Term
What actions can the health care team provide to alleviate some of the concerns Mr. Jones has concerning how he will ever recover in order to return to work to meet the families' financial needs? a. Expect the family to care for Mr. Jones during his recovery. b. Cancel Mr. Jones' surgery until he feels financially prepared. c. Perform all the test Mr. Jones requests untill he feels confident. d. Provide a structured recovery plan that involves Mr. Jones and his family. |
|
Definition
|
d. Provide a structured recovery plan that involves Mr. Jones and his family. d. Provide a structured recovery plan that involves Mr. Jones and his family
|
|
|
Term
| Based on the previous answer, what is the most effective treatment for the individual?
a. Provide 100% oxygen.
b. No assistance required.
c. Have him breathe in a brown paper bag.
d. Perform basic life support measure to include CPR.
|
|
Definition
|
b. No assistance required.
b. No assistance required
|
|
|
Term
| Above what altitude level is supplemental oxygen or positive cabin pressure necessary?
a. 4,000 feet.
b. 6,000 feet.
c. 10,000 feet.
d. 12,000 feet.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the gas laws demonstrates molecular concentration?
a. Boyle's.
b. Charles's
c. Dalton's.
d. Henry's.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Plasma lipids include what three substances?
a. Vitamins, mineral, and herbs.
b. Water, sucrose, and polyunsaturated fats.
c. Nitrogen, carbon dioxice and glucosaccaride.
d. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol.
|
|
Definition
|
d. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol
|
|
|
Term
| What two actions are included in the physiological need of rest?
a. Pain free and rest.
b. Rest and activity.
c. Activity and pain free.
d. Pain free and exercise.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Self-esteem is interrlated with which attribute?
a. Love.
b. Safety.
c. Security.
d. Self-actualization.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Jessica is born five weeks premature and is admitted to the NICU. Jessica's health care team has taught both TSgt and Mrs. Adams many of the daily basic care skill necessary for Jessica. Which of the following physiological needs is the health care team providing for Jessica?
a. Love.
b. Belonging.
c. Self esteem.
d. Oxygen.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What systematic method is used to identify a patient's problem and methodically organize interventions needed to assist the patient to the expected outcome of recover?
a. Love.
b. Belonging.
c. Self esteem.
d. Oxygenation.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three different ways assessment information is gathered?
a. Verbal, identifiable, and social.
b. Attainable, non-verbal, and social.
c. Identifiable, physiological, and social.
d. Physiological, non-verbal, and verbal.
|
|
Definition
|
d. Physiological, non-verbal, and verbal.
|
|
|
Term
| What are the three different ways assessment information is gathered?
a. Verbal, identifiable, and social.
b. Attainable, non-verbal, and social.
c. Identifiable, physiological, and social.
d. Physiological, non-verbal, and verbal.
|
|
Definition
|
d. Physiological, non-verbal, and verbal.
|
|
|
Term
| Choosing specific intervention during the planning step of the nursing process involves collaboration among the
a. nurse and the patient.
b. AMSC and the patient.
c. nurse, AMSC, and the patient.
d. health care provider and the patient.
|
|
Definition
|
c. nurse, AMSC, and the patient.
|
|
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Term
| What is the next step when the expected outcomes of the nursing care plan are not met?
a. Health care provider will decide whther the patient is to receive home health care.
b. Process starts all over again, beginning with the assessment of the current problems.
c. Patient will look for a new health care team to offer a second opinion to the problems.
d. Nurse will collaboragte with the family to determine if they can continue the care plan at home.
|
|
Definition
|
b. Process starts all over again, beginning with the assessment of the current problems
|
|
|
Term
| When a mistake is made when determining a patient's need what action should be taken?
a. Leave a note for the nurse to follow-up with the patient.
b. Ask a co-workder to call the patinet and correct the problem.
c. Do nothing, because the patient will return for follow-up care.
d. Apologize and take action to make things right for the patient.
|
|
Definition
|
d. Apologize and take action to make things right for the patient.
|
|
|
Term
| What attitude or personality is projected when you are not facing a patient when you are speaking to them?
a. Apathetic.
b. Empathetic.
c. Sysmpathetic.
d. Compassionate.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the followng non-verbal body language does not portray a pleasing, helpful and approachabel attitude?
a. Smiles.
b. Wide eyes.
c. Open body stance.
d. Flude body movement.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The rule of thumb to keep an individual on hold is how long?
a. 10 seconds.
b. 30 seconds.
c. 1 minute.
d. 3 minutes.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of
a. muscle.
b. protein.
c. glucose.
d. enzymes.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What universal measurement is used to represent the true hydrogen ion concentration?
a. Ph scale.
b. Apothecary system.
c. Chemical catalyst reactions.
d. Organic molecular structure.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The term basic when referred to chemical compounds is also known as
a. dense.
b. bonded.
c. alkaline.
d. synthesized.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Organic compounds contain both hydrogen and
a. carbon.
b. oxygen.
c. nitrogen.
d. dextrose.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The three primary inorganic molecules are
a. Hydrogen, iron, sulfate.
b. Nitrogen, carbon, and hydrogen.
c. Oxygen, nitrogen, and aluminum.
d. Water, oxygen, and carbon dioxide.
|
|
Definition
|
d. Water, oxygen, and carbon dioxide
|
|
|
Term
| Which inorganic ion is necessary for the polarization of cell membranes?
a. Sodium ions (Na+).
b. Chloride ions (Cl-).
c. Potassium ions (K+).
d. Magnesium ions (Mg+2).
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted by
a. excessive thirst and nocturia.
b. acetone in the breath and urine.
c. constant hunger despite calorie intake.
d. severe vomiting resulting in weight loss
|
|
Definition
|
b. acetone in the breath and urine.
|
|
|
Term
| Through the deamination process, the liver removes what protein molecule resulting in urea?
a. Carbon.
b. Oxygen.
c. Nitrogen.
d. Amino acids.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The body's response to shivering is to
a. produce more heat.
b. reduce muscle tension
c. produce a drop in temperature.
d. reduce the heart rate and lower blood pressure.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does high humidity affect body temperature?
a. Humid air is saturated with water making it very difficult for sweat to evaporate and cool the body.
b. The dense humid air causes the muscles in the body to relax thus lowering the body temperature.
c. The humidity makes the air thinner allowing the peripheral blood vessels to dilate causing shivering to increase the body temperature.
d. Humidity causes the peripheral blood vessels constrict and the body is not able to produce enough sweat to decrease body temperature
|
|
Definition
|
a. Humid air is saturated with water making it very difficult for sweat to evaporate and cool the body.
|
|
|
Term
| Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy can result in
a. cause abruption during labor.
b. downs syndrome in newborns.
c. severe eclampsia in the mother.
d. neural tube defects in newborns.
|
|
Definition
|
d. neural tube defects in newborns.
|
|
|
Term
| Vitamin C does not include which of th followin functions?
a. Preventing liver disease.
b. Healing of wounds.
c. Preventing scurvy.
d. Absorption of iron.
|
|
Definition
|
a. Preventing liver disease.
|
|
|
Term
| Large doses of vitamin C cause all of the following except
a. heartburn.
b. GI distress.
c. constipation.
d. kidney stones. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A vitamin D deficiency causes
a. anemia.
b. rickettsia.
c. scurvy.
d. rickets.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Vitamin D interacts with all of the following except
a. digitalis.
b. calcium.
c. mineral oil.
d. thiazide diuretics (HCTZ).
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Vitamin E is not necessary for which of the followng functions?
a. Absorption of calcium.
b. Normal metabolism.
c. Protection of tissues in the eye.
d. Prevention of liver diseases.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is readily seen through the disease proess of
a. rickets.
b. night blindness.
c. pernicous anemia.
d. prolonged clotting times. |
|
Definition
|
d. prolonged clotting times.
|
|
|
Term
| Vitamin K will not treat which of the flollowing ailments?
a. Heparin overdose.
b. Ulcerative colitis.
c. Malabsorption syndromes.
d. Prolonged use of salicylates.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following vitamins is not fat-soluble?
a. Vitamin A.
b. Vitamin C.
c. Vitamin E.
d. Vitmain K.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What organs regulate the blood concentration of sodium?
a. kidneys.
b. lungs.
c. heart.
d. thymus.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen
a. during a blood transfusion.
b. as a result of not using table salt.
c. when a individual is unable to sink in water.
d. through an excessive amount of fluid loss.
|
|
Definition
|
d. through an excessive amount of fluid loss.
|
|
|
Term
| Where would you find a concentration of potassium is concentrated?
a. Intrcellular.
b. Peripherally.
c. Extrcellular.
d. Centrally.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The primary route of treatment for potassium deficiency due to severe dehydration is
a. oral.
b. topical.
c. intravenous.
d. transdermal.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Oral iron supplements should not be taken with
a. tea, milk or coffee.
b. soda, water, or milk.
c. orange or grapefruit juice.
d. coffee, cranberry juice or water.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which route is injectable iron administered?
a. Intra muscular.
b. Intra venous.
c. Transdermal.
d. Z-track.
|
|
Definition
|
Which route is injectable iron administered?
a. Intra muscular.
|
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes?
a. Protect against disease at the cellular level.
b. Proliferate hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the body.
c. Leukocytes are the body's only defense against infection.
d. Carry amino acids to the kidneys for deamination and excretion.
|
|
Definition
|
a. Protect against disease at the cellular level.
|
|
|
Term
| Which protein is necessary for proper cell reproduction and division?
a. Amino acids.
b. Bundle.
c. Cytokine.
d. Proline.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of fluid is found in lymphatic capillaries?
a. Blood.
b. Plasma.
c. Leukocytes.
d. Tissue fluid.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lymph nodes contain what cells in large number in order to fight invading microorganisms?
a. Lymphocytes and macrophages.
b. Monocytes and phagocytes.
c. Neutrophils and leukocytes.
d. Polyleukocytes and monocytes.
|
|
Definition
|
a. Lymphocytes and macrophages.
|
|
|
Term
| Which region of lymph nodes receives lymph from the lower limbs, external genitalia, and the lower abdominal wall?
a. Abdominal.
b. Inguinal.
c. Pelvic cavity.
d. Supratrochlear.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The thymus gland functions in association with which body system?
a. Skelatal.
b. Endocrine.
c. Respiratory.
d. Cardiovascular.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The endocrine activity of the thymus is dependant on which hormone?
a. Adrenosterone.
b. Estrogen.
c. Thyrotropin.
d. Thymosin.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which organ is the largest lymphatic organ?
a. Brain.
b. Liver.
c. Spleen.
d. Skin.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first time. His body's response is called
a. primary immune response.
b. partial immune response.
c. secondary immune response.
d. single immune response.
|
|
Definition
|
a. primary immune response.
|
|
|
Term
| How many days from first exposure to chicken pox will it take for an individual's antibody concentration be high enough to detect the susceptibly to develop chickenpox?
a. Immediately.
b. 24-72 hours.
c. 5-10 days.
d. one month.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Children who receive routine childhood immunizations are protected by
a. artificially acquired active immunity.
b. naturally acquired passive imunity.
c. artificially acquired passive immunity.
d. naturally acquired active immunity
|
|
Definition
|
a. artificially acquired active immunity.
|
|
|
Term
| When an individual has reveived an injection of antiserum, they are protected by
a. artificially acquired active immunity.
b. naturally acquired passive imunity.
c. artificially acquired passive immunity.
d. naturally acquired active immunity.
|
|
Definition
|
c. artificially acquired passive immunity.
|
|
|
Term
| The fibrous structural protein collagen is found in all connective tissue during which stage of healing?
a. Bruising.
b. Maturation.
c. Inflammation.
d. Reconstruction.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The bright red color and the pain associated with a cyst is due to
a. bruising.
b. inflammantion.
c. maturation.
d. reconstruction.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long could the reconstruction healing stage for a secondary intention closure take?
a. 24 hours.
b. 3-4 days.
c. 2-3 weeks.
d. 1-2 years
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For many patients who suffer from sever injuries or medical conditinos, their first psychological reaction is
a. guilt.
b. acceptance.
c. fear and anxiety.
d. shock and disorientation
|
|
Definition
|
d. shock and disorientation.
|
|
|
Term
| All of the following are principles of asepsis except
a. break the infection cycle.
b. achieved on inanimate objects.
c. the absence of microorganisms.
d. promoting a septic environment
|
|
Definition
|
d. promoting a septic environment.
|
|
|
Term
| Using barriers as necessary for all patients is the definition of
a. medical precautions.
b. standard precautins.
c. primary precautions.
d. sterile precautions.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To be sure instruments used during a minor porcedure are sterile, you must check all of the following except
a. ensure there are no tears.
b. look for water marks on the package.
c. to see who sterilized the instruments.
d. inspect the package for complete seal.
|
|
Definition
|
c. to see who sterilized the instruments.
|
|
|
Term
| When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use a
a. pair of iris scissors.
b. disposable scalpel only.
c. a pair of bandage scissors.
d. knife with a detachable blade.
|
|
Definition
|
d. knife with a detachable blade.
|
|
|
Term
| What information should not be documented on the labels of any pathology specimens?
a. Name of the provider.
b. Name of the hospital.
c. Name of the technician.
d. Anatomical location of the specimen
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fifteen milliliters are equal to how many tablespoons?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Five.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Before administering any medication you are responsible for all of the followin except
a. being knowledgeable of the side effects of the Phenergan.
b. performing all steps in the modified six medication rights.
c. verifying any possible interactions against current medications.
d. for ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day.
|
|
Definition
|
d. for ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day.
|
|
|
Term
| Lt Col McNamara ordered a single dose Phenergan 12.5 mg, to be administered intramuscular to A1C Jones for nausea and vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50mg/2cc pre-filled syringes. How many ccs would you administer?
a. 0.25.
b. 0.50.
c. 2.5.
d. 5.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Modified six medications rights include which of the following?
a. Patient, amount, medication, time,route and documentation.
b. Route, amount, time, supplier, medication, and documentation.
c. Time, medication, color, route, amount and documentation.
d. Medication, cleanser, route, amount, time documentation.
|
|
Definition
|
a. Patient, amount, medication, time,route and documentation
|
|
|
Term
| The largest amount of a drug does that will produce a therapeutic effect without symptoms of toxicity is know as what kind of dose?
a. Legal.
b. Loading.
c. Therapeutic.
d. Maximum.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All of the following are sources of medication except
a. animals.
b. humans.
c. plants.
d. synthetic.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ibuprofen can be administered to achieve which of the following drug actions?
a. Curative and substitutive.
b. Restorative and curative.
c. Palliative and supportive.
d. Substitutive and chemotherapeutic
|
|
Definition
|
c. Palliative and supportive.
|
|
|
Term
| Palpitations, nervousness and tachycardia are all side effects of
a. cholinergics.
b. adrenergics.
c. cholinergic blockers.
d. adrenergic blockers.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Adrenergic blockers are contraindicated with patients having the following except
a. diabetes.
b. hypotenstion.
c. migraine headaches.
d. congestive heart failure.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increased gastrointestinal peristalsis, bladder contraction and increased sweat secretions are the action of
a. adrenergics.
b. cholinergics.
c. adrenergic blockers.
d. cholinergic blockers
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The medications that block the actions of the parasympathetic nervous system are
a. adrenergics.
b. cholinergics.
c. adrenergic blockers.
d. cholinergic blockers.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The drug action 3D, is commonly seen with
a. adrenergics.
b. cholinergics.
c. adrenergic blockers.
d. cholinergic blockers
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the medications' primary action is pain relief?
a. Analgesics, sedatives and hypnotics.
b. Endorphins, hypnotics and sedatives.
c. Placebo, tricyclics, and analgesics.
d. Stimulant, sedatives, and placebo.
|
|
Definition
|
a. Analgesics, sedatives and hypnotics.
|
|
|
Term
| Anti inflammatory actions are associated with
a. curing joint dysfunctions.
b. increased kidney functions.
c. the recovery of alcohol abuse.
d. preventing the formation of prostaglandins.
|
|
Definition
|
d. preventing the formation of prostaglandins.
|
|
|
Term
| Contrindications of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs include all of the following except
a. when taken with dairy.
b. for patients with asthma.
c. for patients taking anticoagulants.
d. when undergoing elective surgery.
|
|
Definition
|
a. when taken with dairy.
|
|
|
Term
| Which of the following central nervous system stimulants obtained over the counter, is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence?
a. Caffeine.
b. Dexadrine.
c. Concerta.
d. Ritalin.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Selective serotonin requptake inhibitors (SSRIs) selectively block the reabsorption of which chemical neurotransmitter?
a. Adrenaline.
b. Dopamine.
c. Serotonin.
d. Norepinephrine.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antianxiety medications are also referred to as
a. uppers.
b. stimulant.
c. sedatives.
d. minor tranquilizers.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Before administering digitalis, it is important to check which of the following pulse point?
a. Apical.
b. Brachial.
c. Pedal.
d. Radial.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Toxic side effects of digitalis include the following except
a. bradycardia.
b. diplopia.
c. tachycardia.
d. vertigo.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with
a. diabetes militeus.
b. renal and hepatic impairment.
c. heart block and congestive heart failure.
d. lung conditions that cause bronchospasm
|
|
Definition
|
d. lung conditions that cause bronchospasm
|
|
|
Term
| Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to
|
|
Definition
|
d. maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion.
|
|
|
Term
| When angiotensin-converting enzym (ACE) inhibitors are taken in conjuction with diuretics or vasodilators what affect is produced?
a. Synergism.
b. Potentiate depression.
c. Potentiate hypotension.
d. Antagonize hypokalemia.
|
|
Definition
|
c. Potentiate hypotension.
|
|
|
Term
| Mr. Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatment. Mr. Johnson is receiving heparin post surgically to prevent
a. deep vein thrombosis.
b. peripheral vein collapse.
c. gastrointestinal bleeding.
d. headaches post spinal anesthesia
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| While undergoing heparin treatment Mr. Johnson's diet should be monitored closely for which type of food?
a. legumes.
b. whole milk.
c. fish oils and salmon.
d. green leafy vegetables.
|
|
Definition
|
d. green leafy vegetables.
|
|
|
Term
| The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is
a. arrhythmia.
b. bleeding.
c. tachycardia.
d. vasoconstriction.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aminoglycosides are used for
a. long term treatment.
b. short term treatment.
c. the treatment of tinnitis.
d. the treatment of renal dysfunction.
a. long term treatment.
b. short term treatment.
c. the treatment of tinnitis.
d. the treatment of renal dysfunction.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After five days of the penicillin treatment TSgt Adams develops diarrhea. What advice would be appropriate?
a. Stop taking the medication.
b. Crush the penicillin before taking the dose.
c. Add yogurt or buttemilk to her diet and monitor the number of episodes.
d. Bring the medication in to exchange for a different lot to begin treatment over.
|
|
Definition
|
c. Add yogurt or buttemilk to her diet and monitor the number of episodes
|
|
|
Term
| Which of the following vaccines should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products?
a. Anthrax.
b. Hepatitis B
c. Influenza.
d. Small Pox.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many doses are given in a series of hepatitis B vaccine regiment?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Upon entry to the military, all Air Force recruits receive a booster of which vaccine?
a. Anthrax.
b. Influenza.
c. Small Pox.
d. Tetanus.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most likely reason a provider prescribes sorbital as a pre flexible sigmoidoscopy procedure medication?
a. Produce a calming effect before the procedure.
b. Increase fecal production to use for sampling.
c. Produce constipation and stop any feces expulsion.
d. Clear the bowels of excess water and feces.
|
|
Definition
|
d. Clear the bowels of excess water and feces.
|
|
|
Term
| Emetics are used to
a. alter stool consistency.
b. produce constipation.
c. induce vomiting.
d. slow intestinal motility
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How should Dramamine be take when orally administered?
a. 30 minutes before expected motion.
b. 2 hours before expected sleep.
c. When in large crowd for longer than 30 minutes.
d. When activity will raise heart rate over 80 beats per minute.
|
|
Definition
|
a. 30 minutes before expected motion.
|
|
|
Term
| Endocrine medication therapy is which therapeutic drug action category?
a. Curative.
b. Palliative.
c. Restorative.
d. Supportive.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Some of the symptoms associated with type II diabetes are all of the following exept
a. polydispia.
b. slow healing.
c. vision problems.
d. excessive weight loss
|
|
Definition
|
d. excessive weight loss.
|
|
|
Term
| What are the four types of diabetic neuropathy?
a. Autonomic, peripheral, focal, and proximal.
b. Generalized, partial, proximal, and automonomic.
c. Partial, focal, generalized and peripheral.
d. Focal, progressive, automatic, generalized
|
|
Definition
|
a. Autonomic, peripheral, focal, and proximal.
|
|
|
Term
| Autonomic neuropathy affects the body system that
a. restores blood glucose leves to normal after a hypoglycemic episode.
b. provides the chemical trigger to rest the body after a hyperglycemic event.
c. increases urination to excret blood glucose faster after a hyperglycemic event.
d. decreases the respirations, and increases the heart rate after a hypoglycemic episode.
|
|
Definition
|
a. restores blood glucose leves to normal after a hypoglycemic episode
|
|
|
Term
| When is a seizre considered a life-threatening emergency?
a. As soon as it begins.
b. If the individual has not taken any medication.
c. When the seizre occurs in a public place.
d. After five minutes of sezure activity.
|
|
Definition
|
d. After five minutes of sezure activity.
|
|
|
Term
| Individuals in a persistent vegetative state retain
a. all normal body functions.
b. responsiveness to the environment.
c. communication through blinking.
d. noncognitive function and normal sleep patterns
|
|
Definition
|
d. noncognitive function and normal sleep patterns.
|
|
|
Term
| For patients who are immobile,a primary nursing care is to
a. assist the patient in the absence of the family.
b. schedule physical therapy appointments.
c. prevent pneumonia and bed sores.
d. teach the family how to care the patient
|
|
Definition
|
c. prevent pneumonia and bed sores.
|
|
|
Term
| An endotrachael tube is used
a. for short term treatment.
b. on adults only.
c. for long term treatment.
d. for children only.
|
|
Definition
|
a. for short term treatment.
|
|
|
Term
| Ensuring the proper placement of an endotrachael tube is accomplished by what means?
a. Aspirating fluid from the lungs.
b. Auscultation or ches x-ray.
c. By irrigating the tube to check for bubbling.
d. To mark the tube where the patients lips rest
|
|
Definition
|
b. Auscultation or ches x-ray.
|
|
|
Term
| High priority patient conditions include all the following except
a. shock.
b. responsive but not able to follow commands.
c. chest pain with systolic flood pressure less than 150.
d. difficulty breathing with respirationsof 30 per minute.
|
|
Definition
|
c. chest pain with systolic flood pressure less than 150.
|
|
|
Term
| All of the following are recognized civilian triage colors except
a. red.
b. green.
c. yellow.
d. blue.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What arrhythmia is represented by no electrical activity in the heart?
a. Asystole.
b. Ventricular fibrillation.
c. Pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
d. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During combat situations military fightning forces are expected to be affected by combat stress when
a. they have killed the enemy.
b. fighting on the front lines.
c. they witness death of another soldier.
d. exposed to continous combat for more than 100 days.
|
|
Definition
|
d. exposed to continous combat for more than 100 days.
|
|
|
Term
| Individuals suffering from combat stress should be
a. considered ill.
b. isolated from all others.
c. allowed to carry out normal activities.
d. allowed to provide simple care for other patients.
|
|
Definition
|
c. allowed to carry out normal activities.
|
|
|
Term
| When using the Principles of BICEPS, what is the "E"?
a. Evacuation.
b. Expectancy.
c. Evaluation.
d. Extreme.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most combat stress patients are returned to their unit
a. between 24-48 hours.
b. after 72 hours.
c. before they become combative.
d. after receiving 12 hours of sleep.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The need for water intake is
a. necessary when soldiers are thirsty.
b. the medical officers responsibility.
c. the Security Sergeants responsibility.
d. necessary even when soldiers are not thirsty.
|
|
Definition
|
d. necessary even when soldiers are not thirsty
|
|
|
Term
| Fluid intake should not exceed
a. 5 quarts per day.
b. 1/2 quart per hour.
c. 20 quars per day.
d. 11/2 quarts per hour
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the principle component of the wet bulb globe temperature?
a. Humidity.
b. Wind.
c. Cloud cover.
d. Time of day.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The activity level of claning a rifle is considered
a. light.
b. heavy.
c. very light.
d. moderate.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When using the physical examination processing program (PEPP) the Standard Form (SF) 88will be printed as
a. SF 2808.
b. Department of Defense (DD) Form 3808.
c. SF 3808.
d. DD Form 2808.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What reference will provide the guidelines for DD Form 2766?
a. AFPAM 48-133, attach 10.
b. APAM 44-155.
c. AFI 48-123.
d. AFI 48-133, attachment 6.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible to determine the dispositions for every flyer or special operator after every health care visit?
a. Aerospace Medical Service Craftsman.
b. flight nurse.
c. flight Surgeon.
d. Hospital Commander
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which limitation code would be assigned for an individual who has normal vision of 20/400 in the right eye and 20/70 in the left eye, corrected to 20/20.
a. E-1.
b. E-2.
c. E-3.
d. E-4.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The term waiver applies to
a. all Air Force personnel.
b. Air National Guard called to active duty.
c. flying or special operation duty personnel.
d. department of defense and civilian personnel
|
|
Definition
|
c. flying or special operation duty personnel.
|
|
|
Term
| Guidance for the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) can be found in
a. AFI-36-3212.
b. AFPAM 36-3212.
c. AFPAM 36-2104.
d. AFI 36-2104.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When a unit with a Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) does not have a competent medical authority (CMA) assigned, how is documentation of medical care documented.
a. The Aerospace Medical Service Craftsman will make a narrative note for review by the Flight Surgeon when the individual returns CONUS.
b. The Independent Duty Medical Technician will consult with a preceptor to review all findings and report them to the certifying official.
c. Any medical provider assigned to the unit can treat and document all care for Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) Personnel.
d. This is not an issue; there are no Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) without a competent medical authority.
|
|
Definition
|
b. The Independent Duty Medical Technician will consult with a preceptor to review all findings and report them to the certifying official
|
|
|
Term
| What preparation is used when performing specimen collection from aircrew members involved in a mishap?
a. Plain water.
b. Alcohol preparation.
c. Salicylic acid preparation.
d. Soap and water.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The movement of stabilized patients from forward medical location to another pre-arranged destination is the definition of
a. AEF
b. EMEDS
c. AE
d. AFTH
What kind of change to casualty survival rates occures when AE is available?
a. Significantly increase with AE.
b. Significantly decrease with AE.
c. Inreased by only 10% with AE.
d. Decreased by only 10% with AE.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of change to casualty survival rates occures when AE is available?
a. Significantly increase with AE.
b. Significantly decrease with AE.
c. Inreased by only 10% with AE.
d. Decreased by only 10% with AE.
|
|
Definition
|
a. Significantly increase with AE.
|
|
|
Term
| What is the ratio of C-17's used for EMEDS versus 25 bed Air Transportable Hospital?
a. 1/2.
b. 1.7/3.
c. 3/1.
d. 4/2.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The EMEDS components are broken down into which 3 increments?
a. 25 bed STH, Clinical units and unit type codes.
b. AEF, EMEDS, AFTH
c. EMEDS intermediate, ATH, unit type codes.
d. EMEDS Basic, +10, +25.
|
|
Definition
|
d. EMEDS Basic, +10, +25.
|
|
|
Term
| Which EMEDS increment has no inpatient beds?
a. EMEDS Basic.
b. EMEDS +10.
c. EMEDS +25.
d. All EMEDS have inpatient beds.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which EMEDS increment is capable of performing 10 major surgeries in 24 hours?
a. Only AFTHS have surgery capabilities.
b. EMEDS +25.
c. EMEDS +10.
d. EMEDS Basic.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| UTC FFDAB, the Flight Medicine Team, provides care and treatment for a maximum of
a. 100 personnel.
b. 1000 personnel.
c. 2000 personnel.
d. 5000 personnel.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| EMEDS Basic requires both routine AE support and urgent AE support with in how many hours of notification?
a. 12 hours for routine AE support, and 2 hours for urgent AE support.
b. 12 hours for routine AE support, and 4 hours for urgent AE support.
c. 24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE support.
d. 36 hours for routine AE support, and 24 hours for urgent AE support.
|
|
Definition
|
c. 24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE support.
|
|
|
Term
| For what is the UTC FFGL2, the Medical Preventative and Aeromedical team responsible?
a. Security of base perimeter.
b. Ensuring safety of food & water supply.
c. Providing all personnel for EMEDS surgery team.
d. Only providing medical support for all AE personnel.
|
|
Definition
|
b. Ensuring safety of food & water supply.
|
|
|
Term
| What capabilities is the UTC FFMFS, Medical Mobile Field Surgical team responsible forproviding?
a. Only provides care for the battle injured using pain meds and blood transfusion.
b. Set up operations separate from main EMEDS locations.
c. Povide care to all battle wounded personel where they are found.
d. Provides primary disaster medical capability for EMEDS.
|
|
Definition
|
d. Provides primary disaster medical capability for EMEDS.
|
|
|
Term
| How many personnel are assigned to the EMEDS +10 increment?
a. 56 personnel.
b. 26 personnel.
c. 76 personnel.
d. 36 personnel.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many tents make up the EMEDS +10 increment?
a. Two.
b. Four.
c. Six.
d. Eight.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many critical care patients can be cared for by the EMEDS +10 increment?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the total number of personnel assigned to the EMEDS +25?
a. 32.
b. 51.
c. 86.
d. 94.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| EMEDS +25 provides primary care support for how many deployed personnel?
a. 3000 - 5000.
b. 6000 - 8000.
c. 9000 - 10000.
d. 11000 - 13000.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many major surgeries is the EMEDS +25 team able to perform in 72 hours?
a. 10.
b. 15.
c. 20.
d. 25.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which EMEDS increment provides advanced surgical and trauma support?
a. EMEDS intermediate.
b. EMEDS Basic.
c. EMEDS +10.
d. EMEDS +25.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What funcion does the UTC FFEP 5, EMEDS Surgical Augmentation team, provide?
a. 24 hr sick call.
b. 24 hr surgery capability.
c. 24 hr aeromdical evacuation support.
d. 24 hr medical logistics.
|
|
Definition
|
b. 24 hr surgery capability.
|
|
|
Term
| Which UTC contains enough supplies for 30 days, operating 24 hrs/day, 7 days a week?
a. FFCCU - 4 bed ICU.
b. FFEE 3 - EMEDS +25 equipment.
c. FFEP 4 - EMEDS +25 Bed personnel.
d. FFCCS - Critical care air transport team support package.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Air Reserve Command has a total of how many personnel assigned?
a. 74.
b. 740.
c. 7400.
d. 74000.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many Individual mobilization Augmentess (IMA) are assigned to the Air Reserve?
a. 12,000.
b. 120,000.
c. 1,200.
d. 172,222.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many Individual mobilization Augmentess (IMA) are assigned to the Air Reserve?
a. 12,000.
b. 120,000.
c. 1,200.
d. 172,222.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many Individual mobilization Augmentess (IMA) are assigned to the Air Reserve?
a. 12,000.
b. 120,000.
c. 1,200.
d. 172,222.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many Individual mobilization Augmentess (IMA) are assigned to the Air Reserve?
a. 12,000.
b. 120,000.
c. 1,200.
d. 172,222.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many AF Reserve units are located in the US?
a. 60.
b. 600.
c. 6,000.
d. 60,000.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On what type of schedule do the IMA fulfill their work commitment?
a. IMA's work only when their active duty counterpart is deployed.
b. IMA's need only to work 2 weeks in the summer.
c. IMA's work when they need the extra income.
d. IMA's work during the normal work week.
|
|
Definition
|
d. IMA's work during the normal work week.
|
|
|
Term
| The Air Force Career Field Manager has what skill level?
a. 4N000.
b. 4N031.
c. 4N051.
d. 4N071.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Senior NCO Board evaluates based on what concept?
a. The one with the most in grade is the first to pormote.
b. The higher the education, the first to promote.
c. Senior NCOs just look out for themselves.
d. The whole person concept.
|
|
Definition
|
d. The whole person concept.
|
|
|
Term
| What percentage of SMSgt makes up the enlisted ranks?
a. 1 percent.
b. 2 percent.
c. 3 percent.
d. 4 percent.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is the AFCFM selected?
a. Applications are taken and reviewed by the surgeon general.
b. All CMSgt are interviewed by the Air Force Chief Nurse and the chosen.
c. The current Career Field Manager interviews any SMSgt interested.
d. Must volunteer and have a broad breath of experience needed for the position.
|
|
Definition
|
d. Must volunteer and have a broad breath of experience needed for the position.
|
|
|
Term
| What conference can you attend where you will have input to the CFETP?
a. Utilization and Training Workshop.
b. Executive Leadership Symposium.
c. Medical Service Managers Conference.
d. SKT rewrite.
|
|
Definition
|
a. Utilization and Training Workshop.
|
|
|
Term
| The AFCFM utilizes what survey to determine jobs currently being performed by the career field?
a. Occupational Survey Report and Job Inventory Survey.
b. Health Evaluation Assessment Review and Enlisted Stratification Report.
c. Occupational Survey Report and Enlisted Strafification Report.
d. Health Evaluation Assessment Review and Job Inventory Survey.
|
|
Definition
|
a. Occupational Survey Report and Job Inventory Survey.
|
|
|
Term
| Who develops and maintains currency of the CFETP?
a. Group Superintendent.
b. Surgeion General.
c. Career Field Manager.
d. CDC Writer.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for forecasting unit supplies requirements?
a. The unit NCOIC.
b. Resource Management Office.
c. Integrated Health Administrator.
d. Medical Material.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who has the final approval authority for equipment requests?
a. Flight Chief.
b. Medical Equipment Management Office.
c. MTF Commander.
d. Resource Manager.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A list of supply items that are used routinely with in a duty section are found on what issuing report/list?
a. Pre-issue list.
b. Back order report.
c. Emergency issue report.
d. Shopping guide issue list
|
|
Definition
|
d. Shopping guide issue list.
|
|
|
Term
| The automatic restocking of primary supply storage is accomplished under what medical logistics system?
a. Internal distribution operation.
b. Emergency issues.
c. Supply issues.
d. Turn over operations
|
|
Definition
|
a. Internal distribution operation.
|
|
|
Term
| What type of logistics issue is accomplished for the request of a one-time order with no foreseeable demand for one year?
a. Emergency issue.
b. Turn-in issue.
c. Non-Routine issues.
d. Controlled medical issue.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What transaction must be completed before an item previously on back order shows up on the using activity issue list?
a. Back order release issue.
b. Pre-issue.
c. Turn-in-issue.
d. Shopping guide issue.
|
|
Definition
|
a. Back order release issue.
|
|
|
Term
| When there is a change in procedures or mission, how do you manage the equipment NOT in use?
a. Throw it away.
b. Give it to another MTF.
c. Contact MEMO for turn-in action.
d. Never get rid of it, you may need it in the future
|
|
Definition
|
c. Contact MEMO for turn-in action.
|
|
|
Term
| Who appoints property custodians?
a. Flight chief.
b. MTF commander.
c. NCOIC.
d. OIC
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When taking over as the custodian for a new supply account, what is the first task to be accomplished?
a. Contact MEMO so they can perform an inventory.
b. Contact the group superintendent to perform an inventory.
c. Ensure you involve the entire duty section to perform an inventory.
d. Ensure you and the losing custodian perform a thorough inventory.
|
|
Definition
|
d. Ensure you and the losing custodian perform a thorough inventory.
|
|
|
Term
| While performing an inventory of all equipment what else should be checked?
a. To see if there is a newer piece of equipment you can upgrade to.
b. The serviceablilty, maintenance & calibration of equipment.
c. All unserviceable itmes are not turned over until repair is complete.
d. The previous custodians have signed for the dame equipment.
|
|
Definition
|
b. The serviceablilty, maintenance & calibration of equipment
|
|
|
Term
| When can the AF Form 601 be destroyed?
a. When an item is correctly listed on the new custodial action list or custody receipt/locator list.
b. Whe the new custodian physically has the piece of equipment in place on the unit.
c. When the losing custodian has contacted MEMO and the gaining custodian agrees to accept the equipment.
d. When medical equipment and maintenance office has canceled the transaction
|
|
Definition
|
a. When an item is correctly listed on the new custodial action list or custody receipt/locator list.
|
|
|
Term
| When transferring equipment, who is required to initiate the AF Form 601 transfer request?
a. The gaining custodian.
b. The MTF Commander.
c. The Flight Chief.
d. The losing custodian.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which equipment management list indicates each specific item the custodian has signed to accept responsibility?
a. The custody receipt locator list.
b. The equipment support list.
c. Back order equipment list.
d. Equipment turn-in list.
|
|
Definition
|
a. The custody receipt locator list.
|
|
|
Term
| How many days does it normally take for an equipment turn-in or transfer to be processed?
a. 5 days.
b. 14 days.
c. 20 days.
d. 30 days.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What information does the last page of each customer support listing contain?
a. The dollar value summary and refundable/reimbursable dollar amount.
b. Refundable/reimbursable dollar amount and the stock number assigned to the item.
c. Refundable/reimbursable dollar amount, the dollar value of non-refundable/non-reimursable items and the stock number assigned to the item.
d. The dollar value summary, refundable/reimbursable dollar amount and the dollar valure of non-refundable/non-reimbusable items.
|
|
Definition
|
d. The dollar value summary, refundable/reimbursable dollar amount and the dollar valure of non-refundable/non-reimbusable items.
|
|
|
Term
| Approximately how much of the budget is spent on medical supply purchases?
a. 25 percent.
b. 50 percent.
c. 75 percent.
d. 90 percent.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Annual units budget will be reduced when the budget spending for the year has dropped by
a. 50 percent.
b. 25 percent.
c. 10 percent.
d. 5 percent.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of manpower?
a. A unit of meauring work.
b. A funded position of work.
c. Quantitative expression for manpower requirements.
d. The number of people contributing to or needed for a workforce
|
|
Definition
|
d. The number of people contributing to or needed for a workforce
|
|
|
Term
| One man-hour is equivalent to one person working at a normal pace for
a. 20 minutes.
b. 30 minutes.
c. 60 minutes.
d. 90 minutes.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The description of the workload, associated conditions, a grade & skill level tabel, approved variances and a processes analysis summary is the definition of
a. Manpower authorization
b. Manpower standard.
c. Manpower requirement.
d. Manpower unit measure.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Information found in this document provides a clear picture of the manning positions within an MTF.
a. Unit manpower document.
b. Manpower request document.
c. Missin support plan document.
d. Manpower requirement document.
|
|
Definition
|
a. Unit manpower document
|
|
|
Term
| What is th numeric code that identifies a particular task that may include an alpha prefix or suffix?
a. Air Force specialty code.
b. Program element code.
c. Position number.
d. Job Number.
|
|
Definition
|
a. Air Force specialty code.
|
|
|
Term
| Each position in the UMD is displayed over fiscal quarters. When does the fiscal year start and end?
a 1 June thru 30 May.
b. 1 Jan thru 31 Dec.
c. 1 Sept thru 30 Aug.
d. 1 Oct thru 30 Sept
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who authorizes a change to manpower requests?
a. Logistics officer.
b. MTF Commander.
c. Group Superintendent.
d. Resource Management office.
Who authorizes a change to manpower requests?
a. Logistics officer.
b. MTF Commander.
c. Group Superintendent.
d. Resource Management office.
|
|
Definition
|
d. Resource Management office
|
|
|
Term
| When requesting manning assistance, who pays for the individuals TDY expenses?
a. Individual's home unit.
b. Requesting unit.
c. MAJCOM funds.
d. HQ USAF TDY funds.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first element of the time management?
a. Identifying.
b. Prioritizing.
c. Organizing.
d. Planning.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The responsibility of reviewing and approving staff schedules lies with the
a. NCOIC/Nurse Manager.
b. Group superintendent.
c. Chief Nurse.
d. Flight Chief.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Another term for a 12 hour schedule
a.cylic
b.routine
c.extended
d.compressed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many hours a day do people on a conventional schedule work
a.12
b.10
c.8
d.6 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What tools do supervisors use to set clear expectations for subordinates?
a. Air Force instrucins and NCO Academy lessions.
b. Position descriptions and Performance Standards.
c. Operation instructions and Upgrade training requirements.
d. Job description and past EPRs.
|
|
Definition
|
b. Position descriptions and Performance Standards
|
|
|
Term
| How often are the unit position descriptions reviewd and updated?
a. Annually.
b. Bi-Monthly.
c. When there is a change in supervisors.
d. When the member request to see the position description.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To provide an outline of the funcions and activities required to achieve organizations objective and aid in the selection for the right person for a particular job, is the explanation for the
a. definition of a job description
b. purpose of a positin description.
c. purpose of a perfomance description.
d. definition of a position evaluation
|
|
Definition
|
b. purpose of a positin description
|
|
|
Term
| What tool can be used to identify potential training needs while maintaining continuity?
a. Upgrade training assessment.
b. On-the-job training.
c. Job performance evaluatin.
d. Position description.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The quality or quantity of a task is written in what document?
a. Job desription.
b. Performance desription.
c. Performance Standard.
d. Position desription
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which document provides outside agencies with the valuable information necessary for nursing personnel?
a. Position description.
b. Job duties.
c. EPR's or OPR's.
d. Each agencies guideline
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What document is used when evaluating if a member has met the standard?
a. Job standard.
b. Performance standard.
c. Position standard.
d. Career standard
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a perfomance can be evaluated by how much, how fast or how often, what performance criterion is used?
a. Qualitative.
b. Understood.
c. Quantitative.
d. Visible.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What factors does a performance standard evaluation report?
a. Observable factors.
b. Understood factors.
c. Always attainable factors.
d. Factors without reference
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Assessment of an individual's ability to perform a certain job is the definition for
a. position description.
b. qualification.
c. certification.
d. licensure.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum time for up-grade training to a 7-skill level?
a. 9 months.
b. 12 months.
c. 18 months.
d. 24 months.
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Definition
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Term
| An active duty SMSgt, 9-skill level, must keep what certification current if required by duty position?
a. CPR.
b. LVN.
c. NREMT-B.
d. IDMT.
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Definition
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Term
| What part of the CFETP is designed to provide formal course developers and field supervisors with information necessary to identify, plan and conduct training?
a. Pat I.
b. Part II.
c. Part III.
d. Part IV.
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Definition
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Term
| What document identifies tasks applicable to the member's duty section?
a. CFETP, Career field Education and training Plan.
b. JQS, Job Qualification Standard.
c. STS, Specialty Training Standard.
d. MTL, Master Task List
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Definition
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Term
| The six-part folder was implemented for mandatory use by the 4N0XX Career field in
a. 1996.
b. 1999.
c. 2000.
d. 2001.
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Definition
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Term
| Who approved the changes to the CFETP?
a. MTF commander.
b. USAF Surgeon General.
c. Education and Training Flight.
d. MAJCOM Functional Managers
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Definition
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Term
| AF Form 623b, individual training record is ALWAYS mandatory for which skill levels?
a. 3-, 5-, and 9-skill levels.
b. 3-, 5-, and 7-skill levels.
c. 5-, 7-, and 9-skill levels.
d. 7- and 9-skill levels
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Definition
|
b. 3-, 5-, and 7-skill levels
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Term
| AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record, is found in which part and section of the six-part folder?
a. Part I Sect A.
b. Part II Sect B.
c. Part III Sect B.
d. Part IV Sect A.
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Definition
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Term
| What are the only certification documents kept in the six-part folder?
a. LVN License and IDMT Certification.
b. NREMT-B Card and IDMT Certification.
c. NREMT-B Card and CPR Card.
d. LVN License and CPR Card.
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Definition
|
c. NREMT-B Card and CPR Card
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Term
| How are reengineering Primary Care services known as primary care optimization, and the need to recapture patient care from the private sector being accomplished through
a. TRICARE.
b. Managed Care.
c. Population Health Management.
d. Military Health Service Management
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Definition
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c. Population Health Management
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Term
| When enrolling in TRICARE Prime, what important decision is made?
a. How many appointments you will need in one year.
b. What type of specialty care you would like.
c. What facility you will chose to use for inpatient care.
d. Who your Primary Care Manager will be to care for your family.
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Definition
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d. Who your Primary Care Manager will be to care for your family
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Term
| An effective and efficient process for rapidly improving the health of the population affected by acute medical conditions and the related medical costs is the purpose of
a. population management.
b. demand management.
c. condition management.
d. occupational health management
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Definition
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Term
| When properly executed, condition management can provide
a. the opportunity to seek care by any provider available.
b. continuity in provider practices.
c. increase health care costs.
d. lower health care cost.
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Definition
|
b. continuity in provider practices
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Term
| Which team member takes on the responsibility of developing patient care plans everyone can follow?
a. Aerospace medical technician.
b. Administrative specialist.
c. Medical provider.
d. Nurse.
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Definition
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Term
| What other team member other than the provider is responsible for notifying patients of their results?
a. Aerospace medical technician.
b. Admisistrative specialist.
c. Superintendent.
d. Nurse.
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Definition
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Term
| What guidance authorizes the Aerospace Medical technician to order laboratory tests and x-rays for patients prior to seeing the nurse or provider?
a. Local protocols.
b. Scope of practice.
c. Operating instructions.
d. Air Force instructions
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Definition
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Term
| Which team member known as the information expert?
a. Health service management specialist.
b. Aerospace medical technician.
c. Medical provider.
d. Nurse.
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Definition
|
a. Health service management specialist
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Term
| In response to the patients demand for health care exceeding the current system capability, the Department of Defense introduced what program to continue providing the best health care.
a. Put prevention into practice programs.
b. Take care of yourself program.
c. Health care information lines.
d. Managed care program
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Definition
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Term
| What classifies health care financing for the poor?
a. TRICARE for life.
b. TRICARE standard.
c. Medicare.
d. Medicaid
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Definition
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Term
| Health Maintenace Organizations gained federal support for corporate practice in
a. 1970.
b. 1972.
c. 1973.
d. 1975
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Definition
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Term
| Seventy-five percent of all TRICARE patients care is received through the
a. specialty providers.
b. local emergency room.
c. local military treatment facility.
d. preferred provider organizations
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Definition
|
c. local military treatment facility
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Term
| What is one key success to the TRICARE program?
a. Integrating each branch of service to work in any military treatment facility.
b. To keep a limited number of patients enrolled in the program.
c. Effectively working military members in the local hospitals.
d. Through the effective use of information systems.
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Definition
|
d. Through the effective use of information systems
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Term
| One of the key freatures to TRICARE prime is
a. guaranteed access to timely Medical care.
b. guarantee to see the same provider all the time.
c. to be seen at the military hospital at any time.
d. to be able to walk in to be seen for an appointment
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Definition
|
a. guaranteed access to timely Medical care
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Term
| Which of the TRICARE options is a fee-for service?
a. TRICARE Prime.
b. TRICARE Standard.
c. TRICARE Extra.
d. TRICARE For-life
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Definition
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Term
| TRICARE Extra is limited in what area?
a. The providers participating in the TRICARE Extra network.
b. The amount of individuals who can enroll.
c. In the amount of the deductible allowed.
d. The availability nationwide
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Definition
|
a. The providers participating in the TRICARE Extra network
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Term
| TRICARE For Life was made available
a. 1 Sept 96.
b. 30 Oct 99.
c. 30 Sept 00.
d. 1 Oct 01.
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Definition
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