Term
The categories of laws in the U.S. are:
a.Civil, criminal, administrative, and family
c.Criminal, civil, and administrative
b.Intellectual, privacy, and computer crime
d.Criminal, civil, and family |
|
Definition
| c.Criminal, civil, and administrative |
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Term
Trademarks, copyrights, and patents are all a part of:
a.Intellectual property law
c.Administrative law
b.Civil law
d.Private property law |
|
Definition
| a.Intellectual property law |
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Term
An organization has developed a new type of printer. What approach should the organization take to protect this invention?
a.Trade secret
c.Trademark
b.Copyright
d.Patent |
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Definition
|
|
Term
A financial services organization is required to protect information about its customers. Which of these laws requires this protection:
a.HIPAA
c.CALEA
b.COPPA
d.GLBA |
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Definition
|
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Term
A suspect has been forging credit cards with the purpose of stealing money from their owners through ATM withdrawals. Under which U.S. law is this suspect most likely to be prosecuted?
a.Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
c.Computer Security Act
b.Access Device Fraud
d.Sarbanes-Oxley Act |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which U.S. law gives law enforcement organizations greater powers to search telephone, e-mail, banking, and other records?
a.Patriot Act
b.Communications Assistance for Law Enforcement Act
c.Federal Information Security Management Act
d.Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act |
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Definition
|
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Term
The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) requires encryption of credit card in which circumstances:
a.Stored in databases, stored in flat files, and transmitted over public and private networks
b.Stored in databases, and transmitted over public networks
c.Stored in databases, stored in flat files, and transmitted over public networks
d.Stored in databases, and transmitted over public and private networks |
|
Definition
| c.Stored in databases, stored in flat files, and transmitted over public networks |
|
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Term
A security incident as defined as:
a.Unauthorized entry
c.Theft of sensitive information
b.Exposure of sensitive information
d.Violation of security policy |
|
Definition
| d.Violation of security policy |
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Term
The phases of a comprehensive security incident plan are:
a.Declaration, triage, investigation, analysis, containment, recovery, debriefing
b.Investigation, analysis, containment, recovery, debriefing
c.Declaration, triage, containment, recovery, debriefing
d.Declaration, triage, investigation, analysis, documentation, containment, recovery, debriefing |
|
Definition
| a.Declaration, triage, investigation, analysis, containment, recovery, debriefing |
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Term
A security manager has discovered that sensitive information stored on a server has been compromised. The organization is required by law to notify law enforcement. What should the security manager do first to preserve evidence on the server:
a.Disconnect power to the server
c.Shut down the server
b.Back up the server
d.Notify management |
|
Definition
| a.Disconnect power to the server |
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Term
The purpose of a security incident debrief is all of the following EXCEPT:
a.Review of log files
c.Review of operational procedures
b.Review of technical architecture
d.Review of technical controls |
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Definition
|
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Term
A case of employee misconduct that is the subject of a forensic investigation will likely result in a court proceeding. What should included in the forensic investigation:
a.Legible notes on all activities
c.Chain of custody for all evidence
b.Law enforcement investigation
d.Dual custody for all evidence |
|
Definition
| c.Chain of custody for all evidence |
|
|
Term
The (ISC)2 code of ethics includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a.Provide diligent and competent service
to principals
b.Protect society and the infrastructure
c.Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally
d.Advance and protect the profession |
|
Definition
| b.Protect society and the infrastructure |
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|
Term
A security manager has been asked to investigate employee behavior on the part of a senior manager. The investigation has shown that the subject has suffered a serious lapse in judgment and has violate the organization’s code of conduct. The security manager has been asked to keep the results of the investigation a secret. How should the security manager respond?
a.Leak the results of the investigation to the media
b.Cover up the results of the investigation
c.Deliver the results of the investigation a recommendations for next steps to his superiors
d.Notify law enforcement |
|
Definition
| c.Deliver the results of the investigation a recommendations for next steps to his superiors |
|
|
Term
A forensics investigator has been asked to examine the workstation used by an employee who has been known to misbehave in the past. This investigation is related to more potential misconduct. What approach should the investigator take in this new investigation?
a.Approach this investigation objectively, without regard to the history of this employee’s conduct
b.Approach this investigation subjectively, given the history of this employee’s conduct
c.Assume the employee is guilty and search for evidence to support this
d.Assume the employee is innocent and search for evidence to refute this |
|
Definition
| a.Approach this investigation objectively, without regard to the history of this employee’s conduct |
|
|
Term
An organization has developed its first-ever computer security incident response procedure. What type of test should be undertaken first?
a.Parallel test
c.Walkthrough
b.Simulation
d.Document review |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An organization’s security incident management strategy consists of response procedures to be used when an incident occurs. What other measures should the organization undertake:
a.None
b.Develop proactive procedures to aid in incident prevention
c.Train selected personnel on incident response procedures
d.Partner with law enforcement on incident response procedures |
|
Definition
| b.Develop proactive procedures to aid in incident prevention |
|
|
Term
The purpose of the containment step in a security incident response plan is:
a.To prevent the spread of the incident
b.To recover the affected system to its pre-incident state
c.To isolate the system
d.To collect evidence for possible disciplinary action or prosecution |
|
Definition
| a.To prevent the spread of the incident |
|
|
Term
The U.S. law that made sending unsolicited commercial e-mail illegal is:
a.STOP-SPAM
b.DMCA
c.Controlling The Assault of Non-Solicited Pornography and Marketing Act
d.Computer Security Act |
|
Definition
| c.Controlling The Assault of Non-Solicited Pornography and Marketing Act |
|
|
Term
The U.S. Code defines:
a.Both criminal and civil laws
c.Civil laws
b.Administrative laws
d.Criminal laws |
|
Definition
| a.Both criminal and civil laws |
|
|
Term
The type of intellectual property law that protects a written work is known as:
a.Copyright
c.Patent
b.Trademark
d.Service mark |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An employee in an organization is requesting access to more information than is required. This request should be denied on the basis of which principle:
a.Separation of duties
c.Need to know
b.Least privilege
d.Job rotation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Two separate employees are required to open a safe containing sensitive information. One employee has part of the safe combination, and a second employee has another part of the safe combination. This arrangement follows the principle of:
a.Split custody
c.Need to know
b.Segregation of duties
d.Least privilege |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An organization has in its possession many types of business records that vary in sensitivity and handling requirements. No policy exists that defines how any of these records should be protected. This organization lacks:
a.Storage and handling procedures
c.Data classification policy
b.Separation of duties
d.Information security policy |
|
Definition
| c.Data classification policy |
|
|
Term
The purpose of a periodic review of user access rights is:
a.To check whether employees have logged in to the system
b.To check for active accounts that belong to terminated employees
c.To determine password quality and expiration
d.To determine whether access control systems still function properly |
|
Definition
| b.To check for active accounts that belong to terminated employees |
|
|
Term
The purpose of a password policy that requires a minimum number of days between password changes is:
a.To prevent a brute force attack against a password
b.To prevent an intruder from carrying out a dictionary attack against a password
c.To prevent someone from quickly cycling back to their familiar password
d.To prevent a second user from changing
the password |
|
Definition
| c.To prevent someone from quickly cycling back to their familiar password |
|
|
Term
The purpose of backups includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a.Software malfunctions
c.Hardware malfunctions
b.Human error
d.Cluster failovers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An organization’s data classification policy includes handling procedures for data at each level of sensitivity. The IT department backs up all data onto magnetic tape, resulting in tapes that contain data at all levels of sensitivity. How should these backup tapes be handled?
a.According to procedures for the lowest sensitivity level
b.According to procedures for the highest sensitivity level
c.According to procedures in between the lowest and highest sensitivity levels
d.Data handling procedures do not apply to backup media, only original media |
|
Definition
| b.According to procedures for the highest sensitivity level |
|
|
Term
All of the following methods for destroying data on hard disk drives are sufficient EXCEPT:
a.Reformatting
c.Shredding
b.Degaussing
d.Drilling |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are valid reasons for backing up data EXCEPT:
a.Disaster
c.R
b.M
d.A |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An organization’s IT manager wants to discontinue the business relationship with an off-site media storage company, and instead store the organization’s backup tapes at his residence, which is closer to the organization’s data center. Should this plan be considered, and why:
a.This should not be considered because the media will have fewer physical safeguards
b.This should be considered because it will save money
c.This should be considered because it is closer to the organization’s data center
d.This should not be chosen because it is too closer to the organization’s data center |
|
Definition
| a.This should not be considered because the media will have fewer physical safeguards |
|
|
Term
Why do the actions of system administrators need to be monitored more closely than other personnel?
a.Administrator actions can be more harmful and have a larger impact on the organization
b.Administrators are more likely to make mistakes
c.Administrators have access to all other users’ passwords
d.Administrative interfaces have fewer safeguards |
|
Definition
| a.Administrator actions can be more harmful and have a larger impact on the organization |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a risk associated with remote access:
a.Risk associated with sensitive information is stored on a non-company-owned computer, out of the organization’s control
b.A non-company-owned computer with inadequate anti-malware protection can introduce an infection through remote access
c.Anti-virus software on the remote computer will not be able to download virus definition updates
d.If a split tunnel is used, the remote computer may be more vulnerable to attack |
|
Definition
| c.Anti-virus software on the remote computer will not be able to download virus definition updates |
|
|
Term
A workstation that can remotely access the organization’s network through a VPN and access the local LAN, all through the same physical network connection, is using:
a.Split tunneling
c.IPsec VPN software
b.Split gateways
d.SSL VPN software |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the difference between split tunneling and inverse split tunneling:
a.Only inverse split tunneling can utilize a firewall
b.Only split tunneling can utilize a firewall
c.Split tunneling uses IPsec and SSL, while inverse split tunneling uses L2TP
d.In split tunneling, the default network is the LAN; in inverse split tunneling, the default network is the VPN |
|
Definition
| d.In split tunneling, the default network is the LAN; in inverse split tunneling, the default network is the VPN |
|
|
Term
The primary advantage of the use of a central management console for anti-virus is:
a.Centralized virus detection
b.Centralized reporting
c.Consolidation of reporting and centralized signature file distribution
d.Centralized signature file distribution |
|
Definition
| c.Consolidation of reporting and centralized signature file distribution |
|
|
Term
The process of erasing magnetic media through the use of a strong magnetic field is known as:
a.Delousing
c.Shredding
b.Degaussing
d.Wiping |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A security manager has instructed a system administrator to wipe files on a hard disk. This means that the administrator needs to:
a.Perform a low-level format on the hard disk
b.Use a degausser to re-align the magnetic storage material on the hard disk
c.Use a tool to overwrite files multiple times
d.Perform a high-level format on the hard disk |
|
Definition
| c.Use a tool to overwrite files multiple times |
|
|
Term
An organization has been made a party in a civil lawsuit. The organization is required to search its electronic records for specific memoranda. This process is known as:
a.Subpoena
c.Discovery
b.Search and seizure
d.Electronic discovery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An organization’s critical application is required to be continuously available, with only a few minutes’ per month of downtime allowed. What measure should the organization implement to assure this level of availability?
a.Server clustering
c.Hot standby site
b.Server clustering and data replication
d.Data replication |
|
Definition
| b.Server clustering and data replication |
|
|
Term
The use of key cards to control physical access to a work facility is a form of:
a.Both preventive and administrative control
b.Detective control
c.Both preventive and detective control
d.Preventive control |
|
Definition
| c.Both preventive and detective control |
|
|
Term
A security manager is concerned that lost key cards can be used by an intruder to gain entrance to a facility. What measure can be used to prevent this?
a.Implement PIN pads at card reader stations
b.Implement video surveillance at card reader stations
c.Implement man traps at card reader stations
d.Implement RFID sensors at card reader stations |
|
Definition
| a.Implement PIN pads at card reader stations |
|
|
Term
Common biometric solutions that are suitable for building entrance control include:
a.Voice print and gait
c.Voice print and DNA
b.Retina scan and hand print
d.Fingerprint and hand print |
|
Definition
| d.Fingerprint and hand print |
|
|
Term
A building access mechanism where only one person at a time may pass is called a:
a.Entrance trap
c.Mantrap
b.Step trap
d.Passtrap |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An organization needs to build a wall or fence to keep out the most determined intruders. What should the organization build?
a.An eight foot high fence or wall
b.An eight foot high fence or wall with three stands of barbed wire
c.A twelve foot high fence or wall
d.A six foot high fence or wall with one strand of barbed wire |
|
Definition
| b.An eight foot high fence or wall with three stands of barbed wire |
|
|
Term
What controls can be used in combination with fences and walls to detect intruders?
a.Video surveillance
c.Video surveillance and motion detectors
b.Motion detectors
d.Visible notices |
|
Definition
| c.Video surveillance and motion detectors |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a deterrent control:
a.Monitors showing video surveillance
c.Surveillance notices
b.Guard dogs
d.Mantrap |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A security manager wants to implement barriers that will block the passage of vehicles but freely allow foot traffic. The control that should be implemented is:
a.Turnstiles
c.Crash gates
b.Bollards
d.Low wall |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A secure facility needs to control incoming vehicle traffic and be able to stop determined attacks. What control should be implemented:
a.Crash gate
c.Turnstile
b.Guard post
d.Bollards |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A security-minded organization is relocating its business office into a shared-tenant building. How should the entrance of personnel be controlled?
a.One key card system that is jointly operated by all of the tenants
b.Separate key card systems that are operated by each tenant
c.Security guards to control who can enter the building
d.Video surveillance to monitor who enters the building |
|
Definition
| b.Separate key card systems that are operated by each tenant |
|
|
Term
The type of smoke detector that is designed to detect smoke before it is visible is:
a.Ionization
c.Ultraviolet
b.Optical
d.Radioactive |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Provided it is permitted by local fire codes, which type of fire sprinkler system is most preferred for computer rooms?
a.Pre-action system
c.Wet pipe system
b.Deluge system
d.Foam water system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The advantage of a gaseous fire suppression system is:
a.It works by displacing oxygen in the room
c.It will not damage computing equipment
b.It is hazardous to humans
d.It is less expensive than sprinklers |
|
Definition
| c.It will not damage computing equipment |
|
|
Term
A computing facility experiences frequent brownouts but few, if any, blackouts. What should be implemented to mitigate this condition:
a.Line conditioner
c.Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
b.Power Conditioning Unit (PDU)
d.Electric generator |
|
Definition
| c.Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) |
|
|
Term
The term “N+1” means:
a.The available electric power supply is at least double the current demand
b.Multiple components (N) have at least one (+1) independent backup component available
c.There is at least one backup HVAC unit in the event of failure or planned maintenance on another unit
d.Every server and network device utilizes a dual power supply |
|
Definition
| b.Multiple components (N) have at least one (+1) independent backup component available |
|
|
Term
An organization is located in an area that experiences frequent power blackouts. What will the effect of an electric generator be in this circumstance?
a.The organization will have a continuous supply of electric power
b.The organization will have to establish fuel supply contracts with at least two fuel suppliers
c.Electric utility blackouts will result in short electric power outages for the organization
d.An electric generator will be of no help in this situation |
|
Definition
| c.Electric utility blackouts will result in short electric power outages for the organization |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is TRUE about electric generators?
a.Generators require one to three minutes of startup time before they deliver electric power
b.Generators require an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
c.Generators require no startup time but deliver emergency electric power immediately on demand
d.Generators must be shut down to be refueled |
|
Definition
| a.Generators require one to three minutes of startup time before they deliver electric power |
|
|
Term
The purpose of a fire extinguisher is:
a.The primary device used to fight accidental fires
b.The primary device to fight all fires until the fire department arrives
c.The primary device used to fight all fires
d.The primary device used to fight small fires |
|
Definition
| d.The primary device used to fight small fires |
|
|
Term
Controls to detect threats to equipment include:
a.Temperature sensors, humidity sensors, and water detectors
b.Temperature sensors, humidity sensors, and smoke detectors
c.Temperature sensors, humidity sensors, water detectors, gas detectors, and smoke detectors
d.Temperature sensors, humidity sensors, water detectors, and smoke detectors |
|
Definition
| d.Temperature sensors, humidity sensors, water detectors, and smoke detectors |
|
|
Term
The purpose of “secure siting” is:
a.To ensure that a site is reasonably free from natural hazards that could threaten ongoing business operations
b.To ensure that a site is reasonably free from hazards that could threaten ongoing business operations
c.To ensure that a site is free from all hazards that could threaten ongoing business operations
d.To ensure that a site is free from all man-made hazards that could threaten ongoing business operations |
|
Definition
| b.To ensure that a site is reasonably free from hazards that could threaten ongoing business operations |
|
|
Term
The owners of files and directories on a file server are able to control which personnel may access those files and directories. The access control model that most closely resembles this is:
a.Role based access control (RBAC)
c.Discretionary access control (DAC)
b.Mandatory access control (MAC)
d.Multilevel access |
|
Definition
| c.Discretionary access control (DAC) |
|
|
Term
A security manager is setting up resource permissions in an application. The security manager has discovered that he can establish objects that contain access permissions, and then assign individual users to those objects. The access control model that most closely resembles this is:
a.Access matrix
c.Discretionary access control (DAC)
b.Mandatory access control (MAC)
d.Role based access control (RBAC) |
|
Definition
| d.Role based access control (RBAC) |
|
|
Term
An information system has multiple levels of security implemented, for both resources as well as users. In this system, a user cannot access resources below his level, and a user cannot create resources above his level. The access control model that most closely resembles this is:
a.Access matrix
c.Biba
b.Clark-Wilson
d.Bell-LaPadula |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A security analyst has a system evaluation criteria manual called the “Orange Book”. This is a part of:
a.Common Criteria
b.Trusted Computer Security Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC)
c.Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC)
d.ISO 15408 |
|
Definition
| b.Trusted Computer Security Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) |
|
|
Term
The Common Criteria supersedes which evaluation frameworks:
a.Neither TCSEC nor ITSEC
c.TCSEC and ITSEC
b.ITSEC
d.TCSEC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The TCSEC system evaluation criteria is used to address:
a.Confidentiality of information
c.Penetration testing
b.Preventive and detective controls
d.Intrusion prevention systems |
|
Definition
| a.Confidentiality of information |
|
|
Term
The TCSEC system evaluation criteria is used to evaluate systems of what type:
a.E-Commerce
c.Banking
b.Public utilities
d.Military |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A security manager wishes to objectively measure the maturity of security processes in his organization. Which model should be used for this evaluation?
a.SSE-CMM
c.Common Criteria
b.SEI-CMM
d.TCSEC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of the Software Engineering Institute Capability Maturity Model Integration (SEI CMMI)?
a.Objective assessment of the integrity of an organization’s application programs
b.Objective assessment of an organization’s systems engineering processes
c.Objective assessment of an organization’s business processes
d.Subjective assessment of an organization’s systems engineering processes |
|
Definition
| b.Objective assessment of an organization’s systems engineering processes |
|
|
Term
DoD Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP):
a.Has been superseded by the Common Criteria
b.Is the process by which all U.S. federal information systems are certified and accredited
c.Has been superseded by DITSCAP (Department of Defense Information Technology Security Certification and Accreditation Process)
d.Is the process used to certify and accredit U.S. military information systems |
|
Definition
| d.Is the process used to certify and accredit U.S. military information systems |
|
|
Term
The component in a computer where program instructions are executed is called the:
a.CPU
c.Front-side bus
b.Bus
d.Firmware |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The purpose of the CPU’s Program Counter is:
a.To keep track of which instruction in memory is currently being worked on
b.To keep track of the number of instruction cycles the CPU has consumed on
an individual program
c.To keep track of the starting address of a program
d.To track the version of the CPU’s microcode |
|
Definition
| a.To keep track of which instruction in memory is currently being worked on |
|
|
Term
The purpose of a CPU fetch operation is:
a.To retrieve data from memory
b.To retrieve an instruction from memory
c.To retrieve data from the hard disk drive
d.To retrieve data from the program counter |
|
Definition
| b.To retrieve an instruction from memory |
|
|
Term
The component in a computer used for long-term storage is called:
a.Secondary storage
c.Virtual memory
b.Main storage
d.File system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A source code review uncovered the existence of instructions that permit the user to bypass security controls. What was discovered in the code review?
a.Feature
c.Logic bomb
b.Bot
d.Back door |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A security manager needs to be able to regularly determine when operating system files change. What kind of tool is needed for this task?
a.Event logging
c.Filesystem integrity monitoring tool
b.Intrusion detection tool
d.Log analysis tool |
|
Definition
| c.Filesystem integrity monitoring tool |
|
|
Term
A hidden means of communication between two systems has been discovered. This is known as:
a.Side channel
c.Steganography
b.Covert channel
d.Bot |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Process management, resource management, access management, and event management are examples of:
a.Security processes
b.Functions of a database management system
c.Functions of an operating system
d.Types of operating systems |
|
Definition
| c.Functions of an operating system |
|
|
Term
Where is firmware primarily stored on a computer system?
a.Trusted Platform Module
c.Master boot record
b.Read-only memory
d.File system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A computer running the Windows operating system has nearly exhausted available physical memory for active processes. In order to avoid exhausting all available memory, what should the operating system begin doing?
a.Swapping
c.Killing old processes
b.Paging
d.Running the garbage collector |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A network engineer who is examining telecommunications circuits has found one that is labeled as a DS-1. What is the maximum throughput that may be expected from this circuit?
a.Approximately 7,000k chars/sec
c.Approximately 170k chars/sec
b.Approximately 56k bits/sec
d.Approximately 1,544k bits/sec |
|
Definition
| c.Approximately 170k chars/sec |
|
|
Term
The size of packets in an ATM networks is:
a.53 bytes
c.1544 bytes
b.1500 bytes
d.Variable, from 64 to 1500 bytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Digital subscriber line (DSL) service:
a.Utilizes existing cable service and communicates on a different frequency
b.Has been superseded by ISDN
c.Has been superseded by satellite communications
d.Utilizes existing telephone services and communicates on a different frequency |
|
Definition
| d.Utilizes existing telephone services and communicates on a different frequency |
|
|
Term
An IT manager wishes to connect several branch offices to the headquarters office for voice and data communications. What packet switched service should the IT manager consider?
a.ATM
c.MPLS
b.DSL
d.Frame Relay |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A building facilities manager is overseeing the construction of a new office building for the organization. What type of cabling should be used for voice and data communication:
a.10BASE2 thinnet
c.Category 5e twisted pair
b.Category 6 twisted pair
d.10BASE5 thicknet |
|
Definition
| b.Category 6 twisted pair |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements about Ethernet MAC addresses is TRUE:
a.The MAC address is assigned using the DHCP protocol
b.The first 3 bits designates the manufacturer of the device
c.The first 3 bytes designates the manufacturer of the device
d.The last 3 bytes designates the manufacturer of the device |
|
Definition
| c.The first 3 bytes designates the manufacturer of the device |
|
|
Term
An Ethernet network that consists of a central Ethernet switch with cabling running to each station is best described as a:
a.Logical and physical star
c.Logical star and physical bus
b.Logical ring and physical star
d.Logical bus and physical star |
|
Definition
| d.Logical bus and physical star |
|
|
Term
The practical range for Bluetooth is:
a.100m
c.30m
b.300m
d.10m |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Please do not touch Steve’s pet alligator” is:
a.A memory aid for the names of the service types in a TCP/IP network
b.A memory aid for the names of the layers in the OSI network model
c.A memory aid for the names of the layers in the TCP/IP network model
d.A memory aid for the names of the address types in an Ethernet network |
|
Definition
| b.A memory aid for the names of the layers in the OSI network model |
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Term
All of the following statements about the OSI network model are true EXCEPT:
a.No commercial network product that contains all of the components of the OSI model have ever been built
b.The OSI network model uses encapsulation to build communication packets
c.TCP/IP is an implementation of the OSI network model
d.The OSI network model is a model of a network protocol stack |
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Definition
| c.TCP/IP is an implementation of the OSI network model |
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Term
xamples of TCP/IP link layer technologies include:
a.FTP, TELNET, DNS, HTTP, SMTP
c.TCP, UDP, ICMP
b.IP, IPsec
d.Ethernet, ATM, Frame Relay, Wi-Fi |
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Definition
| d.Ethernet, ATM, Frame Relay, Wi-Fi |
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Term
How many Class C networks can be created in a Class B network:
a.254
c.16,535
b.1,024
d.16,534 |
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Definition
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Term
The layers in the OSI model are:
a.Link, internet transport, session, application
b.Link, internet, transport, application
c.Physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
d.Physical, network transport, session, application |
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Definition
| c.Physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application |
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Term
A computer has just been rebooted. An application program has started, and the application program needs to send an FTP packet to a server at IP address 10.14.250.200. What is the first packet that the computer will send on the network to accomplish this:
a.ARP
c.FTP
b.Whois
d.Rlogin |
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Definition
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Term
Two computers are communicating on a wide area network over a UDP port. One computer is sending the contents of a large file to the other computer. Network congestion has caused some packets to be delayed. What will the TCP/IP network drivers do about the packet delay?
a.The receiving computer will request that the file transfer be restarted
b.The network drivers will assemble the packets into the proper order
c.The receiving computer will request the sending computer to re-transmit the delayed packets
d.Nothing |
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Definition
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Term
A station on a network is sending hundreds of SYN packets to a destination computer. What is the sending computer doing?
a.Sending the contents of a large file to the destination computer
b.Attempting to establish a TCP connection with the destination computer
c.Attacking the destination computer with a SYN flood
d.Transmitting streaming audio or video to the destination computer |
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Definition
| c.Attacking the destination computer with a SYN flood |
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Term
The purpose of the NTP protocol is:
a.Transfer the contents of a file
b.Synchronization of computer clocks to a reference clock
c.A signaling protocol used for Voice over IP
d.Share file systems over a network |
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Definition
| b.Synchronization of computer clocks to a reference clock |
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Term
A network manager wishes to simplify management of all of the network devices in the organization through centralized authentication. Which of the following available authentication protocols should the network manager choose:
a.RADIUS
c.OSPF
b.TACACS
d.IPsec |
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Definition
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Term
Someone is sending ICMP echo requests to a network’s broadcast address. What is this person doing?
a.Pinging the default gateway
c.Conducting a Ping of Death attack
b.Pinging the router
d.Conducting a Smurf attack |
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Definition
| d.Conducting a Smurf attack |
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Term
All of the following statements about the TCP protocol are true EXCEPT:
a.Correct order of delivery is guaranteed
c.Connection oriented
b.Connectionless
d.Missing packets will be retransmitted |
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Definition
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