Term
| A hormone that regulates gamete production |
|
Definition
| Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) |
|
|
Term
| Steroids or amino acid-based molecules released into the blood, which arouse tissues. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| These produce testosterone. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Its primary function is to control the rate of body metabolism and cellular oxidation. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Consists of two functional areas: the adenohypophysis and the neurohypophysis. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Controlled by the sympathetic nervous system and release epinephrine and norepinephrine. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Regulates the endocrine activity of the cortex portion of the adrenal gland. |
|
Definition
| Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) |
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|
Term
| This hormone is responsible for promoting and maintaining lactation after childbirth. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| A hormone produced in the adrenal cortex that enables the body to resist long term stress. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The major targets of growth hormone are: |
|
Definition
| Bones and skeletal muscles |
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Term
| Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to: |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The most important regulator of electrolyte concentrations in extracellular fluids is: |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Which of the following does not act as a second messenger in second-messenger systems of hormone action? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Select the correct statement about hormonal structure or function. |
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Definition
| An amino acid derivative can be a hormone |
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Term
| In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as: |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following organs is affected by thyroid hormone? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Thyroxine is a peptide hormone, but its mechanism is different from other peptide hormones. Which of the following statements is true concerning this difference? |
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Definition
| It does not require a second messenger to effect a response |
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|
Term
| Catecholamines and/or peptide hormones bind to receptors on the surface of cells that comprise target organs. This binding causes: |
|
Definition
| Adenylate cyclase to generate cyclic AMP from ATP |
|
|
Term
| Glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress. They accomplish this by: |
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Definition
| Increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure |
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Term
| What ion is sometimes used as a second messenger of amino acid-base hormones? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of: |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through intracellular: |
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Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
| Release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism |
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Term
| Sometimes prolonged excessive exposure to high hormone concentrations causes a phenomenon known as: |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland because: |
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Definition
| It is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release |
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|
Term
| Steroid hormones exert their action by: |
|
Definition
| Entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene |
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|
Term
| The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by: |
|
Definition
| Binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP |
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|
Term
| Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to: |
|
Definition
| Steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells |
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Term
| Which test is used when anemia is suspected? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Platelets are fragments of large multinucleated cells known as ________________. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The major group of leukocytes that contain no observable cytoplasmic granules and are more abundant in lymphoid tissue and lymph. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| An insoluable compound that forms a meshwork of strands that trap RBC's and is, therefore, considered the structural basis of clot formation. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Another name for the proteins in plasma known as agglutinins. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The ability of leukocytes to move in and out of blood vessels in order to reach sites of inflammation or tissue destruction. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Nucleated cells that are formed in the bone marrow whose numbers average from 4,000 to 11,000 per uL of blood. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Anucleocyte (without a nucleus) cells, when mature, whose numbers average 4.5 to 5.0 million per uL of blood |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the nonliving fluid matrix portion of blood? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the technical name for a blood clot? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of tissue is blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many liters of blood are contained in the circulatory system of the average adult? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the least common blood type in whites, blacks, and Asians? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the technical term for the process of blood clot formation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Whole blood is composed of plasma and ________________. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The largest of the leukocytes. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the smallest of the leukocytes? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| You are given a capillary tube containing uncentrifuged blood and told to determine the patient’s hematocrit. The original column height before centrifuging is 50 mm. After spinning, the bottom layer of the capillary tube containing cells is 20 mm and the top layer containing plasma is 30 mm. What is the patient’s hematocrit value? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Also called reduced hemoglobin, this is the form of hemoglobin that results after oxygen diffuses into the blood. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This type of leukocyte is present in high amounts in the blood when a patient has a parasitic infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| James has a hemoglobin measurement of 16 g/100 ml blood. This is: |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Place the following in correct developmental sequence:
a. Reticulocyte
b. Proerythroblast
c. Normoblast
d. Late erythroblast |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The slowest step in the clotting process is |
|
Definition
| Formation of prothombin activator |
|
|
Term
| A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which sequence is correct for the following events?
a. fibrinogen -> fibrin
b. clot retraction
c. formation of thromboplastin
d. prothrombin -> thrombin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean? |
|
Definition
| There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is a precursor of a basophil? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sickling of red blood cells can be produced in those with sickle-cell anemia by: |
|
Definition
| Travel at high altitude and vigorous exercise |
|
|
Term
| When can erythroblastosis fetalis not possibly happen in the child of an Rh negative mother? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Alternating surges of pressure in an artery that occur with each contraction and relaxation of the left ventricle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Often referred to as the pacemaker of the heart because it sets the rate of depolarization for the heart as a whole. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This wave indicates depolarization of the atria just before atrial contraction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A heat rate over 100 bpm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When a “blood pressure cuff” is placed around the arm and in- flated to a pressure higher than the systolic pressure, circula- tion to the forearm is occluded. As this pressure is released, characteristic sounds are heard, which indicate the resumption of blood to the forearm. What are these sounds called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A double walled fibrous sac that encloses the heart. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The graphic recording of the electrical charges occurring during the cardiac cycle is called a/an ____________? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The apex of the heart is located at the ______________ and is in line with the middle region of the left clavicle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The length of a normal cardiac cycle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| One superficial pulse that may be readily palpated. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The left atrioventricular valve. |
|
Definition
| Pulmonary Semilunar Valve |
|
|
Term
| These arteries ascend through the lateral neck and at the superior border of the larynx and divide into two branches. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Supplies the duodenum and the stomach. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Site where exchanges of food and gases are made. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Longest vein in the body, superficial. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Major artery of the thigh. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Supplies the small intestine. |
|
Definition
| Superior mesenteric artery |
|
|
Term
| Artery usually palpated to take the blood pressure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Blood enters which of these vessels during ventricular systole? |
|
Definition
| Aorta and Pulmonary arteries |
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|
Term
| The tricuspid valve is closed: |
|
Definition
| When the ventricle is in systole |
|
|
Term
| The second heart sound is heard during which phase of the cardiac cycle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Stenosis of the mitral valve may initially cause a pressure increase in the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid: |
|
Definition
| Slow calcium channels in the pacemaker tissues would be cycling at a greater rate |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following are involved directly in pulmonary circulation? |
|
Definition
| Right ventricle, pulmonary artery, and left atrium |
|
|
Term
| Histologically, the _________ is squamous epithelium supported by a sparse connective tissue layer. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of blood to the: |
|
Definition
| Right side of the head and neck and right upper arm |
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|
Term
| Cerebral blood flow is regulated by: |
|
Definition
| Intrinsic autoregulatory mechanisms |
|
|
Term
| A patient with essential hypertension might have pressures of 200/120 mm Hg. This hypertensive state could result in all of the following changes except: |
|
Definition
| Decreased size of the heart muscle |
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|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All reticular lymphoid organs are composed of reticular connective tissue except? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Large isolated clusters of lymphoid follicles, structurally similar to tonsils, that are located in the wall of the distal portion of small intestine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lymph nodes, spleen and tonsils. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| These types of cells differentiate in the thymus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cells that recognize antigens and produce plasma cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The lighter-staining center of a lymphoid follicles. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Receives lymph drainage from the digestive organs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Internal portion of a lymph gland where cells are arranged in a cordlike fashion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lymph enters the subcapular sinus of the lymph node through the ________ . |
|
Definition
| Afferent lymphatic vessels |
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|
Term
| As lymph exits the hilum there are fewer of these types of vessels draining the node than feeding it. What is the name of the vessels draining the node? |
|
Definition
| Efferent lymphatic vessels |
|
|
Term
| Small organs associated with lymphatic vessels are termed: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The distal portion of the small intestine contains clumps of lymph follicles called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The thymus is most active during: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The lymphatic capillaries are: |
|
Definition
| More permeable than blood capillaries |
|
|
Term
| Lymph leaves a lymph node via: |
|
Definition
| Efferent lymphatic vessels |
|
|
Term
| By secreting hormones, the thymus causes what cells to become immunocompetent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the lymphatics are blocked due to tumors, the result is: |
|
Definition
| Severe localized edema distal to the blockage |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The lymph tissues found within the walls of the small intestine are called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Particularly large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Digestive tract-associated lymphatic tissue includes all of the following except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Functions of the lymphatic system include: |
|
Definition
| Transport of excess tissue fluid to blood vascular system |
|
|
Term
| The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The first note to receive lymph from an area suspected to be cancerous |
|
|
Term
| Select the correct statement about lymph transport: |
|
Definition
| Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscle |
|
|
Term
| Select the correct statement about lymphocytes: |
|
Definition
| B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies to the blood |
|
|
Term
| Select the correct statement about lymphoid tissue: |
|
Definition
| Lymphoid tissue is predominately reticular connective tissue |
|
|
Term
| A ring of lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n): |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the follwing are considered innate or nonspecific body defenses except:
A) complement, B) phagocytosis, C) antibodies, D) lysozyme, E) inflammation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The process by which neutrophils squeeze through capillary walls in response to inflammatory signals is called......A) Diapedesis, B) Chemotaxis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antibodies released by plasma cells are involved in: |
|
Definition
| 1. Humoral immunity 2. immediate hypersensitivity reactions 3. autoimmune disorders |
|
|
Term
| Which of the antibodies can fix complement? A) IgA and IgG B) IgG and IgM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which antibody is abundant in body secretions?.....A) IgG B) IgA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Small molecules that must combine with large proteins to become immunogenic are called................A) Haptens B) Kinins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lymphocytes that develop immunocompetence in the bone marrow are..........A) T lymphocytes B) B lymphocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cells that can directly attack target cells include all of the following except.. A) macrophages, B) cytotoxic T cells, C) helper T cells, D) natural killer cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Complement fixation promotes all of the following except...A) cell lysis, B) inflammation, C) opsonization, D) interferon release, E) chemotaxis of neutrophils and other cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cell type most often invaded by HIV is a.......A) natural killer cells B) Helper T cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is involved in the activation of a B cell? A) antigen, B) helper T cell, C) cytokine, D) all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the cell: Phagocyte A) Neutrophil and
Macrophage B) Neutrophil and Microphage |
|
Definition
A) Neutrophil and
Macrophage |
|
|
Term
| Name the cell: releases histamine A) mast cell and basophil B) mast cell neutrophil |
|
Definition
| A) Mast cell and Basophil |
|
|
Term
| Name the cell: releases perforins A) Natural killer cells and Cytotoxic T cells B) Natural killer cells and Helper T cells |
|
Definition
| A) Natural killer cells and Cytotoxic T cells |
|
|
Term
| A) Natural killer cells and Cytotoxic T cells |
|
Definition
Natural killer cells
Cytotoxic T cells
B cell
and Helper t cells |
|
|
Term
| Name the cell: Can differentiate to form memory cells A) Cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and Helper T cells B) Cytotoxic T cells,B cells, and Natural killer cells |
|
Definition
| A) Cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and Helper T cells |
|
|
Term
| Name the cell: Antigen presenting cell...A) Dendritic cells, B cells, and Macrophage B) Dendritic cells, B cells, and cytoctoxic T cells |
|
Definition
| A) Dendritic cells, B cells and Macrophage |
|
|
Term
| Explain why attempts at phagocytosis are not always successful; cite factors that increase the likelihood of success. |
|
Definition
| Attempts at phagocytosis are not always successful because to accomplish ingestion, the phagocyte must first adhere to the particle. Complement proteins and antibodies coat foreign particles, providing binding sites to which phagocytes can attach, making phagocytosis more efficient. |
|
|
Term
| What is complement? How does it cause bacterial lysis? what are some of the other roles of complement? |
|
Definition
| The term complement refers to a heterogenous group of at least 20 plasma proteins that normally circulate in an inactive state. Complement is activated by one of two pathways (classical or alternative) involving the plasma proteins. Each pathway involves a cascade in which complement proteins are activated in an orderly sequence leading to the cleavage of C3. Once C3b is bound to the target cell's surface, it enzymatically initiates the remaining steps of complement activation, which incorporates C5 through C9 (MAC) into the target cell membrane, ensuring lysis of the target cell. |
|
|
Term
| Interferons are referred to as antiviral proteins. What stimulates their production, and how do they protect unifected cells? what cells of the body secrete interferons? |
|
Definition
| Interferons are secreted by virus-infected cells. They diffuse to nearby cells where they interfere with the ability of viruses to multiply within these cells. Cells that form interferon include macrophages, lymphocytes, and other leukocytes. |
|
|
Term
| Differeniate between humoral and cell mediated adaptive immunity |
|
Definition
| Humoral immunity is provided by the antibodies in the body's fluids. Cell-mediated immunity is provided by non-antibody-producing lymphocytes, i.e., T cells. |
|
|
Term
| Although the adaptive immune system has two arms, it has been said, "no T cells, no immunity" Explain. |
|
Definition
| Cytokines released by helper T cells help to amplify and regulate both the humoral and cellular immune responses as well as the innate defense responses. |
|
|
Term
| Define immunocompetence and self-tolerance. How is self-tolerance achieved? |
|
Definition
| Immunocompetence is the ability of the immune system's cells to recognize foreign substances (antigens) in the body by binding to them. Acquisition is signaled by the appearance of a single, unique type of cell surface receptor protein on each T or B cell that enables the lymphocyte to recognize and bind to a specific antigen. |
|
|
Term
| Differentiate between a primary and a secondary immune response. Which is more rapid and why? |
|
Definition
| A primary immune response results in cellular proliferation, differentiation of mature effector and memory lymphocytes, and the synthesis and release of antibodies—a series of events that takes 3 to 6 days. The secondary immune response results in huge numbers of antibodies flooding into the bloodstream within hours after recognition of the antigen, as well as an amplified cellular attack. Secondary responses are faster because the immune system has been primed to the antigen and sizable numbers of sensitized memory cells are already in place. |
|
|
Term
| Define antibody. Using an appropriately labeled diagram, describe the structure of an antibody monomer. Indicate and label variable and constant regions, heavy and light chains. |
|
Definition
| Antibodies are proteins secreted by plasma cells in response to a specific antigen, and they are capable of binding to that antigen. See Fig. 21.14 for a look at basic antibody structure. |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of the variable regions of an antibody? Of the constant regions? |
|
Definition
| The variable region of an antibody is the portion of the antibody that binds to the different antigens. There is a different variable region for each different antigen. The constant region of the antibody is used to separate the antibodies into the different classes. There are only five different constant regions and all members of a specific antibody class have the same constant region. |
|
|
Term
| Name the five antibody classes and describe where each is more likely to be found in the body |
|
Definition
The antibody classes and their probable locations in the body include the following:
Class IgD—virtually always attached to B cells; B cell receptor
Class IgM—monomer attached to B cells; pentamer free in plasma (during primary response)
Class IgG—in plasma
Class IgA—some in plasma, most in secretions such as saliva, tears, intestinal juice, and milk
Class IgE—secreted by plasma cells in skin, mucosae of gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts and tonsils |
|
|
Term
| How do antibodies help defend the body? |
|
Definition
| Antibodies help defend the body by complement fixation, neutralization, agglutination, and precipitation. Complement fixation and neutralization are most important in body protection. |
|
|
Term
| Do vaccines produce active or passive humoral immunity? Explain your answer. Why is passive immunity less satisfactory? |
|
Definition
| Vaccines produce active humoral immunity because most contain dead or extremely weakened pathogens that have the antigenic determinants necessary to stimulate the immune response but are generally unable to cause disease. Passive immunity is less than satisfactory because neither active antibody production nor immunological memory is established. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the specific roles of helper, regulatory, and cytotoxic T cells in normal cell mediated immunity. |
|
Definition
| Helper T cells function to chemically or directly stimulate the proliferation of other T cells and of B cells that have already become bound to antigen. Suppressor T cells function to temper the normal immune response by dampening the activity of both T cells and B cells by releasing cytokines that suppress their activity. Cytotoxic T cells function to kill virus-invaded body cells and cancer cells and are involved in rejection of foreign tissue grafts |
|
|
Term
| Name several cytokines and describe their role in the immune response. |
|
Definition
| Cytokines are soluble glycoproteins released by activated T cells. They enhance the defensive activity of T cells, B cells, and macrophages. |
|
|
Term
| Define hypersensitivity. List three types of hypersensitivity reactions. For each, note whether antibodies or T cells are involved and provide two examples. |
|
Definition
| Hypersensitivity is an antigen-induced state that results in abnormally intense immune responses to an innocuous antigen. Immediate hypersensitivities include anaphylactic shock and atopy. Subacute hypersensitivities include cytotoxic and immune complex hypersensitivities. All of these involve antibodies. Delayed hypersensitivities include allergic contact dermatitis and graft rejection. These hypersensitivities involve T cells. |
|
|
Term
| What events can result in autoimmune disease? |
|
Definition
| Autoimmune disease results from changes in the structure of self-antigens, ineffective or inefficient lymphocyte programming, and by cross-reaction of antibodies produced against foreign antigens with self-antigens. |
|
|
Term
| What accounts for the declining efficiancy of the immune system with age? |
|
Definition
| Declining efficiency of the immune system with age probably reflects genetic aging. |
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|
