Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Drug motion throughout the body |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| How drugs exert their effects |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The set of circumstances that must exist between the vetrinarian, the client, and the patient before the dispensing of prescription drugs is appropriate. |
|
Definition
| DVM-client-patient-relationship |
|
|
Term
| What are the active components of plants? |
|
Definition
Alkaloids
Glycosides
Gums
Oils
Resins |
|
|
Term
| What do bacteria and molds produce? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Treatment of disease with medicines |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The scientific study of motion |
|
|
Term
| What are the primary factors which effect phramacokinetics? |
|
Definition
Absorption
Blood levels
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion of drugs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| How often the drug is given |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| How long the drug is to be given |
|
|
Term
| What are the main routes of administration? |
|
Definition
Oral
Inhalation
Parenteral
Topical |
|
|
Term
| What are the parenteral routes of administration? |
|
Definition
IV
IM
SC or SQ
ID
IP
IA
Intrarticular
IC
Intrmedullary
Epidural/Subdural |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Degree to which the drug is absorbed and reaches general circulation |
|
|
Term
| What are the factors which affect the absorption process? |
|
Definition
Mechanism
pH & ionization state of drug
Absorptive surface area
Blood supply to area
Solubility of drug
Dosage form
Status of GI tract
Interaction with other drugs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Drugs used in a manner that is not specifically described on the FDA-approved label |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Center for Veterinary Medicine |
|
|
Term
| Regulates development and approval of animal drugs and feed additives through CVM. Also, controls how drugs are labeled, used, etc. |
|
Definition
| Food and Drug Administration (FDA) |
|
|
Term
| The extent to which a drug causes the intended effects in a patient. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Splitting of drug molecule |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Addition of glucuronic acid to improve drug solubility |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 hepatic processes? |
|
Definition
Oxidation
Reduction
Hydrolysis
Conjugation |
|
|
Term
| What are the factors which alter the hepatic processes? |
|
Definition
Species
Age
Nutritional Status
Tissue Storage
Health Status |
|
|
Term
| Biotransformation/Metabolism |
|
Definition
| Changing the drug chemically from administered form to form that the body can eliminate |
|
|
Term
| What does F.D.A stand for? |
|
Definition
| Food and Drug Administration |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 factors of a regimen? |
|
Definition
Route of administration
Dosage
Frequency
Duration |
|
|
Term
| What is a drug called after it has been biotransformed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main organ for metabolization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Whate are other routes of drug excretion? |
|
Definition
Mammary glands
Lungs
Intestinal tract (feces)
Sweat glands
Salivary glands
Skin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An amount of drug still present in animal tissue or products for a certain time after use |
|
|
Term
| What are the primary factors that influence blood concentration levels of a drug and a patients response to it? |
|
Definition
Rate of drug absorption
Amount of drug absorbed
Drug distribution throught the body
Drug metabolism or biotransformation
Rate and route of excretion |
|
|
Term
| What is the main system for excretion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main route of excretion? |
|
Definition
| Liver (metabolization) > Renal (excretion) |
|
|
Term
| Plasma or tissue levels of a drug are altered by the presence of another. |
|
Definition
| Pharmacokinetic Interaction |
|
|
Term
| Action or effect of one drug is altered by another. |
|
Definition
| Pharmacodynamic Interaction |
|
|
Term
| Physical or chemical reaction takes place as a result of mixing drugs in a syringe or other container. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Environmental Protection Agency |
|
|
Term
| What does USDA stand for? |
|
Definition
| United States Deartment of Agriculture |
|
|
Term
| What does FARAD stand for? |
|
Definition
| Food Animal Residue Avoidance Database |
|
|
Term
| Regulates the development and approval of animal topical pesticides. |
|
Definition
| Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) |
|
|
Term
| Regulates the development and approval of biologicals. |
|
Definition
| United States Department of Agriculture(USDA) |
|
|
Term
| Residue avoidance information and education. |
|
Definition
| Food Animal Residue Avoidance Database(FARAD) |
|
|
Term
What is the term used to describe the following statement?
"CAUTION: Federal law restricts the use of this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian." |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of drugs are those labeled with a legend? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the agency that controls how drugs are labeled, used, etc? |
|
Definition
| Food and Drug Administration (FDA) |
|
|
Term
| Treatment based on practical experience and common sense. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A drug that causes a specific action. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A drug that blocks another drug from performing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Changing the form and/or strength of a drug. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the oral dosage forms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are three less commonly used routes of administration? |
|
Definition
Rectal
Implants
Microencapsulation |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of topical drug forms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of liquid dosage forms? |
|
Definition
Suspension
Elixirs
Emulsions |
|
|
Term
| What are the five rights of drug administration? |
|
Definition
Right patient
Right drug
Right dose
Right route
Right time and frequency |
|
|
Term
| How many schedules are there for controlled substances? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug schedule has the most potential for harm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An agent that promotes loosening or separation of the horny layer of the epidermis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An agent that promotes normalization of the development of keratin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An increase in scaling of the skin; sebum production may or may not be increased |
|
|
Term
| Condition characterized by scaling and excess lipid production that forms brownish yellow clumps, which adhere to the hair and skin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Characterized by dry skin and white to gray scales that do not adhere to the hair or skin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An inflammatory type of sebhorrea characterized by scaling and greasiness |
|
|
Term
| What are the three layers of skin? |
|
Definition
Epidermis
Dermis/Corium
Hypodermis/Subcutis |
|
|
Term
| Which layer of skin is the thickest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the integument? |
|
Definition
Barrier
Sensation
Body temperature regulation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Continual excessive shedding of epidermal cells |
|
|
Term
| What should be done before bathing a pet with medicated shampoo? |
|
Definition
| Clean the pet first with a regular shampoo to remove any organic material |
|
|
Term
| How long should medicated shampoo be allowed to sit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How should dipped animals be allowed to dry? |
|
Definition
| Drip dry (no towels, no dryer, etc) |
|
|
Term
T or F?
Coal tar can be used on cats. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can selenium sulfide be used on cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Keratolytics and keratoplastics are known as what kind of drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a common ingredient that is found in many antiseborrheic products? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug schedule has the least potential for harm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Any skin desease characterized by the presence or formation of pus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the common antiseborrheic keratolytic and keratoplastic ingredients found in shampoos? |
|
Definition
Sulfur
Salicylic acid
Coal tar
Benzoyl peroxide
Selenium sulfide |
|
|
Term
| Which of the common antiseborrheic keratolytic and keratoplastic ingredients are not safe to use on cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What gives the digestive tract its large absorptive surface area? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is the digestive tract such a good route of administration? |
|
Definition
| The large absorptive surface area of mucosa and rich blood supply |
|
|
Term
| What is the sequence of events that occur from the time a drug is absorbed until it is eliminated from the body? |
|
Definition
| Absorption > Genral circulation > Plasma > Interstitial > Metabolization > Gneral circulation > Filtration (liver or kidney, depending on drug) > Excretion (bladder or intestines) |
|
|
Term
| What is the main organ for excretion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is another word for blackhead or pimple? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a good reason to use benzoyle peroxide during or before using a medicated shampoo? |
|
Definition
| Helps open and flush the pores, making it easier for the medication to penetrate the skin |
|
|
Term
| What is the turnover rate for epithelial cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Used when giving baths or used topically as a compress. |
|
Definition
| Topical medications mixed with water |
|
|
Term
| What are the common topical medications that are mixed with water? |
|
Definition
Aluminum acetate
Magnesium sulfate
Bath oils |
|
|
Term
| What are the common antisteroidal antipruritics? |
|
Definition
Colloidal oatmeal
Pramoxine HCL |
|
|
Term
| What are the common topical corticosteroids? |
|
Definition
Hydrocortisone
Triamcinolone
Fluocinolone
Betamethasone |
|
|
Term
| What are topical corticosteroids used for? |
|
Definition
| Treatment of inflammation and pruritus associated with moist dermatosis and allergic dermatitis |
|
|
Term
| What is moist dermatosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are topical corticosteroids often combined with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An agent that causes contraction after application to tissue |
|
|
Term
| Topical corticosteroids offer relief from what? |
|
Definition
Itching
Burning
Inflammation |
|
|
Term
| What is the dosage form of magnesium sulfate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What ingredients do bath oils contain? |
|
Definition
Sodium lactate
Lanolin
Mineral oil |
|
|
Term
| Anitpruritics are used to provide relief of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the common antiseptics for the skin? |
|
Definition
Alcohols
Propylene
Chlorhexidine
Acetic acid
Iodine
Bezalkonium chloride |
|
|
Term
| What is the common name for acetic acid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the contact time for iodine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of using a magnesium sulfate wet dressing? |
|
Definition
| To dehydrate or "draw" water from tissues |
|
|
Term
| What are bath oils used for? |
|
Definition
| To normalized keratinization |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inhibit the growth of bacteria |
|
|
Term
| What adverse side effect can result when using propylene glycol concetrations greater than 50%? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Redness of the skin caused by congestion of the capillaries |
|
|
Term
| Leakage of fluid, cells, or cellular debris from blood vessels and their deposition in or on the tissue. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A plug of keratin or sebum within a hair follicle or of the skin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Effective against superficial Pseudomonas spp infections of the skin and ears. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What compounds inactivate benzalkonium chloride? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Toxicity can occur in cats as an adverse side effect to what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are topical antifungal agents used for? |
|
Definition
| Treatment of superficial fungal infections |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common fungal infection seen in the veterinary clinic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often to topical antifungal medications usually require application? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Topical antifungal medications are usually found in combination with what agents? |
|
Definition
Antibacterial
Corticosteroids |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Omega 3 and 6 are responsible for what? |
|
Definition
Shine and texture of the coat
Helps control itching |
|
|
Term
| Essential amino acids that must be added to the diet. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does magnesium sulfate mixed with water produce? |
|
Definition
| A mildly hypertonic solution |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A parasite that lives inside the body of its host |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A parasite that lives of the outside body surface of its host |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Two living organisms of different species living together |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Drug used to eliminate helminth parasites from the host |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Parasite worms, including nematodes, cestodes, and trematodes |
|
|
Term
| What are the five types of symbiotic relationships? |
|
Definition
Predator-prey
Phoresis
Mutualism
Commensalism
Parasitism |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When one organism benefits from another as food |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When one organism is mechanically carried from one host to another by a third-party |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When both organisms benefit from eachother |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When one symbiont benefits from the other and is not harmed |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When one species lives at the expense of the other |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Said of an animal with ectoparasites |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Said of an animal with endoparasites |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Host that contains the sexually mature stage of the parasite |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Host that contains the immature stage of the parasite |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defecation
GI upset
Emesis |
|
|
Term
| How do benzimidazoles work? |
|
Definition
| Interfere with the energy metabolism of the worm |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A probenzimidazole that metabolizes in the animal to a true benzimidazole |
|
|
Term
| What are the anitnematodal drugs? |
|
Definition
Benzimidazoles
Organophosphates
Piperazine
Tetrahydropyrimidines
Imidazothiazoles
Avermectins |
|
|
Term
Inhibit cholinesterase activity, causing ACh to remain active in the neuromuscular junction of the parasite.
Neurotoxic to parasites.
Both endo and ectoparasitic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Blocks neuromuscular transmission in the parasite
Effective only against ascarids |
|
|
Term
| Mimic the action of ACh and cause paralysis of the worm. Effective against ascarids, pinworms, strongyles, and hookworms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Work by stimulating the nematode's cholinerfic nervous system, leading to paralysis of the parasite. Effective against ascarids, strongyles, whipworms, and hookworms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What liquid preparation consists of alcohol, sweetener flavoring, and medicinal agents? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inhibits cholinesterase activity |
|
|
Term
| Tetrahydropyrimidines are effective against..? |
|
Definition
SHAP!
Strongyles
Hookworms
Ascarids
Pinworms |
|
|
Term
| Imidazothiazoles are effective against..? |
|
Definition
WASH!
Whipworms
Ascarids
Strongyles
Hookworms |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Interfere with worms energy metabolism |
|
|
Term
| Anticoccidials/Coccidiostats |
|
Definition
| Inhibits growth, stops reproduction so immune system can take action |
|
|
Term
| What is important in ensuring coccidiostats will be effective? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Flattened worms that are subdivided into two groups |
|
|
Term
| What are the two groups of platyhelminths? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the signs of organophosphate poisoning? |
|
Definition
SLUDGE!
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defecation
GI upset
Emesis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do organophosphates effect parasites? |
|
Definition
| Inhibit cholinesterase activity |
|
|
Term
| Antinematodal that effects both endo- and ectoparasites. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antiparasitic drug contraindicative in cats. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the contraindications of organophosphates? |
|
Definition
Cats
Using two at the same time
Using w/ acepromazine
Use in heartworm-positive dogs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does piperazine effect parasites? |
|
Definition
| Blocks neuromuscular transmission |
|
|
Term
| Which kinds of parasites is piperazine effective against? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the common benzimidazoles? |
|
Definition
Thiabendazole
Oxibendazole
Mebendazole
Fenbendazole
Febantel |
|
|
Term
| How do tetrahydropyrimidines effect parasites? |
|
Definition
| Mimic the action of ACh and cause paralysis |
|
|
Term
| What are examples of tetrahydropyrimidines? |
|
Definition
Pyrantel pamoate
Pyrantel tartrate
Morantel tartrate |
|
|
Term
| How do imidazothiazoles effect parasites? |
|
Definition
| By stimulating the nematode's cholinergic nervous system. Not ovicidal. |
|
|
Term
| How do avermectins effect parasites? |
|
Definition
| Bind to certain chloride channels in the parasite nerve and muscle cells |
|
|
Term
| What is the representative of the avermectin group? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Ivermectin used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are examples of avermectins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some dosage forms of Ivermectin? |
|
Definition
Heartguard (Plus)
Iverheart |
|
|
Term
| What are the anticestodals? |
|
Definition
Praziquantel
Epsiprantel
Fenbendazole |
|
|
Term
| How does praziquantel work? |
|
Definition
| By increasing cestode cell permeability disintegrating worm's outer tissue covering |
|
|
Term
| Works on all cestode species and also used to eliminate fleas. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does epsiprantel work? |
|
Definition
| Causes disintegration of the cestode |
|
|
Term
| What is epsiprantel effective against? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is epsiprantel not effective against? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cestode with zoonotic implications causing cysts in liver. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is fenbendazole effective against as an anticestodal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the antitrematodals? |
|
Definition
Clorsulon
Albendazole
Praziquantel |
|
|
Term
| Effective against cat liver flukes as well as Fasciola hepatica? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does clorsulon effect trematodes? |
|
Definition
| By inhibiting the trematode enzyme systems for energy production |
|
|
Term
| Effective against bladder parasite Capilaria pika. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug is effective against lung trematodes in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A condition I which an animal harbors an endoparasite or an ectoparasite, and clinical signs of infection or infestation are evident. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A condition in which an animal harbors an endoparasite or an ectoparasite and clinical signs of infection or infestation are evident. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Protozoal infection that causes intestinal disorders |
|
|
Term
| Coccidiostats are also known as _____________ drugs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do not actually kill parasite, hygiene is crucial. |
|
Definition
Coccidiostats
Anticoccidial drugs |
|
|
Term
| What are the common coccidiostats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three functions of the nervous system? |
|
Definition
Integrative (analysis)
Sensory
Motor (action) |
|
|
Term
| What are the parts of a neuron? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two main divisions of the nervous system? |
|
Definition
Central Nervous System (CNS)
Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) |
|
|
Term
| Function of the nervous system that carries impulses towards the CNS (afferent). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Function of the NS that carries impulses from neuron to neuron. |
|
Definition
| Associative (integrative) |
|
|
Term
| Function of the NS that carries impulse away from CNS (efferent).C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two categories of cells of the PNS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Carries impulses from the body to the CNS |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Carries impulses from the CNS to the body |
|
|
Term
| What are the subdivisions of the PNS? |
|
Definition
Somatic Nervous System
Autonomic Nervous System |
|
|
Term
| What does the CNS consist of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the PNS? |
|
Definition
| Connects the CNS with the glands, muscles, and receptors |
|
|
Term
| The somatic nervous system is under what kind of control? |
|
Definition
| Voluntary/conscious control |
|
|
Term
| Made of efferent nerves cells that carry impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Consists of efferent nerve cells that carry information from the CNS to cardiac muscles, glands, and smooth muscles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of control is the Autonomic Nervous System under? |
|
Definition
Involuntary
Unconscious control |
|
|
Term
| What are the subdivisions of the Autonomic Nervous System? |
|
Definition
Sympathetic NS
Parasympathetic NS |
|
|
Term
| Sympathetic Nervous System |
|
Definition
| Regulates energy-expending activites |
|
|
Term
| Parasympathetic Nervous System |
|
Definition
| Regulates energy-conserving activities |
|
|
Term
| An action or receptor that is activated by acetylcholine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describes an action or receptor that is activated by epinephrine or norepinephine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A neurotransmitter that allows a nerve impulse to cross the synaptic junction (gap) between two nerve fibers or between a nerve fiber and an organ. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An enzyme that brings about the breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic gag. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A term used to describe an action or receptor that is activated by acetylcholine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A drug that mimics the effects of stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A drug that mimics the effects of stimulating the sympathetic nervous system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems cholinergic or adrenergic? |
|
Definition
Parasympathetic - cholinergic
Sympathetic- adrenergic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the receptors of the sympathetic nervous system? |
|
Definition
Alpha-1
Alpha-2
Beta-1
Beta-2
Dopaminergic |
|
|
Term
| Drugs that act by mimicking or blocking the effects of neurotransmitters. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| System that operates automatically and involuntarily to control visceral functions, such as GI motility, rate and force of the heartbeat, secretion by glands, sizes of the pupils, and various other involuntary functions and characteristics. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the ANS control |
|
Definition
GI motility
Rate/force of heartbeat
Secretion by glands
Size of pupils |
|
|
Term
| The fight-or-flight response is controlled by what nervous system? |
|
Definition
| Sympathetic Nervous System |
|
|
Term
| How many neurons does the somatic nervous system have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many neurons does the autonomic nervous system have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system causes what? |
|
Definition
Increases:
Heart rate
Respiratory rate
Blood glucose levels
Decreases:
GI activity
Dilates:
Pupils
Skeletal muscle blood vessels
Bronchioles |
|
|
Term
| Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system causes what? |
|
Definition
Decreases:
Heart rate
Respiratory rate
Increases:
GI activity
Constricts:
Pupils
Bronchioles |
|
|
Term
| Are alpha receptors inhibitory or stimulatory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Beta receptors are stimulatory or inhibitory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A gland, organ, or tissue that responds to nerve stimulation with a specific action. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the target organs and responses for Alpha-1 receptors? |
|
Definition
Arterioles - Constriction
Urethra - Increased tone
Eye - Dilation of pupil |
|
|
Term
| What are the target organs and responses for Alpha-2 receptors? |
|
Definition
| Skeletal muscle - Constriction |
|
|
Term
| What are the target organs and responses for Beta-1 receptors? |
|
Definition
Heart - Increased rate, conduction, and contactility
Kidneys - Renin release |
|
|
Term
| What are the target organs and responses for Beta-2 receptors? |
|
Definition
Skeletal blood vessels - Dilation
Bronchioles - Dilation |
|
|
Term
| What are the target organs and responses for Dopaminergic receptors? |
|
Definition
Kideys - Dilation of blood vessels
Heart - Dilation of coronary vessels
Mesenteric blood vessels - Dilation |
|
|
Term
| What are the primary adrenergic neurotransmitters? |
|
Definition
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Dopamine |
|
|
Term
| What are the primary cholinergic neurotransmitters? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a nervous system drug's effect determined by? |
|
Definition
| The number of receptors in the effector organ and the drug's specificity for the receptor |
|
|
Term
| What are the receptors of the parasympathetic nervous system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Drugs that bring about their effects by influencing the sequence of events that involve neurotransmitters. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the mechanisms which help autonomic drugs bring about their effects?
(MIBI) |
|
Definition
Mimic neurotransmitters
Interfere with neurotransmitter release
Block attachment of neurotransmitter
Interfere with breakdown or reuptake of neurotransmitter |
|
|
Term
| Intraocular pressure due to glaucoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Control vomiting and promote gastric emptying |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Drugs that block the action of acetylcholine at the muscarinic receptors of the Peripheral Nervous System. |
|
Definition
Cholinergic blocking agents
or
Anticholinergics |
|
|
Term
| Adverse side effects of cholinergic blocking agents. |
|
Definition
Drowsiness
Disorientation
Tachycardia
Photophobia
Constipation
Anxiety
Burning at injection site |
|
|
Term
| Class of neurotransmitters that mimic the effect of the Sympathetic Nervous System. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Alpha receptors are stimulatory except for what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Beta receptors are inhibitory except for what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the adverse side effects of catecholamines? |
|
Definition
Tachycardia
Hypertension
Nervousness
Cardiac arrhythmias |
|
|
Term
| Stimulates all receptors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Pure beta stimulator for bronchodilation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Action is dose dependant
Precursor for epinephrine
Increase renal perfusion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Beta-1 agonist
Short term treatment for heart failure |
|
|
Term
Beta agonist
Bronchodilation |
|
Definition
Ephedrine
Terbutaline
Albuterol |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Alpha-2 agonist
Analgesia
Sedation |
|
|
Term
| Drugs to control pain, induce anesthesia and to prevent or control seizures; treat respiratory and/or cardiac depression or arrest; perform euthanasia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Drugs that alter nerve impulse transmissions between spinal cord and brain or within brain itself. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the categories of CNS drugs?
(NEuT/SOBAD) |
|
Definition
Anticonvulsants
Tranquilizers/Sedatives
Barbiturates
Dissociatives
Opioid/antagonist
Neuroreptanalgesia/antagonist
Euthanasia agents |
|
|
Term
| Help prevent seizures by suppressing the spread of abnormal electric impulses from the seizure focus to other areas of the cerebral cortex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Neuroleptanalgesia
Euthanasia agents
Tranquilizers/sedatives
Opiod
Barbiturates
Anticonvulsants
Dissociatives
Categories of CNS drugs |
|
|
Term
| _______________ are CNS depressants and may cause ataxia, drowsiness, and hepatotoxicity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Used to calm animals, reduce anxiety, and aggression. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Used to quiet excited animals and decrease irritability. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the classes of tranquilizers? |
|
Definition
Phenothiazines
Benzodiazepines
Alpha-2 agonists |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Benzidizepines
Alpha-2 agonists
Phenothiazines |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Loss of sensation of pain |
|
|
Term
Produce sedation, reduce anxiety and fear w/o significant analgesia
Presumptive dopamine blockers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sedation
Muscle relaxation
Appetite stimulation
Anticonvulsant activity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
One of the oldest categories
Sedation to death
Easy and cheap
Greatest potential for complications
Non-reversible
Liver metabolism required
Classified by duration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long to long-acting barbiturates last? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Last 8-12hrs
Primary anticonvulsant
Schedule IV drug |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an example of a long-acting barbiturate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lasts 45min-1.5hrs
Used for anesthesia, seizure control, euthanasia
May be prolonged by blood glucose or some antibiotics
Schedule II drug |
|
Definition
| Short-acting Barbiturates |
|
|
Term
| What is an example of a short-acting barbiturate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long do short-acting barbiturates last? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Last 5-30min
Rapid redistribution into fat stores
Tissue necrosis perivascular
Adverse side effects |
|
Definition
| Ultra Short-acting Barbiturates |
|
|
Term
| How long do ultra short-acting barbiturates last? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an example of an ultra short-acting barbiturate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Involuntary muscle rigidity |
|
|
Term
What are the four receptors of opioids?
(MuSiKaDe) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Mu
Sigma
Kappa
Delta
The four receptors of opioids |
|
|
Term
| What are the adverse side effects of opioids in cats and horses? |
|
Definition
Potent respiratory depressants
Panting
Defecation
Flatulence
Vomiting
Sound sensitivity
Excitement |
|
|
Term
Do not produce anesthesia; patients respond to sound and sensation
Schedule II drug
4 receptors (MuSiKaDe) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two naturally occurring opioids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Rapidly produce unconsciousness withough struggling, vocalizations, or excessive involuntary movement
Death quick and humane |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the classes of tranquilizers? |
|
Definition
Phenothiazines
Benzodiazepines
Alpha-2 Agonists |
|
|
Term
| Acetylcholine = ? NS = Cholinergic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Adrenergic = ? NS = Epinephrine, Norepinephrine, Dopamine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the upper respiratory tract consist of? |
|
Definition
Nostrils
Nasal cavity
Pharynx
Larynx
Trachea
Bronchi
Bronchioles |
|
|
Term
| What does the lower respiratory tract consist of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the respiratory tract? |
|
Definition
Oxygen-Carbon dioxide exchange
Regulation of acid-base balance
Body temperature regulation
Voice production |
|
|
Term
| What types of drugs are used for nonproductive coughs? |
|
Definition
Antitussives
Bronchodilators |
|
|
Term
| What types of drugs are used for bronchospasms? |
|
Definition
Bronchodilators
Corticosteroids |
|
|
Term
| What are the three general goals for the treatment of respiratory disease? |
|
Definition
Control of secretions
Control of reflexes
Maintenance of normal airflow |
|
|
Term
| Nebulization/Aerosolization |
|
Definition
| The process of converting liquid medications into a sprat that can be carried into the respiratory system by inhales air |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Having the ability to breakdown mucus |
|
|
Term
| What are the categories for respiratory drugs? |
|
Definition
Expectorants
Mucolytics
Antitussives
Bronchodilators
Decongestants
Antihistamines
Corticosteroids |
|
|
Term
Liquefy and dilute viscous secretions
Act on mucus-secreting cells or decrease the adhesiveness
Usually oral administration
Indicated for productive cough |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Decrease viscosity by altering chemical composition of mucus by breaking down chemical bonds
Inhalant administration for respiratory conditions
Oral administration as acetaminophen antidote |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the only mucolytic drug of clinical significance in veterinary medicine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 mechanisms for bronchoconstriction? |
|
Definition
Acytelcholine
Histamine release from allergic response
Beta-2 adrenergic blockage by drugs |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 categories of bronchodilators? |
|
Definition
Cholinergic blockers
Antihistamines
Beta-2 adrenergic agonists
Methylxanthines |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A substance that reduces the swelling of mucus membranes |
|
|
Term
Reduce congestion by reducing swelling of nasal passages
Topical or oral administration
Direct or indirect action
Limited vet med use
Selected feline URTI |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Block histamine release from mast cells (usually during allergic response)
Better as preventionInjectable and oral preparations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are antihistamines better as prevention? |
|
Definition
| Because they do not replace histamine that has already combined with receptors |
|
|
Term
| _________ is released from mast cells by the allergic response and combines with H1 receptors on bronchiole smooth muscle to cause bronchoconstriction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Primarily used for allergic ocnditions
Inhalation therapy strong anti-inflammatory action
Rapidly biodegraded when absorbed
Oral preparation used for chronic URTI in dogs and cats |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Used for bacterial infections of the respiratory tract. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Used in respiratory diseases associated with pulmonary edema. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Works at the CNS level to stimulate breathing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What part of the PNS carries impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the neurotransmitters for the Parasympathetic NS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most CNS drugs act by _________ or __________ of the neurotransmitters. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A drugs effects is influenced by what 2 things? |
|
Definition
Number of receptors
Specificity of receptors |
|
|
Term
| Term that describes an action or receptor that is stimulated by the neurotransmitter for the Parasympathetic NS. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Term that describes an action or receptor that is stimulated by the neurotransmitter for the Sympathetic NS. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What structures constitute the urinary system? |
|
Definition
Two kidneys
Two ureters
Urinary bladder
Urethra |
|
|
Term
| What are two drugs that are contraindicated in uremic patients? |
|
Definition
Xylazine (Rompun)
Ketamine hydrochloride (Ketaset) |
|
|
Term
| A glycoprotein hormone secreted mainly by the kidney; it acts on stem cells of the bone marrow to stimulate red blood cell production. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The formation of erythrocytes |
|
|
Term
| What are the three categories of renal damage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three categories of renal failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| By remove excess cellular fluid, by increasing urine flow and sodium excretion, and reducing hypertension |
|
|
Term
| What are the renal functions? |
|
Definition
Water balance
Acid-base balance
Osmotic pressure
Electrolyte levels
Drug & toxin elimination
Hormone production |
|
|
Term
| Where is male urine usually blocked in dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is male urine usually blocked in cats? |
|
Definition
| Where penis leaves pelvis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What will delay the excretion of drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can occur with delayed excretion of drugs? |
|
Definition
| Increases drug half-life > toxicity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an example of a loop diuretic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Quick acting
Usually work within the hour
Promotes excretion of potassium (hypokalemia) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Abnormally low potassium concntraion in the blood |
|
|
Term
| What supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the five classes of diuretics? |
|
Definition
Loop diuretics
Osmotic diuretics
Thiazide/thiazide-like diuretics
Potassium-sparind diuretics
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| What are common osmotic diuretics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the time period in which osmotic diuretics are given? |
|
Definition
| Given over 10-15 minute period |
|
|
Term
| What do thiazide diuretics reduce and how? |
|
Definition
| Reduce edema by inhibiting reabsoption of sodium, chloride, and water |
|
|
Term
| What are examples of thiazide diuretics? |
|
Definition
Chlorothiazide
Hydrochlorothiazide |
|
|
Term
| Which class of diuretic drug crosses the placental border? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diuretic having the ability to conserve potassium. |
|
Definition
| Potassium-sparing diuretics |
|
|
Term
| What are potassium-sparing diuretics also referred to as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the action of antagonizing aldosterone enhance? |
|
Definition
| The excretion of sodium and water |
|
|
Term
| What does the action of antagonizing aldosterone reduce? |
|
Definition
| The excretion of potassium |
|
|
Term
| What is an example of a potassium-sparing diuretic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main side effect of potassium-sparing diuretics/ |
|
Definition
| Hyperkalemia if administered cocurrently with ACE inhibitor |
|
|
Term
| What class of diuretic is used to treat glaucoma by decreasin aqueous humor production? |
|
Definition
| Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| What is an example of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Block the action of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase
Allows for renal production of carbonic acid and H+
Promotes excretion of solutes and increasing urinary output |
|
Definition
| Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| What is the main side effect of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an example of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Expulsion of urine from the urinary bladder into the urethra |
|
|
Term
| What are cholinergic diuretics used for? |
|
Definition
| To help void the urinary bladder |
|
|
Term
| How do cholinergic diuretics work? |
|
Definition
| Their action increases the tone of the detrusor muscle of the bladder and decreases bladder capacity |
|
|
Term
| What do cholinergic agonists promote the function of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diuretic class that allows increased permeability of cell membrane and polarization. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diuretic drugs used for treating urge incontinence by promoting the retention of urine in the bladder. Their action produces muscle relaxation. |
|
Definition
| Anticholinergic Diuretic Drugs |
|
|
Term
| What is a common example of an anticholinergic diuretic drug? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of anticholinergic diuretic drugs? |
|
Definition
| Decreased gastric motility > decreased gastric emptying > decreased absorption of other drugs |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical uses for beta-adrenergic antagonists? |
|
Definition
| Control of mild to moderate hypertension associated with chronic renal failure |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common beta-adrenergic antagonist? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to ____________ . |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Used to treat nonresponding hypertension or moderate to severe hypertension. |
|
Definition
| Angeotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| Enzyme released by the kidneys. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three common ACE inhibitors? |
|
Definition
Benazepril
Captopril
Enalapril |
|
|
Term
| ________ treats hormone-responsive urinary incontinence seen mainly in F/S dogs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____________ treats hormone-responsive urinary incontinence seen mainly in M/C dogs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antiduretic hormone (ADH) is normally secreted by what? |
|
Definition
| Posterior pituitary gland |
|
|
Term
| What is ADH used to treat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Waht is the drug used for diabetes insipidus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are urinary acidifiers used to produce and why? |
|
Definition
| Acid urine, which assists in dissolving and preventing formation of struvite uroliths. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Abnormal minerall masses in the urinary system |
|
|
Term
| The resistance (pressure) in arteries that must be overcome to pump blood from the ventricle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which form of heart disease accounts for most cases in veterinary medicine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is the heart considered to be two pumps functionally? |
|
Definition
| Because the right side pumps blood to the lungs and the left side pumps blood into systemic circulation |
|
|
Term
| What are the functions of the cardiovascular system? |
|
Definition
Delivery of oxygen, nutrients, and hormones to various parts of the body
Delivery of waste to appropriate waste removal system |
|
|
Term
| Sinoatrial Node (SA node) |
|
Definition
| Origin of electrical impulses of the heart |
|
|
Term
| Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system _____ heart rate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system _________ heart rate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cardiac cells are connected by intercalated disks and a fusion of cell membranes to form a _______ . |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A variation from the normal rhythm |
|
|
Term
| Neutralizing of the polarity of a cardiac cell by an inflow of sodium ions. Depolarization results in contraction of the cardiac cell and renders it incapable of further contraction until repolarization occurs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Depolarization of cardiac cells is characterized by a rapid influx of ______ ions, a slower influx of _______ ions, and the outflow of _________ ions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Join the myocardial cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Fusing of cell membranes forming an interconnected mass of cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The return of the cell membrane to its resting polarity after depolarization |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Affecting the heart rate; rate of contraction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Affecting the force of cardiac muscle contraction; force or strength of contraction |
|
|
Term
| When it comes to arteries, Alpha-1 stimulation __________ , and Beta-2 stimulation _______ . |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The amount of blood the heart is capable of pumping per minute |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The amount of blood ejected by the left ventricle with each beat |
|
|
Term
| A relatively long _________________ is important to cardiac cells to prevent a constant state of contraction from recycling impulses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four basic factors of cardiac reserve or compensation? |
|
Definition
Increase hr
Increase stroke volume
Increase efficiency of myocardium
Physiologic heart enlargement |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 categories of cardiac disease that respond to pharmacotherapy? |
|
Definition
Valvular disease
Cardiac arrhythimias
Myocardial disease
Other: congenital deffects,abnormal innervation, vascular dz, hwd |
|
|
Term
| List 5 objectives of treatment for heart failure. |
|
Definition
Control rhythm disturbances
Maintain or increase cardiac output
Relieve fluid build-up
Increase the oxygenation of the blood
Ancillary treatment |
|
|
Term
| List four beneficial effects of the use of cardiac glycosides. |
|
Definition
Improved cardiac contractility
Decreased heart rate
Antiarrhythmia effects
Decreased signs of dyspnea |
|
|
Term
| What are the categories of cardiac drugs? |
|
Definition
Positive inotropes
Antiarrhymics
Vasodilators
ACE Inhibitors
Diuretics |
|
|
Term
| What do catecholamines do? |
|
Definition
Increase the force and rate of muscular contraction of the heart
Constrict peripheral blood vessels
Elevate blood glucose levels |
|
|
Term
| What are catecholamines such as epinephrine mainly used for? |
|
Definition
| For short-term management of severe heart failure; for providing stimulation of contraction of the heart |
|
|
Term
| List 5 factors that may predispose the heart to arrhythmias. |
|
Definition
Conditions that cause hypoxia
Electrolyte imbalances
Catecholamines increased amount or sensitivity
Drugs
Trauma or dz effecting cells |
|
|
Term
| What are the main structures of the GI system? |
|
Definition
Oral cavity
Esophagus
Stomach
Small intestine
Large intestine |
|
|
Term
| What are the basic functions of the GI system? |
|
Definition
Intake of food and fluid into the body
Absorption of nutrients and fluid
Excretion of waste products |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A wave of smooth muscle contraction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Periodic smoothe muscle constriction in segments of the intestine to mix contents |
|
|
Term
| Stimulation of the GI tract by the parasympathetic system..? |
|
Definition
| Increases motility, tone, secretions, and relaxes sphincters |
|
|
Term
| Stimulation of the GI tract by the sympathetic system..? |
|
Definition
| Decreases motility, tone, secretions, and inhibits sphincters |
|
|
Term
| Stimulation of the GI tract by the enteric NS..? |
|
Definition
| Increases peristalsis and segmentation |
|
|
Term
| The enteric nervous system is believed to be..? |
|
Definition
| A third portion of the ANS |
|
|
Term
| Intrinsic receptors are part of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the factors that regulate the GI system? |
|
Definition
Autonomic NS
Hormones
Other chemicals |
|
|
Term
| What are the other chemicals that help regulate the GI system? |
|
Definition
Histamine
Serotonin
Prostaglandin |
|
|
Term
| What are the hormones of the GI system? |
|
Definition
Gastrin
Secretin
Cholecystokinin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Drugs used to decrease salivary flow; used to limit the flow of excess sliva which often occurs secondary to anesthetic drug use |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The forceful ejection of stomach contents |
|
|
Term
| Where is vomiting initiated? |
|
Definition
| In the vomiting center of the medulla |
|
|
Term
| What can generate vomiting impulses? |
|
Definition
Pain, excitement, fear
Disturbances of the inner ear
Drugs
Metabolic imbalances
Peripheral nerve irritation |
|
|
Term
| What animals do not vomit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What serious problems can be caused by vomiting? |
|
Definition
Dehydration
Electrolyte disturbance
acid-base imbalance |
|
|
Term
| What electrolytes are lost during vomiting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most significant loss during vomiting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the contraindications of emetics? |
|
Definition
Comatose
Seizure
Depressed pharyngeal reflexes
Shock or dyspnea
Ingested caustic substances |
|
|
Term
| How much of the stomach contents do emetics usually remove? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Emetics acting on the CRTZ are categorized as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Emetics acting on peripheral receptors are categorized as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the common centrally acting emetics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What class of drug is apomorphine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What class of drug is Xylazine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Morphine derivative
Stimulates dopamine receptors in CRTZ
Administered in conjunctival sac or parenterally; poorly absorbed orally
Rapidly acting
Choice in dogs, controversial in cats |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Not labeled as emetic
Induces vomiting in 3-5 minutes in cats, occasionally in dogs |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary agent of locally acting emetics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is ipecac obtained from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does ipecac contain? |
|
Definition
| Alkaloids that irritate the gastric mucosa |
|
|
Term
| How long does it take for locally acting emetics with syrup of ipecac to induce vomiting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Drugs used to prevent or control vomiting
Symptomatic treatment
Parenteral route |
|
|
Term
| What are the classes of antiemetics? |
|
Definition
Phenothiazines
Procainamide derivatives
Antihistamines
Anticholinergics |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Chemical substances produced by cells in one part of the body where they influence cellular activity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Ductless glads that secret chemical messengers called hormones into the blood |
|
|
Term
| What systems constitute the two major control mechanisms of the body? How are these two systems linked together? |
|
Definition
Endocrine
Nervous
Hypothalamus |
|
|
Term
| What are the endocrine glands? |
|
Definition
Pituitary
Adrenal
Thyroid
Ovaries
Testicles
Pancreas
Renal |
|
|
Term
| What are the two basic reasons for which hormones are administered? |
|
Definition
Correct a deficiency
Achieve a desired effect |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Hormones produced naturally by the body |
|
|
Term
| Master gland of the endocrine system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two lobes of the pituitary gland? |
|
Definition
Adenohypophysis
Neurohypophysis |
|
|
Term
| Where does the adenohypophysis lobe of the pituitary gland arise from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does the neurohypophysis lobe of the pituitary gland arise from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which lobe of the pituitary gland is anterior? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which lobe of the pituitary gland is posterior? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the hypothalamus exert control over the anterior pituitary? |
|
Definition
| Through the transport of releasing hormones or factors |
|
|
Term
| What effect do the releasing hormones of the hypothalamus have on the adenohypophysis? |
|
Definition
| Cause the secretion of trophic hormones from the anterior (adenohypophysis) pituitary into circulation |
|
|
Term
| List the major endocrine glands. |
|
Definition
Pituitary
Adrenal
Thyroid
Ovaries
Testicles
Pancreas
Renal |
|
|
Term
| What does the anterior (adenohypophysis) pituitary lobe release into circulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A hormone that results in production of a second hormone in a target gland |
|
|
Term
| Which lobe of the pituitary is posterior? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two hormones released by the posterior? |
|
Definition
Vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH)
Oxytocin |
|
|
Term
| What are the two feedback loops? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the two feedback loops is more common? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do negative feedback loops work? |
|
Definition
| In response to low or high hormone levels in the body |
|
|
Term
| When do positive feedback loops occur? |
|
Definition
| When hormone levels continue to rise in response to stimuli |
|
|
Term
| What are the trophic hormones released by the anterior lobe? |
|
Definition
Thyroid-stimulating Hormone
Adrenocorticotropic Hormone
Luteinizing Hormone
Follicle-stimulating Hormone
Prolactin
Growth Hormone |
|
|
Term
| Trophic hormones are also referred to as..? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cause target organ to produce a second hormone, which in turn infuences a second target organ or tissue |
|
|
Term
| Posterior pituitary hormones are also referred to as..? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Produce effect directly on organ or tissue |
|
|
Term
| Used to diagnose primary hypothyroidism. |
|
Definition
| Thyroid-stimulating hormone |
|
|
Term
| Used to stimulate the adrenal cortex to secrete corticosteroids in the diagnosis of adrenal cortex disease. |
|
Definition
| Adrenocorticotropic hormone |
|
|
Term
| Used to increase growth rate and feed use efficiency in livestock and increase milk production in dairy cows. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Used to treat diabetes insipidus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Disease characterized by the inability to concentrate urine due to insufficient amounts of ADH |
|
|
Term
| Used to aid in uterine contraction and induce labor in animals at term, expel the placenta, induce milk letdown, and as an adjunct therapy for animals with open pyometra. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does negative feedback of anterior pituitary signal? |
|
Definition
| To decrease hormone production due to adequate amounts in plasma |
|
|
Term
| What does positive feedback of anterior pituitary signal? |
|
Definition
| To increase production of hormones due to decreased amounts in plasma |
|
|
Term
| Applies to the release of oxytocin by the posterior pituitary. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the reasons for using hormonal therapy in veterinary medicine? |
|
Definition
Correct a deficiency
Obtain desired effect |
|
|
Term
| Endogenous hormones are those that are produced ___________, whereas exogenous hormones come from ________ sources. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the pituitary gland located? |
|
Definition
| At the base of the brain, ventral to the hypothalamus |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the hypothalamus gland? |
|
Definition
| To control the activity of the endocrine glands |
|
|
Term
| Describe the difference between a negative and positive feedback control mechanism in the endocrine system. |
|
Definition
| Negative feedback decreases hormone production due to adequate amounts in plasma, positive feedback increases hormone production due to decreased amount in plasma |
|
|
Term
| The release of oxytocin by the posterior pituitary is controlled through the _____________________ mechanism. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Drugs that act similarly to hormones |
|
|
Term
| May be produced from pituitary gland of slaughtered animals or urine of pregnant women or horses. |
|
Definition
| Drugs affecting reproduction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four stages of the estrus cycle? |
|
Definition
Proestrus
Estrus
Diestrus
Anestrus |
|
|
Term
| What hormone is the follicular phase influenced by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What hormone is the luteal phase influenced by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the hypothalamus secrete during the follicular and luteal phases of reproduction? |
|
Definition
| Gonadotropin-releasing Hormone |
|
|
Term
| What is being produced by a developing follicle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is being produced by the corpus luteum during luteal phase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hormone that causes growth and maturation of follicle? |
|
Definition
| Follicle-stimulating hormone |
|
|
Term
| During reproduction, ________ and ____________ serve as negative feedback to the hypothalamus to inhibit the release of ______________________________. |
|
Definition
Estrogen
Progesterone
Gonadotropin releasing hormone |
|
|
Term
| Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is classified as a/an ____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Gonadotropin-releasing hormone causes the release of ___________________ and ___________________________ or cause activity like that of. |
|
Definition
Follicle-stimulating hormone
Luteinizing hormone |
|
|
Term
| Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is prepared _____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___________________ causes ovulation in females and production of testosterone in males. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___________________________ causes growth and maturation of the ovarian follicle in females and spermatogenesis in males. |
|
Definition
| Follicle-stimulating hormone |
|
|
Term
| Promotes female sex characteristics ans stimulates and maintains the reproductive tract. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are synthetic estrogens used for in dogs? |
|
Definition
| To prevent implantation of fertilized ova, and to correct urinary incontinence, vaginitis, and dermititis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are androgens produced? |
|
Definition
Testicles
Ovaries
Adrenal Cortex |
|
|
Term
| What do androgens promote? |
|
Definition
Anabolism
Weight gain
RBC formation |
|
|
Term
| Where is testosterone made? What is it used to treat? |
|
Definition
In the interstitial cells of the testes
Conditions such as infertility and hypergonadism, produce estrus detectors, and for testosterone-responsive urinary incontinence in dogs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The constructive phase of metabolism in which body cells repair and replace tissue |
|
|
Term
| Androgen used for prevention of estrus in dogs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __________ blocks the release of luteinizing hormone by the pituitary and prevents complete development of the follicle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do progestins cause? |
|
Definition
Increased secretions by endometrium
Decreased motility of uterus
Increased secretory development of mammary glands |
|
|
Term
| What is the most important prostaglandin in veterinary medicine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The return of a reproductive organ to normal size after delivery |
|
|
Term
| What are the uses for drugs that affect uterine contractility? |
|
Definition
To cause abortion
To induce parturition
To aid in delivery
To cause involution |
|
|
Term
| What should be open/dilated before the administration of uterine contractility drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which uterine contractility drug induces milk letdown? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Odors released by animals to influence the behavior of other animals of the same species |
|
|
Term
| What are the two hormones secreted by the thyroid gland? |
|
Definition
Triiodothyronine (T3)
Thyroxine (T4) |
|
|
Term
| What are triiodothyronine and thyroxine involved in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Characterized by a deficiency in thyroid hormone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the signs of hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
Decreased skin and coat luster
Weight gain
Listlessness
Intolerance to cold
Reproductive failure |
|
|
Term
| Characterized by increased production of thyroid hormone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the signs of hyperthyroidism? |
|
Definition
Increased thirst
Weight loss
Increased stool production
Restlessness
tachycardia |
|
|
Term
| Which is the active form of thyroid hormones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is the storage form of thyroid hormone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two hormones produced by the islets of Langherhans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which kind of diabetes is most common? |
|
Definition
Type 1
Insulin-dependent Diabetes Mellitus |
|
|
Term
| Which kind of diabetes is rare in dogs but more common in cats? |
|
Definition
| Noninsulin-dependent Diabetes Mellitus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Drugs developed to fight infections caused by microbes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Single-celled microorganisms that usually have a rigid cell wall and a round,rod-like, or spiral shape. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An organism that is microscopic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Within an artificial environtment |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two categories of antimicrobial drugs? |
|
Definition
Bactericidal
Bacteriostatic |
|
|
Term
| What is the goal of antimicrobial treatment? |
|
Definition
| To render the microbe helpless by killing or inhibiting replication |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An agent with the capability to kill bacteria |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An agent that inhibits the growth or reproduction of bacteria |
|
|
Term
| How is the susceptibility of an organism determined? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The use of a drug and its response is..? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Should antimicrobial drugs be used for mild infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the spectrum of activity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the classifications of antimicrobials? |
|
Definition
Antibiotics
Antifungals
Antivirals
Antiprotozoals
Antiparasitics |
|
|
Term
| Where does absorption of most orally administered penicillins take place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary organ for excretion of penicillin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What organ metabolizes some penicillins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is important to remember when administering penicillin to dairy animals? |
|
Definition
| Withdrawal times must be adhered to due to excretion of penicillins through milk |
|
|
