An Airmen is qualified in two Air Force specialty codes(AFSC).  Which Type of AFSC identifies the one in which the Airman is currently performing duty?

A)Air Force Specialty Codes(AFSC)

B)Duty Air Force Specialty Codes(DAFSC)

C)Primary Air Force Specialty Code(PAFSC)

D)Control Air Force Specialty Code(CAFSC)

B. Duty Air Force Specialty Code

DAFSC

A group of closely related Air Force specialties (AFS) requiring basically the same knowledge and skills is known as a:

A)career field

B)duty

C)position

D)skill level

An Air Force specialty (AFS) is a group of:

A)people requiring common interests

B)numbers requiring similar knowledge

C)letters requiring common qualifications

D)positions requiring common qualifications

D) Positions requiring common qualifications

A duty Air Force specialty code(DAFSC) is the AFSC(Air Force Specialty Code)

A)used to identify a specialty 

B)in which an individual is best qualified to perform duty

C)used to identify the position in which an individual is performing duty

D)used for enlisted Airman assignments, training requirements, and promotions

A SRA may use the supervisor when he or she:

A)has graduated ALS and supervises the work of others

B)doesn't have a title that accurately reflects his or her day-to-day duties

C)supervises multiple flights or squadrons and has graduated ALS

D)is in charge of a work center and has completed his or her upgrade training

Which specialty is not part of the transportation career field?

A)air transportation

B)air traffic control

C)traffic management

D)vehicle management

Which is not a component of the Air Force On-The-Job Training(AF OJT) Program?

A)Job experience

B)Job knowledge

C)Job proficiency

D)Job requirement

How many days are trainees given to complete each volume of their career development courses(CDC)?

A)30 days

B)45 days

C)60 days

D)90 days

Who is responsible for conducting and documenting work center orientations and initial qualification evaluations within 60 days of assignment?

A)Trainee

B)Trainer

C)Certifier

D)Supervisor

Who is responsible for actively participating in all opportunities for training?

A)Trainee

B)Trainer

C)Certifier

D)Supervisor

Which is not a trainee responsibility in the AF OJT Program?

A)Understand particular deployment and home station training requirements

B)Identify and certify position qualifications and skill level upgrade training requirements

C)Obtain and maintain knowledge, qualifications, certifications, and appropriate skill levels.

D)Budget on-and-off duty time to complete assigned training tasks within established time limits

What is the minimum amount of time a trainee must be in training to be awarded the 7-skill level?

A)6 months

B)12 months

C)15 months

D)18 months

Which training document is the foundation for ensuring the completion of all work center job requirements?

A)Master Training Plan (MTP)

B)Master Task List (MTL)

C)Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

D)Specialty Training Standard (STS)

Before a trainee can be awarded the 5-or 7- skill levels all core tasks must be identified:

A)in the CFETP and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor

B)by the supervisor and other duty position tasks identified by the CFETP

C)by the commander and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor

D)by the supervisor and other duty position tasks identified by the commander

The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is a comprehensive:

A)core training document that identifies education and training requirements

B)instructional package that supports and standardizes job knowledge training

C)instructional document that lists professional enhancement criteria for a specialty

D)core training package that outlines task evaluation checklists and training assessments.

The scale values on the proficiency code key indicate:

A)that training is not required due to limitations in resources

B)how well a trainee needs to perform a task or understand a task or subject

C)that the task indicated will be taught during wartime and humanitarian operations

D)how much information the trainee will be required to recite back to the supervisor

which form is a continuation of the Career Field Education and Training Plan(CFETP) and is used and annotated the same way as the specialty training standard(STS)

A)AF IMT 797

B)AF IMT 623a

C)AF IMT 2096

D)AETC Form 156

What is the purpose of the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection, and Health(AFOSH) program?

A)minimize loss of Air Force property and money.

B)minimize loss of Air Force resources and protect personnel

C)increase situational awareness of resources and protect personnel

D)decrease situational awareness of resources and protect personnel

you injured your ankle playing basketball over the weekend.  Your responsibility under the AFOSH program is to promptly:

A)report the injury to your supervisor

B)quit the basketball team for the season

C)wrap and ice it so you can continue to work

D)write a statement of how the injury occured

Your supervisor just conducted very thorough safety training with you that included job hazards, PPE wear, jewelry safety, manual lifting procedures, and many other areas.  Which form will you and your supervisor use to document this training?

A)AF From 55, Employee Safety and Hazard Record

B)AF IMT 483, Certificate of Competency

C)AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report

D)AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard

You must be mindful of bulky uniform items with cords and strings because:

A)They can come undone and render you out of dress and appearance regulations

B)they can get caught in conveyor belts or moving parts and machinery

C)they get in the way when you are working at the computer

D)your coworkers can easily yank on them as the walk by

You are entering the warehouse wearing several items. Which of them must be removed before entering the area?

A)Cold-weather gear

B)steel-toed boots

C)reflective gear

D)jewelery

you have finished downloading pallets onto the finger docks.  Which is the best way to exit the dock?

A)Jump off the edge

B)Ride the rollers to the end with the pallets

C)Use the ladder located at the end of the dock

D)Step onto the k-loader and ask the driver to lower the back end so you can jump off a shorter distance

C)Use the ladder located at the end of the dock

You have acquired a bad safety habit of walking while spotting.  It is important for you to eliminate this poor and unsafe work practice because:

A)new people can learn work habits by observing your performance

B)your supervisor will embarrass you in front of your coworkers

C)the k-loader driver doesn't like you

D)it will increase your reputation

A)new people can learn work habits by observing your performance

Operational risk management (ORM) is a continuous process designed to do what?

A)Detect, assess, and contribute to risks

B)Detect and assess risk and enhance safety capabilities

C)Detect, assess, and control risk while enhancing performance and maximizing combat capabilities

D)Detect and control risk while mitigating performance capabilities and enhancing combat assessment

C)Detect, assess, and control risk while enhancing performance and maximizing combat capabilities

Which form would you use to report hazards that cannot be eliminated immediately?

A)DD Form 457, DOD Hazard Report

B)AF IMT 457, USAF Hazard Report

C)DD Form 1118, Notice of Hazard

D)AF IMT 1118, Notice of Hazard

B)AF IMT 457, USAF Hazard Report

The Base Weather Station has issued a lightning warning for your location.  What does this warning mean and what should you do?

A)Lightning is occurring within a 5-nautical-mile radius;  immediately take shelter in a safe place.

B)Lightning is predicted to occur within the next 5 minutes;  immediately take shelter in a safe place.

C)Lightning is occurring within a 5-nautical-mile radius;  continue working on the flight line until told to cease operations.

D)Lightning is predicted to occur within the next 30 minutes;  continue working on the flight line until told to cease operations

A)Lightning is occurring within a 5-nautical-mile radius;  immediately take shelter in a safe place.

You are entering the flight line area in a vehicle.  What must you do before entering?

A)Stop and show the gate guard your line badge

B)Stop and do a foreign object damage (FOD) check

C)Slow down and look both ways for oncoming aircraft

D)Stop and collect IDs from all of your passengers to show the gate guard

B)Stop and do a foreign object damage (FOD) check

You have parked your vehicle on the flight line and need to leave it unattended to board the aircraft.  What must you do?

A)Leave the keys in the ignition and lock the vehicle;  turn off the ignition;  place it in neutral, and chock the front driver's side wheel, in front and behind you.

B)Leave the keys in the ignition and the vehicle unlocked; turn off the ignition; place it in park or reverse; and chock one rear wheel, in front and behind

C)Leave the vehicle on and unlocked; the keys in the ignition; place it in park or reverse and chock one rear wheel,, in front and behind.

D)Leave the vehicle unlocked; turn off the ignition; take the keys with you; place it in park or reverse; and chock one rear wheel.

B)Leave the keys in the ignition and the vehicle unlocked; turn off the ignition; place it in park or reverse; and chock one rear wheel, in front and behind

You are stopped on the flight line at night with your vehicle and its headlights on and an aircraft is approaching your direction.  You are not in the aircraft's path.  What is your best course of action?

A)Exit the flight line area and return when the aircraft has safely blocked.

B)Flash your high beams at the aircraft to let the pilot know your location

C)Turn your headlights off and turn your parking lights/emergency flashers on until the aircraft is out of range.

D)Turn your vehicle around so you are facing away from the aircraft, turn the ignition off, and set the parking brake until the aircraft is out of range

A)Exit the flight line area and return when the aircraft has safely blocked.

You are crossing the active runway and see a red and green light coming from the control tower.  What should you do?

A)Clear the active runway

B)Return to your starting point

C)Stop!  Your vehicle will not be moved

D)General warning.  Exercise extreme caution

You are crossing the active runway and see a flashing white light coming from the control tower.  What should you do?

A)Clear the active runway.

B)Return to your starting point

C)Stop!  Your vehicle will not be moved

D)General Warning.  Exercise extreme caution.

B)Return to your starting point

A solid waste is any discarded material,

A)including solids, liquids, and containerized gases only, which is abandoned, recycled, or considered inherently waste-like.

B)including solids, liquids, and containerized gases only, which is acquired, treated, or considered inherently solid-like

C)including solids and liquids only, which is purchased, stored, abandoned, or considered inherently waste-like

D)including liquids and containerized gases only, which is stored, abandoned, or considered inherently solid-like

A)including solids, liquids, and containerized gases only, which is abandoned, recycled, or considered inherently waste-like.

What are the 2 main elements of minimizing waste?

A)Prevention and control

B)Management and control

C)Reduction and management

D)Prevention and management

A)Prevention and control

Pollution control consists of which three activities?

A)Recycling, treatment, and disposal

B)Storage, acquisition, and recycling

C)Prevention, purchase, and participation

D)Reduction, recycling, and disintegration

A)Recycling, treatment, and disposal

Which is not a benefit of pollution prevention?

A)It reduces impact on public health and the environment

B)It reduces the need for federal standards and regulations

C)It reduces costs, manpower and equipment requirements

D)It boosts the Air Force's image as responsible members of society

B)It reduces the need for federal standards and regulations

What can you do each and every day to reduce air emissions at work?

A)Incinerate, scrub, or treat solid wastes in accordance with Air Force instructions and local policies

B)Neutralize, evaporate, or reduce  hazardous waste products in accordance with federal and state statues.

C)Inspect, operate, refuel and maintain vehicles in accordance with their applicable TOs and other authorized guidance

D)Reduce, reuse, recycle, and manage your use of solid wastes, ensuring no waste is dumped in any bodies of water, including storm drains.

C)Inspect, operate, refuel and maintain vehicles in accordance with their applicable TOs and other authorized guidance

You have knowledge of some North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) SECRET information in which one of your coworkers has asked about.  Which United States security clearance level must your coworker possess for access to this information?

A)For official use only (FOUO)

B)NATO Confidential

C)TOP SECRET

D)SECRET

Your work center is storing some classified material in the vault and you have been asked to let a lighting technician in to fix the lighting.  He doesn't have the required "need-to-know," but must have access to the room to properly complete his job.  What is your best course of action?

A)Let him in.  He's got a job to do

B)Check his for official use only (FOUO) file

C)Escort him into and stay with him in the vault at all times until his work is complete.

D)Verify his security clearance and make him sign a non-disclosure agreement. (NDA)

C)Escort him into and stay with him in the vault at all times until his work is complete.

An Aircraft diverted into your station with classified material on it and will remain overnight(RON) for repairs.  The material is too large to be placed in an approved container.  what is the best course of action?

A)Have the Aircraft commander lock the aircraft

B)Have the armed courier stay on board until the aircrew returns

C)Download the classified material and store it in an authorized US facility

D)Have the aircraft commander lock the aircraft and sign a release of liability letter.

C)Download the classified material and store it in an authorized US facility

Which one of the following represents an operational security (OPSEC) vulnerability?

A)An adversary with possession of a fake military identification card and knowledge of the base.

B)Taking pictures of the helicopters you loaded on the C-5 and posting them on the internet

C)Blending in with the local crowd while off-base in your deployed location

D)Varying your routine and driving routes to work

B)Taking pictures of the helicopters you loaded on the C-5 and posting them on the internet

Which type of cargo consists of highly classified national security material and requires an escort?

A)Gold Bullion

B)Human Remains

C)Diplomatic clearance cargo

D)Defense Courier Service (DCS) material

Which type of cargo must you always protect, safeguard, and handle as if it were classified?

A)Gold bullion

B)Registered Mail

C)Human Remains

D)Diplomatic clearance cargo

B)Registered Mail

Which term refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies, and equipment to reinforce or resupply already deployed or employed forces?

A)Deployment

B)Sustainment

C)Employment

D)Redeployment

B)Sustainment

Which command provides common-user and commercial air, land, and sea transportation?

A)Air Mobility Command (AMC)

B)Military Sealift Command (MSC)

C)US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)

D)Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC)

Which Command is not a component of the US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)?

A)Air Mobility Command (AMC)

B)Military Sealift Command (MSC)

C)Military Traffic and Airlift Command (MTAC)

D)Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC)

Which command is the link between Department of Defense (DOD) shippers and the commercial transportation carrier industry?

A)Air Mobility Command (AMC)

B)Military Sealift Command (MSC)

C)US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)

D)Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC)

Which command is the US Transportation Command's (USTRANSCOM) single component for air mobility and provides airlift, air refueling, special air mission and aeromedical evacuation services?

A)Air Mobility Command(AMC)

B)Mobility Airlift Command (MAC)

C)Air Transportation Mobility Command (ATMC)

D)Air Deployment and Mobility Command (ADMC)

A)Air Mobility Command(AMC)

Which agency serves as Air Mobility Command's (AMC) strategic air operations hub and plans, directs, schedules, and tracks aircraft operations worldwide?

A)Wing Operations Command (WOC)

B)Wing Airlift Control Center (WACC)

C)Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC)

D)Aerial Port Operations Center (APOC)

C)Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC)

Through which system does the Air Force provide rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system (DTS)?

A)Sustainment Mobility System (SMS)

B)National Air Mobility System (NAMS)

C)Mobility Traffic Management System (MTMS)

D)Global Deployment & Mobility System (GDMS)

B)National Air Mobility System (NAMS)

Which area is an air terminal located on a prepared airfield that is designated for the sustained air movement of cargo and passengers?

A)Drop Zone

B)Aerial Port

C)Airland field

D)Landing zone

B)Aerial Port

Which is a station that serves as an authorized port to process and clear aircraft and traffic for entrance into the country in which it is located?

A)Aerial Port of Inspection (APOI)

B)Aerial Port of Mobility (APOM)

C)Aerial Port of Debarkation (APOD)

D)Aerial Port of Embarkation (APOE)

C)Aerial Port of Debarkation (APOD)

Joint forces can be organized on which basis?

A)Symmetrical or logical

B)Geographical or logical

C)Symmetrical or functional

D)Geographical or functional

Which aircraft can hold up to 36 standard pallets and 73 passengers?

A)C-5

B)C-17

C)KC-10

D)B-747

Which aircraft is used for both strategic and theater airlift as well as airdrops and aeromedical evacuations?

A)C-5

B)C-17

C)KC-10

D)B-747

Which organic aircraft can hold up to 6 standard pallets and is capable of landing on dirt strips?

A)C-5

B)C-17

C)C-130

D)C-141

Which program is where United States commercial airlines augment Department of Defense's (DOD) airlift capability in time of war or during a President-declared emergency?

A)Defense Transportation Program (DTP)

B)National Air Mobility Program (NAMP)

C)Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) program

D)Operations and Maintenance (O&M) program

C)Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) program

Which stage of Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) activation supports minor regional crises or small-scale contingencies?

A)Stage I, Committed Expansion

B)Stage II, Defense Airlift Emergency

C)Stage III, National Emergency 

D)Stage IV, Global Expansion

Improperly constructed mission numbers

A)duplicate the efforts of the organizations who fly the missions

B)interfere with automated data updates between the various C2 systems

C)make it harder to deploy, employ, sustain, and redeploy the warfighter

D)enable the services to double-bill the cargo's user based on weight and cube.

B)interfere with automated data updates between the various C2 systems

Which type of mission moves mostly airlift mission moves mostly airlift sustainment cargo in which users reimburse the Transportation Working Capital Fund (TWCF)

A)Channel Mission

B)Contingency Mission

C)Air Refueling Mission (AR)

D) Special Airlift Mission (SAM)

The last 3 digits of a mission number represents the 

A)geographical point where the mission will turn around

B)operational or tactical agency that has control of the mission

C)Julian date on which the mission originated in Zulu or GMT

D)air carrier that is operating the mission and what the load consists of

C)Julian date on which the mission originated in Zulu or GMT

Intransit Visibility(ITV) provides commanders the 

A)ability to connect and replicate

B)ability to enter data into feeder systems accurately

C)capability to interface with X-MAN, Logistics (LOGMOD), and MANPER-B systems

D)capability to determine if a force has reached its destination and is ready to perform its mission

The Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) allows users to 

A)prepare freight warrants

B)prepare commercial bills of landing

C)create airlift schedules and mission numbers

D)process, manifest and track passengers and cargo

At a minimum, aerial port personnel should verify in the Global Transportation Network (GTN) the

A)transportation account code, project code and mission number

B)presence of bill lading data, project code, and mission number

C)presence of cargo and passenger data, mission number, and aerial port code

D)presence of document identifier codes, mission number and aerial port code.

C)presence of cargo and passenger data, mission number, and aerial port code

Who has a responsibility to provide accurate data to the aerial ports or agencies that enter data into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)?

A)Truck Drivers

B)Individual units

C)Superintendents

D)Ramp Supervisors

B)Individual units

Which disk system is not used to import cargo or passenger information into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)?

A)X-MAN

B)Logistics Module (LOGMOD)

C)Manpower and Personnel Module-Base (MANPER-B)

D)Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment(DCAPES)

Radio frequency identification (RFID) technology consists of which 3 parts?

A)Tag, interrogator, and data server

B)Tag, transponder, and data server

C)Tag, interrogator, and optical memory card

D)Transponder, optical memory card, data server

A)Tag, interrogator, and data server

The Deployed Global Air Transportation Execution System (DGATES) is set up and used until the 

A)capability is outdated and needs to be replaced by a more advanced capability

B)deploying unit replicates and provides HQ AMC ITV cell e-mail ITV capability

C)capability is no longer necessary or until fixed R/GATES systems have been set up in its place

D)deploying unit requires more capability than DGATES provides or prefers to use another system

C)capability is no longer necessary or until fixed R/GATES systems have been set up in its place

You are working in the Cargo Deployment Function(CDF) for a mobility movement and want to locate information about mobility movements.  In which part of the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) would you look?

A)Part I

B)Part II

C)Part III

D)Part IV

You are helping a customer determine if he and his family are eligible for Department of Defense (DOD) air travel.  In which publication would you look?

A)DOD 4515.13-R, Air Transportation Eligibility

B)DOD 4500.54-M, Foreign Clearance Manual (FCM)

C)DTR, 4500.9-R, Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR)

D)DOD 4515.13-R, Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR)

A)DOD 4515.13-R, Air Transportation Eligibility

You want to find out if two pieces of hazardous cargo are compatible with each other.  In which publication would you look?

A)Air Force Instruction (AFI) 24-101

B)Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I)

C)Air Mobility Command Instruction (AMCI) 24-101

D) Air Mobility Command Pamphlet (AMCPAM) 24-204

B)Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I)

A cargo user has received verified approval to ship its equipment via tactical, contingency, or emergency airlift and you need to look up the hazardous cargo restrictions and requirements for this type of airlift.  Which chapter in Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I), Preparing Hazardous Materials for Military Air Shipment, would you go find this information?

A)Chapter 1

B)Chapter 2

C)Chapter 3

D)Chapter 4

You are load planning cargo for a Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) aircraft and want to look up the aircraft specifications to safely plan the load.  In which publication series would you look to find the information?

A)Air Force Instruction (AFI) 24-101

B)Air Force Manual (AFMAN)24-204(I)

C)Air Mobility Command Instruction (AMCI) 24-101

D)Air Mobility Command Pamphlet (AMCPAM)24-2

You are loading helicopters on a  C-17 aircraft and want to find information on specific procedures for loading the items.  Which section number of the 1C-17B-9 technical order (TO) contains that information?

A)Section II

B)Section IV

C)Section V

D)Section VI

Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) is both a process and a collection of automated  computer systems used to develop

A)joint inspection standards and Global Air Mobility Support System (GAMSS) taskings

B)operational plans (OPLANS) and time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDDs)

C)installation deployment officers (IDOs) and air expeditionary force (AEF) tempo bands

D)joint planning and execution community (JPEC) regulations and deployment work centers

B)operational plans (OPLANS) and time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDDs)

The time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) is

A)the process within unit type codes (UTCs) required to activate deployment work centers

B)a situation that involves military forces in response to natural and man-made disasters, terrorists, or foreign military operations

C)a situation that involves a significant threat to the US, its territories , citizens, military forces, possessions or vital interests

D)the electronic data that exists within the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) to help execute deployments in phases

Which volume of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) documents the aircraft activity for each geographical location in support of all regional OPLANs (operational plans) and certain CONPLANs (concept plans)?

A)WMP-2, Plans and Listing Summary

B)WMP-3, Combat and Support Forces

C)WMP-4, Wartime Aircraft Activity

D)WMP-5, AF Industrial Mobilization Planning

C)WMP-4, Wartime Aircraft Activity

Which war reserve material (WRM) support is sourced using Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)?

A)Small scale contingencies

B)Training events and competitions

C)Joint, Air Force, and unit exercises

D)Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) taskings

A)Small scale contingencies

Which automated system schedules, controls, and monitors the movement of passengers and cargo via air or surface transportation using tasking information?

A)Logistics Module (LOGMOD)

B)Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)

C)Global Air Transportation and Execution System (GATES)

D)Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES)

A)Logistics Module (LOGMOD)

Which deployment work center is the hub of deployment operations and is responsible for the overall control and supervision of deployments?

A)Deployment Control Center (DCC)

B)Transportation Control Unit (TCU)

C)Control Deployment Function (CDF)

D)Deployment Vehicle Operations (DVO)

A)Deployment Control Center (DCC)

Which deployment work center processes all deploying personnel through stations such as legal and finance and is responsible for processing and manifesting passengers and processing their baggage?

A)Passenger Control Unit (PCU)

B)Passenger Control Center (PCC)

C)Passenger Operations Function (POF)

D)Passenger Deployment Function (PDF)

In which area of the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) do deploying units have sole responsibility?

A)Marshalling Area

B)Call Forward Area

C)Alert Holding Area

D)Ready Line/Loading Ramp Area

A)Marshalling Area

Mobility forces will not start a joint inspection (JI) until

A)all the cargo for the chalk is present and available

B)the first piece of cargo arrives in the call forward area

C)the first deployed schedule of events (DSOE) is published

D)the Arrival/Departure Airfield Control Group (A/DACG) directs them

A)all the cargo for the chalk is present and available

Satisfactory items are identified on the DD Form 2133 by

A)an "*."

B)an "X"

C)a check mark

D)leaving the block blank

C)a check mark

Which hazardous materials certifications allow personnel to sign the Shipper's Declaration for Dangerous Goods (SDDG)?

A)Hazardous materials handler and inspector

B)Hazardous materials inspector and preparer

C)Hazardous materials handler and technical specialist

D)Hazardous materials preparer and technical specialist

Which type of airdrop is used to feed stranded animals in a winter storm?

A)High-Velocity drop

B)Freedrop

C)Low-velocity drop

D)Gravity method

B)Freedrop

Which type of airdrop requires large, clear drop zones, because they usually consist of large complex loads?

A)Freedrop

B)Gravity method

C)Low-velocity drop

D)High-velocity drop

C)Low-velocity drop

What is the capacity of the A-21 cargo bag?

A)300 pounds

B)400 pounds

C)500 pounds 

D)1,000 pounds

C)500 pounds 

For what type of drop is the Type V platform used?

A)Freedrop

B)High-velocity drop

C)Low-velocity drop

D)All 3 types of airdrop

C)Low-velocity drop

Which parachute is the largest?

A)G-11

B)G-12

C)G-13

D)Extraction

A)G-11

How much weight will the G-12 parachute support?

A)3,500 pounds

B)2,200 pounds

C)1,500 pounds

D)500 pounds

When operating the lavatory service truck (LST), how will you know when the waste tank is full?

A)Open the tank and look inside

B)Look through the sight window

C)Wait until the flow meter zeroes out

D)Look at the gauge in the control panel

B)Look through the sight window

on the AMC Form 249, Fleet Service Equipment Record, to conduct an inventory, which form will be used as a source document to annotate the total number of items out on mission aircraft?

A)AF IMT 129, Tally In/Out

B)AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist

C)AMC Form 268, Passenger Service Kit/Inventory List

D)AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer Receipt

C)AMC Form 268, Passenger Service Kit/Inventory List

You have been tasked to load non-expendable supplies on an Air Mobility Command(AMC) C-5.  Which form should you use?

A)AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist

B)AF IMT 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt 

C)AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record

D)AMC Form 12-1, Comfort Pallet/Portable Lavatory Unit Checklist

A)AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist

You are servicing an arriving aircraft and notice a personal item left by a passenger, what action must you take?

A)Turn it into the passenger terminal's lost and found or Security Forces

B)Turn it into the Customer Service Branch (CSB) so it can be shipped to the passenger

C)Drive the article to the passenger, who will be waiting at the baggage pick-up conveyor.

D)Annotate the article in the statement block of the AF IMT 4128 and describe the action you took to recover it

A)Turn it into the passenger terminal's lost and found or Security Forces

Which Describes the proper way to clean and service an oven?

A)Wipe down the oven racks and oven interior and ensure the oven is operational

B)Remove the dirty racks, clean the oven interior, install clean racks and ensure the oven is operational

C)Take the oven racks to Fleet Supply for cleaning and use a 5% sodium hypochlorite solution to wipe down the oven interior

D)Take the oven racks to the flight kitchen for cleaning and use a 5% sodium hypochlorite solution to wipe down the oven interior

B)Remove the dirty racks, clean the oven interior, install clean racks and ensure the oven is operational

You are picking up clean and filled 5-gallon igloos and coffee jugs from the flight kitchen to take to an aircraft.  How must they be when you pick them up so will they stay clean?

A)Wiped down with 5% sodium hypochlorite solution

B)Wiped down with spray cleaner and a soft cloth

C)The spouts will be bundled in lots of 5

D)The spouts will be covered in plastic

A flight is leaving with a departure time of 0800.  What is the latest time passenger service personnel can call in a firm meal order for that flight?

A)0600

B)0645

C)0700

D)0715

C)0700

What must you do before you print and sign your name on the AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer, when picking up meals from the flight kitchen?

A)Notify the dispatcher of your start time

B)Verify you have every item listed on the form

C)Call in the meal numbers to the passenger terminal

D)Help the aircrew member stow the meals in the proper storage area

You have delivered 73 meals to a C-5.  Who will stow those meals in the galley or air transportable galley lavatory (ATGL) storage areas?

A)The aircrew members only

B)Fleet Service and maintenance personnel

C)The aircrew members and maintenance personnel

D)The aircrew members and Fleet Service personnel

You have performed final fleet service on a C-17 that blocks out at 0800.  Within what timeframe are aircrews required to pick up their own meals?

A)0650

B)0700

C)0710

D)0720

You are stationed at McChord AFB, WA, and a flight just arrived from Kadena AB, Japan, that has unused meals onboard.  What must you do with these meals?

A)Turn them into the flight kitchen using the AF IMT 3516 or AF IMT 129

B)After USDA inspection and approval, they are free to consume during one of your breaks

C)After USDA inspection and approval, place them in 2 plastic bags and incinerate or sterilize them at an approved facility

D)After U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) inspection and approval, turn them into the flight kitchen using the AF IMT 3516 or AF IMT 129.

C)After USDA inspection and approval, place them in 2 plastic bags and incinerate or sterilize them at an approved facility

When servicing an aircraft with potable water you should fill the aircraft water tank until

A)the flow meter reads 11 gallons

B)water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity

C)water reaches the requested capacity or 11 gallons, whichever comes first

D)the flow meter zeroes out or until water discharges from the overflow fitting

B)water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity

When servicing the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) water tank you should fill it with potable water until

A)the flow meter reads 11 gallons

B)water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity

C)the gauge indicates that it is full or 39 gallons, whichever comes first

D)the flow meter zeroes out or until water discharges from the overflow fitting

C)the gauge indicates that it is full or 39 gallons, whichever comes first

You serviced the C-17 with the lavatory service truck (LST);  the doughnut seal was faulty, and you came into direct contact with waste from the aircraft.  You were wearing all required personal protective equipment (PPE).  What actions should you take?

A)wash immediately and change clothes

B)change clothes only;  your PPE protected you

C)call the ambulance to treat you for contamination

D)change clothes and discontinue latrine service until the doughnut gets fixed

A)wash immediately and change clothes

How much water or solution do you use to rinse and fill the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) waste tank?

A)11 liters

B)39 liters

C)11 gallons

D)39 gallons

C)11 gallons

When recording the various Fleet Service activities on an AMC Form 244, such as "latrine serviced by," you should include the initials of the

A)person who serviced the latrine, the Julian date, and start and complete times

B)person recording the information, the Julian date, and start and complete times

C)person who serviced the latrine and start and complete times

D)dispatcher and the start and complete times

A)person who serviced the latrine, the Julian date, and start and complete times

As a Fleet Service dispatcher, you have just completed and signed an AMC Form 244, Fleet Service Arrival/Departure Worksheet.  Who else needs to sign it before it can be turned into records?

A)An aircrew member

B)The air terminal manager

C)A flight kitchen representative

D)The Fleet Service shift supervisor

When operating the passenger bus, doing which activity could place your passengers in unnecessary danger?

A)Clearing aisleways before moving the bus

B)Moving the bus before passengers are seated

C)Using spotters when you are unsure of your clearance

D)Briefing passengers to watch their step as they enter the bus

B)Moving the bus before passengers are seated

When positioning a staircase truck, how man feet away from the aircraft do you stop before adjusting the stairs to the desired height?

A)5 Feet

B)10 Feet

C)15 Feet

D)20 Feet

B)10 Feet

If you are maneuvering the mobile baggage conveyor, which feature causes you to allow more space for this action?

A)The elevating linkage

B)The belt conveyor

C)The hydraulic lift

D)The guide rails

B)The belt conveyor

If you would like to operate the mobile baggage conveyor from inside the aircraft during loading operations, you should

A)carry the portable rear control into the aircraft with you

B)carry the portable forward control into the aircraft with you

C)carry the portable elevating linkage into the aircraft with you

D)set the guide rails in place and engage the transmission in reverse

B)carry the portable forward control into the aircraft with you

During an anti-hijacking inspection, when will you brief passengers that prohibited carry-on items must be placed in their check baggage or they will be confiscated?

A)During the space-available roll call

B)When the passenger checks in with an agent as present

C)During the arrival briefing over the public address system

D)When the passenger arrives at the security/inspection area

During an anti-hijacking inspection, when may passengers traveling on validated troop movements carry loaded firearms?

A)After they present their weapons training card to passenger terminal personnel.

B)When the troop commander authorizes them in writing.

C)After the loadmaster has verified the serial number.

D)When engaging an enemy force immediately after airdropping or landing

To ensure walk-through magnetometers are working properly, how often should you test them?

A)Annually 

B)Monthly

C)Weekly

D)Daily

C)Weekly

Before passengers walk through the magnetometer, they must 

A)stand with their feet apart and their hands out to the sides

B)show a copy of their ID card and valid travel orders

C)empty their bags onto the x-ray machine

D)empty their pockets into a small tray

When an individual activates the walk-through magnetometer twice, what action should you take?

A)Silence the walk-through magnetometer and allow them to pass through again

B)Screen them using the hand-held metal detector

C)Notify security forces personnel

D)Remove them from the flight

B)Screen them using the hand-held metal detector

To operate properly, most explosives detection devices require what before you use them?

A)Calibration and a significant warm up

B)Samples from the sample traps

C)Thorough cleaning

D)Resetting

A)Calibration and a significant warm up

What is one way to communicate nonverbally to your customers that you are professional, respectful, and can be relied on upon for accurate and complete information?

A)Dressing and grooming yourself appropriately

B)Choosing your words very carefully

C)Speaking slowly and loud enough

D)Enunciating your words clearly

A)Dressing and grooming yourself appropriately

What can you do with your passengers to show you were listening and make sure you understood what they say to you?

A)Communicate verbally

B)Paraphrase what they said

C)Plan what you are going to say next

D)Brief them on what will happen next

B)Paraphrase what they said

You should check back with a customer after how many minutes when placing them on hold?

A)30 seconds to one minute

B)Two or three minutes

C)Four to five minutes

D)Five to six minutes

B)Two or three minutes

The AMC Form 253 and AMC IMT 19 are used for passengers to 

A)comment on the service they received while traveling within AMC.

B)obtain border clearance requirements while traveling overseas

C)clear customs while traveling from overseas to the CONUS

D)sign up on the space available roster

A)comment on the service they received while traveling within AMC.

When briefing passengers on travel restrictions, which documents will you ensure they possess, if required?

A)Valid photo ID card, a leave for or pass, official military orders, a passport, and visas only

B)Valid photo ID card, official military orders, a passport, visas, and AMC Form 30-FCG only

C)Valid photo ID card, a leave form or pass, official military orders, a passport, visas, and vaccination record only

D)Valid photo ID card, official military orders, a passport, visas, vaccination record, and an AMC Form 30-FCG only

C)Valid photo ID card, a leave form or pass, official military orders, a passport, visas, and vaccination record only

When making a flight information announcement about a departing flight that has delayed you should update passengers every

A)5 minutes

B)10 minutes

C)15 minutes

D)20 minutes

When making a roll call announcement, which information should you give passengers first?

A)Your rank, name, mission number, and destination of the flight

B)Give them operational details about a flight that may make them uncomfortable

C)Tell them to be travel ready and let them know when you change space-available categories

D)Give them a brief explanation of the roll call process to include categories and date and time of sign-up

A)Your rank, name, mission number, and destination of the flight

The first step when determining if a passenger is eligible to travel is to check

A)identification

B)travel restrictions

C)baggage allowances

D)border clearance requirements

A)identification

When checking the travel category to determine travel eligibility, one way dependents and family members are authorized to travel in space-required status is when they are?

A)participating in school activities during the school year

B)traveling on temporary duty accompanied by the sponsor

C)traveling accompanied or unaccompanied on ordinary leave

D)issued official travel orders under emergency leave conditions

When verifying transportation authorizations for space-required passengers, what information should you check against the passenger's ID card of someone who is traveling on PCS orders?

A)Name, grade, and social security number

B)Unit, major command, and unit address

C)If dependent travel is authorized and priority of travel

D)Signature of the unit commander and clear text address

A)Name, grade, and social security number

During the task of determining eligibility for space-available travel, where may a dependent of a military member travel on emergency leave unfunded travel when accompanied by his or her sponsor?

A)CONUS to CONUS only

B)CONUS to overseas only

C)Overseas to overseas only

D)Overseas to CONUS only

A)CONUS to CONUS only

During the task of determining eligibility for space-available travel, a retired uniformed service member may travel under

A)Category II

B)Category IV

C)Category VI

D)Category VIII

C)Category VI

A passenger can be categorized as a Blue Bark passenger when the passenger is 

A)a dependent whose sponsor is missing in action or a prisoner of war

B)traveling in conjunction with the death of a family member

C)onboard an aircraft but no on the manifest

D)a senior officer of senior public official

B)traveling in conjunction with the death of a family member

If an MEGP passenger wants to travel on a specific mission that departs at 0800 GMT, when is the latest time the MEGP can notify the ATOC of that intention?

A)0700 GMT

B)0600 GMT

C)0500 GMT

D)0400 GMT

C)0500 GMT

While updating and maintaining the space-available standby listing on 23 Apr 09, which passenger with the following date and time of sign-up will you purge from the listing?

A)22 Feb 09/0800

B)22 Feb 09/1600

C)22 Mar 09/1130

D)25 Mar 09/1552

A)22 Feb 09/0800

While selecting passengers for a flight, which would you select first?

A)Space-available passenger traveling on unfunded emergency leave

B)Space-available passenger traveling on environmental morale leave

C)Space-required passenger traveling on student orders to the academic location

D)Space-required passenger traveling on emergency orders to the emergency location

While selecting passengers for a flight, which would you select first?

A)Space-required, priority I passenger with a date and time of sign-up of 1 May 09 at 0900

B)Space-required, priority I passenger with a date and time of sign-up of 1 May 09 at 0700

C)Space-available category I passenger with a date and date of sign-up of 30 Apr 09 at 1100

D)Space-available category I passenger with a date and date of sign-up of 30 Apr 09 at 1130

B)Space-required, priority I passenger with a date and time of sign-up of 1 May 09 at 0700

If a space-available passenger is not present for a roll call, you should

A)remove the passenger's name from the space-available register

B)skip the passenger's name and continue with the selection process

C)mark the passenger as not present on the space-available standby listing

D)pull the passenger's AMC Form 140 from the station file and call the passenger

B)skip the passenger's name and continue with the selection process

When preparing the DD Form 2131 when individuals enter their name, grade, signature and date in the manifest certification blocks, they are certifying that 

A)anti-hijacking measures have been conducted

B)all next of kin have been identified and contacted

C)all emergency point of contact information has been verified

D)all copies of the manifest have been distributed appropriately

A)anti-hijacking measures have been conducted

When preparing the DD Form 2131 at a minimum, in how many copies will you complete and how are they distributed?

A)One copy; to the passengers

B)Two copies; one to the passenger and one for the destination station

C)3 copies; one accompanies the aircraft to its final destination, one for the station file records, and one to the aircrew

D)4 copies; one accompanies the aircraft to its final destination, one for the station file records, one to the aircrew, and one to the passenger

C)3 copies; one accompanies the aircraft to its final destination, one for the station file records, and one to the aircrew

You are passing meal orders to the in-flight kitchen for a C-5 that departs at 1015.  What is the latest time you can pass a tentative meal and final meal order?

A)0755; 0915

B)0820; 0930

C)0745; 0945

D)0925; 1000

A)0755; 0915

When completing the AMC Form 162 if you are offering two meals on the flight, what must you do to the number of TWCF snacks and beverages requested?

A)Triple it

B)Double it

C)Add it to the number of meals ordered

D)Subtract it from the number of meals ordered

B)Double it

When completing the AMC Form 162 from which two sources can you get the information to compute the total amount of monies collected from the passengers?

A)From the remarks section of the passengers' travel authorizations or from each of the blocks in section V of the AMC Form 162

B)The meal costs from the passengers' AMC Form 148/2s or from the remarks section of the passengers' travel authorization

C)The meal costs from the passengers' AMC Form 148/2s or from each of the blocks in section V of the AMC Form 162

D)The meal costs from the passengers' AMC Form 148/2s or from each of the blocks in section V of the AMC Form 35

C)The meal costs from the passengers' AMC Form 148/2s or from each of the blocks in section V of the AMC Form 162

When determining meal charges for a passenger traveling in group status, the only time you will not charge a passenger for either a meal or a snack meal is when the member is

A)a foreign national or dependent

B)an enlisted group traveler in temporary duty status

C)an enlisted single traveler in temporary duty status

D)an enlisted traveler on pass not receiving separate rations

B)an enlisted group traveler in temporary duty status

When determining head tax charges for passengers, in which of the following circumstances will you charge the tax?

A)A space-required passenger traveling on a military aircraft from McGuire Air Force Base, NJ. to Ramstein Air Base, Germany

B)A space-available passenger traveling on a military aircraft from McGuire Air Force Base, NJ, to Ramstein AB, Germany

C)A space-required passenger traveling on a commercial-contracted aircraft from McGuire Air Force Base, NJ, to Ramstein AB, Germany

D)A space-available passenger traveling on a commercial-contracted aircraft from McGuire Air Force Base, NJ, to Ramstein AB, Germany

What is the 1st step in determine pet shipping charges?

A)Accept the payment

B)Determine the total pieces to charge

C)Determine the amount to charge for each piece based on the rate

D)Determine the passenger single rate for the channel being traveled.

B)Determine the total pieces to charge

What is the 1st step when turning in cash collections?

A)Record all cash transactions and meal charges on an AMC 148/2

B)Have your supervisor place all drawers in a safe, inside a secure area

C)Balance your cash drawer by taking out all the money you collected during your shift

D)Turn in four copies of the DD Form 2133 to finance  and keep the last copy for the station file.

What must you do before forwarding the DD Form 1131 to finance for processing?

A)Print and attach a copy of the flight financial report to it

B)Have the passenger sign block 27 of the AMC Form 79

C)Sign the boarding pass to show that you initiated the refund

D)Ensure that the gate area is clean, orderly, and free of unauthorized personnel

A)Print and attach a copy of the flight financial report to it

What is the last step when giving a passenger a refund?

A)Sign the boarding pass to show that you initiated the refund

B)Clearly mark the smaller bills to give the passenger change

C)Endorse the back of the AF Form 796

D)Give the passenger the money out the change fund

A)Sign the boarding pass to show that you initiated the refund

You are downloading passengers off a C-5.  Which passenger would you allow to download first?

A)A space-available passenger traveling on ordinary leave

B)A Space-required passenger traveling on emergency leave

C)A space-available distinguished visitor traveling on ordinary leave

D)A space-required passenger traveling on permanent change of station orders

C)A space-available distinguished visitor traveling on ordinary leave

A passenger originating out of your station on emergency leave was manifested on the 03R1 mission, which has been delayed.  How many hours do you have to move that passenger?

A)24 hours

B)48 hours

C)36 hours

D)72 hours

A commercial contracted has been delayed for aircraft maintenance issues and won't be fixed until the next day.  For which of the following will the carrier be responsible at no cost to the passengers?

A)Meals and lodging only

B)Meals, lodging, and per diem only

C)Meals, lodging, and transportation only

D)Meals, lodging, transportation, and per diem only

C)Meals, lodging, and transportation only

When manifesting passengers on a DD Form 2131 how will you account for the passengers' hand-carried baggage on the manifest?

A)Add the hand-carried weight to the passengers' body weight

B)Write the hand-carried weight in the column for hand-carried weight

C)Add the hand-carried weight to the passenger's checked baggage weight

D)You do not need to account for the passengers' hand-carried weight on the manifest

B)Write the hand-carried weight in the column for hand-carried weight

When receiving baggage from a terminating flight in the baggage claim area, you discover two unclaimed articles 30 minutes after the last passenger has claimed his or baggage.  What is your next step?

A)Search the aircraft for the passenger who owns the baggage

B)Turn the articles over to the TMF

C)Mark them with the mission number and transfer them to the lost and found section

D)Mark them with the mission number, remove all baggage tags, and secure them in a locked area

C)Mark them with the mission number and transfer them to the lost and found section

A passenger is presenting two pets for travel, but the boarder clearance documentation for the animals does not meet the requirements.  What is your next step?

A)Remove the passenger from the space-required register

B)Place the passenger in duty standby status until the pet is travel ready

C)Call the veterinary office and base to make an appointment for the passenger

D)Let the passenger leave the pets behind the counter until she is able to fix the documents.

B)Place the passenger in duty standby status until the pet is travel ready