natural habitat of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae?
Term
Soil and intestinal tracts of birds
Definition
What is the major natural habitat of Mycobacterium avium?
Term
Intestinal tracts of foals and in soil
Definition
What is the major natural habitat od Rhodococcus equi?
Term
Plant material and intestinal tracts of herbivores
Definition
What is the major natural habitat of Listeria monocytogenes?
Term
Ocular mucosa of cattle
Definition
What is the major natural habitat of Mycoplasma bovoculi?
Term
Soil and skin of sheep and goats
Definition
What is the major natural habitat of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis?
Term
SOIL
Definition
What is the major natural habitat of Dermatophilus congolensis?
Term
A. Are relatively hydrophobic
Definition

Bacteria that are most likely to be phagocytosed are :

 

A. Relatively hydrophobic

B. Relatively hydrophilic

C. Heavily encapsulated

D. Have a complex O-antigen

E. Have a simple O-antigen

Term

D. Only A and B

PPD (Purified Protein Derivative) tuberculins have a standard potency and are more specific

 

This is used in diagnosing infections with Mycobacterium spp

Definition

PPD tuberculins are usually preferred because

 

A. Give fever cross-reactions (are more specific) than other types of tuberculin

B. They are more standardized than other types of tuberculins

C. They have the extra benefit of immunizing those who are negative on the tuberculin tests

D. Only A and B

E. Only B and C

 

Term

C. Rhodococcus equi


Definition

The virulence-assocaited protein A (VapA) is thought to be important in the immune response to:

 

A. Streptococcus equi

B. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var equi

C. Rhodococcus equi

D. Streptococcus suis

E. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Term

C. Liver abscesses in feedlot cattle

But there is also no where in the notes that mentions foot root too.... and it does say it abscesses in peritoneal and thoracic cavity, but I checked my notes from class and A. pyogenes can be in foot rot and thrush

Definition

In which of the following does Arcanobacterium pyogenes NOT play an important role?

 

A. Post-partum metritis in cattle

B. Foot-rot in cattle

C. Liver abscesses in feedlot cattle

D. Subcutaneous abscesses in cattle

E. Chronic, abscessing mastitis in cattle

Term

A. It lacks the genes for the capsule

The genes for the Poly D glutamic acid capsule are present on a plasmid that is seperate from the plasmid of the toxins genes.

So current vaccines only have the plasmid for toxin production :

THREE PART TOXIN:

EF (edema factor) - activates adenylate cyclase

LF (lethal factor) - cleaves kinase of cell transduction

PA (protective antigen)- binding unit to cell membrane (docking station)

Definition

The commonly used modified-live vaccine used to immunize against Brucella anthracis infection:

 

A. Lacks the genes for the capsule 

B. Lacks the genes for the PA antigen

C. Lacks the genes for the EF antigen

D. Lacks the genes for the LF antigen

E. None of the above

Term

B. The host generates an antibody response by that time and the antibody restricts the organism to areas that are immunologically privleged

Areas include: KIDNEY,brain and lung

Definition

Pathogenic members of the genus leptospira are cleared from the blood 10-12 days following infection because:


A. the hosst generates a CMI response by that time and is able to kill the organism

B. The host generates an antibody response by that time and the antibody restricts the organism to immunologically privliged areas

C. The organism causes enough tissue damage by that time that defensins, lysozyme and other natural defense mechanisms are able to clear it

D. The organism undergoes antigenic shifting and becomes naturally avirulent

E. None of the above

Term

D. Blastomyces dermatitidis- found primarily in decaying wood and moist soil, shaded organic matter

 

Coccidioides immitis - feces of desert rodents, desert soil

Histoplasma capsulatum- soil with bird and bat feces

Crytococcus neoformans- bird feces, although it has been associated with trees with rotted pockets

Trichophyton equinum - need nicotinic acid for growth (horse skin)

Definition

Which of the following is a soil saprophyte commonly found in decaying wood?

 

A. Coccidiodes immitis

B. Histoplasma capsulatum

C. Cryptococcus neoformans

D. Blastomyces dermatitidis

E. Trichophyton equinum

Term

D. Blastomyces dermatitidis

This is found in the Mississippi River Valley states - prefers low-lying areas

 

Coccidioides immitis- DESERT - Valley fever

Histoplasma capsulatum- soil with bird and bat droppings

Cryptococcus neoformans - bird feces

Aspergillus flavus

Definition

Which of the following is most commonly found in low-lying areas near reservoirs and dams?

 

A. Coccidioides immitis

B. Histoplasma capsulatum

C. Cryptococcus neoformans

D. Blastomyces dermatitidis

E. Aspergillus flavus

Term

C. Cryptococcus neoformans looooves your brain for dinner.

It is a neurotrophic fungus - eating it wont get you high, it will cause meningioencephalitis clinically presenting as severe headaches and fever.

 

Coccidioides immitis- is inhaled and primarily effects lungs

Histoplasma farciminosum- wound infection 

Blastomyces dermatitidis- hematongenous from lungs

Sporothrix schneckii - skin wounds

Definition

Which of the following has a strong prediliction to infect neural tissue?

 

A. Coccidioides immitis

B. Histoplasma capsulatum farciminosum

C. Cryptococcus neoformans

D. Blastomyces dermatitidis
E. Sporothorix schneckii

Term

C. Cryptococcus neoformans - found in trees with rotting holes contaminated with BIRD feces and insect parts YUM

 

Coccidioides immitis- Desert soil, rodent feces (in desert)

Histoplasma capsulatum - soil in Africa, Middle East, Asia

Blastomyces dermatitidis - MOIST soil
Sporothorix schneckii - soil and dead plant material

Definition

Which of the following has been recovered commonly from rotting portions of trees that are contaminated with feces, insect parts and other debris?

 

A. Coccidioides immitis

B. Histoplasma capsulatum

C. Cryptococcus neoformans

D. Blastomyces dermatitidis
E. Microsporum canis

Term

B. Histoplasma capsulatum

 

A. Coccidioides immitis- desert rodent feces, soil

C. Cryptococcus neoformans- trees with bird droppings, insects

D. Blastomyces dermatitidis - decaying wood, low level soil
E. Cladosporium spp -

Definition

Which of the following is commonly associated with bat feces and bird droppings?

 

 

Term

B. Histoplasma capsulatum

Definition

Which of the following has a yeast that is commonly found in circulating phagocytes of clinically infected hosts?

 

A. Coccidioides immitis

B. Histoplasma capsulatum

C. Cryptococcus neoformans

D. Blastomyces dermatitidis
E. Aspergillus fumigatus 

Term
A. Coccidioides immitis
Definition

Which of the following is a Biosafety hazard level 3 pathogen transmitted to the  respiratory tract by readily aerosolized arthospores?

 

A. Coccidioides immitis

B. Histoplasma capsulatum

C. Cryptococcus neoformans

D. Blastomyces dermatitidis
E. Sporothorix schenckii

Term

E. Sporothorix schenckii

This is the cause of Rosegarteners disease

Definition

Which of the following is commonly found on woody plant material and is transmitted by traumatic introduction?

 

A. Coccidioides immitis

B. Histoplasma capsulatum

C. Cryptococcus neoformans

D. Blastomyces dermatitidis
E. Sporothorix schenckii

Term
Macrophages, needs TLR to allow it into macrophages
Definition

What is the major cell type involve in an adverse reaction to endotoxin?

 

A. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte

B. Macrophage

C. Eosinophil

D. Mast Cell

E. RBC

Term

FALSE

really? MRSA? never heard of it...

Definition

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus are not a concern for veterinarians.

 

True or False?

Term

TRUE

Although MAT (Microscopic agglutination test) is most common and considered the "standard", it requires handling live organisms and is therefore a biohazard.

PCR of urine is RAPID, which is nice, although it doesnt determine the serovar, but who is really interested in that except for researchers?

FAT (fluorescent antibody test) is also rapid and available and can detect infection in cases where leptospires are no longer viable.

Definition

PCR of urine has become increasingly available for diagnosis of leptosporosis, especially in the canine species.

 

True or False?

Term

TRUE

It is shed in urine, so soil or water contaminated with urine would be a method of transmission, also they love moist warm environments.

Definition

Leptosporosis should be included in the list of differentials if humans develop a feberile illness within one month of being involved in a flood or flood clean up.

 

True or False?

Term
TRUE
Definition

Recent data indicates that 1/3 of human leptospira infections come from dogs, and 1/3 come from rats.

 

True or False?

Term

False

Although a vaccine IS available as a killed product with adjuvant, it is reccomended to be given in two doses and has 65- 85% effectiveness.

Recovered sows owever, pass antibody in colostrum to young, which only lasts until weaning.

Definition

We commonly vaccinate feeder pigs against Brachyspira hyodysenteriae.

 

True or False?

Term

TRUE

 

Definition

Intestinal spirochetes are common but very few have been assocaited with disease.

 

True or False?

Term
TRUE
Definition

Erythema chronicum migrans is the name of the rash that occurs in about 80% of individuals within the first month following infection with Borrelia burgdorferi.

 

True or False?

Term

FALSE

Several species of tick carry the organism, although it was originally thought that is was just that one.

Definition

Ixodes scapularis is the only species of tick known to reliably transmit Borrelia burgdorferi.

 

True or False?

Term
TRUE
Definition

The human Lyme disease vaccine was pulled off the market and critics claimed that it caused "odd and damaging side effects".

 

True or False?

Term
TRUE
Definition

Many human cases of rat-bite fever are characterized by chronic relapsing illness with episodes of fever and chills that subside within 36 hours, only to reoccur in 3 - 9 days.

 

True or  False?

Term

TRUE

Streptobacillus moniliformis wound heals, rare in US, in labs

Spirillum minus dark purple lesion at bite, Asia and Africa

Definition

Streptobacillus moniliformis and Spirillum minus are both causes of rat bite fever.

 

True or False?

Term
TRUE
Definition

Haverhill fever is similar to rat-bite fever except that GI and respiratory signs are more common and transmission is through ingestion rather than a bite-wound.

 

True or False?

Term

TRUE

Pigeons and wild birds serve as reservoirs for the disease

Definition

Birds that recover from infections with Chlamydophila psittaci infection can shed the organism in their feces for a very long time and possibly for life.

 

True or False?

Term
TRUE
Definition

The primary route of transmission for Chlamydophila psittaci in birds is via respiratory tract by breathing dust contaminated with feces.

 

True or False?

Term

TRUE

Its just cooler to blame it on the Rockies

Definition

Most cases of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever are reported from teh southeastern region of the US.

 

True or False?

Term

FALSE

This is the cause of Q fever, which is primarily a disease of animals, mostly ruminants.

The cycles pass from tick to vertebrate and ALSO from animal-animal through airborne transmission.

Definition

Coxiella burnetti is most commonly transmitted to humans via ticks and its most commonly found in hunters, hikers and other that spend a lot of time outdoors.

 

True or False?

Term

TRUE

Neorickettsia risticii is diagnosed by preforming a PCR of FECES

Definition

PCR is currently the recommended method for diagnosis of Potomac Horse Fever.

 

True or False?

Term

FALSE

It is infectious in the blood of recovered animals

Definition

Bovine anaplasmosis can only be transmitted through vectors such as ticks and biting flies.

 

True or False?

Term

TRUE

This would be in the developmental stage, when clinical signs are present.

Definition

The anemia seen in bovine anaplasmosis is due to clearance of RBCs damaged by infection with the organism and anti-erythrocyte antibody that is generated by the host.

 

True or False?

Term

FALSE

There is NO isotype restriction in T cell dependent immune response

Definition

Complex polysaccharide and protein antigens are T cell dependent and the immune response is therefore restricted to the IgM isotype of antibody.

 

True or False?

Term

TRUE

Properties of Exogenously processed antigens

-Organism or protein is phagocytosed or endocytosed

- organism or protein is broken down into antigenic peptides in the phagosome

- Antigenic peptides assocaite with MHC II molecules

- Antigenic peptides are presented to CD4+ T cells

- CD4+ T cells produce cytokines.  The end results are either a cytotoxic response or the stimulation of B cells to produce antibody

(pg 27 of your notes)

Definition

Bacterial antigens that are broken down to antigenic peptides in the phagolysosome of macrophages are saif to be exogenously processed.

 

True or False?

 

Term
TRUE
Definition

An autogenous bacterin is an immunizing agent generated from a bacterial isolate obtained from the herd to be immunized.

 

True or False?

Term

TRUE

The toxins are on one plasmid (which is included in the vaccine)

and the capsule is on the other plasmid (which is not in the vaccine)

Definition

Capsule and toxin production in Bacillus anthracis are dependent on the presence of two large plasmids.

 

True or False?

Term
TRUE
Definition

Pyleonephritis in both cattle and swine usually require some type of predisposing factor.

 

True or False?

Term
True
Definition

Infection with Nocardia asteroides usually requires some type of predisposing factor such as immunosuppression or traumatic introduction of the organism into tissues.

 

True or False?

Term
TRUE
Definition

Mycobacterium avium sbsp paratuberculosis can remain viable in soil and feces for up to 9 months. 

 

True or False?

Term

TRUE

The Stb toxin has an earlier onset and is longer acting

Definition

E. coli STb toxin is more commonly involved in post-weaning scours in pigs. 

 

True or False?

Term

TRUE

the disease syndrome (edema) is caused by vasotoxin

Definition

F 18 fimbria are essential for the production of edema disease in swine.

 

True or False?

Term

TRUE

R factors are plasmids carrying antimicrobial resistance genes.

Klebsiella is always resistant to Ampicillin, it has genes for that on the chromosome.

Susceptible to first generation cephalosporins

Definition

Klebsiella pneumoniae is a good recipient for R-factors (antimicrobial resistance genes).

 

True or False?

Term
TRUE
Definition

Bibersteinia trehalosi isolates have the same leukotoxin as Mannheimia hemolytica.

 

True or False?

Term
TRUE
Definition

Respiratory disease in sheep and goats is caused by multiple serotypes of Mannheimia hemolytica whereas disease in cattle is almost always serotype A1.

 

True or False?

Term

TRUE

The Apx1 and Apx2 toxins are hemolysin (RTX type cytotoxins) so it forms pores in RBC membranes.

Definition

Actinobacillus suis and Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae produce apparently identical Apx1 adn Apx2 toxins.

 

True or False?

Term

TRUE

it is highly contagious and is readily spread by aerosol and contact

Definition

Haemophilus parasuis is commonly found in the nasopharynx of many normal swine and is transmitted to piglets at a young age.

 

True or False?

Term

FALSE

It is usually associated with the stress of weaning and shipping.

Definition

Haemophilus parasuis commonly causes disease in young piglets without requiring any predisposing factors or stresses.

 

True or False?

Term

FALSE

it is not eradicated, but there ARE strict import regulations.

Definition

Contagious equine metritis has been eradicated from the US. 

 

True or False?

Term

FALSE

 

Tularensis is only found in North America

palaeartica  is from Russia and Scandinavian countries

novicida - humans

Definition

Francisella tularensis tularensis is only found in the Scandinavian countries whereas biovar palaeartica is found in most of the countries in the northern hemisphere.

 

True or False?

 

Term

TRUE

this is what produces Lockjaw from a hematogenous and lymph spread infection

Definition

So called descending tetanus is much more common than ascending tetanus.

 

True or False?

Term

Humans 

Syphilis

This is a three stage disease skin, immune complexes, and systemic

Definition

What species does Treponema pallidum pallidum effect?

And what lesion/disease does it produce?

Term

Bartonella henselae

Humans

humans develop a granulomatous regional lymphadenitis, where cats develop a non clinical bacteremia - nice kitty, really.

Definition

What organism causes Cat Scratch Disease?

What species is the most common host?

Term

Chlamydophila abortus

this is especially common in western states, there is a lesser occurance in cattle.

Definition
What is the organism responsibile for causing Enzootic abortion in sheep?
Term

Chlamydophila felis

it is a less common cause of respiratory disease but is a MAJOR cause of conjunctivitis in kittens.

Definition
What organism causes conjunctivitis and rhinitis in kittens?
Term

Humans

Trachoma (keratinoconjunctivitis)- #1 cause of preventable blindness in the world

Urogenital tract infections - #1 STD in the US

Definition

What species does the organism Chlamydia trachomatis biovar II effect?

What are the disease/lesions produced?

Term
Rickettsia prowaszekii this is a louse borne disease of war, poverty and famine.
Definition
What organism causes Epidemic typhus in humans?
Term
Ehrlichia canis the terminal pancytopenia is the chronic form of infection and has predisposing factors like breed (GERMAN SHEPARDS)
Definition
What causes Ehrlichiosis and terminal pancytopenia in dogs?
Term
Neorickettsia risticii this organism invades the epithelial cells of the intestine.
Definition
What is the cause of Potomac Horse Fever (in horses)?
Term
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Definition
What is the cause of North American Blastomycosis in dogs, humans, and cats?
Term

WIDE VARIETY of animals

and it produces Chromomycosis, which are subcutaneous infections entering through wounds.  nodular and ulcerative lesions of the feet and legs with regional granulomatous lymphadenitis.

Definition

What species does Hormodendrum, Cladosporium, and Curvularia effect?

What disease does it produce?

Term
Mucor, Rhizopus, Absidia
Definition
What is the cause of Zygomycosis in a wide variety of animals?
Term

Pneumonia

 

Also causes Brooder pneumonia, guttural pouch infections of horses, abortion in horses, and much more

Definition
What lesions/disease are produced in penguins when infected with Aspergillus fumigatus?
Term
Trichophyton verrucosum
Definition
What is the cause of Club-lamb fungus?
Term

Sporothorix schenckii

lesions include small reddish papules that spread to lymph channels resulting in a yellow pus drainage

Definition
What organism is responsible for Sporothoricosis in dogs, humans and horses?
Term
Neorickettsia helminthoeca
Definition
What is cause of Salmon Poisoning in dogs?
Term
Malassezia pachydermatis
Definition
What yeast is responsible for otitis externa in dogs?
Term

Rhinosporidium seeberi

HUMANS

Definition
What is the cause of rhinosporidiosis and what species does it effect?
Term

Candida albicans

Humans, birds and others

Definition
What is the cause of oral thrush, and which species does it occur in?
Term
Vibrio cholerae
Definition
What is the cause of cholera in humans?
Term
Pasteurella multocida
Definition
What is the cause of cholera in Chickens, turkeys and geese?
Term
Gastroenteritis in Humans
Definition
What species and lesions are associated with Vibrio parahemolyticus?
Term
Staphylococcus schleiferi
Definition
What is the most common cause of recurrent pyoderm and otitis externa in dogs?
Term
Streptococcus equi - horses
Definition
What causes Strangles and what species does it occur in?
Term

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

Horses

Definition
What is the cause of Pigeon fever and what species is effected?
Term
Meningitis in swine
Definition
What is the most common lesion and host of infections with Streptococcus suis?
Term
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae in SWINE
Definition
What organism causes Diamond Skin Disease and it is produced in what species?
Term
Streptococcus porcinus
Definition
What is the cause of cervial lymphadenitis in swine (stangles-like)?
Term

Bacillus anthracis

Humans  - associated with introduction through a wound.

Definition
What organism and species is associated with Malignant Carbuncles?
Term
Food Poisoning
Definition
What lesion/disease is produced by Bacillus cereus in humans?
Term

Listeria monocytogenes

in Ruminants

Definition
What causes Circling disease and it is seen in what species?
Term
Legionare's disease in Humans
Definition
What lesions/disease are produced by Legionella pneumonphila and in what species?
Term
Taylorella equigenitalis
Definition
What is the cause of contagious metritis in horses?
Term
Corynebacterium renale
Definition
What is the primary cause of pyelonephritis and cystitis in cattle?
Term
Actinobaculum suis
Definition
What is the primary cause of pyelonephritis and cystitis in swine?
Term

Sheep and Goats

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

Definition
Caseous lymphadentitis occurs in what species as a result of an infection with what organism?
Term
Rhodococcus equi
Definition
What is the cause of purulent bronchopneumonia and occasional enteritis and arthritis in foals?
Term

Actinobacillus equuli or

Escherichia coli

Definition
What is the cause of severe septicemia in newborn foals?
Term
Actinomyces bovis
Definition
What causes granulomatous osteomyelitis of the amndible in cattle?
Term
Mycobacterium avium
Definition
What is the cause of tuberculosis in swine?
Term

SWIMMING POOL GRANULOMAS in humans

grnaulomatous lesions in cold blooded animals

 

lesions are associated with trauma and contact with water

Definition
What lesions are produced by infections with Mycobacterium marinum? What species are these lesions seen in?
Term
Fusobacterium necrophorum
Definition
What is the cause of Calf Diptheria?
Term
Mycoplasma haemofelis
Definition
What organism causes Feline Infectious Anemia ?
Term
Mycoplasma pulmonis
Definition
What is the cause of severe, chronic pneumonia, polyarthritis and reproductive tract infection in rodents?
Term
F4 (K88)
Definition
What is the fimbrial type of E. coli most often involve in neonatal diarrhea in pigs?
Term
F5 (K99)
Definition
What fimbrial type of  E. coli most often is involved in neonal diarrhea in calves?
Term
Shigella dysenteriae
Definition
What organism is the cause of bacillary dysentery in humans and non human primates?
Term

Frequent low volume stool with mucus and blood, abdominal cramping.

This is from the acute inflammation and ulceration of the large intestine epithelium

Definition
What are the characteristic clinical signs associated with Bacillary dysentery in humans?
Term
Mycoplasma gallisepticum
Definition
What is the cause of swollen sinuses and relatively sever disease in turkeys usually between 12 and 16 weeks of age ?
Term
Mycoplasma capricolum capripneumoniae
Definition
What is the cause of contagious caprine pleuropneumonia?
Term
Mycoplasma agalactiae
Definition
What is a organism that causes severe mastitis, arthritis and sometimes septicemia that is restricted to sheep and goats?
Term
Ureaplasma diversum
Definition
What is the cause of granular vulvo-vaginitis and infertility in cows?
Term
Any Mycobacterium species
Definition
What organism usually induces a delayed type hypersensitivity reaction within 4-8 weeks following infection?
Term
Monophasic
Definition
What term best describes a salmonella serotype that has only a single H (flagellar) antigen?
Term

Damage to normal flora - increasing infection

frequency of antibiotic resistance - would need susceptibility test.

Definition
What are two reasons why antimicrobial therapy of salmonellosis is avoided?
Term
Respiratory disease and otitis externa
Definition
What are two diseases or clinical conditions that are caused by a Mycoplasma bovis infection?
Term

Fistulous withers/poll evil in horses

Lumpy jaw in cattle

Definition
What are two diseases caused by Actinomyces bovis ?
Term
Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia
Definition
What disease is produced by Mycoplasma mycoides mycoides SC ?
Term
Intestinal tract of animals - but not humans
Definition
What is the natural habitat of Yersinia enterocolitica?
Term
Water and intestinal tracts of aquatic animals
Definition
What is the natural habitat of Aeromonas hydrophila?
Term
Water, soil, intestinal tracts of rodents in SE asia
Definition
What is the natural habitat of Burkholderi pseudomallei ?
Term
Depends on serotype but mostly intestinal tracts of birds and other animals, some soil
Definition
What is the natural habitat of Mycobacterium avium ?
Term
Intestinal tract of humans and primates
Definition
What is the natural habitat of Salmonella typhi?
Term
Intestinal tracts of chickens mostly
Definition
What is the natural habitat of Salmonella pullorum?
Term
Upper respiratory tract of sheep
Definition
What is the natural habitat of Mycoplasma ovipneumonaie ?
Term

Sylvatic plague (rats)

Bubonic plague (human wounds)

Pneumonic plague

 

Definition
What are the three forms of disease caused by Yersinia pestis?
Term
The Sta toxin is too small to be antigenic
Definition
Why is there no vaccine available for the STa toxin of E.coli?
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