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ACCT 460 Chapter 3
Auditing 460
63
Accounting
04/15/2010

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Term
d.all of the above.
Definition
Interpretations of Rule 101 prohibit covered members from owning any stock or other direct investment in audit clients. Covered members include
a.all partners in the office that is responsible for the attest engagement.
b.the firm and its employee benefit plans.
c.individuals on the attest engagement.
d.all of the above.
Term
d. All of the above are prohibited.
Definition
Which of the following activities is not prohibited for the CPA firm’s attestation service clients?
a. Contingent fees based on savings due to implementation of an information system.
b. Commissions for referring a review client to an insurance agency for additional insurance coverage.
c. Preparation of a tax return and receive fees based upon the refund received by the client.
d. All of the above are prohibited.
Term
b. The client must hire an external CPA to approve all of the journal entries prepared by the auditor.
Definition
CPAs may provide bookkeeping services to their non-public audit clients, but there are a number of conditions that must be met if the auditor is to maintain his/her independence. Which of the following conditions is not necessary?
a. The CPA must not assume a management role or function.
b. The client must hire an external CPA to approve all of the journal entries prepared by the auditor.
c. The auditor must comply with GAAS when auditing work prepared by his/her firm.
d. The client must accept responsibility for the financial statements.
Term
c. have the independent auditor report to an audit committee of outside members of the board of directors.
Definition
To emphasize auditor independence from management, many corporations
a. appoint a partner of the CPA firm conducting the examination to the corporation’s audit committee.
b. establish a policy of discouraging social contact between employees of the corporation and the staff of the independent auditor.
c. have the independent auditor report to an audit committee of outside members of the board of directors.
d. request that a representative of the independent auditor be on hand at the annual stockholders’ meeting.
Term
d. the Rules of Conduct are enforceable.
Definition
Of the various parts of the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct,
a. the Principles are enforceable.
b. the Ethical Rulings are enforceable.
c. the Interpretations are enforceable.3
d. the Rules of Conduct are enforceable.
Term
a. The auditor is not independent.
Definition
Which of the following statements is true with respect to the PCAOB and SEC's concept of independence when an auditor both prepares financial statements and audits those financial statements for a client?
a. The auditor is not independent.
b. The auditor is independent if he or she is able to maintain a level of professional detachment.
c. The auditor can audit the financial statements only if the audit process does not culminate in the expression of an opinion on the financial statements.
d. The auditor cannot audit the financial statements since a lack of integrity exists.
Term
b. Safeguards implemented by the client.
Definition
Which of the following is not a broad category of threat to auditor independence?
a. Familiarity.
b. Safeguards implemented by the client.
c. Financial self interest.
d. Undue Influence.
Term
c. Prohibited for clients for whom attestation services are provided.
Definition
Contingency fee based pricing of accounting services is:
a. Always strictly prohibited in public accounting practice.
b. Never restricted in public accounting practice.
c. Prohibited for clients for whom attestation services are provided.
d. Considered an act discreditable to the profession.
Term
c. A partner in the Oklahoma City office, who does not work on the audit, previously served as controller for the audit client.
Definition
Which of the following is least likely to impair a CPA firm's independence with respect to a nonpublic audit client in the Oklahoma City office of a national CPA firm?
a. A partner in the Oklahoma City office owns an immaterial amount of stock in the client.
b. A partner in the Jersey City office owns 7% of the client's stock.
c. A partner in the Oklahoma City office, who does not work on the audit, previously served as controller for the audit client.
d. A partner in the Chicago office is also the vice president of finance for the audit client.
Term
a. A distinguishing mark of a profession is its acceptance of responsibility to the public.
Definition
Which of the following statements best describes why the profession of certified public accountants has deemed it essential to promulgate a code of professional conduct and to establish a mechanism for enforcing observation of the code?
a. A distinguishing mark of a profession is its acceptance of responsibility to the public.
b. A prerequisite to success is the establishment of an ethical code that stresses primarily the professional's responsibility to clients and colleagues.
c. A requirement of most state laws calls for the profession to establish a code of ethics.
d. An essential means of self-protection for the profession is the establishment of flexible ethical standards by the professions.
Term
c. Considered discreditable to the profession.
Definition
A CPA's retention of client records as a means of enforcing payment of an audit fee is:
a.. Considered acceptable by the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct.
b. Ill advised since it would impair the CPA's independence with respect to the client.
c. Considered discreditable to the profession.
d. A violation of generally accepted auditing standards.
Term
d. Payable if the audit of the financial statements led to a loan.
Definition
The AICPA Code of Professional Conduct would be violated if a CPA accepted a fee that was:
a. Fixed by a public authority.
b. Based on a price quotation submitted in competitive bidding.
c. Based on performing work relating to judicial proceedings.
d. Payable if the audit of the financial statements led to a loan.

Term
b. Review report.
Definition
When an accountant is not independent, the accountant is precluded from issuing a:
a. Compilation report.
b. Review report.
c. Management advisory report.
d. Tax planning report.
Term
c. Warranting the infallibility of the work performed.
Definition
Competence as a certified public accountant includes all of the following except:
a. Having the technical qualifications to perform an engagement.
b. Possessing the ability to supervise and to evaluate the quality of staff work.
c. Warranting the infallibility of the work performed.
d. Consulting others if additional technical information is needed.
Term
c. A CPA-shareholder of the client corporation.
Definition
The AICPA Code of Professional Conduct states that a CPA shall not disclose any confidential information obtained in the course of a professional engagement except with the consent of the client. This rule should be understood to preclude a CPA from responding to an inquiry made by:
a. The trial board of the AICPA.
b. An investigative body of a state CPA society.
c. A CPA-shareholder of the client corporation.
d. An AICPA voluntary quality review body.
Term
a. Yes, because the stock would be considered a direct financial interest and, consequently, materiality is not a factor.
Definition
A CPA sole practitioner purchased stock in a client corporation and placed it in a trust as an educational fund for the CPA's minor child. The trust securities were not material to the CPA but were material to the child's personal net worth. Would the independence of the CPA be considered to be impaired with respect to the client?
a. Yes, because the stock would be considered a direct financial interest and, consequently, materiality is not a factor.
b. Yes, because the stock would be considered an indirect financial interest that is material to the CPA's child.
c. No, because the CPA would not be considered to have a direct financial interest in the client.
d. No, because the CPA would not be considered to have a material indirect financial interest in the client.
Term
b. An audit partner in the Eloi office.
Definition
ABC Company is audited by the Phoenix office of Willingham CPAs. Which of the following individuals would be least likely to be considered a "covered member" by the independence standard?
a. Staff assistant on the audit.
b. An audit partner in the Eloi office.
c. A tax partner in Phoenix who performs no attest services for ABC Company or for any other clients.
d. The partner in charge of Willingham CPAs (she does no work on the ABC Company Audit).
Term
a. The auditor is not independent.
Definition
Which of the following statements is true with respect to the PCAOB and SEC's concept of independence when an auditor both prepares financial statements and audits those financial statements for a client?
a. The auditor is not independent.
b. The auditor is independent if he or she is able to maintain a level of professional detachment.
c. The auditor can audit the financial statements only if the audit process does not culminate in the expression of an opinion on the financial statements.
d. The auditor cannot audit the financial statements since a lack of integrity exists.
Term
a. Appearance of independence may be lacking.
Definition
A small CPA firm provides audit services to a large local company. Almost eighty percent of the CPA firm's revenues come from this client. Which statement is most likely to be true?
a. Appearance of independence may be lacking.
b. The small CPA firm does not have the proficiency to perform a larger audit.
c. The situation is satisfactory if the auditor exercises due skeptical negative assurance care in the audit.
d. The auditor should provide an "emphasis of a matter paragraph" to his/her audit report adequately disclosing this information and then it may issue an unqualified opinion.
Term
c. The CPA's father is president of the audit client.
Definition
Which of the following family relationships is most likely to impair a CPA's independence with respect to a particular audit client on which the CPA works as a "covered member"?
a. A close relative has a material investment in that client of which the CPA is not aware.
b. A cousin has an immaterial investment in the client of which the CPA is aware.
c. The CPA's father is president of the audit client.
d. The CPA's spouse participates in a savings plan sponsored by the client.
Term
b. An unacceptable risk of non-independence exists.
Definition
AICPA independence requirements suggest that a CPA should evaluate whether a particular threat to independence would lead a reasonable person, aware of all the relevant facts, to conclude that:
a. A questioning mind reveals doubt as to independence.
b. An unacceptable risk of non-independence exists.
c. The accountant is definitely not independent.
d. There is substantial cause for a legal finding of non-independence.
Term
c. Consider the threat from the perspective of a reasonable an informed third party who has knowledge of all the relevant information.
Definition
If the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct does not specifically address a threat to auditor independence the auditor should:
a. Conclude that the threat is not significant unless proven so.
b. Conclude that the threat results in a lack of independence unless it can be shown that no impairment of independence occurs.
c. Consider the threat from the perspective of a reasonable an informed third party who has knowledge of all the relevant information.
d. Consult the Statements on Auditing Standards for guidance.
Term
c. Supporting records not reflected in the client's records (e.g., proposed adjusting entries) may be withheld by the CPA if fees for the engagement remain unpaid.
Definition
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Client prepared records (e.g., the general ledger) may be retained by the CPA until fees due to the CPA are received.
b. CPA working papers are the joint property of the CPA and the client.
c. Supporting records not reflected in the client's records (e.g., proposed adjusting entries) may be withheld by the CPA if fees for the engagement remain unpaid.
d. CPA working papers that include copies of client's records are not available to third parties under any circumstances.
Term
a. Staff assistants assigned to the engagement.
Definition
Which of the following types of employees must be independent of an audit client?
a. Staff assistants assigned to the engagement.
b. Senior auditors assigned to the office that performs the audit.
c. Managers assigned to an office that does not participate in the engagement.
d. All firm professionals, regardless of their position.
Term
c. Statements on Responsibilities in Tax Practice.
Definition
Which of the following are not enforceable under the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct?
a. Statements on Auditing Standards.
b. Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services.
c. Statements on Responsibilities in Tax Practice.
d. Statements of Standards for Consulting Services.
Term
a. Performance of bookkeeping services for the client.
Definition
The AICPA allows an auditor to perform which of the following services for an audit client:
a. Performance of bookkeeping services for the client.
b. Authorization of transactions for the client.
c. Preparation of client source documents.
d. Preparation and posting of journal entries without the client's approval.
Term
d. A partner in the firm has an investment in a mutual fund that has a direct interest in the client.
Definition
Jones & Company CPAs has one office. Which of the following is least likely to impair independence with respect to an audit client?
a. The client owes the firm for two prior years' audit fees.
b. A partner in the CPA firm is the son of the president of the client.
c. The wife of a partner in the firm has a small direct financial interest in the client.
d. A partner in the firm has an investment in a mutual fund that has a direct interest in the client.
Term
a. Prohibiting a client's new CPA firm from reviewing the audit working papers after the client has requested the CPA to do so.
Definition
Which of the following acts by a CPA would not necessarily be considered an act discreditable to the profession under Rule 501 of the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct?
a. Prohibiting a client's new CPA firm from reviewing the audit working papers after the client has requested the CPA to do so.
b. Engaging in discriminatory employment practices.
c. Robbing a convenience store.
d. Knowingly signing a false tax return.
Term
c. Advertising including an indication that the firm has a close relationship with several tax court judges.
Definition
Which of the following forms of advertising would most likely to be considered to be a violation of Rule 502 of the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct?
a. Advertising including the types of services offered and the standard fees for the services.
b. Advertising including the experience of the firm's professional staff.
c. Advertising including an indication that the firm has a close relationship with several tax court judges.
d. Advertising including the percentage of the firm's staff that have CPA certificates.
Term
d. Revoke the offending member's CPA certificate.
Definition
If a CPA violates the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct, the AICPA Trial Board may do all of the following, except:
a. Admonish the offending member.
b. Suspend the offending member.
c. Expel the offending member.
d. Revoke the offending member's CPA certificate.
Term
d. A "covered member" owns an immaterial amount of stock in an audit client.
Definition
Which of the following acts by a CPA would be most likely to be a violation of the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct?
a. Assisting a client in preparing a financial forecast.
b. Forming a professional corporation to practice as a CPA.
c. Accepting a fee in a tax matter relating to an administrative proceeding.
d. A "covered member" owns an immaterial amount of stock in an audit client.
Term
b. The covered member continues to hold an immaterial indirect financial interest in the client.
Definition
In which of the following circumstances would a covered member be considered independent when performing the audit of the financial statements of a new client for the year ended December 31, 20X3?
a. The covered member resigned on January 17, 20X3 from the board of directors of the client, prior to accepting the new audit engagement.
b. The covered member continues to hold an immaterial indirect financial interest in the client.
c. The covered member continues to serve as a trustee for the client's pension plan and has the authority to make investment decisions.
d. The covered member's spouse owns an immaterial amount of shares of common stock in the client.
Term
b. All attestation services, but not other professional services.
Definition
Independence is required of a CPA performing:
a. Audits, but not any other professional services.
b. All attestation services, but not other professional services.
c. All attestation and tax services, but not other professional services.
d. All professional services.
Term
d. All professional services.
Definition
A CPA should maintain objectivity and be free of conflicts of interest when performing:
a. Audits, but not any other professional services.
b. All attestation services, but not other professional services.
c. All attestation and tax services, but not other professional services.
d. All professional services.
Term
b. Determine that the performance of all services is consistent with the firm's members' role as professionals.
Definition
In determining the scope and nature of services to be performed in public practice, a CPA firm should:
a. Require independence for all services performed.
b. Determine that the performance of all services is consistent with the firm's members' role as professionals.
c. Have in place internal control procedures.
d. Only perform accounting related services.
Term
c. The auditor should not make management decisions for an audit client.
Definition
An audit independence issue might be raised by the auditor's participation in consulting services engagements. Which of the following statements is most consistent with the profession's attitude toward this issue?
a. Information obtained as a result of a consulting services engagement is confidential to that specific engagement and should not influence performance of the attest function.
b. The decision as to loss of independence must be made by the client based on the facts of the particular case.
c. The auditor should not make management decisions for an audit client.
d. The auditor who is asked to review management decisions, is also competent to make these decisions and can do so without loss of independence.
Term
a. Only to persons qualified to practice public accounting
Definition
Pickens and Perkins, CPAs, decide to incorporate their practice of accountancy. According to the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct, shares in the corporation can be issued:
a. Only to persons qualified to practice public accounting.
b. Only to employees and officers of the firm.
c. Only to persons qualified to practice as CPAs and members of their immediate families.
d. To the general public.
Term
d. Effects of a direct financial interest in the client upon the CPA's independence
Definition
The concept of materiality would be least important to an auditor when considering the:
a. Decision whether to use positive or negative confirmations of accounts receivable.
b. Adequacy of disclosure of a client's illegal act.
c. Discovery of weaknesses in a client's internal control.
d. Effects of a direct financial interest in the client upon the CPA's independence.
Term
c. 20X4 report is issued.
Definition
A client company has not paid its 20X3 audit fees. According to the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct, in order for the auditor to be considered independent with respect to the 20X4 audit, the 20X3 audit fees must be paid before the:
a. 20X3 report is issued.
b. 20X4 fieldwork is started.
c. 20X4 report is issued.
d. 20X5 fieldwork is started.
Term
d. The CPA has an immaterial joint, closely held business investment with the client.
Definition
Independence of a CPA with respect to a client is not impaired if:
a. The CPA has a loan to an officer of the client.
b. The CPA has an immaterial direct interest in the client.
c. The CPA is trustee for the client's pension plan.
d. The CPA has an immaterial joint, closely held business investment with the client.
Term
a. All of its partners or shareholders are members of the Institute.
Definition
A CPA firm may not designate itself as "members of the AICPA" unless:
a. All of its partners or shareholders are members of the Institute.
b. All of its professional staff are members of the Institute.
c. A majority of its professional staff are members of the Institute.
d. At least one partner or shareholder is a member of the Institute.
Term
d. A partner in the national office of the firm that performs marketing services
Definition
Which of the following is not a covered member for an attest engagement under rule 101 of the AICPA code of professional conduct?
a. An individual assigned to the attest engagement
b. A partner in the office of the partner in charge of the attest engagement
c. A manager who is in charge of providing tax services to the attest client
d. A partner in the national office of the firm that performs marketing services
Term
a. Advertising in newspapers
Definition
Which of the following is not prohibited by the AICPA code of professional conduct?
a. Advertising in newspapers
b. Payment of commission to obtain an audit client
c. Acceptance of a contingent fee for a review of financial statements
d. Engaging in discriminatory employment practices
Term
a. A fee is based on whether or not the public accounting firm's audit report leads to the approval of the client's application for bank financing
Definition
In which of the following situations would a public acct firm have violated the AICPA code of professional conduct in determining its fee?
a. A fee is based on whether or not the public accounting firm's audit report leads to the approval of the client's application for bank financing
b. A fee is to be established at a later date by the Bankruptcy Court
c. A fee is based upon the nature of the engagement rather than upon the actual time spent on the engagement
d. A fee is based on the fee charged by the client's former auditors
Term
a. A partner's checking account, which is fully insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, is held at a financial institution for which the public accounting firm performs attest services
Definition
A public acct firm would least likely be considered in violation of the AICPA independence rules in which of the following instances?
a. A partner's checking account, which is fully insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, is held at a financial institution for which the public accounting firm performs attest services
b. A manager of the firm donates services as vice president of a charitable organization that is an audit client of the firm
c. An attest client owes the firm fees for this and last year's annual engagements
d. A covered member's dependent son owns stock in an attest client
Term
a. The return is not misleading based on all information of which the CPA has knowledge
Definition
Which of the following is implied when a CPA sign the preparer’s declaration on a federal income tax return?
a. The return is not misleading based on all information of which the CPA has knowledge
b. The return is prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles
c. The CPA has audited the return
d. The CPA has maintained an impartial mental attitude while preparing the return
Term
c. A CPA-shareholder of the client corporation
Definition
The AICPa code of professional conduct states that a CPA shall not disclose an confidential information obtained in the course of a professional engagement except with the consent of the client. This rule may preclude a CPA from responding to an inquiry made by
a. An investigative body of a state CPA society
b. The trial board of the AICPA
c. A CPA-shareholder of the client corporation
d. An AICPA quality review body
Term
b. Jones names his firm Jones and Smith, CPAs
Definition
Which of the following is most likely to be a violation of the AICPA rules of conduct by bill jones, a sole practitioner with no other employees?
a. Jones performs consulting services for a percentage of the client's savings; these are the only services provided for the client
b. Jones names his firm Jones and Smith, CPAs
c. Jones advertises the services he provides in an Internet set of telephone "yellow pages."
d. Jones, without client consent, makes available working papers for purposes of a peer review of his practice
Term
c. Suggest that Kelly Company engage another CPA to perform the audit
Definition
Bill Adams, CPA accepted the audit engagement of Kelly co. during the audit Adams became aware of his lack of competence required for engagement. What should Adams do?
a. Disclaim an opinion
b. Issue an adverse opinion
c. Suggest that Kelly Company engage another CPA to perform the audit
d. Rely on the competence of client personnel
Term
d. Preparation of the company's tax return
Definition
Which of the following nonattest services may be performed by the auditors of a public company?
a. Internal audit outsourcing
b. Tax planning for all company officers
c. Bookkeeping services
d. Preparation of the company's tax return
Term
b. Training client employees
Definition
In providing nonattest services to an attest client a CPA is allowed to perform which of the following functions?
a. Maintaining custody of the client's securities
b. Training client employees
c. Supervising client employees
d. Acting as the third approver of large client expenditures
Term
d. Statements on Responsibilities in Tax Practice
Definition
Rule 202 compliance with standards requires CPAs to adhere to all of the following applicable standards except:
a. Statements on Standards for Consulting Services
b. Statements on Auditing Standards
c. Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements
d. Statements on Responsibilities in Tax Practice
Term
c. Use of appropriate sampling methods to select areas for audit
Definition
Which of the following provisions is not included in the institute of internal auditor’s code of ethics?
a. Performance of work with honesty, diligence, and responsibility
b. Prudence in the use and protection of information acquired in the course of their duties
c. Use of appropriate sampling methods to select areas for audit
d. Continual improvement in proficiency and effectiveness and the quality of services provided
Term
Principles and Rules
Definition
The AICPA Code of Professional Conduct consists of two sections. What are these two sections?
Term
Interpretations; Ethics Rulings
Definition
To provide guidelines for the scope and application of the Rules, the AICPA issues _____; the AICPA also issues ____ ____ that explain the application of the Rules and Interpretations to specific factual circumstances involving professional ethics
Term
Independence of mind
Definition
A state of mind that permits the CPA to perform an attest service without being affected by influences that might compromise professional judgment, thereby allowing that individual to act with integrity and to exercise objectivity and professional skepticism
Term
Independence in appearance
Definition
____ ____ ____ requires the avoidance of circumstances that might cause a reasonable and informed third party, aware of all relevant information, including safeguards applied, to reasonably conclude that the integrity, objectivity, or professional skepticism of an audit firm or member of the attest engagement team has been compromised
Term
Covered member
Definition
An individual, firm, or entity that is capable of influencing an attest engagement
Term
Covered member
Definition
An individual, firm, or entity that is capable of influencing an attest engagement
Term
Covered member
Definition
An individual, firm, or entity that is capable of influencing an attest engagement
Term
Covered member
Definition
An individual, firm, or entity that is capable of influencing an attest engagement
Term
Covered member
Definition
An individual, firm, or entity that is capable of influencing an attest engagement
Term
An individual, firm, or entity that is capable of influencing an attest engagement
Definition
What is a covered member?