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BIO 102 Final Exam Study Guide
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132
Biology
Undergraduate 2
07/30/2012

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Term
When the temperature of the outside air exceeds their internal body temperature, jackrabbits
living in hot, arid lands will...

A) dilate the blood vessels in their large ears to transfer more body heat to the environment.
B) constrict the blood vessels in their large ears to reduce transfer of external heat to the blood in their ears.
C) increase motor movements to find a sunny area to maximize heat transfer into their bodies.
D) increase pigmentation in their ears, darkening them to maximize their capacity to take up heat.
E) begin involuntary shivering of their skeletal muscles in order to generate more metabolic heat.
Definition
B) constrict the blood vessels in their large ears to reduce transfer of external heat to the blood in their ears.
Term
The four basic types of tissue are...
Definition
Epithelial, Connective, Muscle, and Nervous
Term
Which choice best describes a reasonable mechanism for animal structures becoming better
suited over evolutionary time to specific functions?

A) Animals that eat the most food become the most abundant.
B) Animals that restrict their food intake will become less abundant.
C) Animals with mutations that give rise to effective structures will become more abundant.
D) Animals with inventions that curtail reproduction will become more abundant.
E) Animals with parents that continually improve their offspring's structures will become more abundant.
Definition
C) Animals with mutations that give rise to effective structures will become more abundant.
Term
Evolutionary adaptations that help diverse animals directly exchange matter between cells and the environment include...

A) a gastrovascular activity, a two-layered body, and a torpedo-like body shape.
B) an external respiratory surface, a small body size, and a two-cell-layered body.
C) a large body volume; a long, tubular body; and a set of wings.
D) complex internal structures, a small body size, and a large surface area.
E) an unbranched internal surface, a small body size, and thick covering.
Definition
B) an external respiratory surface, a small body size, and a two-cell-layered body.
Term
All animals, whether large or small, have...

A) an external body surface that is dry.
B) a basic body plan that resembles a two-layered sac.
C) a body surface covered with hair to keep them warm.
D) the ability to enter dormancy when resources become scarce.
E) each living cell in contact with an aqueous medium.
Definition
E) each living cell in contact with an aqueous medium.
Term
To increase the effectiveness of exchange surfaces lining the lungs and the intestines, evolutionary pressures have...

A) increased the exchange surface area with folds and branches.
B) increased the thickness of the membranes in these linings.
C) increased the number of cell layers in these linings.
D) decreased the metabolic rate of the cells in these linings.
E) increased the volume of the cells in these linings.
Definition
A) increased the exchange surface area with folds and branches.
Term
Multicellular organisms must keep their cells awash in an "internal pond" because...

A) their membranes will crystallize if not in contact with interstitial fluid.
B) an aqueous medium is needed for the cellular exchange of nutrients, gases, and wastes.
C) this prevents the loss of water due to osmosis.
D) their cells need to be protected from dissolved nitrogen gas in the blood.
E) terrestrial organisms have not adapted to life in dry environments.
Definition
B) an aqueous medium is needed for the cellular exchange of nutrients, gases, and wastes.
Term
An example of a connective tissue is the...

A) skin.
B) nerves.
C) blood.
D) cuboidal epithelium.
E) smooth muscles.
Definition
C) blood.
Term
Coordinating body functions via chemical signals is accomplished by...

A) the respiratory system.
B) the endocrine system.
C) the immune and lymphatic systems.
D) the integumentary system.
E) the excretory system.
Definition
B) the endocrine system.
Term
The body's automatic tendency to maintain a constant and optimal internal environment is
termed...

A) balanced equilibrium.
B) physiological chance.
C) homeostasis.
D) static equilibrium.
E) estivation.
Definition
C) homeostasis.
Term
Certain nutrients are considered "essential" in the diets of some animals because...

A) only those animals use those nutrients.
B) the nutrients are subunits of important polymers.
C) these animals are not able to synthesize these nutrients.
D) the nutrients are necessary coenzymes.
E) only certain foods contain them.
Definition
C) these animals are not able to synthesize these nutrients.
Term
Which pair correctly associates a physiological process with the appropriate vitamin?

A) blood clotting and vitamin C
B) normal vision and vitamin A
C) synthesis of cell membranes and vitamin D
D) protection of skin from cancer and vitamin E
E) production of white blood cells and vitamin K
Definition
B) normal vision and vitamin A
Term
Folic acid supplements have become especially important for pregnant women because...

A) folic acid supplies vitamins that only pregnant women can use.
B) the folic acid is stored in adipose tissue by pregnant women so supplements are needed to make more available in the circulation.
C) the fetus makes high levels of folic acid.
D) folic acid deprivation is associated with neural tube abnormalities in a fetus.
E) folic acid deprivation is a cause of heart abnormalities in a newborn.
Definition
D) folic acid deprivation is associated with neural tube abnormalities in a fetus.
Term
Fat digestion yields fatty acids and glycerol, whereas protein digestion yields amino acids; both digestive processes...

A) are catalyzed by the same enzyme.
B) are excludible intracellular processes in most organisms.
C) add a water molecule to break bonds (hydrolysis).
D) require the presence of hydrochloric acid to lower the pH.
E) require ATP as an energy source.
Definition
C) add a water molecule to break bonds (hydrolysis).
Term
In the digestive system, peristalsis is...

A) a process of fat emulsification in the small intestine.
B) voluntary control of the rectal sphincters regulating defecation.
C) the transport of nutrients to the liver through the hepatic portal vessel.
D) a common cause of loss of appetite, fatigue, and dehydration.
E) smooth muscle contractions that move food along the esophagus.
Definition
E) smooth muscle contractions that move food along the esophagus.
Term
Pepsin is a digestive enzyme that...

A) is manufactured by the pancreas.
B) helps stabilize fat-water emulsions.
C) splits maltose into monosaccharides.
D) begins the hydrolysis of proteins in the stomach.
E) is denatured and rendered inactive in solutions with low pH.
Definition
D) begins the hydrolysis of proteins in the stomach.
Term
Historically inaccurate diagnosis of acid reflux disorders and gastric ulcers has been improved by...

A) pH monitoring.
B) X-ray technology.
C) the diagnosis and treatment of H. pylori infection.
D) colonoscopy.
E) sonography.
Definition
C) the diagnosis and treatment of H. pylori infection.
Term
A significant contribution of intestinal bacteria to human nutrition is the benefit of bacterial...

A) production of vitamins A and C.
B) generation of gases needed for elimination.
C) absorption of organic materials.
D) production of vitamin K.
E) recovery of water from fecal matter.
Definition
D) production of vitamin K.
Term
When the digestion and absorption of organic molecules results in more energy-rich
molecules than are immediately required by an animal, the excess is...

A) eliminated in the feces.
B) stored as starch in the liver.
C) stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles.
D) oxidized and converted to ATP.
E) hydrolyzed and converted to ADP.
Definition
C) stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles.
Term
Which of the following animals is incorrectly paired with its feeding mechanism?

A) lion:substrate feeder
B) baleen whale:suspension feeder
C) aphid:fluid feeder
D) clam:suspension feeder
E) snake:bulk feeder
Definition
A) lion:substrate feeder
Term
Circulatory systems have the primary benefit of overcoming the shortcomings of...

A) temperature differences between the lungs and the active tissue.
B) the slow rate at which diffusion occurs across cells.
C) communication systems involving only the nervous system.
D) having to cushion animals from trauma.
E) fetal organisms maintaining an optimal body temperature.
Definition
B) the slow rate at which diffusion occurs across cells.
Term
Organisms with a circulating body fluid that is distinct from the fluid that directly surrounds
the body's cells are likely to have...

A) an open circulatory system.
B) a closed circulatory system.
C) a gastrovascular cavity.
D) branched tracheae.
E) hemolymph.
Definition
B) a closed circulatory system.
Term
Which of the following develops the greatest pressure on the blood in the mammalian aorta?

A) systole of the left atrium
B) diastole of the right ventricle
C) systole of the left ventricle
D) diastole of the right atrium
E) diastole of the left atrium
Definition
C) systole of the left ventricle
Term
Which of the following is the correct sequence of blood flow in reptiles and mammals?

A) left ventricle → aorta → lungs → systemic circulation
B) right ventricle → pulmonary vein → pulmocutaneous circulation
C) pulmonary vein → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary circuit
D) vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary circuit
E) right atrium → pulmonary artery → left atrium → ventricle
Definition
D) vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary circuit
Term
Damage to the sinoatrial node in humans...

A) is a major contributor to heart attacks.
B) would block conductance between the bundle branches and the Purkinje fibers.
C) would have a negative effect on peripheral resistance.
D) would disrupt the rate and timing of cardiac muscle contractions.
E) would have a direct effect on blood pressure monitors in the aorta.
Definition
D) would disrupt the rate and timing of cardiac muscle contractions.
Term
Small swollen areas in the neck, groin, and axillary region are associated with...

A) increased activity of the immune system.
B) a broken limb.
C) blood sugar that is abnormally high.
D) dehydration.
E) sodium depletion.
Definition
A) increased activity of the immune system.
Term
The diagnosis of hypertension in adults is based on the...

A) measurement of fatty deposits on the endothelium of arteries.
B) measurement of the LDL/HDL ratio in peripheral blood.
C) percent of blood volume made up of platelets.
D) blood pressure being greater than 140 mm Hg systolic and/or >90 diastolic.
E) number of leukocytes per mm3 of blood.
Definition
D) blood pressure being greater than 140 mm Hg systolic and/or >90 diastolic.
Term
Cyanide poisons mitochondria by blocking the final step in the electron transport chain.
Human red blood cells placed in an isotonic solution containing cyanide are likely to...

A) retain the normal cell shape, but the mitochondria will be poisoned.
B) lyse as the cyanide concentration increases inside the cell.
C) switch to anaerobic metabolism.
D) become unable to carry oxygen.
E) be unaffected.
Definition
E) be unaffected.
Term
In mammals, most gas exchange between the atmosphere and the pulmonary blood occurs in the...

A) trachea.
B) larynx.
C) bronchi.
D) bronchioles.
E) alveoli.
Definition
E) alveoli.
Term
The hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells, and the organ where this hormone is synthesized, are...

A) growth hormone and pancreas, respectively.
B) erythropoietin and kidney, respectively.
C) cortisol and adrenal gland, respectively.
D) epinephrine and adrenal gland, respectively.
E) acetylcholine and bone marrow, respectively.
Definition
B) erythropoietin and kidney, respectively.
Term
Acidity in human urine is an example of what?

A) cell-mediated immune responses.
B) antibody activation.
C) acquired immunity.
D) adaptive immunity.
E) innate immunity.
Definition
E) innate immunity.
Term
The lymphatic fluid is what?

A) is a filtrate of the blood, as is urine.
B) is completely separate from the circulatory system for blood.
C) carries both red and white blood cells.
D) functions in adaptive immunity but not in innate immunity.
E) carries a toxic gas that kills cancerous cells.
Definition
A) is a filtrate of the blood, as is urine.
Term
An inflammation-causing signal released by mast cells at the site of an infection is...

A) an interferon.
B) lymphatic fluid.
C) histamine.
D) mucus.
E) sodium ions.
Definition
C) histamine.
Term
The eyes and the respiratory tract are both protected against infections by...

A) the mucous membranes that cover their surface.
B) the secretion of complement proteins.
C) the release of slightly alkaline secretions.
D) the secretion of lysozyme onto their surfaces.
E) interferons produced by immune cells.
Definition
D) the secretion of lysozyme onto their surfaces.
Term
Cave art by early humans recognized the existence of the major signs of inflammation. The most inclusive set of symptoms of inflammation that might appear in such early human art is...

A) heat, pain, and redness.
B) pain and whitening of the surrounding tissue.
C) swelling and pain.
D) antibody-producing cells.
E) swelling, heat, redness, and pain.
Definition
E) swelling, heat, redness, and pain.
Term
A key part of the humoral immune response is...

A) the attack of cytotoxic T cells on infected host cells.
B) the production of antibodies by plasma cells.
C) perforation of infected host cells by perforin.
D) the attack of phagocytes on living pathogens.
E) the initiation of programmed cell death in infected host cells.
Definition
B) the production of antibodies by plasma cells.
Term
The receptors on T cells and B cells bind to...

A) antibodies.
B) antigens.
C) natural killer cells.
D) double-stranded RNA.
E) immunoglobulins.
Definition
B) antigens.
Term
An epitope is...

A) part of the interferons that penetrate foreign cells.
B) a protein protruding from the surface of B cells.
C) two structurally similar antibodies dissolved in the blood plasma.
D) that part of an antigen that actually binds to an antigen receptor.
E) a mirror image of an antigen.
Definition
D) that part of an antigen that actually binds to an antigen receptor.
Term
A newborn who is accidentally given a drug that destroys the thymus would most likely...

A) lack class I MHC molecules on cell surfaces.
B) lack humoral immunity.
C) be unable to genetically rearrange antigen receptors.
D) be unable to differentiate and mature T cells.
E) have a reduced number of B cells and be unable to form antibodies.
Definition
D) be unable to differentiate and mature T cells.
Term
The MHC is important in a T cell's ability to...

A) distinguish self from nonself.
B) recognize specific parasitic pathogens.
C) identify specific bacterial pathogens.
D) identify specific viruses.
E) recognize differences among types of cancer.
Definition
A) distinguish self from nonself.
Term
Organisms categorized as osmoconformers are most likely...

A) found in freshwater lakes and streams.
B) marine.
C) amphibious.
D) found in arid terrestrial environments.
E) found in terrestrial environments with adequate moisture.
Definition
B) marine.
Term
The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be ________ with its ________ environment.

A) hyperosmotic; freshwater
B) isotonic; freshwater
C) hyperosmotic; saltwater
D) isoosmotic; saltwater
E) hypoosmotic; saltwater
Definition
D) isoosmotic; saltwater
Term
A human who has no access to fresh water but is forced to drink seawater instead will...

A) will thrive under such conditions, as long as he has lived at the ocean most of his life.
B) will excrete more water molecules than taken in, because of the high load of ion ingestion.
C) will develop structural changes in the kidneys to accommodate the salt overload.
D) will find that drinking saltwater satiates his thirst.
E) will risk becoming overhydrated within 12 hours.
Definition
B) will excrete more water molecules than taken in, because of the high load of ion ingestion.
Term
Urea is...

A) insoluble in water.
B) more toxic to human cells than ammonia.
C) the primary nitrogenous waste product of humans.
D) the primary nitrogenous waste product of most birds.
E) the primary nitrogenous waste product of most aquatic invertebrates.
Definition
C) the primary nitrogenous waste product of humans.
Term
Excessive formation of uric acid crystals in humans leads to...

A) a condition called diabetes, where excessive urine formation occurs.
B) a condition of insatiable thirst and excessive urine formation.
C) gout, a painful inflammatory disease that primarily affects the joints.
D) the absence of urea in the urine.
E) osteoarthritis, an inevitable consequence of aging.
Definition
C) gout, a painful inflammatory disease that primarily affects the joints.
Term
In animals, nitrogenous wastes are produced mostly from the catabolism of...

A) starch and cellulose.
B) triglycerides and steroids.
C) proteins and nucleic acids.
D) phospholipids and glycolipids.
E) fatty acids and glycerol.
Definition
C) proteins and nucleic acids.
Term
Materials are returned to the blood from the filtrate by what process?

A) filtration
B) ultrafiltration
C) selective reabsorption
D) secretion
E) active transport
Definition
C) selective reabsorption
Term
Human urine is usually more acidic than most other body fluids because...

A) hydrogen ions are actively moved into the filtrate.
B) the sodium transporter exchanges one hydrogen ion for each sodium ion.
C) excreted plasma proteins are nearly all acidic ions.
D) excreted amino acids are in abundance.
E) potassium and sodium exchange generates lots of acidity.
Definition
A) hydrogen ions are actively moved into the filtrate.
Term
A primary reason that the kidneys have one of the highest metabolic rates of all body organs is that...

A) it stores the body's excess fats.
B) it has membranes of varying permeability to water.
C) it operates an extensive set of active-transport ion pumps.
D) it is the body's only means of shedding excess nutrients.
E) it has an abundance of myogenic smooth muscle.
Definition
C) it operates an extensive set of active-transport ion pumps.
Term
The typical osmolarity of human blood is...

A) 30 mosm/L.
B) 100 mosm/L.
C) 200 mosm/L.
D) 300 mosm/L.
E) 500 mosm/L.
Definition
D) 300 mosm/L.
Term
An advantage of asexual reproduction is that...

A) asexual reproduction allows the species to endure long periods of unstable environmental conditions.
B) asexual reproduction enhances genetic variability in the species.
C) asexual reproduction enables the species to rapidly colonize habitats that are favorable to that species.
D) asexual reproduction produces offspring that respond effectively to new pathogens.
E) asexual reproduction allows a species to easily rid itself of harmful mutations.
Definition
C) asexual reproduction enables the species to rapidly colonize habitats that are favorable to that species.
Term
Sexual reproduction...

A) allows animals to conserve resources and reproduce only during optimal conditions.
B) can produce diverse phenotypes that may enhance survival of a population in a changing environment.
C) yields more numerous offspring more rapidly than is possible with asexual reproduction.
D) enables males and females to remain isolated from each other while rapidly colonizing habitats.
E) guarantees that both parents will provide care for each offspring.
Definition
B) can produce diverse phenotypes that may enhance survival of a population in a changing environment.
Term
In close comparisons, external fertilization often yields more offspring than does internal fertilization. However, internal fertilization offers the advantage that...

A) it is the only way to ensure the survival of the species.
B) it requires less time and energy to be devoted to reproduction.
C) the smaller number of offspring produced often receive a greater amount of parental investment.
D) it permits the most rapid population increase.
E) it requires expression of fewer genes and maximizes genetic stability.
Definition
C) the smaller number of offspring produced often receive a greater amount of parental investment.
Term
Internal and external fertilization both do what?

A) produce single-celled zygotes.
B) occur only among invertebrates.
C) occur only among terrestrial animals.
D) depend on the use of intromittent copulatory organs.
E) occur only among birds.
Definition
A) produce single-celled zygotes.
Term
External chemical signals that coordinate potential reproductive partners are called what?

A) hormones.
B) pheromones.
C) paracrine signals.
D) cytokines.
E) gametes.
Definition
B) pheromones.
Term
An oocyte released from a human ovary enters the oviduct as a result of...

A) the beating action of the flagellum on the oocyte.
B) the force of the follicular ejection directing the oocyte into the oviduct.
C) the wavelike beating of cilia lining the oviduct.
D) movement of the oocyte through the pulsating uterus into the oviduct.
E) peristaltic contraction of ovarian muscles.
Definition
C) the wavelike beating of cilia lining the oviduct.
Term
In humans, the follicular cells that remain behind in the ovary following ovulation become...

A) the ovarian endometrium that is shed at the time of the menses.
B) a steroid-hormone synthesizing structure called the corpus luteum.
C) the thickened portion of the uterine wall.
D) swept into the fallopian tube.
E) the placenta, which secretes cervical mucus.
Definition
B) a steroid-hormone synthesizing structure called the corpus luteum.
Term
Human sperm cells first arise in the...

A) prostate gland.
B) vas deferens.
C) seminiferous tubules.
D) epididymis.
E) Sertoli cells.
Definition
C) seminiferous tubules.
Term
Increasing the temperature of the human scrotum by 2°C (i.e., near the normal body core temperature) and holding it there would do what?

A) reduce the fertility of the man by impairing the production of gonadal steroid hormones.
B) reduce the fertility of the man by impairing spermatogenesis.
C) reduce the man's sexual interest.
D) increase the fertility of the affected man by enhancing the rate of steroidogenesis.
E) have no effect on male reproductive processes.
Definition
B) reduce the fertility of the man by impairing spermatogenesis.
Term
Mature human sperm and ova are similar in what way?

A) they both have the same number of chromosomes.
B) they are approximately the same size.
C) they each have a flagellum that provides motility.
D) they are produced from puberty until death.
E) they are formed before birth.
Definition
A) they both have the same number of chromosomes.
Term
As an embryo develops, new cells are produced as the result of what?

A) differentiation.
B) preformation.
C) cell division.
D) morphogenesis.
E) epigenesis.
Definition
C) cell division.
Term
When does a human zygote undergoes its first cell division?

A) 5 seconds after fertilization.
B) 30 minutes after fertilization.
C) 90 minutes after fertilization.
D) 4 hours after fertilization.
E) 24 hours after fertilization.
Definition
E) 24 hours after fertilization.
Term
During fertilization, the acrosomal contents do what?

A) block polyspermy.
B) help propel more sperm toward the egg.
C) digest the protective jelly coat on the surface of the egg.
D) nourish the mitochondria of the sperm.
E) trigger the completion of meiosis by the sperm.
Definition
C) digest the protective jelly coat on the surface of the egg.
Term
From earliest to latest, the overall sequence of early development proceeds in what sequence?

A) first cell division → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins → acrosomal reaction → cortical reaction
B) cortical reaction → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins → acrosomal reaction → first cell division
C) cortical reaction → acrosomal reaction → first cell division → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins
D) first cell division → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins → acrosomal reaction → cortical reaction
E) acrosomal reaction → cortical reaction → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins → first cell division
Definition
E) acrosomal reaction → cortical reaction → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins → first cell division
Term
In mammalian eggs, the receptors for sperm are found in the...

A) fertilization membrane.
B) zona pellucida.
C) cytosol of the egg.
D) nucleus of the egg.
E) mitochondria of the egg.
Definition
B) zona pellucida.
Term
The vegetal pole of the zygote differs from the animal pole in that...

A) the vegetal pole has a higher concentration of yolk.
B) the blastomeres originate only in the vegetal pole.
C) the posterior end of the embryo forms at the vegetal pole.
D) the vegetal pole cells undergo mitosis but not cytokinesis.
E) the polar bodies bud from this region.
Definition
A) the vegetal pole has a higher concentration of yolk.
Term
The outer-to-inner sequence of tissue layers in a post-gastrulation vertebrate embryo is...

A) endoderm → ectoderm → mesoderm.
B) mesoderm → endoderm → ectoderm.
C) ectoderm → mesoderm → endoderm.
D) ectoderm → endoderm → mesoderm.
E) endoderm → mesoderm → ectoderm.
Definition
C) ectoderm → mesoderm → endoderm.
Term
At the time of implantation, the human embryo is called a...

A) blastocyst.
B) gastrula.
C) fetus.
D) somite.
E) zygote.
Definition
A) blastocyst.
Term
Uterine implantation due to enzymatic digestion of the endometrium is initiated by the...

A) inner cell mass.
B) endoderm.
C) chorion.
D) mesoderm.
E) trophoblast.
Definition
E) trophoblast.
Term
From earliest to latest, the overall sequence of early development proceeds in what sequence?

A) gastrulation → organogenesis → cleavage
B) ovulation → gastrulation → fertilization
C) cleavage → gastrulation → organogenesis
D) gastrulation → blastulation → neurulation
E) preformation → morphogenesis → neurulation
Definition
C) cleavage → gastrulation → organogenesis
Term
Most of the neurons in the human brain are...

A) sensory neurons.
B) motor neurons.
C) interneurons.
D) auditory neurons.
E) peripheral neurons.
Definition
C) interneurons.
Term
The nucleus and most of the organelles in a neuron are located in the...

A) dendritic region.
B) axon hillock.
C) axon.
D) cell body.
E) axon terminals.
Definition
D) cell body.
Term
The point of connection between two communicating neurons is called what?

A) the axon hillock.
B) the dendrite.
C) the synapse.
D) the cell body.
E) the glia.
Definition
C) the synapse.
Term
In the communication between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle...

A) the motor neuron is considered the presynaptic cell and the skeletal muscle is the postsynaptic cell.
B) the motor neuron is considered the postsynaptic cell and the skeletal muscle is the presynaptic cell.
C) action potentials are possible on the motor neuron but not the skeletal muscle.
D) action potentials are possible on the skeletal muscle but not the motor neuron.
E) the motor neuron fires action potentials but the skeletal muscle is not electrochemically excitable.
Definition
A) the motor neuron is considered the presynaptic cell and the skeletal muscle is the postsynaptic cell.
Term
The operation of the sodium-potassium "pump" moves what to where?

A) sodium and potassium ions into the cell.
B) sodium and potassium ions out of the cell.
C) sodium ions into the cell and potassium ions out of the cell.
D) sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell.
E) sodium and potassium ions into the mitochondria.
Definition
D) sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell.
Term
ATP hydrolysis directly powers the movement of what?

A) K+ out of cells.
B) Na+ out of cells.
C) Na+ into cells.
D) Ca++ into cells.
E) Cl- into cells.
Definition
B) Na+ out of cells.
Term
Action potentials move along axons how?

A) more slowly in axons of large than in small diameter.
B) by the direct action of acetylcholine on the axonal membrane.
C) by activating the sodium-potassium "pump" at each point along the axonal membrane.
D) more rapidly in myelinated than in non-myelinated axons.
E) by reversing the concentration gradients for sodium and potassium ions.
Definition
D) more rapidly in myelinated than in non-myelinated axons.
Term
Immediately after an action potential passes along an axon, it is not possible to generate a second action potential; thus, we state that the membrane is briefly...

A) hyperexcitable.
B) refractory.
C) fully depolarized.
D) above threshold.
E) at the equilibrium potential.
Definition
B) refractory.
Term
A neuropeptide that might function as a natural analgesic is...

A) acetylcholine.
B) epinephrine.
C) endorphin.
D) nitric oxide.
E) GABA.
Definition
C) endorphin.
Term
The major inhibitory neurotransmitter of the human brain is...

A) acetylcholine.
B) epinephrine.
C) glutamate.
D) nitric oxide.
E) GABA.
Definition
E) GABA.
Term
Although an exact count is not available, it is likely that the human brain has as many as...

A) 10,000 neurons.
B) 500,000 neurons.
C) 1 million neurons.
D) 10 million neurons.
E) 100 billion neurons.
Definition
E) 100 billion neurons.
Term
Cephalization, the clustering of neurons and interneurons in the anterior part of the animal, is apparent in...

A) Hydra.
B) cnidarians.
C) Planaria.
D) sea stars.
E) invertebrate animals with radial symmetry.
Definition
C) Planaria.
Term
The cerebrospinal fluid is...

A) a filtrate of the blood.
B) a secretion of glial cells.
C) a secretion of interneurons.
D) cytosol secreted from ependymal cells.
E) secreted by the hypothalamus.
Definition
A) a filtrate of the blood.
Term
The human knee-jerk reflex requires an intact what?

A) spinal cord.
B) hypothalamus.
C) corpus callosum.
D) cerebellum.
E) medulla.
Definition
A) spinal cord.
Term
The blood-brain barrier...

A) is formed by tight junctions.
B) is formed by oligodendrocytes.
C) tightly regulates the intracellular environment of the CNS.
D) uses chemical signals to communicate with the spinal cord.
E) provides support to the brain tissue.
Definition
A) is formed by tight junctions.
Term
Preparation for the fight-or-flight response includes activation of the ________ nervous system.

A) sympathetic
B) somatic
C) central
D) visceral
E) parasympathetic
Definition
A) sympathetic
Term
The system that modulates excitation and inhibition of smooth and cardiac muscles of the digestive, cardiovascular, and excretory systems is the...

A) central nervous system.
B) peripheral nervous system.
C) autonomic nervous system.
D) parasympathetic nervous system.
E) sympathetic nervous system.
Definition
C) autonomic nervous system.
Term
Calculation, contemplation, and cognition are human activities associated with increased activity in the...

A) pituitary gland.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebrum.
D) cerebellum.
E) spinal cord.
Definition
C) cerebrum.
Term
Bottlenose dolphins breathe air but can sleep in the ocean. Why?

A) they cease breathing while sleeping and remain underwater.
B) they sleep for only 30 minutes at a time, which is the maximum interval they can cease breathing.
C) they fill their swim bladder with air to keep their blowholes above the surface of the water while they sleep.
D) they move to shallow water to sleep, so they do not need to swim to keep their blowholes above the surface of the water.
E) they alternate which half of their brains is asleep and which half is awake.
Definition
E) they alternate which half of their brains is asleep and which half is awake.
Term
Increases and decreases of the heart rate result from changes in the activity of the...

A) corpus callosum.
B) medulla oblongata.
C) thalamus.
D) pituitary.
E) cerebellum.
Definition
B) medulla oblongata.
Term
The correct sequence of sensory processing is...

A) sensory adaptation → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception.
B) stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception → sensory adaptation.
C) sensory perception → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory adaptation.
D) sensory perception → sensory transduction → stimulus reception → sensory adaptation.
E) stimulus reception → sensory perception → sensory adaptation → sensory transduction.
Definition
B) stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception → sensory adaptation.
Term
Artificial electrical stimulation of a human's capsaicin-sensitive neurons would likely produce the sensation of...

A) cold temperature.
B) hot temperature.
C) tactile stimulus.
D) odor of pepper.
E) deep pressure.
Definition
B) hot temperature.
Term
Immediately after putting on a shirt, your skin might feel itchy. However, this perception soon fades due to what?

A) sensory adaptation.
B) accommodation.
C) the increase of transduction.
D) reduced motor unit recruitment.
E) reduced receptor amplification.
Definition
A) sensory adaptation.
Term
Statocysts contain cells that are...

A) mechanoreceptors which function in orientation to gravity.
B) chemoreceptors used in selecting migration routes.
C) photoreceptors used in setting biological rhythms.
D) thermoreceptors used in prey detection.
E) chemoreceptors used in acid-base balance.
Definition
A) mechanoreceptors which function in orientation to gravity.
Term
Sound waves arriving at a listener first strike the...

A) tectorial membrane.
B) tympanic membrane.
C) round-window membrane.
D) hair cell membrane.
E) basilar membrane.
Definition
B) tympanic membrane.
Term
The cochlea is an organ of auditory transduction that contains...

A) fluid and cells that can undergo mechanosensory transduction.
B) air and cells that produce wax.
C) air and small bones that vibrate in response to sound waves.
D) fluid with stacks of chemosensory cells.
E) air and statocysts activated by movement.
Definition
A) fluid and cells that can undergo mechanosensory transduction.
Term
Tastes and smells are similar in that...

A) both types of stimuli are present in thousands of different chemicals.
B) both types of stimuli must be dissolved in a body fluid before they can be detected.
C) both types of stimuli are proteins (that is, molecules of very large size and high molecular weight).
D) both types of stimuli evoke action potentials in the cells to which they bind.
E) any given stimulus for one system evokes a response from the other system.
Definition
B) both types of stimuli must be dissolved in a body fluid before they can be detected.
Term
Compared to viewing a distant object, viewing an object held within 5 cm of the eye requires a lens that...

A) has been flattened, as a result of contraction of the ciliary muscles.
B) has been made more spherical, as a result of contraction of the ciliary muscles.
C) has been flattened, as a result of relaxation of the ciliary muscles.
D) has been made more spherical, as a result of relaxation of the ciliary muscles.
E) does not change its shape.
Definition
B) has been made more spherical, as a result of contraction of the ciliary muscles.
Term
Sensory transduction of light/dark information in the vertebrate retina is accomplished by what kind of cells?

A) ganglion cells.
B) amacrine cells.
C) bipolar cells.
D) horizontal cells.
E) rods and cones.
Definition
E) rods and cones.
Term
Most of the ATP supplies for a skeletal muscle undergoing 1 hour of sustained exercise come from what?

A) creatine phosphate.
B) glycolysis.
C) substrate phosphorylation.
D) oxidative phosphorylation.
E) de novo synthesis.
Definition
D) oxidative phosphorylation.
Term
One major advantage of using Arabidopsis thaliana as a model system for studies of plant form and function is its

A) fast generation time.
B) exceptionally large genome.
C) large seeds.
D) high tolerance to stress.
E) high mutation rate.
Definition
A) fast generation time.
Term
Which structure is incorrectly paired with its tissue system?

A) root hair:dermal tissue
B) palisade parenchyma:ground tissue
C) guard cell:dermal tissue
D) companion cell:ground tissue
E) tracheid:vascular tissue
Definition
D) companion cell:ground tissue
Term
Which part of a plant absorbs most of the water and minerals taken up from the soil?

A) taproots
B) root hairs
C) the thick parts of the roots near the base of the stem
D) storage roots
E) sections of the root that have secondary xylem
Definition
B) root hairs
Term
CO2 enters the inner spaces of the leaf through the...

A) cuticle.
B) epidermal trichomes.
C) stoma.
D) phloem.
E) walls of guard cells.
Definition
C) stoma.
Term
Which of the following cells transport sugars over long distances?

A) parenchyma cells
B) collenchyma cells
C) sclerenchyma cells
D) tracheids and vessel elements
E) sieve-tube elements
Definition
E) sieve-tube elements
Term
One important difference between the anatomy of roots and the anatomy of leaves is that...

A) only leaves have phloem and only roots have xylem.
B) root cells have cell walls and leaf cells do not.
C) a waxy cuticle covers leaves but is absent from roots.
D) vascular tissue is found in roots but is absent from leaves.
E) leaves have epidermal tissue but roots do not.
Definition
C) a waxy cuticle covers leaves but is absent from roots.
Term
Compared to most animals, the growth of most plants is best described as...

A) perennial.
B) weedy.
C) indeterminate.
D) derivative.
E) primary.
Definition
C) indeterminate.
Term
Gas exchange, which is necessary for photosynthesis, can occur most easily in which leaf tissue?

A) epidermis
B) palisade mesophyll
C) spongy mesophyll
D) vascular tissue
E) bundle sheath
Definition
C) spongy mesophyll
Term
Plants contain meristems whose major function is to...

A) attract pollinators.
B) absorb ions.
C) photosynthesize.
D) produce more cells.
E) produce flowers.
Definition
D) produce more cells.
Term
What would be a plant adaptation that increases exposure of a plant to light in a dense forest?

A) closing of the stomata
B) lateral buds
C) apical dominance
D) absence of petioles
E) intercalary meristems
Definition
C) apical dominance
Term
All of the following are plant adaptations to life on land except...

A) tracheids and vessels.
B) root hairs.
C) cuticle.
D) the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis.
E) collenchyma.
Definition
D) the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis.
Term
Most angiosperms have alternate phyllotaxy. What allows each leaf to get the maximum exposure to light and reduces shading of lower leaves?

A) a leaf area index above 8
B) self-pruning
C) one leaf only per node
D) leaf emergence at an angle of 137.5°F from the site of previous leaves
E) a leaf area index above 8 and leaf emergence at an angle of 137.5°F from the site of previous leaves
Definition
D) leaf emergence at an angle of 137.5°F from the site of previous leaves
Term
A plant developed a mineral deficiency after being treated with a fungicide. What is the most probable cause of the deficiency?

A) Mineral receptor proteins in the plant membrane were not functioning.
B) Mycorrhizal fungi were killed.
C) Active transport of minerals was inhibited.
D) The genes for the synthesis of transport proteins were destroyed.
E) Proton pumps reversed the membrane potential.
Definition
B) Mycorrhizal fungi were killed.
Term
If you were to prune the shoot tips of a plant, what would be the effect on the plant and the leaf area index?

A) bushier plants; lower leaf area index
B) tall plants; lower leaf area index
C) tall plants; higher leaf area index
D) short plants; lower leaf area index
E) bushier plants; higher leaf area indexes
Definition
E) bushier plants; higher leaf area indexes
Term
Active transport involves all of the following except the...

A) diffusion of solute through the lipid bilayer of a membrane.
B) pumping of solutes across the membrane.
C) hydrolysis of ATP.
D) transport of solute against a concentration gradient.
E) specific transport protein in the membrane.
Definition
A) diffusion of solute through the lipid bilayer of a membrane.
Term
All of the following have an effect on water potential (Ψ) in plants except

A) physical pressure.
B) water-attracting matrices.
C) dissolved solutes.
D) osmosis.
E) DNA structure.
Definition
E) DNA structure.
Term
Which of the following statements is false about bulk flow?

A) It is driven primarily by pressure potential.
B) It is more effective than diffusion over distances greater than 100 μm.
C) It depends on a difference in pressure potential at the source and sink.
D) It depends on the force of gravity on a column of water.
E) It may be the result of either positive or negative pressure potential.
Definition
D) It depends on the force of gravity on a column of water.
Term
What is the role of proton pumps in root hair cells?

A) establish ATP gradients
B) maintain the H+ gradient
C) pressurize xylem transport
D) eliminate excess electrons
E) assist in active uptake of water molecules
Definition
B) maintain the H+ gradient
Term
Pine seedlings grown in sterile potting soil grow much slower than seedlings grown in soil from the area where the seeds were collected. This is most likely because...

A) the sterilization process kills the root hairs as they emerge from the seedling.
B) the normal symbiotic fungi are not present in the sterilized soil.
C) sterilization removes essential nutrients from the soil.
D) water and mineral uptake is faster when mycorrhizae are present.
E) B and D.
Definition
E) B and D.
Term
One is most likely to see guttation in small plants when the...

A) transpiration rates are high.
B) root pressure exceeds transpiration pull.
C) preceding evening was hot, windy, and dry.
D) water potential in the stele of the root is high.
E) roots are not absorbing minerals from the soil.
Definition
B) root pressure exceeds transpiration pull.
Term
All of the following contributed to the dust bowl in the American southwest during the 1930s except...

A) overgrazing by cattle.
B) clear-cutting of forest trees.
C) plowing of native grasses.
D) planting of field crops.
E) lack of soil moisture.
Definition
B) clear-cutting of forest trees.
Term
A researcher analyzes the mineral content of a particular grass and is surprised to find substantial levels of uranium in both leaf and root tissues. The most likely explanation for this finding is that...

A) uranium is an essential nutrient for this grass.
B) the plant has a mutation in its active transport proteins.
C) there is a higher than usual concentration of uranium in the soil.
D) uranium is substituting for some other essential nutrient.
E) uranium is being supplied by mycorrhizae.
Definition
C) there is a higher than usual concentration of uranium in the soil.
Term
Most of the water taken up by a plant is...

A) used as a solvent.
B) used as a hydrogen source in photosynthesis.
C) lost during transpiration.
D) converted to CO2.
E) used to keep cells turgid.
Definition
C) lost during transpiration.
Term
A soil well suited for the growth of most plants would have all of the following properties except...

A) abundant humus.
B) air spaces.
C) good drainage.
D) high cation exchange capacity.
E) a high pH.
Definition
E) a high pH.
Term
Which of the following soil minerals is most likely leached away during a hard rain?

A) Na+
B) K+
C) Ca++
D) NO3-
E) H+
Definition
D) NO3-
Term
A farming commitment that embraces a variety of methods that are conservation-minded, environmentally safe, and profitable is called...

A) hydroponics.
B) nitrogen fixation.
C) responsible irrigation.
D) genetic engineering.
E) sustainable agriculture.
Definition
E) sustainable agriculture.
Term
Most of the dry weight of a plant is the result of uptake of...

A) water and minerals through root hairs.
B) water and minerals through mycorrhizae.
C) CO2 through stoma.
D) CO2 and O2 through stomata in leaves.
E) carbohydrates in the root hairs and concentration in the root cortex.
Definition
C) CO2 through stoma.
Term
Which of the following essential nutrients plays an essential role in the opening and closing of the stomatal aperture?

A) Fe
B) Bo
C) Mg
D) H
E) K
Definition
E) K
Term
In the 1640s Jan Baptista van Helmont planted a small willow in a pot that contained 90.9 kg of soil. After five years, the plant weighed 76.8 kg, but only 0.06 kg of soil had disappeared from the pot. What did van Helmont conclude from this experiment?

A) 80-90% of the tree's mass is the result of C3 photosynthesis.
B) The increase in the mass of the tree was from the water that he added over the five years.
C) Most of the increase in the mass of the tree was due to the uptake of CO2.
D) Soil simply provides physical support for the tree without providing any nutrients.
E) The 0.06 kg of soil was mainly nitrogen.
Definition
B) The increase in the mass of the tree was from the water that he added over the five years.
Term
What is a major function of magnesium in plants?

A) to be a component of lignin-biosynthetic enzymes
B) to be a component of DNA and RNA
C) to be a component of chlorophyll
D) to be active in amino acid formation
E) to be required to regenerate phosphoenolpyruvate in C4 and CAM plants
Definition
C) to be a component of chlorophyll
Term
Reddish-purple coloring of leaves, especially along the margins of young leaves, is a typical symptom of deficiency of which element?

A) C
B) M++
C) N
D) P
E) K+
Definition
D) P
Term
Nitrogen fixation is a process that...

A) recycles nitrogen compounds from dead and decaying materials.
B) converts ammonia to ammonium.
C) releases nitrate from the rock substrate.
D) converts nitrogen gas into ammonia.
E) recycles nitrogen compounds from dead and decaying materials, and converts ammonia to ammonium.
Definition
D) converts nitrogen gas into ammonia.
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