Term
How is doctrine applied?
a. Authoritive but not directive.
b. Not authorative but directive.
c. Directive but not authorative.
d. Directive and authorative.
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Definition
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a. a. Authoritive but not directive.
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Term
Which is of the following is the fprimary guide used by the Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish their mission?
a. AFDD 1, Basic Doctrine.
b. AFDD 1-1, Ledership and Force Development.
c. AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services.
d. AFDD 2-8, Command and Control. |
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Definition
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c. AFDD2-4.2, Health Services.
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Term
Why is Medical Doctrine necessary?
a. Recommends step by step actions.
b. Direct the action of commanders.
c. Guides commanders in using assets.
d. Changes faster than Air Force guidance. |
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Definition
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c. Guides commanders in using assets.
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Term
What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but its broad in its functional areas and operational environment?
a. Basic.
b. Tactical.
c. Operational.
d. Foundational. |
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Definition
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Term
Tactical Doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?
a. The Environmental Protection Agency because they establish rules and regulation such as fuel economy.
b. An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design vehicles with broad functions and capabilities in mind.
c. An automotive designer because they are historical data such as gas mileage to develop vehicle structure.
d. A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors. |
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Definition
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d. A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors.
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Term
Which of the following is not one of the the three foundational Doctrine statements airman should be familiar with?
a. Competency.
b. Use of Force.
c. Force Health Protection.
d. Roles and Responsiblities of the Air Force Medical Services. |
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Definition
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Term
While commanders hold ultimate responsibilty for morale, health, and wellness of their personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness?
a. Physicians.
b. Supervisors.
c. Every airman.
d. Health and wellness staff. |
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Definition
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Term
When professional knowledge, medical expertise, and technological know-how are combined, what specific Air Force Medical Foundation Doctrine is accomplished?
a. Competency.
b. Prevention.
c. Force Health Protection.
d. Roles and Responsibilities. |
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Definition
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Term
What figure in an Air Force Specialty Codes identifies career grouping?
a. First.
b. Second.
c. Third.
d. Fifth. |
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Definition
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Term
How many parts make up the Career Field Educaiton and Training Plan?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four. |
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Definition
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Term
In what part of Career Field Education and Training Plan will you locate the specialty Training Standard?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four. |
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Definition
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Term
Where would you find the specific outline of training goals, milestone and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area?
a. Individual Training Record.
b. Master Training Plan.
c. AF Form 1098.
d. Af Form 797. |
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Definition
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Term
Which is the following is identified by the Special Experience Identifier?
a. Aerospace Medical Technician.
b. Aeromedical Evacuation Technician.
c. Squadron Medical Element Technician.
d. Independent Duty Medical Technician. |
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Definition
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b. Aerospace Evacuation Technician.
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Term
Who is generally the first of a unit to have contact with the patients and performs a great deal of care under the guidance of a physician?
a. Nurse.
b. Administrative Technician.
c. Aerospace Medical Service Craftsman.
d. Aerospace Medical Service Journeyman. |
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Definition
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d. Aerospace Medical Service Journeyman.
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Term
When a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily focused on developing patient care skills, customer service skills and beginning to practice leadership and management skills, the trainee is in training to transition from the novice to the apprentice.
a. novice to the apprentice.
b. apprentice to the journeyman.
c. journeyman to the craftsman.
d craftman to the technician. |
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Definition
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b. apprentice to the journeyman.
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Term
Why is it important for the 4N0X1 to develop excellent customer service?
a. Prevent lawsuits.
b. Develop job satisfaction.
c. Ensure promotion below-the-zone.
d. Positively influence the patient's visit. |
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Definition
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d. Positively influence the patient's visit.
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Term
Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory?
a. Chief Nurse.
b. Command Chief.
c. Career Field Manager.
d. Medical Group Commander. |
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Definition
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Term
How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed?
a. Six months
b. Year.
c. Three years.
d. Five Years. |
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Definition
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Term
Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assesment Survey?
a. Commander.
b. Supervisor.
c. 3-level.
d. 5-level. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the purpose of documenting training?
a. Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness.
b. Document the number of persnnel and the hours they work.
c. Enable enlisted personnel to challenge a nursing board.
d. Establish patient care guidelines for civilian practice. |
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Definition
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a. Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness.
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Term
On what form would you document specific duty position training that is not listed on the Specialty Training Standard?
a. AF Form 803, Report of Task Evaluation.
b. AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Reccuring Training.
c. AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.
d. AF Form 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training, Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS) Product. |
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Definition
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c. AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.
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Term
When may the AETC form 156, Student Training Report be removed from the Individual Training Record?
a. When Airman arrives at the first duty station.
b. When the rank of Master Sergeant has been attained.
c. When the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level.
d. When the Airman is upgraded from the 5-skill level to the 7-skill level. |
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Definition
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c. When the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level.
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Term
Where would the National registry of Emergency Medical Technician certificate and the cardio pulmonary resuscitation card can be filed in the Individual Training Record?
a. Part 2, Section A.
b. Part 3, Section C.
c. Part 5, Section A.
d. Part 6, Section B. |
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Definition
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Term
What is a key point that should be considered when conducting in-service training?
a. Ensure there are refreshments available.
b. Ask how many people will be attending.
c. Evaluate learning through performance or tests.
d. Confirm wether the commander will be attending. |
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Definition
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c. Evaluate learning through performance or tests.
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Term
What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel?
a. UMD.
b. UMPR.
c. CFETP.
d. MEPRS. |
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Definition
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Term
How are activities grouped on the Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System?
a. Hours and section.
b. Type and section.
c. Hours and AFSC.
d. Type and AFSC. |
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Definition
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Term
What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center?
a. UMD.
b. ACR.
c. UPMR.
d. MEPRS. |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines the position in terms of function, organization, location, skill, grade and any other characteristic needed to clearly define the position?
a. Manpower Standard.
b. Manning Assistance.
c. Manpower Requirement.
d. Manpower Authorization. |
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Definition
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Term
Who approves or disapproves an authorization Change Request?
a. USAFMS.
b. MAJCOM.
c. Squadron commander.
d. Medical group commander. |
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Definition
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Term
Who is responsible for the control, care, use and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force?
a. Each individual.
b. Unit supervisor.
c. Group commander.
d. Account custodian.
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Definition
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Term
Who is the designated individual that is responsible to ensure adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, records are maintained and descipline of supply use?
a. Supervisors.
b. Commanders.
c. Property custodians.
d. Medical Equipment Management Office personnel. |
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Definition
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Term
By training new personnel on proper equipment what is the supervisor likely to prevent?
a. Equipment damage and injury to a patient.
b. Injury to a patient and buying new technology.
c. Reporting damage and buying new technology.
d. Reporting damage to the commander and logistics.
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Definition
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a. Equipment damage and injury to a patient.
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Term
What percentage of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error?
a. 20 percent.
b. 50 percent.
c. 70 percent.
d. 90 percent. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section?
a. Backorder report.
b. Activity issue/turn-in summary.
c. Custodial actions/custodian report listing.
d. Medical equipment review and authorization activity. |
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Definition
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b. Activity issue/turn-in summary.
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Term
What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed?
a. None. Once an item is ordered you must recieve it when it arrives.
b. Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO.
c. Tell MEMO you did not order the item and that you will not pay for it.
d. None. It is always better to have extra supplies on hand. |
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Definition
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. Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO
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Term
What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?
a. Cancel the order
b. Complain to the commander.
c. Wait another 15 days and then follow up.
d. Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order. |
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Definition
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d. Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order.
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Term
When does a new property custodian assumes responsibilty for items on the property equipment lists?
a. Upon signing the the custodian reciept/locator list.
b. When they completed Phase II supply training.
c. Upon being assigned as property custodian.
d. The first day of the new fiscal year.
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Definition
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a. Upon signing the the custodian reciept/locator list.
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Term
Before taking over an equipment account, the new equipment custodian must
a. recieve a briefing on responsibilities.
b. conduct a physical inventory of equipment.
c. document his/her experience for commander review.
d. review the files to establish when equipment was procured. |
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Definition
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b. conduct a physical inventory of equipment.
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Term
When may the AF Form 601 be destroyed?
a. When the new fiscal year begins.
b. When MEMO personnel give permission.
c. When a new property custodian take over.
d. When the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL. |
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Definition
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d. When the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL.
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Term
How often are equipment inspections usually conducted?
a. Daily.
b. Weekly.
c. Monthly.
d. Quarterly. |
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Definition
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Term
What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies with equipment?
a. Inspect, store, and remove.
b. Inspect, remove, and report.
c. Report, remove, and repair.
d. Remove, store, and repair. |
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Definition
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b. Inspect, remove, and report.
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Term
What is the primary source for recording equipment repair?
a. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt only.
b. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or Custodian actions/custodial report listing.
c. Activity issue/turn-in summary or backorder report.
d. Activity issue/turn-in summary only. |
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Definition
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b. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or Custodian actions/custodial report listing.
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Term
Who should contact to obtain the most common procedures and local policy for equipment problems concerns?
a. District sales and mainenance representative.
b. Base supply and equipment maintenance.
c. Biomedical equipment repair technician.
d. Original equipment manufacturer. |
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Definition
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c. Biomedical equipment repair technician.
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Term
Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?
a. Telling the truth.
b. Respect for others.
c. The duty to do no harm.
d. Being faithful to do good. |
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Definition
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c. The duty to do no harm.
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Term
Which of the following defines fidelity?
a. Fairness.
b. Telling the truth.
c. The duty to do no harm.
d. Acting in a responsible manner. |
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Definition
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d. Acting in a responsible manner.
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Term
What specifically defines the scope of practice of the 4N0X1 career field?
a. UMD.
b. STS.
c. MTF.
d. UPMR. |
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Definition
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Term
What are patient responsibilities designed to do?
a. Protect the patient.
b. Protect other patients.
c. Protect the patient and health care workers.
d. Protect other patients and health care workers. |
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Definition
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d. Protect other patients and health care workers.
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Term
Each medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following circumstances?
a. Administrative.
b. Chaperone.
c. Supervisory.
d. Appointing. |
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Definition
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Term
During which state of the grieving process is it most important to allow patient to do most of the talking?
a. Depression.
b. Acceptance.
c. Denial.
d. Anger. |
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Definition
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Term
Which form is used to inform the patient the purpose and uses of information collected in their medical record?
a. DD Form 2500.
b. DD Form 2005.
c. DD Form 93-975.
d. DD Form 93-552a. |
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Definition
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Term
Why is the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement - Health Care Record used when providing medical care?
a. Eliminates the need for a privacy act statement with each medical or dental document.
b. A required document that the patient must sign receiving treatment.
c. Prevents patient from filing a malpractice suit against the government.
d. Is a military substitute for a patient consent form. |
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Definition
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a. Eliminates the need for a privacy act statement with each medical or dental document.
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Term
Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act affect?
a. Patients handling their information.
b. Anyone handling patient information.
c. Medical staff handling patient information.
d. Administrating staff handling patient information. |
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Definition
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b. Anyone handling patient information.
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Term
For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, use
a. DOD Regulation 6025.18-R
b. AFJI 44-17
c. AFI 41-210
d. AFI 33-332. |
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Definition
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a. DOD Regulation 6025.18-R
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Term
Which phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of the patient and the health care worker and clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization?
a. Preinteractive.
b. Introductory.
c. Working.
d. Termination. |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is considered a barrier to effective communication?
a. Smiling.
b. Laughing.
c. Talking too much.
d. Identifying commonalities. |
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Definition
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Term
Who is considered the patient advocate?
a. Clinic representative only.
b. Officer-in-charge only.
c. Facility representative only.
d. Every staff member. |
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Definition
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Term
Who is an excellent resource to guide patient that is having difficulty understanding facility procedures or off-base referral services?
a. Family practice clinic.
b. Internal medicine clinic.
c. The MTF commander.
d. The patient advocate. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the purpose of the Patient Advocacy Program?
a. Reduce the number of lawsuits.
b. Provide an unbiased third party.
c. To determine the correct treatment plan.
d. To approve funding for off-base treatment. |
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Definition
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b. Provide an unbiased third party.
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Term
What is the purpose of customer-service surveys used in the medical treatment facility?
a. Collect patient demographic information.
b. Determine the health of the local population.
c. Aid manpower in determining allocation requests.
d. Collect feedback and determine ways to better serve the patients. |
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Definition
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d. Collect feedback and determine ways to better serve the patients.
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Term
Should technicians give medical advice over the telephone?
a. No; advice over the phone leads to inaccurate self treatment and is legally risky.
b. Yes; the problem may be simple and the patient could treat themselves.
c. No; only doctors can legally give medical advice over the telephone.
d. Yes; many medical problems do not require a doctor's examination. |
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Definition
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a. No; advice over the phone leads to inaccurate self treatment and is legally risky.
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Term
How should you handle a non-emergent telephone call for the provider if he/she is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold?
a. Take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity.
b. Inform the caller te doctor is busy and ask them to try to call back later.
c. Inform the caller the doctor is not taking calls during appointment hours.
d. Knock on the door and inform the physician he or she has a telephone call. |
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Definition
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a. Take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity.
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Term
Which of the following is an appropiate way to help relieve a patient's stress?
a. Ensure pictures of family are put away to decrease loneliness.
b. Remain honest and in control to decrease the patient's anxiety.
c. Take the patient to a room to wait 20-30 minutes before the provider.
d. Refrain from briefing policies on admission to decrease the patient's fear. |
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Definition
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b. Remain honest and in control to decrease the patient's anxiety.
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Term
Analysis of performance and health status is the responsiblity of which primary care management team member?
a. Provider.
b. Nurse.
c. 4N0.
d. 4A0. |
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Definition
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Term
What four components make up the PCM team?
a. Provider, nurse, medical technician and mental health technician.
b. Provider, nurse, medical technician, and health services management technician.
c. Nurse, medical technician, health services management technician, and health services management technician.
d. Nurse, medical technician, dental technician and mental health technician. |
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Definition
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b. Provider, nurse, medical technician, and health services management technician.
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Term
When a PCM is succesful in achieving the team goal, what must each member do?
a. No team members will work extra hours.
b. Be abke to do the job of every other team member.
c. Contribute at the highest level of their scope of practice.
d. Make sure all patients have appointments on the day requested. |
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Definition
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c. Contribute at the highest level of their scope of practice.
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Term
It is important for a health care team to work in harmony to ensure
a. each team member enjoys going to work each day.
b. each team member can take leave on the requested days.
c. the best care is provided to our customers.
d. the team learns new medical technology. |
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Definition
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c. the best care is provided to our customers.
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Term
Which one of the following is not a habit of a succesful PCM team?
a. Being proactive.
b. Managing a panel.
c. Communicating.
d. Being punctual. |
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Definition
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Term
Who is ultimately responsible for establishing and individual's eligibility for medical care in the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System?
a. MTF.
b. PCM.
c. MPF.
d. MHS. |
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Definition
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Term
At what age are children required to have their own ID cards?
a. Eight.
b. Nine.
c. Ten.
d. Eleven. |
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Definition
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Term
When patients requests medical care but has questionable eligibility, you should
a. make them an appointment and worry about the details later.
b. tell the patients that you will not see them until they can prove eligibility.
c. tell the patient to have a seat and have them seen on a space available basis.
d. have a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment. |
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Definition
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d. have a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment.
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Term
If a patient has an emergency and you do not know if they are eligibilty for care, you should
a. provide the patient care then determine elibility.
b. determine eligibilty first and provide treatment only if they are eligible.
c. inform the patient that they will be billed for the visit and ensure they agree to pay.
d. have the patient wait and ask a provider to see them at the end of scheduled patients. |
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Definition
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a. provide the patient care then determine elibility.
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Term
Patients treated without initial proof of eligibilty must sign a statement saying that they will provide eligibilty documentation within what time frame?
a. 15 days.
b. 30 days.
c. 45 days.
d. 60 days. |
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Definition
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Term
When confirming a patient's information, which of the following information systems would you rely on to capture, edit and maintain sponsor/family demographics?
a. AHLTA.
b. DEERS.
c. CHCS.
d. MHS. |
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Definition
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Term
Enrollment information from DEERS is sent to the MTF at least
a. weekly.
b. monthly.
c. quarterly.
d. annually. |
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Definition
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Term
If you are working in CHCS, what function would not be available for you to use?
a. Appointment scheduling.
b. Results reporting.
c. Entry of lab requests.
d. Outpatient coding data. |
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Definition
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d. Outpatient coding data.
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Term
If you are trying to determine the deploying status of a unit, what sytem should you use that will support Force Health Protection, Population Health, and MHS Optimization?
a. CHCS.
b. AHLTA.
c. DEERS.
d. DMLS. |
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Definition
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Term
When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient's treatment?
a. No care or treatment was accomplished.
b. There is no follow up care required.
c. There were no complications.
d. The outcome was positive. |
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Definition
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a. No care or treatment was accomplished.
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Term
Before managed care, who shuoldered the responsibility for follow-up care?
a. Provider.
b. Nurse.
c. Patient.
d. Aerospace Medical Service Technician. |
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Definition
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Term
The ICD-9 is divided into how many sections?
a. Three.
b. Four.
c. Five.
d. Six. |
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Definition
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Term
What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in ICD-9?
a. not elsewhere classified.
b. next event cancelled.
c. not elsewhere coded.
d. new event code. |
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Definition
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a. not elsewhere classified.
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