Term
| This type of virus is transmitted fecal-oral route or through fomites, is environmentally stable, and an examples is Hep A. |
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Definition
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Term
| This type of virus is transmitted host-host via contact, is not environmentally stable, and an examples is Herpes or HIV. |
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Definition
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Term
| Herpes simplex types 1 and 2 both transmit via skin contact, but express there lesions in different locations, but where do they exist in the body in their latent state? |
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Definition
| HSV1 in the trigeminal ganglion, HSV2 in dorsal root ganglia |
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Term
| T or F: Adults harbor multiple herpes viral DNA’s within their tissues. |
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Definition
| True, for HSV1 and 2 most are infected but don’t reactivate the virus |
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Term
| Latent viral DNA in HSV exist as ____________ __________. |
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Definition
| Episomal circles, with no viral proteins being made during latency. |
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Term
| What is the only viral RNA expressed in HSV latency? |
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Definition
| LAT, latency associate transcript which is actually an intron |
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Term
| T or F: HSV can only penetrate intact skin and is only shed asymptomatically. |
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Definition
| F, HSV can only penetrate abrased or chapped skin with mucous membranes being most common and can be shed both symp/asymptomatically. |
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Term
| T or F: HSV1 causes 95% face and 30% gential herpes, HSV2 causes primarily genital and 5% of face. |
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Definition
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Term
| Viral culture, monoclonal antibody specimen, and PCR are tools for viral diagnosis, but which one is the gold standard and which is used when diagnosis needs to be quick like for fetus? |
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Definition
| Viral culture standard, PCR for speed |
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Term
| A HSV vaccine is used for immune naive women, but which protein does it involve? |
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Definition
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Term
| HSV is __________ stranded DNA. |
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Definition
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Term
| T or F: Acyclovir (ACV) is an analog of deoxyguanosine that lacks a complete deoxyribose sugar ring. These analogs are selectively phosphorylated by the herpes virus thymidine kinase (TK) protein, not by the cellular enzyme, and ultimately terminate the growing DNA chain. |
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Definition
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Term
| In viral DNA replication there are immediate early genes that enhance promoters, early genes that prep for synthesis, and late genes which create structural proteins. Which early gene expressions are most important for metabolizing antiviral drugs? |
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Definition
| Thymidine kinase and DNA polymerase |
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Term
| HSV1/2 and VZV are what category of herpes viruses? |
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Definition
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Term
| The following sequence of events occurs for what virus - airborne transmission, viremia, 14 day incubation, virus emerges from capillaries to skin? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the following are complications of varicella - bacterial superinfection (mostly kids), varicella pneumonia (mostly adults), neonatal varicella, Reye syndrome (neuroencephalopathy)? |
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Definition
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Term
| T or F: the varicella vaccine is a dead virus that prevents 70-90% of chicken pox and reduces the severity in the rest, but can still reactivate to cause shingles. |
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Definition
| False, the vaccine is a live attenuated virus, the rest is true |
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Term
| Define the presentation of shingles/zoster. |
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Definition
| Infections are unilateral, painful vesicular eruptions localized to the dermatome, usually in the head or upper trunk. Severe systemic infections are observed in immune suppressed individuals; occurs in 10-20% of people |
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Term
| As a zoster patient’s age increases the likelihood for postherpetic neuralgia _________? |
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Definition
| Increases, with 25-50% over 50 |
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Term
| Which of the following are modes of transmission for CMV - in utero, blood transfusion, organ transplantation, venereal in young adults, early childhood (saliva)? |
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Definition
| All of them, with latency being lymphocytes, liver, and kidney |
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Term
| What are the clinical manifestations of CMV in normal and abnormal hosts? |
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Definition
| Normal- asymptomatic or small number of Mono, Abnormal - Pneumonia, Retinitis, Pneumonitis |
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Term
| EBV is virally reproduced in the orophrarynx, but what 3 major diseases can it induce? |
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Definition
| Mono, Burkitts Lymphoma, Nasopharyngeal carcinoma |
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Term
| How is Mono serologically different whether the virus is EBV or CMV? |
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Definition
| EBV is Viral capsid, heterophile, and EBV antibody positive; whereas CMV is negative to all |
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Term
| Where does EBV exist in its latent state? |
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Definition
| B cells; when it induces Mono hematologic test show greater than 50% mononuclear cells (b and t cells) due to the expression of LMP and EBNA, hence Mono is an immune reaction to the latent state |
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Term
| What is the definitive treatment for EBV? |
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Definition
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Term
| Define whether these viruses are enveloped or naked and what type of nucleic acid they use for replication - picornaviruses, Hep A, Hep E, Calcivivirus, Norwalk? |
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Definition
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Term
| Define whether these viruses are enveloped or naked and what type of nucleic acid they use for replication - Hep C, flavivirus, togavirus, coronavirus, Hep D? |
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Definition
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Term
| Define whether these viruses are enveloped or naked and what type of nucleic acid they use for replication - orthomyxovirus, paramyxovirus, rhabdovirus, bunyavirus, filovirus, arenavirus? |
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Definition
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Term
| Define whether these viruses are enveloped or naked and what type of nucleic acid they use for replication - reovirus, rotavirus? |
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Definition
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Term
| Define whether these viruses are enveloped or naked and what type of nucleic acid they use for replication - lentivirus, oncovirus? |
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Definition
| Enveloped, ssRNA with 2 RNAs per virion |
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Term
| T or F: herpes virus, adeno virus, papilloma virus are all dsDNA viruses. |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the name of the element in the +ssRNA that allow for binding of ribosomes for viral protein translation? |
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Definition
| IRES, internal ribosome entry site |
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Term
| How does retrovirus create viral proteins? |
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Definition
| ssRNA is made into a RNA-DNA hybrid via reverse transcriptase, then the RNA aspect is converted to DNA; the resulting dsDNA is used to make mRNA |
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Term
| Which of the following are types of picornaviruses - enterovirus, heparnavirus, rhinovirus? |
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Definition
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Term
| Name the diseases caused by the following enteroviruses - poliovirus, Coxsackie A, Coxsackie B, Enterovirus? |
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Definition
| Poliomyelitis, herpangia and hand/foot/mouth disease, peri and myocarditis, summertime “aseptic” or viral meningitis. |
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Term
| Norwalk and Calcivivirus can cause outbreaks of what disease? |
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Definition
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Term
| Togavirus and Flavivirus are both arboviruses meaning that they are transmitted via insects, a small percentage of infections result in what symptoms? |
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Definition
| Encephalitis, hemorrhagic fever, or hepatitis; these are via dengue, yellow, and west nile fever |
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Term
| What is the benefit of using a live attenuated vaccine for polio versus an inactivated one? |
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Definition
| You get the dual benefits of a cellular immune response and a humoral response increasing levels of antibodies |
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Term
| What is the one disease that is caused by togavirus but is not an arbovirus and is strictly human to human via the respiratory tract? |
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Definition
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Term
| Name the type of RNA virus and category of the influenza virus. |
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Definition
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Term
| Describe the classifications of the influenze virus. |
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Definition
| Types A, B, and C are based on the nucleocapsid protein; Only type A has subtypes H123 and N12 |
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Term
| What is the method of transmission of influenza and the incubation period? |
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Definition
| Respiratory droplets, 2 days |
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Term
| What is different about the bodies response to the H5N1 virus in regards to the HA protein versus other flu viruses? |
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Definition
| The HA protein can be cleaved in all tissues not just in the lungs, so it affects the entire body |
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Term
| Which of the following are symptoms of the flu - fever, malaise, sore throat, non-prod cough, myalgia? |
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Definition
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Term
| Name 3 complications of the flu. |
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Definition
| Viral pneumonia, bacterial pneumonia (staph or strep), Reye’s syndrome when taking aspirin |
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Term
| Which of the following are used for a flu vaccine - purified antigens, formalin inactivated whole virus, chemically disrupted virus? |
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Definition
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Term
| Name a treatment for each of the following steps of influenza cellular infection - 1. entry via HA binding to sialic acid, 2. Uncoating when M2 ion channels import H+, 3. Egress when viral neuraminidase cleaves sialic acid so that HA on virions can escape from the cell. |
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Definition
| 1. neutralizing antibody IgM/IgG/nasal IgA, 2. amantadine, 3. oseltamir blocks the neuraminidase; note treatment of the disease itself usually is symptomatic with occasional anti-viral therapies |
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Term
| Which or the following are true for both the parainfluenza virus and respiratory syncytial virus - one RNA per virion, no animal reservoir, no antigenic drift, 1-4 subtypes means good immunity, respiratory transmission, no vaccine, problematic for pediatric infections, major cause of the croup, major cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia in children? |
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Definition
| All except last 2; PIV causes croup, and RSV causes bronch and pneumonia |
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Term
| MMR vaccine is live attenuated or inactive? |
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Definition
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Term
| Determine whether this is a cold or the flu - fever is high, cough is dry, myalgia is achy, sudden onset. |
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Definition
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Term
| T or F: Transmission of both parainfluenza and RSV can be through direct contact with secretions, fomites, large droplet spread, entry through eyes or nose. |
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Definition
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Term
| Mumps is the major cause of parotitis and Measles causes head to toe exanthems, but what is similar in both of them? |
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Definition
| One RNA segment, cause viremias, occasional CNS problems |
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Term
| The rhabdovirus has a long incubation period (60-365), has a prodrome causing fever/nausea/lethargy, eventually disrupts the CNS and can cause a coma, what is the disease? |
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Definition
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Term
| Name this category of -ssRNA virus - most are arboviruses, viremia and encephalitis, no person to person trans, too many families for vaccine, hanta virus stays in the lung, rodent transmission only, hemorrhagic fever and pulmonary syndromes. |
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Definition
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Term
| Name this category of -ssRNA virus - severe hemorrhagic fever, transmissible from person to person, genetically stable, good vaccine candidate. |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the positive predictive value and NPV of a test that is has an 80% sensitivity and 90% specificity, with a disease prevalence of 50%, in a population of 1000? |
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Definition
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Term
| Although CD4 is the primary receptor in T-cells that HIV uses to gain entry into the cell there are two other g-protein coupled receptors, what are they? |
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Definition
| CCR5 which is common in acutely transmitted viruses, and CXCR4 which is a bad indicator for the onset of AIDS |
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Term
| Describe why each of the following HIV tests are used - ELISA, Qualitative PCR, QRT-PCR. |
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Definition
| ELISA measures anti-HIV Ab in serum/saliva; Qual PCR is used only in cases of neonates to detect the viral genome; QRT-PCR measures viral load to monoitor drug treatment effectiveness, but is not to be used as a screening test |
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Term
| T or F: The main tissue the HIV attacks is GALT and the reason can avoid the immune system is because of its glycan shield to inhibit antibodies. |
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Definition
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Term
| Describe the function of the following 4 classes of HIV drugs - reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, entry inhibitors, integrase inhibitors. |
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Definition
| 1. two subtypes that can either enter the growing chain and terminate it or allosterically bind RT, 2. binds the active site of enzyme to prevent gag and pol that allow virion maturation, 3. blocks entry via receptors like CD4 and coreceptors, 4. prevents HIV genome integration into DNA |
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Term
| T or F: A naïve B cell that has never encountered antigen expresses only membrane-bound immunoglobulin of the IgM and IgD classes. |
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Definition
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Term
| Describe the general characteristics of each of the 5 Ig isotypes. |
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Definition
| The transient presence of IgM antibodies is often helpful in diagnosing recent infections; IgG antibodies inactive toxins, opsonize bacteria, activate complement, neutralize viruses and bacteria, and cross the placenta; IgA molecules are important in mucosal immunity in the GI tract and the nose and lung; IgE molecules fight parasites and worms and cause allergic responses by activating mast cells. |
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Term
| Describe the immune response when a pathogen is extracellular, intracellular, or viral. |
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Definition
| Extra - APC show MHC-2 to CD4-Th2 to make antibodies; Intra - APC or cell show MHC-2 to CD-Th1 to increase macrophages and internal lysosomes; Viral - cells show MHC-1 to CD8 to lyse cell |
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Term
| What is the difference between Ig molecules and T-cell receptors? |
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Definition
| Immunoglobulins possess two or more binding sites for antigen; this strengthens the interactions of soluble antibody with the repetitive antigens found on the surface of microorganisms. T-cell receptors by contrast possess a single binding site for antigen and are used only as cell-surface receptors for antigen, never as soluble antigen-binding molecules. |
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Term
| T or F: antigens recognized by T-cell receptors bind epitopes on a wide range of intact molecules, such as proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids. |
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Definition
| False, Ig’s can not TCR. TCR can only bind one molecule type and it must be presented by an APC. |
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Term
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Definition
| Binding of Ab (IgG) to mark an organism for phago or complement. |
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Term
| Name the signal molecules on the APC cell and the receptors on the T-cell in the order they bind. |
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Definition
| APC = MHC2 or 1 and B27, T-Cell = TCR and CD28; note that a CD-40 receptor and ligand are part of a second signal when a T-cell activates a plasma cell |
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Term
| HPV-6 and HPV-11-most common viruses to cause genital warts (90%). |
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Definition
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Term
| What is significant about the E6 and E7 proteins produced by the papilloma virus? |
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Definition
| E6 inactivates p53 and E7 binds to Rb to release E2F which activates cellular genes like thymidine kinase and DNA polymerase leading DNA synthesis, which in turn lead to cervical cancer |
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Term
| Identify this type of virus - Double stranded DNA, non-enveloped, Infection through break in skin, Cutaneous and mucosal disease (warts), Associated with human skin and cervical cancer. |
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Definition
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Term
| There are 3 forms of transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (infectious, sporadic, familial) what is another name for these diseases? |
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Definition
| Prion disease, which are proteins not viruses; Kuru is infectious from cannablaism, Creutzfeld-Jakob disease is sporadic due to defective gene, other is auto dom for familial |
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Term
| Name this category of virus - ssDNA virus, non-enveloped, B19 causes erythema infectiosum or fifth's disease such as rash and slapped cheek, B19 replicates in erythroid precursor cells, B19 can be transmitted from mother to fetus and cause Hydrop's fetalis. |
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Definition
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Term
| Define a category of viruses with these features - Vaccinia virus is a combination of viruses that is used for vaccination, Molluscum contagiosum is a mild human pathogen causing lumps on the skin, Double stranded DNA, Enveloped, Replicates in cytoplasm (despite being a DNA virus). |
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Definition
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Term
| Define a category of viruses with these features - Are double stranded DNA viruses, No envelope, Mainly respiratory tract infections, Also cause tonsilitis, pneumonia, conjunctivitis and enteric infections. |
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Definition
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