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Chapter 61 - Peripheral Nerves & Spinal Cord Problems
N/A
111
Nursing
Undergraduate 4
03/04/2013

Additional Nursing Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
Cranial nerve disorders are commonly classified as what?
Definition
Peripheral Neuropathies
Term
List five causes of cranial nerve problems?
Definition

Tumors

Trauma

Infections

Inflammatory processes

Idiopathic (unknown) causes

Term
Describe Trigeminal Neuralgia.
Definition
Sudden, usually unilateral, severe, brief, stabbing, recurrent episodes of pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve.
Term
What is the most commonly diagnosed neuralgic condition?
Definition
Trigeminal Neuralgia
Term
Is Tigeminal Neuralgia more common in men or women?
Definition
Seen twice as often in women than men (usually over the age of 40)
Term
What is the classic feature of trigeminal neuralgia in reference to clinical manifestations?
Definition
An abrupt onset of excruciating pain described as a burning, knifelike, or lightning-like shock in the lips, upper or lower gums, cheek, forehead, or side of the nose.
Term
What manifestations would you see in an acute attack of trigeminal neuralgia?
Definition

Intense pain, twitching of facial muscles (tic), grimacing, and frequent blinking and tearing of the eye.

 

Note: some patients may also experience facial sensory loss

Term
How long do acute attacks of trigeminal neuralgia last?
Definition

They are usually brief, lasting only 2-3 minutes

 

 

Term
True or False? Trigeminal Neuralgia attacks are usually bilateral.
Definition
False. Attacks are usually unilateral, often around the eye, cheek, and lower part of the face.
Term
What is clustering?
Definition
After the refractory (pain-free) period, a phenomenon known as clustering can occur. Clustering is characterized by a cycle of pain and refractoriness that continues for hours.
Term
What are some examples of precipitating stimuli that could trigger a trigeminal neuralgia episode?
Definition

Precipitating stimuli include chewing, tooth brushing, a hot or cold blast of air on the face, washing the face, yawning, or even talking.

 

Note:

Term
What are the two predominate causative triggers for trigeminal neuralgia?
Definition
Touch and Tickle
Term
What are you concerned about with your patient if they are concerned about triggering a trigeminal neuralgia episode?
Definition

The patient may eat improperly, neglect hygienic practices, wear a cloth over the face, and withdraw from interaction with other individuals. The patient may also sleep excessively as a means of coping with the pain.

 

Note: Although this condition is considered benign, the severity of the pain and the disruption of lifestyle can result in almost total physical and psychologic dysfunction or even suicide.

Term
What three studies/tests are performed in the diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia?
Definition

CT scan - performed to rule out any lesions, tumors, or vascular abnormalities

 

MRI - done to rule out multiple sclerosis

 

Complete Neurologic Assessment - includes audiologic evaluation, although results are usually normal

Term
What is the main goal of treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?
Definition
Relief of pain either medically or surgically.
Term
What is another name for trigeminal neuralgia?
Definition
Tic douloureux
Term
What two branches of the 5th cranial nerve does trigeminal neuralgia specifically affect?
Definition
Maxillary and Mandibular branches
Term
Although the cause is not known for sure, what are some of the presumed cause of trigeminal neuralgia?
Definition

1. A blood vessel pressing on the trigeminal nerve at the brainstem causes the myelin sheath to wear away

 

2. May be part of the normal aging process - lengthening blood vessels may end up pressing against the nerve

 

3. Symptoms can occur in people with MS - condition that causes deterioration of the myelin sheath throughout the body

 

4. Tumor, HTN, infection of the teeth, or herpes may cause damage to the myelin sheath as well

 

Term
What are some goals for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia?
Definition

 

—
—Patient will be pain free
—Patient will maintain adequate nutrition and oral hygiene
—Patient will have minimal to no anxiety
—Patient will return to normal of previous socialization and occupational activities
Term

If nerve function is interrupted in a patient with trigeminal neuralgia, what three nursing actions would you do?

 


Definition

 

  • Have patient chew on good side
  • Monitor food temps (watch for burns)
  • Manual removal of pouched foods
 
Term
What is the first choice drug for trigeminal neuralgia?
Definition
Tegretol (antiseizure drug)
Term
How is nerve blocking used to treat trigeminal neuralgia?
Definition
Local anesthetics are used to temporarily relieve pain (usually lasts 6-18 months).
Term
What is biofeedback?
Definition
Controlling how your body reacts to pain and teaches you how to relax stiffened muscles.
Term
Microvascular Decompression is a surgical option for the treatment of trigeinal neuralgia. Explain what this procedure involves?
Definition

This is the removal of blood vessels that are irritating the trigeminal nerve.

 

Note: high success rate, but risk of double vision, hearing loss, and facial weakness.

Term
Glycerol Injections are a surgical option for the treatment of trigeinal neuralgia. Explain what this procedure involves?
Definition
Glycerol is injected into the trigeminal nerve damaging it enough to block pain signals
Term
Partial sensory rhizotomy is a surgical option for the treatment of trigeinal neuralgia. Explain what this procedure involves?
Definition
This is a complete severing of the trigeminal nerve from the base of the base.
Term
What kind of meal should a patient with trigeminal neuralgia receive?
Definition
Food should be high in protein and calories and easy to chew. It should be served lukewarm and offered frequently. When oral intake is sharply reduced and the patient's nutritional status is compromised, an NG tube can be inserted on the unaffected side for enteral feedings.
Term
What is Bell's Palsy?
Definition
Inflammation (acute disruption) of CN VII (facial nerve) on one side of the face in the absence of any other disease like a stroke.
Term
What is Bell's Palsy said to be a possible reaction of (accompanied by)?
Definition
Herpes Simplex vesicles in and around the ear.
Term
What are some clinical manifestations of Bell's Palsy?
Definition

Pain around and behind the ear

Fever

Tinnitus

Hearing deficit

Flaccidity on affected side

Drooping of mouth and drooling

Inability to close eyelid

Inability to smile, frown, or whistle

increased tear production

Term
How is Bell's Palsy diagnosed?
Definition
No definitive test. Done by exclusion.
Term
List three methods (not including pharmacological methods) of treatment for Bell's palsy.
Definition
Moist heat, gentle massage, and electrical stimulation with prescribed exercises (prevents atrophy and maintains muscle tone).
Term
List two medications used in the treatment of symptoms of Bell's palsy.
Definition

Corticosteroids - decreases edema and pain

 

Acyclovir (Zovirax) - alone or in conjunction with prednisone because HSV is implicated in 70% of cases.

 

Note: MUST TAKE WITHIN 24 HOURS OF SYMPTOMS STARTING TO BE MOST EFFECTIVE

Term
True or False? Most people with Bell's palsy have a full recovery in about 6 weeks.
Definition
True
Term
What can the doctor prescribe to help a patient who cannot close their eye completely?
Definition
Lubricating eye drops or eye ointment to protect the eye from drying. Patient may also wear an eyepatch while they sleep.
Term
What is extremely important to remember in regards to psychosocial support for a patient with Bell's palsy?
Definition
It is important to give the patient privacy. Tearing and drooling can be very embarrassing for them.
Term
What are three signs that may signal a patient is having side effects from corticosteroids?
Definition
Infections, high blood pressure, hyperglycemia.
Term
If a patient has a hx of HSV, what should you tell them?
Definition
To seek medical care if they experience pain in or around the ear.
Term
What should a patient with Bell's palsy report in reference to their open eye?
Definition
Ocular pain, drainage, or discharge (we must monitor eye for infection).
Term
What is Guillain-Barre Syndrome?
Definition
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a serious disorder that occurs when the body's defense (immune) system mistakenly attacks part of the nervous system. This leads to nerve inflammation that causes muscle weakness (ascending symmetrical paralysis).
Term

 

Often Gullain-Barre Syndrome occurs 1-3 weeks after an infection of the lungs or stomach and intestines. What are some examples of infections that could trigger it?

 

Definition

Infections that may trigger GBS include:  Campylobacter jejuni, which can cause a type of food poisoningMycoplasma , which can cause pneumonia.

Cytomegalovirus (CMV), which can cause fever, chills, sore throat, swollen glands, body aches, and fatigue.  Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), which can cause mononucleosis (mono).  Varicella-zoster virus, which can cause chickenpox and shingles. HIV

Term
Explain the process of ascending paralysis in regards to Gullain-Barre Syndrome.
Definition

Muscle weakness or the loss of muscle function (paralysis) affects both sides of the body and usually starts in the legs and spreads to the arms


Note: weakness usually peaks around 14th day

Term
Outside of muscle weakness/paralysis, what are some common manifestations of Gullain-Barre Syndrome?
Definition

Pain (worse at night), loss of reflexes (areflexia), numbness and tingling (paresthesia), reduced muscle tone (hypotonia).

 

Note: If condition persists and brainstem becomes involved, may see facial weakness, extraocular eye movement difficulties, dysphagia, and paresthesia of the face

Term
What is the most serious complication of Gullain-Barre Syndrome?
Definition
Respiratory failiure. Patient may need intubation and mechanical ventilation if nerves of the diaphragm are affected (KEEP INTUBATION KIT AT BEDSIDE).
Term
What are two diagnostic studies that would be abnormal with Gullain-Barre Syndrome?
Definition

CSF - initially normal, but shows elevated protein after 7-10 days

EMG - markedly abnormal (shows reduced nerve conduction in affected extremities)

Term
In addition to Plasmapheresis in the first two weeks, what high dose immunoglobulin will be given to patients with Gullain-Barre Syndrome?
Definition
IV Sandoglobulin will be given (beyond 3 weeks after onset, plasma exchange and immunoglobulin therapies have little value).
Term
What is extremely important for a patient receiving high-dose immunoglobulin?
Definition
Patient needs to be well hydrated and have adequate renal function.
Term
How could you help ensure a patient with dysphagia resulting from Gullain-Barre receives adequate nutrition?
Definition

If mild dysphagia, can place patient in upright position and flex the head during feedings. If severe dysphagia, tube feedings may be required.

 

Note: Patient with paralytic ileus or intestinal obstruction may need parenteral nutrition.

Term
What six things need to be assessed during the acute phase of Gullain-Barre Syndrome?
Definition

Ascending paralysis

Respiratory function

ABGs

Reflexes - gag, corneal, & swallowing (decreased or absent)

Blood pressure (orthostatic hypotension - Vasopressers)

Cardiac rate & rhythm (bradycardia & dysrhythmias)

 

Term
What would you tell a patient with Gullain-Barre asking if their muscle function will ever return?
Definition
Reassure the patient that their muscle function will probably return.
Term
In relation to spinal injuries, what is the difference between the primary and secondary injury?
Definition

Primary injury - initial mechanical disruption of axons as a result of stretch or laceration

Secondary injury - the ongoing, progressive damage that occurs after the initial injury [apoptosis (cell death) may continue for weeks to months after initial injury]

Term
How long does it take for hemorrhagic areas to appear in the center of the spinal cord?
Definition
They appear within 1 hour and infarction in the gray matter may occur by 4 hours.
Term
How long does it take for permanent damage to occur because of the development of edema? Why is this edema so harmful?
Definition
By 24 hours or less, permanent damage may occur because of the development of edema. Edema secondary to the inflammatory response is particularly harmful because of lack of space for tissue expansion. Therefore compression of the cord occurs. Edema extends above and below the injury, thus increasing the ischemic damage.
Term
How long does it take to be able to accurately assess the extent of spinal cord injury and give a prognosis for recovery?
Definition
Because secondary injury progresses over time, the extent of injury and prognosis for recovery are most accurately determined at least 72 hours or more after injury.
Term
About 50% of people with acute spinal cord injury experience a temporary neurologic syndrome known as spinal shock that is characterized by what manifestations?
Definition

Decreased reflexes

Loss of sensation

Flaccid paralysis below the level of the injury

 

Note: lasts days to months, may mask postinjury neurologic function, and active rehab may begin in the presence of spinal shock.

Term
What is neurogenic shock characterized by?
Definition
Characterized by hypotension and bradycardia (important clinical clues).
Term
What type of spinal cord injury is neurogenic shock associated with?
Definition
Usually associated with a cervical or high thoracic injury (T6 or higher).
Term
What medication would you give a patient with neurogenic shock to treat the bradycardia?
Definition
Atropine
Term
Out of flexion, hyperextension, flexion-rotation, extension-rotation, and compression, which mechanism of injury is most unstable and most often implicated in severe neurologic defecits?
Definition
The flexion-rotation injury is the most unstable of all injuries because the ligamentous structures that stabilize the spine are torn and is most often implicated in severe neurologic deficits.
Term
Is the skeletal or neurologic level of injury where the most damage on sensory and motor function occurs?
Definition

Skeletal level of injury is the vertebral level where there is the most damage to vertebral bones and ligaments.

 

Neurologic level is the lowest segment of the spinal cord with normal sensory and motor function on both sides of the body.

Term
What type of paralysis occurs if the cervical cord is injured?
Definition

Paralysis of all four extremities, resulting in tetraplegia (quadraplegia).

 

Note: when damage is low in the cervical cord, the arms are rarely completely paralyzed.

Term
What type of paralysis occurs if the thoracic or lumbar cord is damaged?
Definition
If the thoracic or lumbar cord is damaged, the result is paraplegia (paralysis and loss of sensation in the legs).
Term
In relation to spinal cord injuries, explain the difference between complete and incomplete cord involvement.
Definition

Complete cord involvement results in total loss of sensory and motor function below the level of the lesion (injury).


Incomplete cord involvement results in a mixed loss of voluntary motor activity and sensation and leaves some tracts intact.

Term
What six syndromes (complications) are associated with incomplete spinal cord lesions?
Definition

Central cord syndrome

Anterior cord syndrome

Brown-Séquard syndrome

Posterior cord syndrome

Cauda equina syndrome

Conus medullaris syndrome

Term
What is Central Cord Syndrome? What manifestations will be seen?
Definition

Damage to the central spinal cord (involves motor weakness and sensory loss in upper and lower extremities).

 

Note: upper extremities affected more than lower ones

Term
What is Anterior Cord Syndrome? What manifestations will be seen?
Definition
Damage to anterior spinal cord that results in compromised blood flow to anterior spinal cord (will see motor paralysis and loss of pain and temperature sensation below level of injury).
Term
What is Brown-Sequard Syndrome? What manifestations will be seen?
Definition

Damage to one half of the spinal cord. Characterized by loss of motor function/position and vibratory sense, as well as vasomotor paralysis on the same side as lesion. Opposite side has loss of pain and temperature sensation below level of lesion.

 

Note: Usually from penetrating injury

Term
What is Posterior Cord Syndrome?
Definition
Results from compression or damage to the posterior spinal artery. It is a very rare condition. Generally the dorsal columns are damaged, resulting in loss of proprioception.
Term
What is Conus Medullaris Syndrome and Cauda Equina Syndrome? What manifestations will be seen?
Definition
Damage to the very lowest portion of the spinal cord and the lumbar and sacral nerve roots. Produces flaccid paralysis of lower limbs and flaccid bladder and bowel.
Term
At what level of the spine would their be total loss of respiratory muscle function if injured?
Definition
Above the level of C4 (mechanical ventilation is required to keep the patient alive)
Term
True or False? Cervical injury below the level of C4 will cause diaphragmatic breathing if phrenic nerve if still functioning.
Definition

True

 

Note: Spinal cord edema and hemorrhage can affect function of phrenic nerve and cause respiratory insufficiency

Term
Why could cervical and thoracic injuries lead to atelectasis or pneumonia?
Definition
They cause paralysis of abdominal and intercostal muscles, which means the patient cannot cough effectively enough to remove secretions.
Term
What cardiovascular symptoms are associated with any cord injury above the level of T6 and why?
Definition
Bradycardia and peripheral vasodilation, resulting in hypotension. This is because any cord injury above the level of T6 greatly decreases the influence of the sympathetic nervous system.
Term
In marked bradycardia (heart rate <40 beats/min), what drug would be appropriate to increase the heart rate and prevent hypoxemia?
Definition
Atropine
Term
What two pharmacological treatments would be used to increase blood pressure in a patient with a cord injury above the level of T6?
Definition
IV fluids and vasopressors
Term
What will be used to drain the bladder of a patient with an atonic bladder that becomes overdistended?
Definition
An indwelling catheter is used until the patient is medically stable and large quantities of IV fluids are no longer required. At this point, the indwelling catheter will be removed and intermittent catheterization should begin as early as possible (helps maintain bladder tone and decrease risk of infection).
Term
What is the primary GI problem related to cord injury above the level of T5?
Definition
Hypomotility (contributes to development of paralytic ileus and gastric distention).
Term
What would you use to give relief to a patient with gastric distention?
Definition
An NG tube with intermittent suctioning
Term
What medication may be used to treat delayed gastric emptying?
Definition
Metoclopramide (Reglan)
Term
Stress ulcers in the stomach are a common side effect of spinal cord injury, because of excessive release of hydrochloric acid in the stomach. What are some medications used to prevent ulcers in the initial phase?
Definition
Histamine (H2)-receptor blockers, such as ranitidine (Zantac) and famotidine (Pepcid), and proton pump inhibitors (e.g., pantoprazole [Protonix IV], omeprazole [Prilosec], lansoprazole [Prevacid])
Term
Since there are no subjective symptoms of intraabdominal bleeding related to spinal cord injury, what would make you suspect it?
Definition
  • Continued hypotension in spite of vigorous treatment
  • Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit
  • Expanding girth of the abdomen

 

Term
Neurogenic bowel is associated with spinal injury at the level of T12 or below. Explain what Neurogenic bowel is.
Definition
Less voluntary neurologic control over the bowel results in a neurogenic bowel. In the early period after injury, the bowel is areflexic and sphincter tone is decreased. As reflexes return, the bowel becomes reflexic, sphincter tone is enhanced, and reflex emptying occurs.
Term
How is neurogenic bowel treated?
Definition
Can be managed successfully with a regular bowel program coordinated with the gastrocolic reflex to minimize untimely incontinence.
Term
Patients with spinal cord injuries experience Poikilothermism as well as the inability to sweat or shier? Explain what effect this has on temperature regulation.
Definition
  • Poikilothermism is the adjustment of the body temperature to the room temperature.
  • With spinal cord disruption there is also decreased ability to sweat or shiver below the level of the lesion, which also affects the ability to regulate body temperature.

 

Term
The degree of poikilothermism depends on the level of injury, explain the differences in temperature regulation with cervical and thoracic or lumbar injuries.
Definition
Patients with high cervical injuries have a greater loss of the ability to regulate temperature than do those with thoracic or lumbar injuries.
Term
Why should you closely monitor electrolyte levels in a patient receiving NG suctioning?
Definition

Suctioning could cause metabolic alkalosis. Must monitor until suctioning is discontinued and a normal diet is resumed.

 

Note: Decreased tissue perfusion can lead to acidosis

Term
What kind of diet is to be expected for a patient with SCI?
Definition
A positive nitrogen balance and a high-protein diet help to prevent skin breakdown and infections and decrease the rate of muscle atrophy.
Term
DVT is more difficult to detect in patients with SCI, because signs such as pain and tenderness will not be present. How will you assess for DVT?
Definition
  • Doppler examination
  • Impedance plethysmography
  • Measurement of leg and thigh girth

 

Term
What is the gold standard for diagnosing the stability of a spinal cord injury, location and degree of bony injury, and degree of spinal canal compromise?
Definition
CT Scan
Term
When is an MRI used for SCIs?
Definition
MRI is used to assess for soft tissue and neural changes and when there is unexplained neurologic deficit or worsening of neurologic status.
Term
What is the timeframe for a patient with a complete or incomplete SCI to receive the benefits of Methylprednisolone (Solu Medrol)?
Definition
Must be taken within 8 hours of injury to receive improvement in motor function, sensation, blood flow and edema.
Term
When is the use of Methylprednisolone (Solu Medrol) contraindicated in a SCI?
Definition

When there is a penetrating trauma to the spinal cord.

 

Note: should be used with caution in elderly population.

Term
What are three major side effects of Methylprednisolone (Solu Medrol)?
Definition
  • Immunosupression
  • Increased frequency of upper GI bleeding
  • Increased risk of infection
Term
True or False? If a patient that may have a SCI is not breathing and has a heartbeat, you should do a jaw thrust to start CPR.
Definition
True
Term
True or False? A patient with a SCI who is unable to count to 10 aloud without taking a breath needs immediate attention.
Definition
True
Term
What medication will be used to treat hypotension related to spinal cord injury?
Definition
Dopamine or Norepinephrine (in addition to fluid replacement, if needed)
Term

True or False? Bladder overdistention can result in reflux into kidneys with eventual renal failure.

 

Definition

True. Indwelling catheter used in acute phase followed by intermittent catheterization program (q3-4h) once stabilized.

 

Note: need high fluid intake during indwelling catheter phase

Term
Your patient has a SCI. What are the three situations that would result in ET tube or Tracheostomy with mechanical ventilation?
Definition
  • Injury is at or above C3
  • Patient is exhausted from labored breathing
  • ABGs deteriorate (indicating inadequate oxygenation or ventilation)
Term
What causes the slowed heart rate (<60 bpm) in a patient with SCI?
Definition

Unopposed vagal response (give Atropine).

 

Note: Any increase in vagal stimulation, such as turning or suctioning, can result in cardiac arrest.

Term
What is the cause of chronic low blood pressure in patients with SCI?
Definition
Loss of sympathetic tone in peripheral vessels (give Dopamine or Norepinephrine and fluid replacement).
Term
What is the reason for increased risk of DVT in patients with SCI?
Definition

Lack of muscle tone to aid venous return can result in sluggish blood flow and predispose the patient to DVT. Obviously, immobility is another concern.

 

Note: will use Heparin or Lovenox to prevent DVT unless patient has internal bleeding or recent surgery

Term
What is the best method for preventing UTIs in your patient with SCI?
Definition
Regular and complete bladder drainage
Term
When should you send a patient's urine for culture?
Definition
If the appearance or odor of the urine is suspicious or if the patient develops symptoms of a UTI (e.g., chills, fever, malaise), a specimen is sent for culture.
Term
What would happen to the hematocrit level if your patient has a stress ulcer?
Definition
You would observe a slow drop in hematocrit.
Term
What are some ways you need to compensate for your patient's absent sensations and prevent sensory deprivation?
Definition
Do this by stimulating the patient above the level of injury. Conversation, music, strong aromas, and interesting flavors should be a part of the nursing care plan. Provide prism glasses so that the patient can read and watch television.

Term
The return of reflexes after the resolution of spinal shock means that patients with an injury level at T6 or higher may develop autonomic dysreflexia. Explain what this is and the severity of the situation.
Definition
  • Autonomic Dysreflexia is when there is stimulation of sensory receptors below the level of cord lesion and the intact sympathetic nervous system below the level of the lesion responds to the stimulation with a reflex arteriolar vasoconstriction that increases blood pressure but the parasympathetic nervous system is unable to directly counteract these responses via the injured spinal cord.
  • Life-threatening - requires immediate resolution.
  • If resolution doesn't occur, can lead to status epilepticus, stroke, myocardial infarction, & death.

 

Term
What is the most common precipitating cause of Autonomic Dysreflexia?
Definition
The most common precipitating cause is a distended bladder or rectum, although any sensory stimulation may cause autonomic dysreflexia (includes restrictive clothing, pressure areas, or UTI as well)
Term
What are the manifestations associated with Autonomic Dysreflexia?
Definition
  • Hypertension (up to 300 mm Hg systolic)
  • Throbbing headache (measure BP immediately)
  • Marked diaphoresis above the level of the lesion
  • Bradycardia (30 to 40 beats/minute)
  • Piloerection (erection of body hair)
  • Flushing of the skin above the level of the lesion
  • Blurred vision or spots in the visual fields
  • Nasal congestion
  • Anxiety
  • Nausea
Term
What are the nursing interventions for immediate care of a patient experiencing Autonomic Dysreflexia?
Definition
  • Elevation of the head of the bed 45 degrees or sitting the patient upright
  • Notification of the physician
  • Assessment to determine the cause
  • May be necessary to relieve bladder distention with catheterization if this is the cause (use lidocaine)
  • May be necessary to do digital rectal exam to assess for impaction (use anesthetic ointment first)
  • Remove all skin stimuli (restrictive clothing/tight shoes)

 

Term
What medication will most likely be ordered if your patient's symptoms of Autonomic Dysreflexia persist after the source has been relieved?
Definition
Nifedipine (Procardia), which is an arteriolar vasodilator
Term
What should we teach patients with cervical-level injuries who are not ventilator dependent in regards to respiratory rehabilitation?
Definition
Should be taught assisted coughing and regular use of incentive spirometry or deep-breathing exercises.
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