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09/20/2011
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Term
What is a commander’s evaluation for, and what does it consist of?
Definition
TC 1-696, para 2-8; Commander’s Evaluation determines the initial RL level, it consists of a records review and possible a Proficiency Flight Evaluation.
Term
How long does each crewmember have to present his or her individual flight records (IFRF and IATF) to the new unit to which assigned or attached for ATP purposes after reporting for duty?
 Definition
14 calendar days
Term
The ___________________ determines the initial RL of newly assigned crewmembers.
Definition
Commander’s Evaluation
Term
If the initial RL cannot be determined by a records review or if the commander desires, the crewmember will undergo a proficiency flight evaluation (PFE). What tasks should the PFE include?
 Definition
The PFE should include tasks from each flight mode in which the crewmember can expect to Perform.
Term
The ATP training year is divided into semiannual training periods. When does the first training period begin for Active Army and USAR crewmembers
 Definition
First day following their birth month
Term
What are the semiannual flying hour requirements for FAC 3 personnel?

 Definition
No flight authorized for FAC3
Term
What are the semiannual flying hour requirements for FAC 2 personnel? ______ hours, of which ______ hours must be flown in each crew station.
 Definition
__12____ hours, of which ___4___ hours must be flown in each crew station.
Term
What are the semiannual flying hour requirements for FAC 1 personnel? ______ hours, of which ______ hours must be flown in each crew station.
Definition
__24____ hours, of which ___8___ hours must be flown in each crew station. TC 1-696 C-1 pg 8-1
Term
FAC 1 UAC’s may apply a maximum of ____ simulation hours flown in a semiannual period toward that period’s semiannual flying-hour requirements.
 Definition
12
Term
FAC 2 UAC’s may apply a maximum of ____ simulation hours flown in a semiannual period toward that period’s semiannual flying-hour requirements.
Definition
6
Term
According to ATM, the commander directs a Proficiency Flight Evaluation to be conducted for 3 reasons. What are 2 of them?
 Definition
Initial RL determination, when proficiency is in question, when currency has lapsed.
Term
After conducting a PFE the examiner will debrief the individual and record the event on DA form_______.
 Definition
7122-R.
Term
According to AR 95-23, there are 4 hands-on evaluations that could be given to an UAC. Name them.
Definition
Standardization flight eval
Proficiency flight eval
Post Mishap eval
Medical eval
Term
What are the currency requirements for UACs?
 Definition
Perform every 60 consecutive days a take-off and recovery and 1 hour of flight operations of the UAS or a compatible simulator. Perform every 120 consecutive days a take-off and recovery and 1 hour of flight operations in the UAS.
Term
According to 95-23, ground observers will be evaluated:
 Definition
Semi- annually, according to the unit SOP and training program {para. 4-27}
Term
When does flying time start for a fixed-wing UAS?
 Definition
When the UAS begins to move forward on the takeoff roll (AR 95-23 2-6)
Term
Units deployed for contingency operations, the first______commander may waive launch and recovery currency requirements. Prior to resuming launch and recovery duties, personnel must demonstrate proficiency to an IO.
Definition
O-6
Term
TRUE or FALSE. Commanders (LTC/O-5) and above may grant unit waivers and/or extensions, up to 180 days, to ATP requirements for units under their command during operational deployments
 Definition
FALSE.
Term
Commanders_________and above and the state Army aviation officer (SAAO) may grant unit waivers and/or extensions to ATP requirements (for up to 180 days) for units under their command, or state and/or territory affected by operational deployments.
 Definition
O-6
Term
Individual waivers to primary UAS ATP requirements may be granted by the first commander, and above, in the individual’s chain of command.
 Definition
O-6
Term
When UACs have not flown with the past_________days, they will receive refresher training prescribed in the appropriate UAS ATM.
 Definition
180 days (AR 95-23 4-6 b
Term
Active Army UACs have 90 consecutive days to progress from one RL to the next. Readiness level progression will exclude days lost because of 5 reasons. List them.
 Definition
Leave approved by the Commander
TDY
Grounding of UAS
Lack of equipment due to deployment / redeployment.
Medical or non-medical suspension
Term
How many days does an Active Army crew member have to progress for one RL level to the next?
 Definition
90 days.
Term
If a crewmember is removed from RL 1 to RL 2 or 3 for a training deficiency does he/she still have to satisfy their APART requirements?
 Definition
YES.
Term
If a crewmember is removed from RL 1 or FAC 3 for other than a training deficiency before the end of the training period, do their ATP requirements still apply?
 Definition
NO.
Term
When could an individual deviate from regulatory guidance outlined in AR 95-23?
 Definition
During emergencies, to the extent necessary to meet that emergency
Term
Individuals who deviate from the provisions of AR 95-23, FAA regulations, or host-country regulations must report details of the incident directly to their _________. The incident must be reported within _____hours after it occurs.
 Definition
Unit commander. 24 hours.
Term
When conducting an evaluation, what are the 4 evaluation steps as outline in TC 1-696.
 Definition
Introduction
Academic Topics
Flight
De-Brief
Term
List the 3 reasons Commanders prorate flying-hour/simulator minimums.
 Definition
Is newly designated RL 1
Has the primary UAS re-designated
Changes duty position, which involves a change in the FAC level (TC 1-696 2-21)
Term
Commanders in the grade of______ and above will develop and publish policies and procedures for the mission approval process for those UAS units under their command.
Definition
O-5
Term
Briefing officers and/or NCOs will be designated in writing by commanders in the grade of _____ or above to identify, assess, and mitigate risk.
Definition
O-5
Term
Self briefing is not authorized unless approved by the first officer in the grade of ______or above in the chain of command.
Definition
O-5
Term
At a minimum, who is the final mission approval authority for a High Risk mission?
 Definition
Brigade Commander
Term
At a minimum, who is the final mission approval authority for a Moderate Risk mission?
 Definition
Battalion Commander
Term
Commanders will implement the mishap prevention program set up by _________.
 Definition
DA Pam 385-90 (AR 95-23 3-5)
Term
Procedures for reporting and investigating UAS mishaps are prescribed in ___________.
 Definition
DA Pam 385-40 (AR 95-23 3-6a)
Term
What form will be used to notify commanders and safety councils of anything affecting the safety of Army UA or related personnel and equipment?
 Definition
DA Form 2696 (AR 95-23 3-9)
Term
The commander will investigate when ATP requirements are not met. The commander will complete the investigation within ______ days of notification of the failure.
 Definition
30
Term
For UAC’s who fail to meet ATP requirements: the commander will investigate, and complete the investigation within 30 days of notification of failure. After investigating, the commander will initiate any of the following except:

a) Authorize up to one 30 day extension granted by 0-5 or above to complete the requirements
b) Request a waiver
c) Enter restrictions imposed and extensions granted into the UAC’s IATF
d) Grant the waiver
 Definition
Grant the waiver
Term
True or False: Simulators may not be used to reestablish currency
 Definition
TRUE
Term
Can an APART standardization flight evaluation be conducted on the simulator?
Definition
yes, if approved by the first 0-5 or above in the chain of command on a case by case basis (ref: AR 95-23 para 4-9a).
Term
DA form 5484 (mission brief sheet) will be retained in unit files with the corresponding risk assessment worksheet for at least ___________.
 Definition
30 days. (AR 95-23 2-12(a)5)
Term
No notice evaluations may be what kind of evaluations?
 Definition
Written
Oral
Flight
Simulator
Term
During the mission approval process, are Briefing Officers authorized to brief missions, regardless of the level of mitigated risk?
 Definition
yes (Ref: AR 95-23 para 2-12(5)b(2))
Term
Operators shall avoid overflying sensitive areas and wildlife conservation areas below _________.
 Definition
2000 ft AGL (ref AR 95-23 para 5-4d)
Term
According to AR-95-23 para (5-2C), before takeoff operators will obtain what information regarding weather?
 Definition
Departure, enroute, destination, and alternate (if used) weather information AR-95-23 para (5-2C)
Term
Warrant Officers who hold the MOS 150U and/or Officers holding a US Army aeronautical rating that _________ completed UAS qualification course _________ perform payload operator duties on a limited basis.
Definition
Have not/may (ref: AR-95-23 para 2-1 g(3)).
Term
The ultimate responsibility for obtaining a complete weather briefing is the ______________________.
 Definition
Operator (AR 95-23 para 5-2c)
Term
What does the acronym APART stand for?
Definition
Annual Proficiency And Readiness Test (AR 95-23 para 4-7)
Term
During RL progression if the exclusion period exceeds 45 consecutive days, what must happen when an operator has not RL progressed within the required period?
 Definition
UAC must re-start their current RL progression
Term
If the exclusion period exceeds ____consecutive days, operators must restart their current RL progression.
 Definition
45
Term
TRUE OR FALSE. Concurrent days (example simultaneous medical suspension and TDY) may be added together.
 Definition
FALSE (TC-696 para 2-22)
Term
USAR crewmembers have ________to progress from one RL to the next.
 Definition
90
Term
56. According to TC 1-696 the evaluation sequence consists of _____ phases?
 Definition
4
Term
When must a birth month closeout of the DA form 759 in the IFRF be completed?
 Definition
Within 10 working days following the end of the birth month (FM 3.04.300 pg 6-7)
Term
Annual chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRNE) training is mandatory for all_____ and those _______positions selected by the commander.
 Definition
__FAC1___ and those ___FAC 2____positions selected by the commander. (1-696 pg 2-7)
Term
The UAS ________ is the commander’s technical advisor and helps develop, implement, and manage the ATP.
 Definition
SO
Term
Commanders use the DA Form _______ series to inform crewmembers of ATP flying hour, task, and evaluation requirements.
 Definition
7120
Term
Semiannual simulation device flying hour requirements:

1-_________hours, of which ________hours must be flown in each crew station
 Definition
1-____8_____hours, of which ____3____hours must be flown in each crew station
Term
Semiannual simulation device flying hour requirements:
FAC 2-__________hours of which_________ hours must be flown in each crew station
 Definition
FAC 2-____4______hours of which_____1____ hours must be flown in each crew station
Term
Semiannual simulation device flying hour requirements:
FAC 3-_________hours, which may be flown in either crew station.
 Definition
FAC 3-_____3_____hours, which may be flown in either crew station.
Term
TRUE OR FALSE. Unit Trainers are authorized to evaluate
 Definition
FALSE
Term
A UAC progresses from RL 3 to RL 2 by demonstrating proficiency in what series tasks?
Definition
Base Tasks (1000 series)
Term
A UAC progresses from RL 2 to RL 1 by demonstrating proficiency in what series tasks?
 Definition
Mission (2000) and Additional (3000) series tasks
Term
TRUE OR FALSE. When ATP requirements are not met, the commander will investigate. The commander has up to 45 days to complete the investigation.
 Definition
FALSE
Term
According to AR 95-23, when waiver authority is not specified in specific paragraphs, waivers to provisions in Chapters 2 through 5 may only be granted by _____?
 Definition
G 3/5/7/8___. (ref: AR 95-23 para 1-7)
Term
The UAS Operators Written Exam is an open book exam prepared at the unit level and consists of ___ objective questions that cover the entire UAS operator’s manual.
 Definition
50 (1-696 para 3-8)
Term
The UAS Operators Written Exam is an open book exam prepared at the unit level and consists of 50 objective questions that cover the entire UAS operator’s manual. Operators must pass this exam with a passing score of _____.
 Definition
70%
Term
A FAC 3 demonstrated proficiency in Base tasks to an IO/SO initially within 90 days of being designated FAC 3, how often must he now demonstrate his proficiency in Base Tasks to an IO/SO?
 Definition
Annually
Term
TRUE OR FALSE. A commander can change a UAC’s FAC level to reduce flying hour requirements.
 Definition
FALSE
Term
The __________ is the primary training manager and trainer for his/her unit.

 Definition
COMMANDER
Term
IAW TC 1-696, can a Local Area Orientation be conducted in a simulator?
 Definition
No, LAO must be flight ( IAW TC 1-696 para 2-30)
Term
In areas where extreme environmental conditions preclude safe operation of the UAS for periods excluding 120 consecutive days is currency waiverable by the ACOM commander?
 Definition
No, currency cannot be waived, but the use of the simulator can be authorized to maintain currency for up to 180 days with ACOM commanders approval (AR 95-23 para 4-15).
Term
TRUE OR FALSE. A UAC who is not current may perform MC duties. (AR 95-23 para 4-21)
 Definition
TRUE
Term
TRUE OR FALSE. A medically grounded UAC can perform MC duties. (AR 95-23 para 4-21)
 Definition
TRUE
Term
TRUE OR FALSE. Graduates of the UAS qualification course who are on their first utilization tour can be designated RL 2 or RL 1 based on a records review.
 Definition
FALSE
Term
TRUE OR FALSE. Aerial demonstrations in support of civil or military official functions are considered Special Use Missions.
 Definition
TRUE
Term
TRUE OR FALSE. Static demonstrations on a military installation are considered Special Use Missions.
 Definition
FALSE
Term
What (re) training requirements apply when a crewmember returns to an operational flying position after not having flown within the previous 180 days?
 Definition
must be designated RL3 and receive refresher training (TC 1-696 para 2-15)
Term
If a crewmember is initially designated RL 1, and more than______ months remain in the crewmembers training year, they must complete at least one iteration of each task in each mode indicated on their list.
 Definition
6
Term
If a crewmember is initially designated RL 1, and less than ____months remain in the crewmembers training year, the crewmember will not have task and iteration requirements unless specified by the commander.
 Definition
6
Term
TRUE OR FALSE. During a training deficiency, ATP requirements met while RL2/3 will be applied to RL 1 requirements.
 Definition
TRUE
Term
Is simulator use authorized to conduct a Post accident flight evaluation?
Definition
Yes, it is recommended in order to more accurately duplicate the conditions related to the accident. (ref: TC 1-696 para 3-13)
Term
TRUE OR FALSE. A UAC must complete a local area orientation before progressing to RL 2?
 Definition
FALSE (RL 1)
Term
TRUE OR FALSE. Simulator requirements for a FAC 3 UAC cannot be waived.
 Definition
FALSE. Should not be waived.
Term
What must a UAC do once his currency has lapsed to reestablish currency?
Definition
complete a PFE according to the ATM
Term
TRUE OR FALSE. Unit trainers are not authorized to credit those hours they fly while performing their duties toward their semiannual flying hour minimums.
 Definition
FALSE
Term
TRUE OR FALSE. FAC Levels and RL levels do not apply to UAS ground crewmembers.
 Definition
TRUE
Term
TRUE OR FALSE. Tasks evaluated in a more demanding mode may be credited toward completion of each task required by the ATM during RL progression. “N” is considered the most demanding mode, followed by “D”, and “SM”.
 Definition
FALSE
Term
“Appropriate normal and emergency procedures training for UAS ground crewmembers is conducted by a __________.”
Definition
SO (TC 1- 696 para 2-34)
Term
Commanders reduce minimums by one month for each ____ days the crewmember was unable to fly for the following reasons: TDY, Medical Suspension, Non Medical Suspension, Grounding of the UAS, Systems are unavailable or in transit due to unit deployment.
 Definition
30
Term
On the DA Form 7120-1-R, what does the “E” in the task and iteration section indicate?
Definition
Mandatory for Annual Evaluation (TC 1-696, pg 5-8)
Term
Is an IATF required for a UAS ground crewmember?
 Definition
YES.
Term
When does flying time start for a fixed-wing UAS?
Definition
When the UAS begins to move forward on the takeoff roll (ref: AR 95-23 para 2-6)
Term
True or False: FAC 3 personnel do not have currency requirements, and they are not subject to readiness levels.
 Definition
TRUE
Term
Any aircraft parked outside of C Co hangar must be at what minimum distance from any permanent structure on Libby Army Airfield?
 Definition
125 feet (Para 9A)
Term
In accordance with the Flight and Ground Operations SOP, UAS operations will be suspended as soon as possible when thunderstorms and lightning are within what distance?
 Definition
25 NM (Annex A, para. D)
Term
The Flight and Ground Operations SOP, requires how much separation between aircraft altitude and the floor of R2303C?
 Definition
500 feet (para 9C)
Term
According to the Flight and Ground Operations SOP, what VFR cloud clearance and visibility is required while operating in R-2303ABC airspaces?
 Definition
The Cloud Clearance and Visibility requirements for Class E airspace. (ref: Para 8)
Term
According to the Flight and Ground Operations SOP, second and subsequent flights cannot go to “High Power” on C-Band transmitters until the preceding flights have attained what altitude?
 Definition
2000 feet AGL (ref: para 9E)
Term
(True/False)According to the Charlie Company Flight and Ground Operations SOP, The Contingency Mission airspeed shall be set to 90 knots.
Definition
False
Term
(True/False)According to the Charlie Company Flight and Ground Operations SOP, in-flight troubleshooting the Air Vehicle during flight must be done only at pattern altitude or above
Definition
False
Term
According to the Charlie Company Flight and Ground Operations SOP, for operations that will arrive between Sunset and Sunrise, how long must the Ground Observer must be in place prior to that operation?
 Definition
30 minutes (ref: Section 3, para 4D)
Term
According to the Charlie Company Flight and Ground Operations SOP, when will annual IFRF closeouts occur?
 Definition
No later than 10 days after the birth month period. (ref: Section 8, para 4A5)
Term
According to the Charlie Company Flight and Ground Operations SOP, when will IATF entries be made after completion of an event?
 Definition
As soon after the event as possible, but not later than the following day (ref: Section 8, para 4B)
Term
You are on a night mission within R2303 B in support of JTF-N. They request that you turn off your Navigation and Strobe Lights. Does the Flight and Ground Operations SOP allow you do this?
 Definition
Yes, but ATC must be notified. (ref: para 16)
Term
According to the Charlie Company Flight and Ground Operations SOP, when will navigation and anti-collision lights be on?
 Definition
At all times during flight operations, unless otherwise specifically dictated. (Ref: Para 16).
Term
What are contour lines?
 Definition
Lines that depict elevations on a map.
Term
What are three of the five major terrain features on a map?
Definition
Hill
Saddle
Valley
Ridge
Depression
Term
What are two of the three minor terrain features on a map
 Definition
Draw
Spur
Cliff
Term
What are the two supplementary terrain features?
Definition
Cut
Fill
Term
What are the minimum visibility and cloud clearance for operations within Class D airspace?
 Definition
3 statute miles, 1000ft above, 500ft below, 2000ft horizontal
Term
According to 95-23, at takeoff, the aircraft must have enough fuel to reach the destination and alternate airport (if required) and have a planned fuel reserve of- (fixed wing)
 Definition
VFR (day) - 30 minutes at cruise, VFR (night) or IFR – 45 minutes at cruise. (Ref 95-23, para. 5-2b(2)(a,b))
Term
Destination weather must be forecast to be equal to or greater than VFR minimums at estimated time of arrival through ______ after estimated time of arrival.
Definition
1 hour
Term
(True/False)VFR flight is authorized in Class A airspace provided there is 5 SM visibility
 Definition
False
Term
Class B basic VFR weather minimums
Definition
Clear of Clouds and 3 SM
Term
Class C basic VFR weather minimums
Definition
1000’ Above, 500’ Below,
2000’ Horizontal and 3 SM
Term
Class D basic VFR weather minimums
 Definition
1000’ Above, 500’ Below,
2000’ Horizontal and 3 SM
Term
Class E (below 10,000 MSL) basic VFR weather minimums
 Definition
1000’ Above, 500’ Below,
2000’ Horizontal and 3 SM
Term
Class E (above 10,000 MSL) basic VFR weather minimums
 Definition
1000’ Above, 1000’ Below,
1 SM Horizontal and 5 SM
Term
Name two types of weather forecasts
 Definition
TAF (Terminal Aerodrome forcast)
FA (Area Forecast)
Term
___________Area - flight prohibited unless authorized by using agency; usually for National Security, can be for other reasons
 Definition
Prohibited Area
Term
__________Area - may contain unseen hazards to flight and is designated by vertical, lateral, and time restrictions. Must obtain permission to enter when VFR Joint use or Sole use; joint use ATC clears for you, sole use you must get clearance
 Definition
Restricted Area
Term
___________Area - hazards to non-participating aircraft same as restricted area, but extends out from the coast 3-12 nautical miles.
 Definition
Warning Area
Term
___________Area - contains high volume of pilot training, flight is not restricted but caution is advised.
 Definition
Alert Area
Term
___________Area - used to separate/segregate certain nonhazardous military activities from IFR traffic.
Definition
Military Operations Area (MOA)
Term
What weight and balance classification is Gray Eagle
 Definition
Class 2
Term
For Weight and Balance purposes, the MQ-1C is classified as a Class 2 aircraft. There are 5 events that would require a class 2 aircraft to be re-weighed, name two of the five reasons
 Definition
a. Overhauls or major airframe repairs have been accomplished
b. Modifications of 1 percent or greater of the UAs basic weight have been applied.
c. Any modifications or component replacements (including painting) have been made
for which the weight and center of gravity cannot be accurately computed.
d. Weight and center of gravity data records are suspected to be in error.
e. The period since the previous weighing exceeds 24 months for a class 2 UA.
Term
Each unmanned aircraft will be weighed when the period since the previous weighing reaches ____ months for a Class 2 unmanned aircraft
 Definition
24 Months
Term
On what form would an individual find out when the next scheduled maintenance is due on the aircraft?
 Definition
2408-18
Term
The Army Aviator’s Flight Records form is also known as a DA form
Definition
2408-12
Term
The __________is responsible for accurately completing the DA Form 2408-12
 Definition
UAC
Term
What form is used to permanently record all individual crewmember evaluations, summaries of DA Form 4507-R and any other change in crewmember status or other significant events?
 Definition
DA form 7122
Term
According to the FM 3-04.300, what DA form series is used to maintain flight records and provide the unit commander a means to track total hours while monitoring compliance with aircrew training programs (ATPs)?
Definition
DA 759
Term
What is DA form 3513
 Definition
Crewmember flight records folder
Term
When must a crewmember certify/sign the DA Form 7120-3-R?
Definition
The end of the ATP year, to certify that the CM has or has not completed ATP requirements.
Term
When must a crewmember certify/sign the DA Form 7120-R?
Definition
Initially at the beginning of the training year, after the commander
Term
IAW AR95-20/DCMA 8210.1, what is (DCMA) form 644?
 Definition
Request for Flight Approval.
Term
IAW AR95-20/DCMA 8210.1, what is (DD) form 2627?
Definition
Request for Government Approval for Aircrew Qualification and training
Term
IAW AR95-20/DCMA 8210.1, what is (DD) form 2628?
 Definition
Request for Approval of Contractor Crewmember
Term
IAW AR95-20/DCMA 8210.1, what is the (DD) 1821 form (s)?
Definition
Contractor Crewmember Record (DCMA 8210.1 para4.2.3)
Term
When making turns of greater than 3 degrees, taxi speeds and turn rates should be limited to what?
 Definition
5 knots ground speed, 20 degrees per second
Term
What is the MQ-1C maximum ramp weight?
 Definition
3200 lbs
Term
At what point should the AO declare a fuel emergency?
 Definition
If it becomes apparent that the aircraft will land with less than 30 lbs,
Term
What is the MQ-1C landing gear operating speed (VLO)?
 Definition
105 KIAS
Term
What is the Maneuvering Speed ( Va) for the MQ-1C?
 Definition
130 KIAS
Term
What is the maximum tailwind allowed for ATLS landings, IAW AWR and TM-10?
 Definition
8 kts, 6 kts gust spread
Term
Best endurance airspeed can be found in what VIT?
 Definition
VIT 3
Term
What is the Never exceed speed ( Vne ) for the MQ-1C
 Definition
130 KIAS or 180 KTAS whichever is lower
Term
What is the minimum runway length at or below 9000 ft DA?
Definition
4500 ft
Term
Aircraft will not be intentionally flown into known or forecast ___________turbulence or into known ___________ turbulence.
Definition
extreme / severe
Term
Aircraft will not be flown into ________ or _________ severe icing conditions.
 Definition
known or forcast
Term
WS
OVC
SKC
BR
Definition
Wind shear, Overcast, Skies clear, mist
Term
Explain this weather report: “08020G38KT”_
 Definition
winds are from 080 degrees (mag) at 20 kts gusting to 38 knots.
Term
Anytime an operational limit is exceeded, what must crewmembers do at the end of the flight?
Definition
an appropriate entry shall be made on DA Form 2808-13-1.
Term
In the MQ-1C TM, Warnings, cautions and notes emphasize important and critical instructions. What is the definition for a “Warning”?
 Definition
Identifies a procedure, practice, condition, statement, etc. which if not strictly observed, could result in injury to, or death of, personnel or long term health hazards to the person performing that procedure
Term
In the MQ-1C TM, Warnings, cautions and notes emphasize important and critical instructions. What is the definition for a “Caution”?
 Definition
Identifies an essential operating or maintenance procedure, practice, condition, statement, etc., which – if not strictly observed – could result in damage or destruction of equipment, or loss of mission effectiveness.
Term
What is the emergency procedure for Engine Failure?
 Definition
Knobs select (AO), Best endurance Airspeed set(AO), Landing site select (AO)
Term
When the aircraft is in the Automatic Take-off and Landing System (ATLS) and engine failure occurs at a range less than __________ or within _________ from touchdown point, the operator should continue the landing approach.
Definition
300ft AGL or within 1800ft
Term
What is the emergency procedure for Low Oil Temperature?
 Definition
Altitude 30 second climb, land as soon as possible (AO)
Term
During the extended emergency checklist procedure for Dual Alternator Failure, step 7 directs you to monitor battery voltage. Where can you monitor the battery voltage?
 Definition
VIT 1
Term
What AR covers flight restrictions due to exogenous factors
 Definition
AR 40-8
Term
define the medical term “exogenous”.
Definition
Caused by factors or an agent outside the organism or system
Term
How long will you be restricted from flying duties after an immunization shot?
 Definition
12 hours
Term
There are four classes of a Flight Duty Medical Exam (FDME). Which class is required for military UAS personnel?
 Definition
At least a class 4
Term
Aircrew will be restricted from flying duty for ____ hours after general, spinal, or epidural anesthesia and for a minimum of ____ hours after local or regional anesthesia, to include dental.
Definition
48, 12
Term
If you have a reaction to that any immunization shot, how long will you be restricted from flying duties?
 Definition
Until cleared by the flight surgeon or APA
Term
Following blood donation (200 cc or more), aircrew members will be restricted from flying duty for a period of ____ hours.
 Definition
72
Term
Following plasma donation, aircrew members will be restricted from flying duty for a period of ____ hours.
 Definition
24
Term
TRUE OR FALSE. Aircrew members will not be regular (more than two times per year) blood or plasma donors.
 Definition
TRUE
Term
Aircrew members requiring corrective lenses in order to achieve 20/20 vision will be restricted from flying duties unless they are wearing either _________ or _________ which provide 20/20, or better, near and far vision bilaterally.
 Definition
SPECTICLES OR CONTACT LENSES
Term
What are the 3 types of vision?
 Definition
Mesopic, photopic, scotopic
Term
TRUE OR FALSE. A crewmember can wear contact lenses during flight.
 Definition
TRUE
Term
Mission Brief is at 0500 for a 0700 takeoff, what time do you have to stop drinking alcoholic beverages the night prior?
 Definition
(1700)
Aircrew will not perform aviation duties for a minimum of 12 hours after the last drink consumed and until no residual effects remain.
Term
The non-specific response of the body to any demand placed upon it is known as:
 Definition
Stress (ref: TC 3.04.93, pg 3-1)
Term
Any stimulus or event that requires an individual to adjust or adapt in some way emotionally, physiologically, or behaviorally is known as a ________.
Definition
STRESSOR
Term
What type of stressor would life events be?
 Definition
Psychosocial (TC 3-04.93 3-4)
Term
What type of stressor can be remembered by using the acronym DEATH which stands for drugs, exhaustion, alcohol, tobacco, and hypoglycemia?
 Definition
Physiological (TC 3-04.93 3-17)
Term
What type of stressor is described by how one perceives a given situation or problem?
 Definition
Cognitive (TC 3-04.93 3-39)
Term
What type of stressor consists of stress caused by altitude, airspeed, hot or cold environments, aircraft design, airframe characteristics, and instrument flight conditions?
 Definition
Environmental (TC 3-04.93 3-10 – 3-16)
Term
There are four types of response to stress IAW TC 3-04.93 name them.
Definition
Emotional .
Behavioral .
Cognitive .
Physical .
Term
Stress-coping mechanisms are psychological and behavioral strategies for managing the external and internal demands imposed by stressors. What are the 4 coping mechanisms/strategies?
 Definition
Avoiding Stressors
Changing Thinking
Learning to Relax
Ventilating Stress
Term
What are the 5 “self-imposed stressors”?
 Definition
Drugs
Exhaustion
Alcohol
Tobacco
Hypoglycemia
Term
What is indicative of a normal reaction to stress?
 Definition
Rapid and exact response within the limits of the students experience and training. (2008 IPH 1-9)
Term
What are the 3 types of fatigue?
 Definition
Acute, chronic, motivational exhaustion (burnout)(FM 304.301)
Term
_________ is the state of feeling tired, weary, or sleepy that results from prolonged mental or physical work, extended periods of anxiety, exposure to harsh environments, or loss of sleep TC 3-04.93, page 3-11).
 Definition
FATIGUE
Term
What is the NOHD for the Laser Designator with unaided vision?
 Definition
39 km
Term
What is the NOHD for the Laser Designator when using magnifying optics?
 Definition
82 km
Term
What are the four fundamental forces acting on an aircraft?
 Definition
Lift, weight, thrust, drag
Term
Newton’s law of ___________________ states the force required to produce a change in motion of a body is directly proportional to its mass and rate of change in its velocity. This means motion is started, stopped, or changed when forces acting on the body become unbalanced.
 Definition
Acceleration (FM 3-04.203 1-83)
Term
A body at rest will remain at rest, and a body in motion will remain in motion at the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an external force." is the definition of which of Newtons laws?
 Definition
Inertia
Term
For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction" is the definition of which of Newtons laws?
 Definition
Action/reaction
Term
Ailerons on a conventional aircraft operate in opposite directions. To bank an aircraft to the right, the left aileron is ______________________ while the right aileron is ____________________________.
 Definition
Lowered / Raised (FM 3-04.203 7-220)
Term
Bernoulli’s principle says as velocity of airflow increases, static pressure _________.
 Definition
decreases.
Term
Air in motion equal to and opposite the flight-path velocity of the airfoil is the definition of__________.
 Definition
Relative wind. (ref: FM 3-04.203, table 1-1)
Term
For a fixed wing aircraft, the angle between the airfoil chord line and longitudinal axis or other selected reference plane of the airplane is the definition of _________________.
Definition
Incidence angle. (ref: FM 3-04.203, table 1-1)
Term
A ______ is a basic maneuver in which the aircraft loses altitude in a controlled descent with little or no engine power; forward motion is maintained by gravity pulling the aircraft along an inclined path, and the descent rate is controlled by the aviator balancing the forces of gravity and lift.
 Definition
Glide
Term
With a _______, the aircraft glides farther because of the higher groundspeed; with a ______, the aircraft does not glide as far because of the slower groundspeed.
 Definition
Tailwind, headwind
Term
T/F. Variations in weight do not affect the glide angle provided the aviator uses the correct airspeed.
 Definition
True. Since it is the lift over drag (L/D) ratio that determines the distance the aircraft can glide, weight does not affect the distance.
Term
11. T/F. The glide ratio is based only on the relationship of the aerodynamic forces acting on the aircraft. The only effect weight has is to vary the time the aircraft glides. The heavier the aircraft the higher the airspeed must be to obtain the same glide ratio.
Definition
TRUE
Term
T/F. If two aircraft having the same L/D ratio, but different weights, start a glide from the same altitude, the heavier aircraft gliding at a higher airspeed arrives at the same touchdown point in a shorter time. Both aircraft cover the same distance, but the lighter aircraft takes a longer time.
Definition
TRUE
Term
The ___________ corresponds to an attack angle resulting in the least drag on the aircraft and giving the best lift-to-drag ratio (L/Dmax).
 Definition
Best glide speed
Term
IAW FM 3-04.203 Fundamentals of Flight, there are 2 types of pressure associated with fluid/air flow. What are the 2 types of pressure?
 Definition
Static and dynamic
Term
As velocity of the airflow increases, does static pressure above and below the airfoil increase or decrease?
 Definition
Decrease
Term
Define relative wind.
 Definition
Relative wind is the airflow relative to an airfoil. Movement of an airfoil through the air creates relative wind. Relative winds moves in a parallel but opposite direction to movement of the airfoil.
Term
_________is the angle between the airfoil chord line and resultant relative wind.
 Definition
Angle of attack
Term
The ________________________ pressure differential on the upper and lower surfaces produces about 75% of the aerodynamic force, called lift.
Definition
static
Term
25% of lift is produced as a result of ______________________ from the downward deflection of air as it leaves the trailing edge of the airfoil and by the downward defection of air impacting the exposed lower surface of the airfoil.
 Definition
Action / Reaction
Term
_______is the force opposing the motion of an airfoil through the air.
 Definition
Drag
Term
Name the three types of drag.
 Definition
Profile, induced, parasite
Term
What type of drag is the dominant type at high speeds?
 Definition
parasite
Term
_________drag is incurred from the nonlifting portions of the aircraft.
 Definition
Parasite
Term
_________drag is incurred as a result of production of lift.
 Definition
Induced
Term
There are seven colors used on a military map. List 4 of them
Definition
Black
Red-Brown
3) Blue
4) Green
5) Brown
6) Red
7) Other
Term
There are three types of north used on maps. What are they?
 Definition
True North
Magnetic North
Grid North
Term
Define back-azimuth.
 Definition
A back-azimuth is the opposite direction of an azimuth.
Term
What does the acronym HIRTA stand for?
 Definition
High Intensity Radio Transmission Area
Term
What is fratricide?
 Definition
When employing munitions with the intent to kill or destroy the enemy facilities and equipment, the unintentional kill or injury of friendly forces
Term
What are the 3 primary causes of fratricide?
 Definition
Lack of positive ID, Lack of situational awareness, and other
Term
What does the acronym SALUTE stand for when reporting on targets?
 Definition
Size, activity, location, unit/uniform, time, equipment
Term
What does METT-TC stand for?
 Definition
Mission, Enemy, Time, Troops and support, Terrain and weather, Civil Considerations
Term
MIJI reports must be reported to higher Headquarters as soon as practicable. What does MIJI stand for?
 Definition
Meaconing, Intrusion, Jamming, and Interference
Term
The 2 methods of tactical airspace control are _______and_______.
 Definition
Positive and Procedural.
Term
TRUE OR FALSE - SPINS highlight, modifies, or supplements data contained in the ATO.
 Definition
true
Term
___________ altitude or __________ levels are used principally to separate fixed and rotary winged aircraft.
 Definition
Coordinating altitude or Coordination
Term
How many keypads are in a killbox?
 Definition
9
Term
When dealing with tactical airspace, what are SPINS?
Definition
Special instructions
Term
The 3 types of airspace separation in Tactical Airspace are?
 Definition
vertical, lateral/horizontal and time.
Term
What does the acronym LASER stand for?
 Definition
Light
Amplification by
Stimulated
Emission of
Radiation
Term
What are the four things that affect the amount of IR energy an object will radiate?
 Definition
Reflectance, Transmittance, Absorbtance, and Emissivity
Term
Which characteristic does the following statement describe? The ratio of radiant energy that, having entered a body, reaches its farther boundary.
 Definition
Transmittance
Term
What does IR stand for?
 Definition
Infrared Radiation
Term
Thermal Imaging Systems (TISs)/Forward Looking Infrared (FLIR) operations depend on the ability of the system to detect temperature difference. What is the lowest thermal difference that can be resolved called?
 Definition
Minimum resolvable temperature
Term
_______is a natural phenomenon that occurs twice a day. In the morning and evening, targets without internal heating come to a relative equal temperature with the surrounding background environment.
 Definition
IR Crossover
Term
The electromagnetic energy spectrum includes the range of wavelengths, such as gamma rays, X-rays, ultraviolet, visible light, IR, microwaves, and radio waves or frequencies of electromagnetic radiation. Where does infrared begin in the electromagnetic spectrum?
 Definition
FM 3.04-203 4-14 Begins right after (pete “below”) the visible light color red
Term
Does the Sun emit energy across the entire electromagnetic spectrum or just the visible light spectrum?
 Definition
Entire electromagnetic spectrum FM 3.04-203 4-14
Term
The strobe light is required to be on –
Definition
When UAS engines are operating, except when there may be other hazards to safety (AR 95-23 2-10)
Term
IAW AR 95-23, when do aircraft position lights need to be on?
 Definition
Between official sunset and sunrise
Term
IAW FM 3-04.203, which of the following is NOT a variable affecting the ability to see with thermal imaging systems?
a) FLIR sensor optimization
b) Aviator’s proficiency and capabilities
c) Humidity
d) Visible light
 Definition
Visible light
Term
What are the three types of Icing?
Definition
Clear, rime, mixed
Term
What are the 4 levels of intensity for Icing?
Definition
Trace, light, moderate, severe
Term
If a flight is to be made into known or forecast moderate icing conditions, the aircraft must be equipped with ___________ or ___________.
 Definition
Adequate operational de-icing or anti- icing equipment
Term
When there are intermittent (destination) weather conditions, ________ weather will apply.
Definition
Predominant (Ref: AR 95-23 Para 5-2c(5))
Term
Factors affecting Perception
 Definition
goals and values, self concept, physical organism, opportunity and time, element of threat
Term
The Basic elements of communication are composed of three elements, what are they?
 Definition
source, symbol, and receiver
Term
Barriers to effective communication
 Definition
Lack of common experience, interference, confusion between symbol an symbolized object, overuse of abstractions
Term
Interference is composed of 3 factors. Hearing loss would be an example of which factor.
 Definition
Physiological (2008 IPH 3-6)
Term
According to the Aviation Instructor’s Handbook (2008) what barrier to effective communication is considered probably the greatest single barrier to effective communication?
 Definition
Lack of Common Experience (2008 IPH 3-4)
Term
Which defense mechanism is it when a person places uncomfortable thoughts into inaccessible areas of the unconscious mind?
 Definition
Repression
Term
According to the Aviation Instructor’s Handbook (2008), ___________________ is probably the most significant psychological factor affecting flight instruction.
Definition
Anxiety
Term
Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
 Definition
Self-Actualization
Cognitive and Aesthetic
Self Esteem
Love & Belongingness
Safety Security
Physiological needs
Term
8 common defense mechanisms
 Definition
Repression
Denial
Compensation
Rationalization
Reaction Formation
Fantasy
Displacement
Projection
Term
IAW with the IPH there are 4 steps in the teaching process. The first step is preparation. What are the following three steps?
Definition
Presentation, Application, Review and Evaluation
Term
List the 4 essential teaching skills.
 Definition
People Skills
Subject Matter Expertise
Management Skills
Assessment Skills
Term
Which obstacle to learning during flight instruction does the following statement describe? Students can become uninterested when they recognize that the instructor has not prepared for the instruction being given, or when the instruction appears to be deficient, contradictory, or insincere.
 Definition
Apathy
Term
Charactoristics of an effective assessment
 Definition
Flexibility, acceptable, specific, thoughtful, comprehensive, objective, constructive, organized
Term
1. Learning can be defined in many ways, one of the ways defined in the IP handbook is:
A change in the __________ of the learner as a result of _______________.
 Definition
Behavior, experience
Term
What are the four basic levels of learning?
Definition
Rote, Understanding, Application, Correlation
Term
16. Which level of learning is that level at which the student becomes able to associate an element which has been learned with other segments or blocks of learning?
 Definition
Correlation
Term
domains of learning
 Definition
Cognitive
Affective
Psychomotor
Term
___________ is probably the most dominant force that affects a student's progress and ability to learn.
 Definition
Motivation
Term
8 elements of crew coordination.
 Definition
Communicate positively, direct assistance, announce actions, offer assistance, acknowledge actions, be explicit, provide UA control and Obstacle advisories, & Coordinate Actions sequence and timing.
Term
Objectives of crew coordination.
 Definition
Establish and maintain team relationships, plan the mission and rehearse, establish and maintain workloads, exchange mission information, & cross monitor performance
Term
True/false. It is mandatory that Aircrew coordination will be evaluated during APART
 Definition
True
Term
What are the 5 steps to the Risk Assessment process according to the TC 1-696?
 Definition
Identify Hazards
Assess Hazards
Develop Controls
Implement Controls
Supervise and Evaluate
Term
5 hazardous attitudes
 Definition
Anti-authority
Impulsivity
Invulnerability
Macho
Resignation
Term
Fuel requirements. At takeoff, a fixed wing aircraft must have enough fuel to reach the destination and alternate airport (if required) and have a planned fuel reserve of—
 Definition
VFR: 30 minutes at cruise, night: 45 minutes at cruise, IFR: 45 minutes at cruise
Term
(True/False): IFF Mode C is required for VFR operations in Class D airspace.
 Definition
FALSE
Term
When ATP requirements are not met, the commander will investigate. The commander will complete the investigation within 30 days of notification of the failure. After investigating, the UAS unit commander may authorize up to one 30–day extension. This may be granted by__________________.
 Definition
Ans: commanders 0–5 and above. Ref: AR 95-23, para 4-10(1)(a).
Term
A new crewmember signs in to your unit reports for duty, to your unit (2/13th Avn. Reg.) on 30 Sep 2011. This is the same date of his flying status orders. By what date does he have to turn in his records?
 Definition
14 Oct 2011 (14 calendar days)
Term
What record(s) does the newly reporting crewmember have to turn in?
 Definition
IFRF / IATF Ref: AR 95-23 para 2-7
Term
A new crewmember signs in on 30 Sep 2011, and then turns in his records on 05 October 2011. By what date does the commander have to complete the process of evaluating the new crewmember?
 Definition
(14 Nov 2011): The records review and any required PFE must be completed within 45 calendar days from sign in
Term
A new crewmember is designated RL-1 on 15 Feb 2012. His birth date was 30 Sep 1996. He is a FAC 2. What is his (prorated) simulator flight time requirement for the first semiannual period?
 Definition
.666 hours
Term
What are 5 characteristics of an effective assessment?
 Definition
FASTCOCO=
Flexible / Acceptable / Specific / Thoughtful / Constructive / Objective / Comprehensive / Organized
Term
During the 2012 World Series, a Phillies fan saw that the close play at first base was clearly an “out.” The Tampa Bay fan next to him saw that the base runner was “safe by a mile.” This difference in perceptions may be a result of the two fans having different what?
 Definition
Goals and Values (From Factors Affecting Perception)
Term
A golfer is alone. He is trying to lower his handicap. He takes a bucket of balls, and a five iron. He stands 50 yards from the hole, and one after another, he hits each golf ball towards the same hole in exactly the same way, until the movement becomes automatic. What type of practice is this?
 Definition
Blocked
Term
In the middle of the darkest night of the year, Fred walks from Hangar 1 to the shelter without using a flashlight. There is no moon, and no ambient light. What type of vision allows him to do this?
 Definition
Scotopic
Term
Following local anesthesia, for how long is a crewmember grounded?
 Definition
12 Hours
Term
Following a blood donation of 207 cc, for how long is a crewmember grounded?
 Definition
72 hours (200 cc or more)
Term
(True/False) An army crewmember who gets treatment from a chiropractor is required to report this immediately to their flight surgeon or APA.
 Definition
True Ref: AR 40-8 para 4b(4).
Term
(True/False) Army Aircrew will not perform aviation duties for a minimum of 12 hours after the last drink consumed and until no residual effects remain.
 Definition
True Ref: AR 40-8 para 6b
Term
(True/False) Aircrew members requiring corrective lenses in order to achieve 20/20 vision will be restricted from flying duties unless they have in their possession either spectacle or contact lenses which provide 20/20, or better, near and far vision bilaterally. The crewmember may or may not use the spectacle or contact lenses at his/her discretion.
 Definition
False: Ref: AR 40-8 para 7.
Term
(True/False) Army Aircrew use of herbal dietary aids is prohibited unless cleared by the flight surgeon or APA.
 Definition
True: Ref: AR 40-8 para 6c.
Term
Self briefing is not authorized unless approved by the first officer in the grade of _____.
 Definition
0-5 or above in the chain of command. (AR 95-23 para 2-12)
Term
Procedures for reporting and investigating UAS mishaps are prescribed in ___________.
 Definition
DA Pam 385-40 (Ref: AR 95-23 3-6a)
Term
(TRUE/FALSE) For UAC’s who fail to meet ATP requirements: the commander (O-3) will investigate, and complete the investigation within 30 days of notification of the failure. After investigating, the commander may grant a waiver.
 Definition
FALSE
Term
True/False): During the mission approval process, Briefing Officers may only brief missions having a level of mitigated risk that is “moderate” or “low”, without special authorization from the commander.
 Definition
False (Ref: AR 95-23 para 2-12(5)b(2))
Term
Army UAS Operators shall avoid overflying sensitive areas and wildlife conservation areas below _________.
 Definition
2000 ft AGL (ref AR 95-23 para 5-4d)
Term
During RL progression if the exclusion period exceeds 45 consecutive days, what must happen when an operator has not RL progressed within the required period?
 Definition
UAC must re-start their current RL progression
Term
In accordance with the Flight and Ground Operations SOP, UAS operations will be suspended as soon as possible when thunderstorms and lightning are within what distance?
 Definition
25 NM (Ref: Annex A, para. D)
Term
According to the Charlie Company Flight and Ground Operations SOP, when will annual IFRF closeouts occur?
 Definition
No later than 10 days after the birth month period. (ref: Section 8, para 4A5)
Term
According to the Charlie Company Flight and Ground Operations SOP, when will IATF entries be made?
 Definition
As soon after the event as possible, but not later than the following day (ref: Section 8, para 4B)
Term
What category of Terrain Feature is a Draw?
 Definition
Minor Ref: FM 3-25.26, page 10-13
Term
(True/ False): According to AR 95-23, destination weather must be forecast to be equal to or greater than VFR minimums at estimated time of arrival plus or minus 1 hour.
 Definition
False: ETA plus one hour. (Ref 95-23, para. 5-2c(2)(e)(4)).
Term
__________________________ occurs when a portion of the Laser beam energy is scattered by obscurants along the laser to target LOS and the missile to target LOS, resulting in reduced Laser energy to the seeker.
 Definition
Attenuation
Term
What are the 5 steps to the Risk Assessment process according to the TC 1-696?
 Definition
5 steps to the Risk Assessment process:
a. Identify Hazards
b. Assess Hazards
c. Develop Controls
d. Implement Controls
e. Supervise and Evaluate
Term
According to the 2008 IPH (Para. 8-17) there are 5 hazardous attitudes that can affect a pilot’s ability to make sound decisions and exercise authority properly. List 3 of the 5 hazardous attitudes.
 Definition
5 hazardous attitudes:
a) Anti-authority
b) Impulsivity
c) Invulnerability
d) Macho
e) Resignation (Ref: 2008 IPH 8-17)
Term
Which obstacle to learning during flight instruction does the following statement describe? “Students can become uninterested when they recognize that the instructor has not prepared for the instruction being given, or when the instruction appears to be deficient, contradictory, or insincere”.
 Definition
Apathy due to inadequate instruction (Ref: 2008 IPH 8-5)
Term
(True / False): IAW TC 1-696, a Local Area Orientation may be conducted in a simulator.
 Definition
False ( IAW TC 1-696 para 2-30) LAO must be flight
Term
In the remarks section of a METAR what does the abbreviation TSNO mean?
 Definition
Thunderstorm Information not available
Term
True or False: Spins highlights modifies or supplements data contained th the ACO
 Definition
FALSE, ATO
Term
According to TC-1-696, certain events on the DA Form 7122-R require the commander's approval and signature. What are these events?
 Definition
Nonmedical suspensions
Flight (or other proficiency) suspensions
Crewmember's return to duty after these two previous events
Extensions or waivers
Ref TC 1-696 para. 5-21
Term
Individual waivers to primary UAS ATP requirements may be granted by the first______or above, in the individual's chain of command.
 Definition
O-6
Term
What must happen when an operator has not progressed within the required time period?
 Definition
Commander will investigate.
Term
True or False: While perfoming IO/SO duties evaluating an APART standardization flight, IOs/SOs may credit this event as part of their APART standardization flight ecaluation requirements.
 Definition
FALSE
Term
True or False: IAW AR95-23 the first commander, O-3 or above in the chain of command may, on a case by case basis direct use of a compatible UAS flight simulator if circumstance preclude safe, affordable, or timely evaluation the the UAS(except for these EO duties requiring takeoff and landing performance evaluation.
 Definition
FALSE
Term
Is mode C transponder required in class D airspace.
 Definition
No, However it is required at Libby AAF.
Term
What is the minimum sky condition that is considered a ceiling?
 Definition
Broken.
Term
Which of the following is NOT part of the ATP?
RL progression, APART, Currency requirements, Tasks and iterations
 Definition
Currency requirements.
Term
When a crewmember is reclassified to RL2 or RL3 because of a flight deficiency, the crewmwmber needs to demonstrate profiency in all base and mission tasks.
 Definition
FALSE.
Term
Active army UACs have ______ consecutive days to progress from one RL to the next.
 Definition
90
Term
True or false: Units deployed for contingency operations, the first O-5 commander may waive launch and recovery requirements for forward site personnel when conducting split base operations.
 Definition
FALSE
Term
In which series of tasks must a UAC demonstrate proficiency from RL3 to RL2.
 Definition
Base tasks.
Term
True or False: When ATP requirements are not met the commander will complete the investigation within 45 days of notification of the failure.
 Definition
FALSE
Term
When is a post mishap evaluation mandatory before a crewmwmber can continue performing flight duties IAW 95-23?
 Definition
Any class A or B mishap.
Term
UAS operator's manual written examination. This open book exam is prepared at the unit level and consists of _______ objective questions that cover the entire UAS operators manual.
 Definition
50
Term
Briefing officers/NCOs will be designated in writing by commanders in the grade of ______ or above.
 Definition
O-5
Term
In tactical airspace a killbox consists of ______ keypads.
 Definition
9
Term
True or False: A commander can change a UACs FAC level to reduce flying hour requirements.
 Definition
FALSE
Term
A UAC progressing from RL2 to RL1 must demonstrate profiecency in what series tasks?
 Definition
Mission tasks and any additional tasks selected by the commander.
Term
_______Area: flight prohibited unless authorized by using agency; usually for National Security, but can be for other reasons.
 Definition
Prohibited.
Term
_______Area: May contain unseen hazards to flight and is designated by vertical, lateral, and time restrictions. Must obtain permission to enter when VFR joint use ATC clears you, sole use you must get a clearance.
 Definition
Restricted
Term
_______Area: Hazards to non participating aircraft same as restricted, but extends out from the coast 3-12 nautical miles.
 Definition
Warning
Term
_______Area: Contains high volume of pilot training. Flight is not restricted but caution is advised.
 Definition
Alert
Term
_______Area: Contains military training activities and is separated from IFR traffic. No restrictions but caution is advised.
 Definition
Military operations area (MOA)
Term
What are the 3 types of airspace separation in tactical airspace?
 Definition
vertical, lateral, time
Term
Name the parts to an APART.
 Definition
50 question written examination on operators manual; and Standardization flight evaluation.
Term
What must occur before Commanders can use FAC 3 operators in combat operations?
 Definition
Provide refresher or mission training.
Term
True or False: A UAC must complete a local area orientation before pregressing to RL2.
 Definition
FALSE.
Term
What must a UAC do to reestablish currency if his currency has lapsed?
 Definition
Complete a PFE
Term
True or False: Unit trainers are authorized to credit those hours they fly while perfirming their duties toward their semi-annual flying hour requirements?
 Definition
TRUE
Term
True or False: RL progression tasks evaluated in a more demanding mode may be credited toward completion of each task required by the ATM. "N" is considered the most demanding mode, followed by "D" and SM".
 Definition
FALSE. The provision pertaining to the more demanding mode of flight does not apply. TC 1-696 2-14, Bullet #4.
Term
How many days does a commander have to complete the commander's evaluation?
 Definition
45 calendar days after the crewmember signs in to the unit or after the effective date of the crewmember’s flying status orders, whichever occurs last.
Term
What must be turned in by a crewmember to the commander or designated represintitive upon signing into the unit?
 Definition
individual aircrew training folder (IATF) and individual flight record folder (IFRF), if applicable
Term
Hidden Valley Ranch Dalad Dressing (Hill Valley Ridge Saddle Depression) is an example of what kind of Mnemonic?
 Definition
Acrostic.
Term
Name the 5 hazardous attitudes.
 Definition
Resignation, Anti-authority, Impulsivity, Invulnerability, Macho
Term
'A person fakes a belief offosite to the true belief because the true belief causes anxiety' is the definition of what defense mechanism?
 Definition
Reaction formation
Term
'A subconscious technique for justifying actions that otherwise would be unacceptable' is the definition of what defense mechanism?
 Definition
Rationalilzation.
Term
'Results in an unconcious shift of emotion, affect, or desire from the original object to a more acceptable, less threatening substitute.' is the definition of what defense mechanism?
 Definition
Displacement
Term
'Occurs when a student engages in daydreams about how things should be rather than doing anything about how things are.' is the definition of what defense mechanism?
 Definition
Fantasy
Term
Which defense mechanism is it when a person places uncomfortable thoughts into inaccessable areas of the unconcious mind?
 Definition
Repression
Term
TRUE/FALSE: Never exceed speed (Vne) for the MQ-1C is 130 KTAS or 180 KIAS whichever is lower.
 Definition
FALSE. 130 KIAS or 180 KTAS whichever is lower.
Term
For the MQ-1C If a lost link is detected, the flight computer will wait a fixed period of time, before engaging lost link procedures. what is that fixed period of time?
 Definition
From 2 to 5 seconds based on datalink type lost.
Term
IAW AR 40-8 is self medication authorized?
 Definition
Yes. Self-medication is permitted only in accordance with the over-the-counter medication aeromedical policy letter (APL).
Term
Which of the responses to stress (Emotional, Behavioral, Cognitive, Physical)"can adversely effect one's work performance, dcecrease motivation, and increase the likelihood of conflict insubordination, and violance in the workplace"?
 Definition
Behavioral
Term
Which of the responses to stress (Emotional, Behavioral, Cognitive, Physical)is "can significantly effect ones thought process. It can decrease attention and concentration interferes with judgement and problem solving"?
 Definition
Cognitive
Term
_______-is "when the seeker is looking for scatter laser energy, it must be able to "see" the reflecting surface. When a laser designates a surface that the seeker can't see, the reflections are blocked or reflected away from the seeker head."
 Definition
Podium effect.
Term
______- is "The result of motion of the designator or the beam developed by the designator around the intended aim point."
 Definition
Spot Jitter
Term
_______- is "caused by placing the laser spot too high on the target so that beam divergence and jitter cause the spot or a portion of the spot to spill over onto the terrain behind the target."
 Definition
Overspill
Term
________- "applies to a portion of the laser beam energy reflected off the atmospheric particles in the laser back toward the designator while the remainder of the laser energy penertates toward the target."
 Definition
Backscatter
Term
Name the 6 elements of a call for fire in the order of which they are transmitted.
 Definition
Observer ID
Warning Order
Target location
Target description
Method of engagement
Method of fire and control
Term
Which of the 4 factors that determine the amount of IR energy does the following statement describe- "The ratio of radiant energy that, having entered a body, reaches its farther boundry"?
 Definition
Transmittance
Term
What are the 4 kinds of stressors?
 Definition
Phisiological, Phycosocial, Environmental, Cognitive.
Term
If AOA is increased beyond a critical angle of attack, flow across the top of the airfoil will be disrupter, boundry layer separation will occur, resulting in what?
 Definition
Aircraft Stall.
Term
What are the 4 responses to stress?
 Definition
Physical, Emotional, Behavioral, Cognitive.
Term
Maslow's Hierarchy of needs?
 Definition
(bottom to top) Physiological, safety and security, Love and belongingness, Self esteem, Cognitive and asthetic, Self actualization.
Term
Out of concrete, soil, water, and vegetation, which items do not crossover with each other?
 Definition
Soil and concrete do not cross over with vegetation.
Term
________the demonstration performance method is divided into 5 phases. Name them.
 Definition
Explanation, demonstration, student performance, instructor supervision, evaluation.
Term
Types of errors.
 Definition
Slip, Mistake.
Term
Laws of learning.
 Definition
Readiness
Exercise
Effect
Primacy
Intensity
Recency
Term
Theories of forgetting.
 Definition
Disuse
Retrieval failure
Suppression or repression
Interference
Fading
Term
Types of practice.
 Definition
Deliberate, Random, Blocked
Term
Aeronautical decision making.
 Definition
Perceives
Process
Perform
Term
Teaching methods.
 Definition
Lecture, discussion, guided discussion, problem based, group learning, demonstration-performance method, E-learning.