Term
| What are the purposes of health care? |
|
Definition
- Health promotion
- Disease prevention
- Detection and treatment of disease
- Rehab and restorative care |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Sudden illness from which the person is expected to recover |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An on-going illness that is slow or gradual in onset. There is no known cure. The illness can be controlled and complications prevented with proper treatment. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An Illness or injury from which the person will not likely recover. The person will die. |
|
|
Term
| Rehabilitation and Subacute Care Agencies |
|
Definition
| Care needs fall between hospital care and long-term care |
|
|
Term
| Long-Term Care Centers (Nursing Homes, Nursing Facilities, Nursing Centers) |
|
Definition
| Some people cannot care for themselves at home but do not need hospital care...They go to these facilities. Patients are called residents. |
|
|
Term
| Skilled Nursing Facilities (SNFs) |
|
Definition
| Provide more complex care than nursing centers. Residents need rehab or time to recover from illness or surgery. |
|
|
Term
| Assisted Living Residence (ALR) |
|
Definition
| Provides housing, personal care, support services, health care, and social activities in a home-like setting for persons needing help with daily activities. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Health care agency or program for persons who are dying. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Involves the many health care workers whose skills and knowledge focus on the person's total care. |
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for the entire nursing staff? |
|
Definition
| The DON (Director of Nursing) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Perform delegated nursing tasks under the supervision of a licensed nurse |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Focuses on tasks and jobs. Each nursing team member has certain jobs and tasks to do. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Involves a team of nursing staff led by an RN |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Involves total care... The primary nurse is responsible for the person's total care. The RN gives nursing care and makes discharge plans, the team assists as needed. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Similar to primary nursing. A case manager (RN) coordinates a person's care from admission through discharge and into the home or long-term care setting. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When services are moved from departments to the bedside. Nursing team performs skills usually done by other health team members (i.e. drawing blood samples) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Federal health insurance program for persons 65 and older |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Healthcare payment program for people with low income |
|
|
Term
| Helping people return to their highest physical and mental function is called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rehabilitation starts when the |
|
Definition
| Person first seeks health care |
|
|
Term
| A health care program for dying persons is____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who controls policy in the health care agency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is voluntary for health care agencies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) |
|
Definition
| Federal law; requires that nursing centers provide care in a manner and in a setting that maintains or improves each person's quality of life, health, and safety. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Any person who has the legal right to act on the resident's behalf when he or she cannot do so for themselves |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Access to all records about the person, including medical records. |
|
|
Term
| Does the CNA give information (i.e. medical record, Doctor Name, etc.) to person or family? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does the person have the right to refuse treatment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Separating the person from others against his/her will, keeping the person in certain area, keeping the person away from his or her room without consent. Violates rights. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Someone who supports or promotes the needs and interests of another person |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Each state has one; it protects the public's welfare and safety by regulating nursing practice. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The nursing care or a nursing function, procedure, activity, or work that can be delegated to nursing assistants when it does not require an RN's professional knowledge or judment |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1.) Assess and Plan
2.) Communication
3.) Surveillance and Supervision
4.) Evaluation and Feedback |
|
|
Term
| Five Rights of Delegation |
|
Definition
- The Right Task
- The Right Circumstances
- The Right Person
- The Right Directions and Communication
- The Right Supervision |
|
|
Term
| Who requires a training and competency evaluation program for nursing assistants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As a nursing assistant who is responsible for your actions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you perform a task not allowed by your state... |
|
Definition
| You could be practicing nursing without a license |
|
|
Term
| Can you refuse a task delegated to you? |
|
Definition
| Yes, if for the right reason. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Separate helpful behaviors from behaviors that are not helpful |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A brief act or behavior outside of the helpful zone |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An act or behavior that meets your needs, not the person's. Includes abuse, giving too much info about yourself, keeping secrets with a patient. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Acts, behaviors, or thoughts that warn of a boundary crossing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Concerned with offenses against the public and society in general |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Laws concerned with relationships between people |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A wrong committed against a person or the person's property |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An unintentional wrong due to a person not acting in a reasonable and careful manner |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Negligence by a professional person |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The skills, care, and judgments required by a health team member under similar conditions |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Acts meant to be harmful and done on purpose (i.e. defamation, false imprisonment) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Injuring a person's name and reputation by making false statements to a third person |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Making false statements in print, writing, or through pictures or drawing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Making false statements orally |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Intentionally attempting or threatening to touch a person's body, without their consent |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Touching a person without his/her consent |
|
|
Term
| Is a CNA ever responsible for obtaining written consent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Legal document of how a person wants property distributed after death |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The sillful infliction of injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation or punishment that results in physical harm, pain, or mental anguish. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Persons 18 years old or older who have disabilities or conditions that make them at risk to be wounded, attached or damaged |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Failure to provide the person with the goods or services needed to avoid physical harm, mental anguish, or mental illness |
|
|
Term
| Informed consent is when the person |
|
Definition
| fully understands all aspects of his or her treatment |
|
|
Term
| You leave a home care patient before completing your assignment. This is abuse by ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should you do if you suspect someone is being abused? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Any thing in the person's setting that may cause injury or illness |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| loss of muscle function, sensation, or both |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Paralysis in the legs and lower trunk |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Paralysis in the arms, legs and trunk |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Paralysis on one side of the body |
|
|
Term
| Superficial (First Degree) Burn |
|
Definition
| Burn involving the epidermis (top layer of skin). Ex. sunburn. Skin is red and painful to the touch |
|
|
Term
| Partial-Thickness (2nd Degree) Burn |
|
Definition
| Involves the epidermis and dermis; skin appears deep red; person has lots of pain and blisters |
|
|
Term
| Full-Thickness (3rd Degree) Burn |
|
Definition
| The epidermis, dermis, fat, muscle, and bone may be injured or destroyed. The skin appears charred or has white/brown/black patches. Nerve endings destroyed, no pain. |
|
|
Term
| Foreign Body Airway Obstruction (FBAO) |
|
Definition
| Choking when foreign bodies obstruct airway |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Breathing stops from lack of O2. Common causes - choking, drowning, inhaling gas or smoke, strangulation, and electrical shock. |
|
|
Term
| Who cannot have abdominal thrusts done on them? What is used instead? |
|
Definition
| Pregnant women or obese individuals. Chest thrusts are used instead |
|
|
Term
| What is used to relieve choking? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you relieve choking in infants? |
|
Definition
| Back slaps and chest thrusts |
|
|
Term
| Hand positioning for abdominal thrusts? |
|
Definition
| Fist is slightly above the navel in the midline of the abdomen and the other hand clasps the fist. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Rescue
Alarm
Confine
Extinguish |
|
|
Term
| How to use a fire extinguisher |
|
Definition
Pull the safety pin
Aim low
Squeeze the lever
Sweep back and forth
P-A-S-S |
|
|
Term
| Color coded wristbands - what is the meaning for purple, red, and yellow? |
|
Definition
Purple - DNR
Red - Allergy
Yellow - Fall Risk |
|
|
Term
| When do most falls occur? |
|
Definition
| Between 4:00PM and 8:00PM or during shift change |
|
|
Term
| What is the main cause of injury-related deaths in older adults? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Transfer belt (gait belt) |
|
Definition
| Device used to support a person who is unsteady or disabled |
|
|
Term
| Where do most falls occur? |
|
Definition
| Patient and resident rooms and bathrooms |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Any manual method or physical or mechanical device, material, or equipment attached to or near the person's body that he or she cannot remove easily and then restricts freedom of movement or normal access to one's body |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Any drug used for discipline or convenience and not required to treat medical symptoms |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Any change in place or position of the body or any part of the body that the person is able to control |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The manual method, device, material, or equipment used to restrain the person that can be removed intentionally by the person in the same manner is was applied by the staff |
|
|
Term
| When can you use a restraint? |
|
Definition
| When all other appropriate alternatives are considered and tried first and when it is necessary to treat a person's medical symptoms. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A device that limits freedom of movement but is used to promote independence, comfort, or safety. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most serious risk of death from restraints? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Unnecessary restraint is... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is required to apply a restraint? |
|
Definition
| A doctor's orders and informed consent |
|
|
Term
| How often should you observe someone in restraints? |
|
Definition
| At least every 15 minutes or as often as noted in the care plan |
|
|
Term
| How often should you remove restraints, re-position the person, and meet basic needs? |
|
Definition
| Every 2 hours; restraint should be released for at least 10 minutes |
|
|
Term
| How much space should there be for a restraint? |
|
Definition
| You should be able to slide a flat hand between the restraint and the person |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A disease state resulting from the invasion and growth of microbes in the body |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Microbes that are harmful and can cause infections |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1.Bacteria (often called germs)
2.Fungi
3. Protozoa
4.Rickettsiae
5. Viruses |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Microbes need one to grow; it is an environment in which a microbe lives and grows |
|
|
Term
| Things microbes need to survive |
|
Definition
| Water, nourishment, oxygen, dark/warm environment |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Microbes that live and grow in a certain area |
|
|
Term
| Multidrug-resistant organisms (MDROs) |
|
Definition
| Microbes that can resist the effects of antibiotics |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Drugs that kill certain microbes that cause infections; can be caused by overprescription of antibiotics |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
- Vancomycin-resistant Enterococci (VRE) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Infection involving the whole body |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A human or animal that is a reservoir for microbes but does not develop the infection. Carriers can pass pathogens to others. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A Carrier that transmits disease. Common examples: dogs (rabies), Mosquitoes (malaria), Ticks (Rocky Mountain spotted fever), Mites (scabies) |
|
|
Term
| What are the portals of exit/entry? |
|
Definition
| Respiratory, GI, urinary, and reproductive tracts; breaks in the skin, and the blood |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Any substance that transmits microbes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Persons at risk for infection |
|
|
Term
| Who is at great risk for infections? |
|
Definition
| Burn patients, transplant patients, chemotherapy patients |
|
|
Term
| Healthcare-Associated Infection (HAI) |
|
Definition
| An infection that developes in a person cared for in any setting where health care is given |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Being free of disease-producing microbes |
|
|
Term
| Medical asepsis (clean technique) |
|
Definition
| Practices used to remove/destroy pathogens and prevent pathogens from spreading |
|
|
Term
| Surgical asepsis (Sterile technique) |
|
Definition
| Practices that keep items free of all microbes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Process of destroying pathogens |
|
|
Term
| Communicable diseases (contagious diseases) |
|
Definition
| Diseases caused by pathogens that spread easily |
|
|
Term
| Who are standard precautions used for? |
|
Definition
| All persons whenever care is given |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Items contaminated with blood, body fluids, secretions, or excretions |
|
|
Term
| What are two major bloodborne pathogens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Using the body in an efficient and careful way |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The way the head, trunk, arms, and legs are aligned with one another |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The area on which an object rests |
|
|
Term
| For good body mechanics... |
|
Definition
| Bend your knees and quat to lift a heavy object. Hold items close to your body and base of support. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The science of designing a job to fit the worker |
|
|
Term
| Risk factors for MSDs (musculo-skeletal disorders) |
|
Definition
| Force, repeating action, awkward posture, heavy lifting |
|
|
Term
| Because they have limited range of motion in their necks, older people may not tolerate these positions: |
|
Definition
| Prone position or Sims' position |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Semi-sitting position; head of the bed is raised between 45 and 60 degrees |
|
|
Term
| Supine Position (dorsal recumbent position) |
|
Definition
| Back-lying position. Bed is flat, head and shoulders supported on a pillow |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Person lies on abdomen with head turned to one side |
|
|
Term
| Lateral position (side-lying position) |
|
Definition
| Person lies on one side or the other; bed is flat |
|
|
Term
| Sims' Position (Semi-prone side position) |
|
Definition
| Left side-lying position. The upper leg (right) is sharply flexed so it is not on the lower leg. Lower arm (left) is behind the person. Bed is flat. |
|
|
Term
| Good alignment for sitting in a chair: |
|
Definition
-Person's back and buttocks against back of chair
- Feet flat on floor
- Backs of knees and calves are sligthly away from the edge of the seat |
|
|
Term
| If restraints are used, what is not used in a chair? |
|
Definition
| A pillow is not used behind the back if restraints are used |
|
|
Term
| Which action is easier: pushing or pulling? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patients and residents are re-positioned at least every: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Breathing is usually easiest in what position? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A pillow is placed against the person's back in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the levels of dependence? |
|
Definition
Code 4: Total Dependence
Code 3: Extensive Assistance
Code 2: Limited Assistance
Code 1: Supervision
Code 0: Independent |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Rubbing of one surface against another. When moved in bed, the person's skin rubs against the sheet. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When the skin sticks to a surface while muscles slide in the direction the body is moving. Occurs when the person slides down in bed or is moved in bed. |
|
|
Term
| How to reduce friction and shearing? |
|
Definition
| Roll the person; use friction-reducing devies |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Turning the person as a unit, in alignent, with one motion |
|
|
Term
| Who needs to be logrolled? |
|
Definition
| Older persons with arthritic spines/knees; persons recovering from hip fractures; persons with spinal cord injuries; persons recovering from spinal surgery |
|
|
Term
| Which side moves first for a safe transfer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When you move or transfer a person, you must protec their_____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As an assist device, a drawsheet is place so that it |
|
Definition
| is uder the person from the head to above knees |
|
|
Term
| Before turning a person onto his/her side, you _____ |
|
Definition
| Move the person to the side of the bed |
|
|
Term
| A person is goingn to sit on the side of the bed. You need to know _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For chair and wheelchair transfers, the person must wear ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many workers are needed to safely transfer a person with a mechanical lift? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Room temperature levels recommened by OBRA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For safety, what position should bed cranks be at unless in use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Semi-sitting position; head of bed is raised 60-90 degrees |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Head of the bed is raised 30 degrees; sometimes the knee portion is raised 15 degrees |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The head of the bed is lowered and the foot of the bed is raised |
|
|
Term
| Reverse Trendelenburg's Position |
|
Definition
| Head of the bed is raised and the foot is lowered |
|
|
Term
| Where is the bedpan stored? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A bed not in use; top linenes are not folded back. Bed is ready for a new patient or resident. In nursing centers, closed beds are made for residents who are up during the day. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Bed in use; top linens are fan-folded back so the person can get into bed. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Bed made with the person in it |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Made to transfer a person from a stretcher to bed. This bed is also made for a person who arrives by ambulance |
|
|
Term
| When handling linens, where do you hold them |
|
Definition
| Away from body; your uniform is considered dirty |
|
|
Term
| Extra linen is considered _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Collect linen in the order |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Small sheet placed over the middle of the bottom sheet |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Helps keep the mattress and bottom linens clean; always used when a waterproof drawsheet is used |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Drawsheet made of plastic, rubber, or absorbent material |
|
|
Term
| A surgical bed is kept in what position? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four vital signs (in order you record them)? |
|
Definition
Temperature
Pulse
Respirations
Blood Pressure |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The amount of heat in the body; it is a balance between the amount of heat produced and the amount lost by the body |
|
|
Term
| For who is an oral temperature NOT taken? |
|
Definition
-Children under 4/5
-Unconscious/surgery or injury to face, neck, nose or mouth
- Receiving O2
- NG tube |
|
|
Term
| When is a rectal site not used? Who is it used for? |
|
Definition
| Used for children under 3. Not taken when the person has diarrhea, has heart disease, had rectal surgery, is confused/agitated. |
|
|
Term
| Why is a rectal temperature dangerous for someone with a heart disease? |
|
Definition
| May stimulate vagus nerve (slows down heart) |
|
|
Term
| What are the five temperature sites? |
|
Definition
| Mouth, rectum, axilla, tympanic membrane (ear), temporal artery (forehead). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Elevated body temperature |
|
|
Term
| Normal range for oral temperature |
|
Definition
| 97.6 to 99.6 F (36.5 to 37.5 C) |
|
|
Term
| Normal range for rectal temperature |
|
Definition
| 98.6 to 100.6 F (37.0 to 38.1 C) |
|
|
Term
| How long does a glass thermometer remain in the rectum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do older people have higher or lower body temperatures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which color thermometer probe is used for which site? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The beat of the heart felt at an artery as a wave of blood passes through the artery |
|
|
Term
| Which pulse site is used most often? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which pulse site is used to take blood pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which pulse site is used when stethoscope is used? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the pulse site on the foot called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The number of heartbeats felt in 1 minute |
|
|
Term
| If a pulse is irregular, how long do you count for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Normal adulte pulse rate range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Rapid heart rate (100+ per minute) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Slow heart rate (less than 60 BPM) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The difference between the apical and radial pulse |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| One person takes radial pulse at the same time another person takes apical pulse |
|
|
Term
| Which is never greater - the apical or radial pulse? |
|
Definition
| The radial rate is never greater than the apical rate |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Breathing air into and out of lungs |
|
|
Term
| Normal adult respiration rate range? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Normal respiratory rate for infants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The amount of force exerted against the walls of an artery by the blood |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The period of heart muscle contraction; the heart is pumping blood |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Period of heart muscle relaxation; heart is at rest |
|
|
Term
| How is blood pressure measured? |
|
Definition
| Measured in mm of mercury (mm HG). Systolic pressure over diastolic pressure |
|
|
Term
| What are the normal ranges for systolic and diastolic pressure? |
|
Definition
Systolic: 90 mm HG or higher; lower than 120 mm HG
Diastolic: 60 mm HG or higher but lower than 80 mm HG |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When the systolic pressure is 140 mm HG or higher; or the diastolic pressure is 90 mm HG or higher |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When the systolic pressure is below 90 mm HG; or the diastolic pressure is below 60 mm HG |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cuff and measuring device used to measure BP |
|
|
Term
| When taking pulse ox, what finger shouldn't be used? |
|
Definition
| The finger where you are taking BP |
|
|
Term
| What gives the least accurate measurement of body temperature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When taking the BP what arm shouldn't you use? |
|
Definition
| The arm with an IV infusion |
|
|
Term
| If you're not sure of an accurate BP, how long should you wait to take it again? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Emergency care given to an ill or injured person before medical help arrives |
|
|
Term
| What are the goals of first aid? |
|
Definition
-Prevent Death
-Prevent injuries from worsening |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When the heart stop suddenly and without warning |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 major signs of sudden cardiac arrest (SCA)? |
|
Definition
1.No response
2. No breathing or no normal breathing
3. No pulse |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Abnormal heart rhythm; heart cannot pump blood; normal rhythm must be restored or else person will die |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When breathing stops but heart action continues for several minutes |
|
|
Term
| How often to give rescue breaths for adults? For infants/children? |
|
Definition
Adults - 1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds
Children - 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Chest compressions
- Airway
-Breathing
- Defibrillation |
|
|
Term
| What artery to use for CPR? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How far should adult chest be depressed when giving chest compressions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the compression rate for chest compressions during CPR? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the CPR cycle for adults? |
|
Definition
| 2 breaths are given after every 30 chest compressions |
|
|
Term
| Why is a barrier device used when breaths are given during CPR? |
|
Definition
| Prevents contact with the person's mouth and blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions. |
|
|
Term
| What position is used when the person is breathing and has a pulse but is not responding? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Excessive loss of blood in a short time |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Results when organs and tissues do not get enough blood |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Life-threatening sensitivity to an antigen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Occurs when the brain is suddenly deprived of its blood supply |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Only one part of the brain is involved; a body part may jerk; person does not use consciousness |
|
|
Term
| Generalized tonic-clonic seizure (grand mal seizure) |
|
Definition
| This type of seizure has 2 phases: tonic phase - the person loses consciousness, body rigid; then clonic phase - muscle groups contract and relax - jerking and twitching |
|
|
Term
| Generalized absence (petit mal) seizure |
|
Definition
| Usually lasts only a few seconds, there is loss of consciousness, twitching of the eyelids and staring. No first aid is needed. |
|
|
Term
| When giving first aid you should know ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Two rescuers are giving a child CPR. Rescue breaths are given ___ |
|
Definition
| After every 15 compressions |
|
|
Term
| Arterial bleeding occurs ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If someone is hemorrhaging externally, what should you do? |
|
Definition
| Apply direct pressure to the wound |
|
|
Term
| A person is about to faint. What should you do? |
|
Definition
| Have them sit or lie down |
|
|
Term
| Should you give someone food or drink if they've had shock? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should you cover a burn with? |
|
Definition
| Clean, moist cloth or dressing |
|
|
Term
| What does the USDA recommend that adults do for exercise? |
|
Definition
| At least 2 hours and 30 minutes a week of moderate activity; 1 hour and 15 minutes each week of vigorous physical activity |
|
|
Term
| The body needs no more than ___ mg of sodium per day |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Breathing fluid, food, vomitus, or an object into lungs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When fluid intake exceeds fluid output, body tissues swell with water. Common in people with heart and kidney disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Decrease in the amount of water in body tissues; fluid output exceeds intake |
|
|
Term
| What is the amount of water needed daily to survive? What is the amount needed for normal fluid balance? |
|
Definition
To survive: 1500 mL / day
Normal range: 2000 to 2500 mL/day |
|
|
Term
| What causes an increase in fluid needs? |
|
Definition
| Hot weather, exercise, fever, illness, excess fluid loss |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The many processes involved in ingestion, digestion, absorption, and use of food and fluids by the body |
|
|
Term
MyPlate encourages the following except:
a. The same diet for everyone
b. Balancing calories
c. Increasing the amounts of fruits and veggies
d. choosing low sodium foods |
|
Definition
| a. The same diet for everyone |
|
|
Term
| On a 2000 calorie diet, what is the amount of grains needed for an adult woman? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is protein needed for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| OBRA requires what in terms of meals? |
|
Definition
| 3 regular meals and a bedtime snack |
|
|
Term
| A person is NPO. Should they have a water pitcher? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are ice cream, sherbet, custard, pudding, Jell-O, posicles, and creamed cereal considered liquid foods? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is butter, sauces, and melted cheese considered a liquid food? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Residents serve themselves from bowls and platters on the tables. This is a ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you use to feed a person? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Before providing a fresh drinking water, you need to know the person's ___- |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When re-heating cooked food, the food temperature should be |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the danger zone for food? |
|
Definition
| Between 40 degrees F and 140 degrees F |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Used to record measurements and observations made daily, every shift, or 3-4 times a day (i.e. vital signs, weight, I&O etc.) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| describes the care given and the person's response progress |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Used to record frequent measurements or observations (i.e. something measured every 30 min) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Card file that summarizes information in the medical record |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| At or toward the front of the body or body part |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| At or toward the back of the body or body part |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| THe part nearest to the center or to the point of origin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The part farthest from the center or from the point of attachment |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Away from the mid-line; at the side of the body or body part |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Away from the mid-line; at the side of the body or body part |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| At or near the middle or mid-line of the body or body part |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 abdominal regions? |
|
Definition
| Right upper quadrant, Left upper quadrant, Right lower quadrant, Left lower quadrant |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1.) Define the problem
2.) Collect information about the problem
3.) Identify possible solution
4.) Select the best solution
5.) Carry out the solution
6.) Evaluate the results |
|
|
Term
| Can you access all medical records in the agency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can you give patient information over the phone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is the medical record temporary or permanent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Should you erase errors on the medical record? |
|
Definition
| No. Never erase. Cross out, initial, and fix. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The method nurses use to plan and deliver nursing care |
|
|
Term
| Five steps in the nursing process |
|
Definition
1) Assessment
2) Nursing Diagnosis
3) Planning
4)Implementation
5) Evaluation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Collecting information about the person |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Using the senses of sight, hearing, touch, and smell to collect information |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Signs; seen, heard, felt, or smelled by the observer. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Symptoms; Things a person tells you that you cannot observe through your senses (i.e. pain, nausea, fear) |
|
|
Term
| What is a nursing diagnosis? |
|
Definition
| Describes a health problem that can be treated by nursing measures; one patient may have more than one. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| INvolves setting priorities and goals during nursing process |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Action or measure taken by the nursing team to help the person reach a goal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Step in nursing process where nursing measures (interventions) are performed and carried out. Care is given in this step. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Step in nursing process where goals of planning step are measured to see if they were met |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the measures to help the person |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The concept that considers the whole person. The whole person has physical, social, psychological, and spiritual parts. |
|
|
Term
| What are the basic needs from the lowest level to the highest level? |
|
Definition
- Physical Needs
- Safety and security needs
- Love and belonging needs
- Self-esteem needs
- The need for self-actualization |
|
|
Term
| What is self-actualization? |
|
Definition
| Experiencing one's potential, this need is rarely met |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Any lost, absent or impaired physical or mental function |
|
|
Term
| Optimal level of function |
|
Definition
| This is the person's highest potential for mental and physical performance |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Restating the person's message in your own words |
|
|
Term
| What are communication barriers? |
|
Definition
- Using unfamiliar language
- Cultural differences
- Changing the subject
- Giving your opinion
- Talkig a lot when others are silent
- Failure to listen
- Pat answers
- Illness and disability
- Age |
|
|
Term
| Which basic need is the most essential? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A person has a garden behind the nursing center. This relates to ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True or False: Verbal communication is the truest reflection of a person's feelings |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What might mean that you are not listening to a person? |
|
Definition
| You sit with your arms crossed, don't face them, etc. |
|
|
Term
| A person wants to take a shower. You say, "You would like to take a shower." This is ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the largest body system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The basic unit of body structure is the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The outer layer os the skin is called the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Skeletal muscles are a.) voluntary b.) involuntary |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The liquid part of the blood is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part of the heart pumps blood to the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which carry blood away fromt he heart? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Digestion begins in the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most food absorption takes place in the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Urine is formed in the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Urine passes from the body through the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The male sex gland is called the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The female sex gland is the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The discharge of the lining of the uterus is called ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The endocrine glands secrete ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The immune system protects the body from ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The physical changes that are measured and that occur in a steady and orderly manner |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Relates to changes in mental, emotion, and social function |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Skill that must be completed during a stage of development |
|
|
Term
| What direction does growth and development occur? |
|
Definition
| From head to foot; from center of the body outward |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Startle reflex; when the baby is startled by a loud noise and throws out arms and legs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When the cheek is touched near the mouth, the mouth opens and the head turns toward the touch. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Reflex that occurs when the lips are touched |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Reflex occurs when the palm is stroked and the fingers close firmly around the object. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Occurs when the baby is held upright and the feet touch a surface, move up and down in stepping motions |
|
|
Term
| True or False: Growth and development occurs at a set pace? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is one of the first tasks that happens during infancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An infant can stand alone at |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Infants point and use gestures to communicate at around ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Toilet training begins in ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Playing with other children begins during ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Losing baby teeth usually begins at the age of ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Peer groups become important to ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who reaches puberty first: girls or boys? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Middle adulthood is from about ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is at risk for burns? |
|
Definition
| Infants, young children, and older adults |
|
|
Term
| If someone can't communicate well, what might signal pain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| To expand or open wider; blood flow increases: tissues have more oxygen and nutrients and healing; the skin is red warm |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Blood vessels, narrow, blood flow decreases, tissues receive less blood, skin is pale |
|
|
Term
| What does heat cause? Dilation or constriction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does cold cause: dilation or constriction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of heat application penetrates deepest? |
|
Definition
| Moist heat applications, thus they have lower temperatures |
|
|
Term
| Complications from cold applications |
|
Definition
| Pain, burns, blisters, and poor circulation |
|
|
Term
| What is the temperature range for hot and cold applications? |
|
Definition
Hot: 98 F - 106 F
Cold: 50 F -65 F |
|
|
Term
| How often should you check a hot or cold application? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum amount of time that a hot or cold application is left on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Body temp that is much higher than the person's normal range (greater than 103 degrees F) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Very low body temp (less than 95 degrees F) |
|
|
Term
| The greatest threat from heat applications is ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The perineum and rectal areas are immersed in warm water; Clean the perineum, relieve pain, increase circulation, or stimulate voiding; weakness and fainting can occur. |
|
|
Term
| How long should patient back massages last? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is the best time to floss? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Purposes of bathing include: |
|
Definition
- Increasing circulation
- Exercising body parts
- Refreshing and relaxing the person |
|
|
Term
| To apply powder you should ___ |
|
Definition
| Sprinkle a small amount onto your hand |
|
|
Term
| When washing what area do you was from and what are do you wash to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Water for a complete bed bath is at least what temperature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What position is best for a back massage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Water temperature for perineal care is at least what temperature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is done every time you assist with hygiene measures throughout the day? |
|
Definition
| Face and hand washing; oral hygiene |
|
|
Term
| Sponge swabs are used for ___ |
|
Definition
| Persons with sore, tender mouths, and for unconscious persons |
|
|
Term
| When providing mouth care for an unconscious person, what position should the person be on |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often is mouth care given to an unconscious person? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If dentures are not worn after cleaning, store them in ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Older persons usually need a complete bath or showeer only twice a week because ____ |
|
Definition
| Dry skin often occurs with aging |
|
|
Term
| When you are giving a complete bed bath, the bed is made ____ |
|
Definition
| after the bath is complete |
|
|
Term
| When do you offer the bedpan, urinal, commode or bathroom to use when giving a bath? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do not use soap when washing ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During the bath, the bath blanket is placed ___ |
|
Definition
| over the person before top linens are removed |
|
|
Term
| The partial bath involves bathing: |
|
Definition
| the face, hands, axillae, back, buttocks, and perineal |
|
|
Term
| A tub bath should not last longer than |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a person is weak or unsteady, a ___ should be used when the person showers. |
|
Definition
| A shower chair, shower trolley, or shower stall |
|
|
Term
| Back massages are dangerous for persons with: |
|
Definition
- Certain heart diseases
- Lung disorders
- Back injuries or surgeries |
|
|
Term
| How many washclothes will you need for perineal care? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Infestation of the scalp with lice |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Infestation of the body with lice |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If someone is on anticoagulents, when you shave them DO NOT use ___ |
|
Definition
| a safety razor (very sharp) |
|
|
Term
| Can you use scissors to clip fingernails? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long do you soak fingernails? How about feet? |
|
Definition
Fingernails: 5-10 minutes
Feet: 15-20 minutes |
|
|
Term
| Remove clothing from which side first? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Put clothing on which side first? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When you are undressing a person, it is usually done where? |
|
Definition
| In bed in the supine position |
|
|
Term
| To provide warmth and privacy when changing clothes, you ____ |
|
Definition
| Cover the persons with a bath blanket |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Giving nutrients into the GI tract through a feeding tube |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Process of giving a tube feeding |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A feeding tube is inserted through the nose into the stomach. Done by a Dr. or RN |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A feeding tube is inserted through nose into the small bowel by a Dr. or RN |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A feeding tube is inserted through a surgically created opening in the stomach. Also called a stomach tube. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A feeding tube is inserted into a surgically created opening in the jejunum of the small intestine |
|
|
Term
| Percutaneous Endoscopic Gastrostomy (PEG) tube |
|
Definition
| A doctor inserts a feeding tube into the stomach through a small incision made through the skin. |
|
|
Term
| What kind of feeding tubes are used for short-term nutritional support (usually less than 6 weeks)? |
|
Definition
| NG and naso-enteral tubes |
|
|
Term
| What kind of feeding tubes are used for long-term nutritional support - usually over 6 weeks? |
|
Definition
| Gastrostomy, jejunostomy, and PEG tubes |
|
|
Term
| What temperature is formula given at through a feeding tube? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens if cold fluid is given through a feeding tube? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Open formula can remain at room temperature for how long? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kinds of tubes have the greatest risk of regurgitation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do CNAs ever insert or check placement of feeding tubes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Paraenteral nutrition (TPN) |
|
Definition
| Giving nutrients through a catheter inserted into a vein |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Giving fluids through a needle or catheter inserted into a vein |
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for IV therapy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are peripheral IV sites? |
|
Definition
| Away from the center of the body (i.e. back of the hand or inner forearm). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Subclavian vein or the internal jugular vein; close to the heart. |
|
|
Term
| Central Venous Catheter/ Central Line |
|
Definition
| Catheter threaded into the superior vena cava or right atrium through central venous sites |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| number of drops per minute (gtt/min) or milliliters per hour (mL/hr) |
|
|
Term
| What do CNAs not do in terms of IV therapy? |
|
Definition
| CNAs do not start or maintain IV therapy, do not regulate flow rate or change IV bags, never give blood or IV drugs |
|
|
Term
| For a tube feeding, the person is positioned in ____ |
|
Definition
| Folwer's or semi-Fowler's position |
|
|
Term
| Continuous feedings are given with a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The nurse checks feeding tube placement to prevent ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which position prevents regurgitation after a tube feeding? |
|
Definition
| Folwer's or semi-Fowler's position |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Everything is done for the person; no ADL are allowed |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Lack of joint mobility caused by abnormal shortening of a muscle; permanently deformed and disabled |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The decrease in size or the wasting away of tissue |
|
|
Term
| Orthostatic hypotension (Postural Hypotension) |
|
Definition
| Abnormally low blood pressure when the person suddenly stands up |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Fainting; brief loss of consciousness |
|
|
Term
| Bed boards are used for what? |
|
Definition
| To prevent the mattress from sagging |
|
|
Term
| Foot boards are used for what? |
|
Definition
| To prevent plantar flexion and footdrop. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When the foot falls down at the ankle, permanent |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Prevent the hips and legs from turning outward (external rotation) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Keep the hips abducted (apart) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Keep the weight of the top linenes off the feet and toes; prevent footdrop and pressure ulcers |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| exercises to strengthen arm muscles |
|
|
Term
| Range of motion exercises |
|
Definition
| Used to move the joint to the extent possible without causing pain |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| You move the person through their range of motion |
|
|
Term
| Active-assistive ROM exercises |
|
Definition
| The person does the exercises with some help |
|
|
Term
| How often are ROM exercises done? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Moving a body part away from the mid-line of the body |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Moving a body part toward the mid-line of the body |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Straightening a body part |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Excessive straightening of a body part |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Bending the toes and foot up at the ankle |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Bending the foot down at the ankle |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Turning the join downward |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Canes are held on which side of the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When ambulating a person ___ |
|
Definition
| A gait belt is used if the person is weak or unsteady |
|
|
Term
| What color stool indicates bleeding in the stomach and small intestine? Bleeding in the lower colon and rectum? |
|
Definition
Bleeding in stomach/sml intestine: Black, tarry
Bleeding in lower colon/rectum: red |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The passage of hard, dry stool |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- A low-fiber diet
- Ignoring the urge to BM
- Inactivity
- Decreased fluid intake
- drugs
-aging
-Certain diseases |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Prolonged retention and buildup of feces in rectum |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Frequent passage of liquid stool; feces move through the intestines rapidly |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inability to control the passage of feces and gases through the anus |
|
|
Term
| Two goals of bowel training |
|
Definition
1.To gain control of BMS
2. To develop a regular pattern of elimination. Fecal impaction, constipation, and fecal incontinence are prevented |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cone-shaped, solid drug that is inserted into a body opening; melts at body temp. |
|
|
Term
| How soon after a suppository is inserted does a BM usually occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Introduction of fluid into the rectum and lower colon |
|
|
Term
| What position is used for enemas? |
|
Definition
| Sim's Position/Left Side Lying Position |
|
|
Term
| How far is the enema tubing inserted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How high is the enema bag usually held? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does is usually take to give 750-1000 mL of enema solution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does it take cleansing enemas to take effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does it mean if a Dr orderes enemas until clear? |
|
Definition
| Means that enemas are given until the return solution is clear and free of stool |
|
|
Term
| How many tap-water enemas are given? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does it take small volume enemas to take effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long are oil-retention enemas retained? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| surgically created opening for the elimination of body wastes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Surgically created opening between the colon and abdominal wall |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Surgically created opening between the ileum (small intestine) and the abdominal walls |
|
|
Term
| What form are stools from an ileostomy? |
|
Definition
| Liquid stools because water is no longer removed in the colon |
|
|
Term
| How often is an ostomy pouch changed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do you insert a suppository? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used for cleansing enema in children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is not used for a cleansing enema? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An ostomy pouch is usually emptied when ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inflammation and infection of the lungs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Slow, weak respirations at a rate of fewer than 12 per minute |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| respiratory depression or respiratory arrest |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The cells do not have enough O2 |
|
|
Term
| What is an early sign of hypoxia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Rapid breathing, more than 20 respirations per minute |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Slow breathing, less than 12 respirations per minute |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Lack/absence of breathing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Breathing is slow, shallow, and sometimes irregular |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| breathing is rapid and deeper than normal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Difficult, labored, or painful breathing |
|
|
Term
| Cheyne-Stokes respirations |
|
Definition
| Respirations gradually increase in rate and depth and then become shallow and slow. Breathing may stop (apnea) for 10 to 20 seconds. Common when death is near |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Breathing deeply and comfortably only when sitting |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Rapid and deep respirations followed by 10 to 30 seconds of apnea |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Very deep and rapid respirations; signal a diabetic coma |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The amount (percent) of hemoglobin containing O2 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Mucus from the respiratory system when expelled through the mouth |
|
|
Term
| What position is usually easiest for breathing? |
|
Definition
| Semi-Fowler's and Fowler's position |
|
|
Term
| Persons with difficulty breathing often prefer ____ |
|
Definition
| orthopneic position (sitting up and leaning over a table to breathe) |
|
|
Term
| While the person is awake, how often are deep breathing and coughing usually done? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The collapse of a portion of the lung |
|
|
Term
| How long is the breath held when using incentive spirometry? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do CNAs give oxygen or adjust the flow rate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The amount of O2 given; measured in liters per minute. Typically 1-15 liters of O2 per minute |
|
|
Term
| Alcohol and narcotics affect oxygen needs because they ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Normal range for pulse ox? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are sites for a pulse ox sensor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Open and unblocked airway |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inserting and artificial airway |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inserted through the mouth into the pharynx |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inserted through the mouth or nose and into the trachea |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| INserted through a surgically created opening into the trachea |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Round ended device used to guide the insertion of the outer cannula of a tracheostomy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inserted and locked into place; removed for cleaning and mucus removal, keeps tracheostomy airway patent |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Secured in place with ties around the neck or a velcro collar of a tracheostomy. Is not removed. |
|
|
Term
| A suction cycle for adults takes no more than ____ |
|
Definition
| 10 to 15 seconds for adults; 5 seconds for children |
|
|
Term
| How long is waiting between each suctioning cycle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the CNA's role in suctioning? |
|
Definition
| Nurse performs, CNA assists |
|
|
Term
| What should you do first when an alarm sounds on a mechanical ventilator? |
|
Definition
| Check to see if the tube is attached to the ventilator. Then tell the nurse at once. |
|
|
Term
| Should you reset ventilator alarms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Blood in the pleural space |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Escape and collection of fluid in the pleural space |
|
|
Term
| Where should the drainage system be kept? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A person with a tracheostomy cannot do what activity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What signals the need for suctioning? |
|
Definition
| Signs and symptoms of respiratory distress |
|
|
Term
| Gastro-esophageal reflux disease (GERD) |
|
Definition
| Stomach contents flow back fromt he stomach into the esophagus |
|
|
Term
| Most common symptom of GERD |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are life-style changes that help resolve GERD? |
|
Definition
- No smoking or drinking alcohol
- Losing weight
- Eating small meals
- Wearing loose belts and loose-fiting clothes
- Not lying down for 3 hours after meals |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Condition of having pouches (diverticulum) that bulge outward in weak spots in the colon. THe pouches an become infected or inflammed. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Pain, jaundice, nausea, vomiting, fever |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inflammation of the liver |
|
|
Term
| What form of hepatitis is spread through the fecal-oral route? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What form of hepatitis is caused by HBV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hepatits is spread by contaminated blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Liver condition caused by chronic liver damage |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The pancreas produces little or no insulin |
|
|
Term
| Which type of diabetes requires drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Pancreas secretes insulin but the body cannot use it well |
|
|
Term
| A person has GERD. What should they not do after meals? |
|
Definition
| Lie in the supine position |
|
|
Term
| A person is vomiting. Which position is best? |
|
Definition
| With the head turned to the side |
|
|
Term
| Vomiting is dangerous because of ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Vomitus looks like coffe grounds. This signals ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A person has diverticular disease. You will likely assist with _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Gallbladder attacks usually occur ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a common cause of cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A person has diabetes. Blood glucose is monitored daily or ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cognitive function involves: |
|
Definition
-Memory
-Thinking
-Reasoning
-Ability to Understand
- Judgment
-Behavior |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Infection, illness, injury, drugs, surgery |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Loss of cognitive function that interferes with routine personal, social and occupational activities |
|
|
Term
| Is dementia a normal part of aging? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common type of permanent dementia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two things can be mistaken for dementia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A state of sudden severe confusion and rapid changes in brain function; usually temporary and reversible. Lasts about 1 week |
|
|
Term
| Is delirium an emergency? |
|
Definition
| Yes, signals physical illness |
|
|
Term
| Is dementia a normal part of aging? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common type of permanent dementia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two things can be mistaken for dementia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A state of sudden severe confusion and rapid changes in brain function; usually temporary and reversible. Lasts about 1 week |
|
|
Term
| Is delirium an emergency? |
|
Definition
| Yes, signals physical illness |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common mental health problem in older persons, that is often overlooked? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the classic sign of AD? |
|
Definition
| Gradual loss of short-term memory |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Signs, symptoms, and behaviors of AD increase during hours of darkness |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Seeing, hearing, smelling, feeling something that is not real |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Disorder of the mind; person has false beliefs and suspicion about a person or situation. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Extreme responses; commonly caused by too much stimuli. |
|
|
Term
| Can caregivers cause agitationa nd restlessness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What might screaming signal in someone with AD? |
|
Definition
| They are having trouble communicating and want to communicate |
|
|
Term
| A person is confused after surgery. The confusion is likely to be: permanent? Temporary? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True or False: AD ends in death? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A person leaves the agency without staff knowledge. This is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is the best way to approach someone with AD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can cause dellusions in persons with AD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can you reason with someone who has AD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What helps prevent many behaviors and problems of AD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should be followed when collecting specimens? |
|
Definition
| Rules of medical asepsis; Standard Precautions; Bloodborne Pathogen Standard |
|
|
Term
| Should a person void before or after collection of a stool specimen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where should a person put toilet tissue when collecting a urine or stool sample? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should you place a specimen container in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Midstream specimen (clean-voided specimen or clean-catch specimen) |
|
Definition
| Perineal area is cleaned before collecting the specimen. Person starts to void into device; stops stream; and then specimen container is positioned and voiding continues. |
|
|
Term
| What should you wear on your hands when assisting with collection of a midstream specimen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the 24-hour urine specimen? |
|
Definition
| All urine voided during a 24 hour period is collected; it is chilled on ice or refrigerated during this time. Person voids to begin the test with an empty bladder; discard this void and then save ALL VOIDINGs for the next 24 hours. |
|
|
Term
| Why might a 24-hour urine test be restarted? |
|
Definition
| A voiding was not saved; Toilet tissue was discarded into the specimen; the specimen contains stool |
|
|
Term
| What is used to collect a urine specimen from infants/children who are not potty trined? |
|
Definition
| Collection bag applied over urethra; give extra fluids if won't void (usually void within 30 min) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Substances that appear in urine from the rapid breakdown of fat for energy |
|
|
Term
| How often are tests for glucose and ketones usually done? |
|
Definition
| 4 times a day: 30 minutes before each meal and at bed time. Used for people with diabetes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used to test urine? |
|
Definition
| Reagent strips (dipsticks) |
|
|
Term
| How much water is drunk to help pass kidney stones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Black, tarry stool; signals bleeding |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used to transfer a small amount of stool from a bedpan to specimen container? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Mucus from the respiratory system that is expectorated through the mouth |
|
|
Term
| When is the easiest time to collect a sputum specimen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is blood glucose testing used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What measures blood sugar? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You need to strain a person's urine. Straining is done to find ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A sputum speicmen is needed. You should ask the person to ___ |
|
Definition
| Rinse the mouth with clear water. DO NOT use mouthwash as this may kill microbes |
|
|
Term
| Which is the best site for a skin puncture (i.e. to test glucose)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Describes the support and care given during the time surrounding death |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Involves relieving or reducing the intensity of uncomfortable symptoms without producing a cure |
|
|
Term
| What is the focus of palliative care? |
|
Definition
| The focus is on relief of symptoms |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The focus is on the physical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs of dying persons and their families; often the person has less than 6 months to live; not concerned with cure or life-saving measures |
|
|
Term
| What are the stages of grief? |
|
Definition
Stage 1: Denial
Stage 2: Anger
Stage 3: Bargaining
Stage 4: Depression
Stage 5: Acceptance |
|
|
Term
| What are comfort goals during end-of-life care? |
|
Definition
- Prevent or relieve suffering to the extent possible
- Respect and follow end-of-life wishes |
|
|
Term
| What is one of the last functions lost when someone is dying? |
|
Definition
| Hearing; that's why it is important to always talk even if they don't seem to hear you |
|
|
Term
| A developmental disability is ___ |
|
Definition
| a disability that occurs before 22 years of age |
|
|
Term
| Similar body parts are affected on both sides of the body. This is ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The uncontrolled contractions of skeletal muscles |
|
|
Term
| Do developmental disabilities improve during adulthood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Persons who are developmentally disabled need ___ |
|
Definition
| Life-long help, support, and special services |
|
|
Term
| Causes of developmental disabilities occur ___ |
|
Definition
| before, during, or after birth |
|
|
Term
| The goal for persons with developmental disabilities is ___ |
|
Definition
| Independence to the extent possible |
|
|
Term
| Intellectual disabilities involve ___ |
|
Definition
| low intellectual functioning and impaired adaptive behavior |
|
|
Term
| The most common inherited form of intellectual disabilities is ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Down syndrome is caused by ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The urinary system removes waste products from the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A healthy adult produces about ____ mL or ___pints of urine per day |
|
Definition
| 1500 mL or 3 pints of urine per day |
|
|
Term
| The process of emptying urine from the bladder |
|
Definition
| Urination, micturition and voiding |
|
|
Term
| How much urine do infants produce a day? |
|
Definition
| 200 -300 mL; typically 6-20 wet diapers a day. If not, signals dehydration |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Painful or difficulty urination |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Frequent urination at night |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Scant amount of urine - less than 500 mL in 24 hours |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Abnormally large amounts of urine |
|
|
Term
| Fracture pans are used for voiding with persons: |
|
Definition
-Persons with casts
-Persons in traction
- After a hip fracture
- LImited back motion
- Hip replacement surgery |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Involuntary loss or leakage of urine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Urine leaks during exercise and certain movements that cause pressure on the bladder; urine loss is small (dribbling) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Urine is lost in response to sudden, urgent need to void. The person cannot get to a toilet in time. Causes include UTIs, AD, nervous system disorders, bladder cancer, enlarged prostrate |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Small amounts of urine leak from a full bladder; causes include diabetes, enlarged prostrate, drugs, spinal cord injuries |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The person has bladder control but cannot use the toilet in time; causes: confusion, disoritentation, immobility, restraints, unanswered signal lights |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Urine is lost at predictable intervals when the bladder is full; person does not feel the need to void. Caused by nervous system disorders and injuries. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Ther person has a combination of stress incontinence and urge continence. Many older women have this type. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Temporary or occasional incontinence that is reversed when the cause is treated; causes: delirium, UTI, some drugs, increased urine production, restricted mobility, and fecal impaction |
|
|
Term
| Goals of managing incontinence |
|
Definition
- Prevent UTIs
- Restore as much normal bladder function as possible |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Tube used to drain or inject fluid through a body opening; urinary catheter drains urine from bladder |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Drains the bladder and then is removed |
|
|
Term
| Indwelling Catheter (retention or Foley Catheter) |
|
Definition
| Left in the bladder; urine drains constantly into a drainage bag. A balloon near the tip is inflated with sterile water after the catheter is inserted to keep it from slipping out of the bladder |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Process of inserting a catheter; done by a Dr. or nurse |
|
|
Term
| What is a risk of indwelling catheters? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where should you never attach a catheter drainage bag? |
|
Definition
| To the bed rail; otherwise it is higher than the bladder when the bed rail is raised |
|
|
Term
| What is the goal of bladder training? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The person using a standard bedpan is in what position? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where should the urinal never be placed? |
|
Definition
| The bedside stand or overbed table |
|
|
Term
| When applying an incontinence produce, you should ___ |
|
Definition
| apply it from front to back |
|
|
Term
| When a person has a Foley catheter and you are turning them from their left side to their right side, what should you do with the drainage bag? |
|
Definition
| Move it to the right side |
|
|
Term
| When giving catheter care, you clean the catheter _____ |
|
Definition
| From the meatus down the catheter at least 4 inches |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Whena person is taught to ignore the urge to void |
|
|
Term
| What helps protect men from UTIs? |
|
Definition
| Prostate gland secretions |
|
|
Term
| Why are women at high risk for UTIs? |
|
Definition
| Microbes can easily enter the short female urethra |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Bladder infection caused by bacteria. Signs and symptoms: Urinary frequency, oliguria, urgency, dysuria, pain/burning urination, foul-smelling urine, hematuria, pyuria, fever |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inflammation of the kidney pelvis; infection is the most common cause |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gland in men, lies in front of the rectum and just below the bladder. Surrounds the urethra. |
|
|
Term
| Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) |
|
Definition
| Enlarged prostate; occurs in most men over age 60; can obstruct urine flow |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Surgically created pathway for urine to leave the body |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Surgically created opening between a ureter and the abdomen; pouches changed every 5-7 days; good skin care is needed |
|
|
Term
| How much fluids need to be taken per day when someone has kidney stones (calculi)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| used to examine the mouth, teeth and throat |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Used to examine the inside of the nose |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Lighted instrument used to examine the internal eye structures |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Lighted instrument used to examine the external ear and the ear drum |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Used to tap body parts to test reflexes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Used to open the vagina to examine it and the cervix |
|
|
Term
| Dorsal Recumbent Position |
|
Definition
| Supine with legs together; used to examine abdomen, chest & breasts |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Woman lies on her back; hips are at the edge of the exam table, knees are flexed and her hips are externally rotated. Feet are in stirrups. USed to examine vagina and cervix |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The person kneels and rests the body on the knees and chest. THe head is turned to one side. The arms are above the ehad or flexed at the elbows. The back is straight. The body is flexed about 90 degrees at the hips. Used to examine rectum. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Done by choice to improve person's life or well-being; scheduled in advance |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Needed for the person's health. It is done soon to prevent further damage or disease. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Done at once to save life or function; sudden and unexpected. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| State of quiet, calmness, or sleep produced by a drug |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Loss of feeling or sensation produced by a drug |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Loss of consciousness and all feeling or sensation |
|
|
Term
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Definition
| Loss of feeling or sensation in a large area of the body |
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Term
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Definition
| Loss of feeling or sensation in a small area |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| Blood clot that travels through the vascular system until it lodges in a blood vessel |
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Term
| After surgery, what stimulates circulation and prevents thrombi? |
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Definition
- Leg Exercises
- Ambulation as soon as possible
- Elastic Stockings
- Elastic Bandages
- Sequential Compression devices
- No prolonged standing or sitting |
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Term
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Definition
| State of well-being. The person has no physical or emotional pain. Calm, at peace. |
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Term
| What is often called the 5th vital sign? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| Felt suddenly from injury, disease, trauma or surgery |
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Term
| Chronic Pain (persistent Pain) |
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Definition
| Continues for a long time (months or years) or occurs off and on |
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Term
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Definition
| Felt at the site of tissue damage and in the nearby areas |
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Term
| What is a common cause of chronic pain? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is often called the 5th vital sign? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| Felt in a body part that is no longer there |
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Term
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Definition
| infection of the middle ear |
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Term
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Definition
| Ringing, roaring, hissing, or buzzing sound in the ears or head |
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Term
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Definition
| Involves the inner ear; common cause of hearing loss. Usually one ear is affeted. Symptoms: vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss, pain, pressure. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| Cannot use the sppech muscles for understandable speech; understands speech and knows what to say, but can't |
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Term
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Definition
| Difficult or poor speech caused by nervous system damage |
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Term
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Definition
| Total or partial loss of the ability to use or understand language |
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Term
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Definition
| cancer, head injury, stroke, brain infection |
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Term
| Expressive Aphasia (Motor Aphasia, Broca's Aphasia) |
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Definition
| Relates to difficulty expressing or sending out thoughts. Knows what to say but has difficulty saying words |
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Term
| Receptive Aphasia (Wernicke's Aphasia) |
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Definition
| Difficulty understanding language |
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Term
| Expressive-Receptive Aphasia (Global pahasia, mixed aphasia) |
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Definition
| The person has difficulty expressing and understanding language |
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Term
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Definition
| Clouding of the lens; surgery is the only treatment |
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Term
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Definition
| Causes damage to the optic nerve; peripheral vision is lost. No cure |
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Term
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Definition
| Tiny blood vessels in the retina are damaged. Usually both eyes affected. Leading cause of blindness. |
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Term
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Definition
| Blind spot in center of vision. Onset is gradual and painless, in older people. |
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