Which subsystem process does IMDS automate?

A. aircraft status

B. aircraft location

C. aircrew debriefing

D. personnel inprocessing

What system best describes the operating concept of IMDS?

A. user-oriented

B. event-oriented

C. database-centered

D. information-centered

The DBM must inform users when a batch program is scheduled to be run

A. very long

B. int he middle of the day

C. by the defense enterprise computing center

D. requiring the IMDS online processing to be down.

When monitoring computer maintenance as a DBM, you efforts must be directed toward

A. requesting hardware and software

B. updating the capabilities on an as needed basis

C. the analysis of unscheduled and scheduled downtime

D. technical maintenance of IMDS database equipment.

Make sure your notification checklist includes the

A. last result of a database verify

B. last result of a delete history run

C. user IDs of each user to be notified

D. address ad phone number of each user to be notified.

Which utility program requires that the database be down when you run this program?

A. NDA500

B. database editor

C. interactive query utility

D. data management utility verifies

How many days of history doew program NFS760 retain on the database?

A. 92

B. 102

C. no more than 92

D. no more than 102

Which program is used to verify program NFS760 runs each week?

A. NFS760

B. NFS910

C. NFSO40

D. NFSRU0

How many options are there for program NFS7U0?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

When contacted by supply, which screen does the DBM run for an annual SRD reconcilliation?

A. 126

B. 349

C. 730

D. 899

Which is an option for off-line processing?

A. creating input text files

B. running a database save

C. updating the audit trail tape

D. memorizing every transaction made

The 2 basic procedures for data recovery are processing

A. pseudo remote and off-line

B. manual remote and off-line

C. pseudo remote and manual remote

D. manual remote and straight-line input

Implement pseudo processing when

A. IMDS will not come back on-line

B. IMDS is running slow in TIP mode

C. the system is unavailable for only a short period of time

D. the system is unavailable for a long time

What is the reason for establishing an alternate IMDS processing site?

A. uninterrupted batch processing

B. continuous inprocessing of new IMDS users

C. uninterrupted database management operation

D. continuous reporting of reliability and maintainability information system reportable JDD

What document is used by the FAS to communicate with field agencies?

A. SAN

B. HUM

C. printed newsletter

D. system release

What does the 754th ELSG send out to the field right away if a software problem is discovered but a SAN might be delayed?

A.  wireless email

B. instant text message

C. HUM

D. FAX

For which situation may the user submit an AF IMT 3215, C4 systems requirements document regarding IMDS?

A. add new capabilities to imds

B. change username and pw in IMDS

C. report a problem while using an IMDS screen

D. correct a data entered in error on an IMDS screen

A DIREP in IMDS is used when

A. a user has difficulty using IMDS

B. IMDS is not operating as designed

C. the DBM cannot fix an IMDS problem

D. a user wants to make changes to an IMDS program

a DIREP is submitted when the

A. IMDS functional manager cannot provide a workaround for the problem

B. field assistance branch receives the problem for the database manager.

C. DBM calls the FAS to submit one

D. DECC approves the submission

The responsibility for ICI via screen #891 lies with

A. host DBM

B. system monitor

C. unit level DBM

D. functional users

Which REMIS interface program reschedules REMIS inventory reconciliations?

A. REMIS table load

B. REMIS error inquiry

C. REMIS error correction menu

D. DDN address record.

Which REMIS interface program provides a list of all files which have been received from or transmitted to REMIS within the last 72 hours?

A. DDN address record

B. table validation problem reporting

C. debriefing MOA builder

D. REMIS error inquiry

Which option on the G081 session selection menu brings up the G081 TSO menu?

A. ATAIMTI1 TDSC-IMSC Development

B. IMSA CAMS production

C. IMSB CAMS test

D. ATATS TSO

In G081, when you see three * in a row, it means you need to press

A. enter to logoff G081

B. escape to continue

C. enter to continue

D. F1 to continue

Which option would you select on the TSO primary option menu in order to start the G081 User ID maintenance Facility?

A. 6 command

B. S security

C. 3 utilities

D. SD SDSF

In addition to creating a new G081 User ID maintenance facility, which program must the G081 manager process in order to grant access to G081?

A. F9057, Terminal/ User Master Record update

B. F9077A, 8033/ User Master Record update

C. F9007, Work Center update

D. F0045, Shop updates

Which option of the VTAM printing system VMCF F printer selection list is used to access a particular printer's command page?

A. Option H

B. Option Q

C. Option C

D. Option D

As the result of an aircraft mishap, an IMDS database save tape expiration date is changed to

A. 14 days

B. 1 month

C. 6 months

D. 1 year

What must you immediately do in G081 if there is an aircraft mishap?

A. run history report

B. run a database save

C. secure the database

D. secure the aircraft records

What type(s) of database system(s) compose the IMDS central database?

A. nnetwork only

B. relational only

C. network and relational

D. network and non-networked

The most distinguishing characteristic of relational query language, like SQL, is

A. its non-procedural language

B. its the oldest retrieval laguage

C. the use of complex data language

D. the use of an exact procedural language

Within the RDMS section of the CDB, reference tables that include equipment and aircraft are provided by

A. general-purpose records

B. transactional data from ELC

C. traditional legacy CAMS data

D. data from REMIS

What does the schema of database describe?

A. the user of the database

B. the location of the database

C. physical relationships between every type of area

D. physical layut of records and logical relationships between records.

Whish element under the area section of IMDS schema indicats how much space is left over?

A. load

B. allocate

C. area size

D. area maps

How many base level areas does the ELC database have?

A. 10

B. 11

C. 12

D. 13

Which clause in the record section of IMDS schema defines the areas where the records can be found?

A. record code

B. record name

C. data identifier

D. location mode

Record placement in the IMDS database depneds on association, distribution, and

A. data

B. volatility

C. page size

D. relationship

Within IMDS, a direct type of record has its database key assigned and controlled by the

A. Host DBM

B. Combat Systems Support Help Desk

C. MAJCOM DBM

D. ELSG Database admin

Which type of records comprise a majority of the IMDS database?

A. special

B. via set

C. placement

D. relationship

You can access via set records normally through

A. an entry point record and an owner record

B. key data items in the record

C. a database pointer

D. a database key

What types of records are defined when a hierarchial relationship is established by sets?

A. via set

B. relationship

C. CALC and direct

D. owner and member

Which type of linkage would be present when the owner record points to the first memeber record, the first member record points to the next member, and the last member points back to the owner?

A. prior

B. relationship

C. one-way circular

D. two-way circular

What clause in the set section determines the logical placement of a new member record added to a set?

A. code

B. mode

C. order

D. set selection

Which element of the database structure is not shown by the IMDS DMS schematic?

A. set

B. area

C. page

D. record

When reading an IMDS DMS schematic, an off-page connector from another area is identified by an arrow pointing

A.to a circled number from a record

B. from a circled number to a record

C. to a boxed number from a record

D. from a boxed number from a record

When viewing the rectangle box on an IMDS schematic, the area consisting of one schematic page is denoted by

A. a whole number

B. a first digit of the set number

C. the first digit of the area code

D. the TIP number

What is the first step in building an effective data model?

A. schema design

B. adding key attributes to the model

C. planning and requirements analysis

D. adding non-key attributes to the model

A column or combination of columns in a relational table that uniquely identifies a row is called a

A. key

B. null

C. index

D. record

In a relational database,

A. two tables can have exactly the same name within the same database

B. the column selected as the primary key field may not be null

C. each row can have more than one value for each column

D. a row can be duplicated in a table

What type of key establishes the relationship with records in one table to records in another table?

A. table key

B. foreign key

C. primary key

D. relational key

Which type of data relationship is represented when each row in a table is elated to a single row in another table?

A. many-to-many

B. one-to-many

C. one-to-one

D. one-to-two

Which of the following data relationships cannot be represented in a relational database?

A. one-to-one

B. three-to-one

C. one-to-many

D. many-to-many

A condition of a normalized table is for non-key items to be fully

A. dependent on the table's primary key

B. independent of the table's primary key

C. dependent on the table's position in the database

D. independent on the tables position in the database

To normailize a database to first normal form, which of the following must be eliminated from a table?

A. repeating groups of data

B.  related non-key items

C. related key items

D. null values

In a relational table, data in may change frequently within a

A. key field

B. non-key field

C. data entry field

D. table identification field

Which table is part of the RDMS history tables?

A. portal

B. reference

C. system support

D. status and inventory

Which table in thee RDMS holds data supplied by REMIS?

A. portal

B. history

C. reference

D. system support

In what order are the tables arranged within the RDMS schema?

A. chronological

B. alphabetical

C. numerical

D. topical

In RDMS schema diagram, the tables in an area are drawn in

A. boxes

B. circles

C. oblong

D. triangles

A profile is a list of TRIC that allows access to certain IMDS programs based on the user's

A. rank

B. role

C. seniority

D. capability

The IMDS master profile Generic_user_profile contains

A. all the TRIC in IMDS

B. the basic TRICs for the maintenance analysts only

C. all the ELC in IMDS

D. the basic TRICs that all usesrs need

Managing the RDMS tables is the responsibility of the

A. unit DBM

B. ELC DBM

C. AEF user

D. CDB DBA

what are the two types of user ID in the IMDS?

A. DBA and DBM

B. ELC and CDB

C. TIP and DEMAND

D. online and background

The adding or subtracting of a TRIC with its respective options and sub-options out of a loaded profile on an individual is known as

A. ELCI

B. DELTA

C. file update

D. allowed ELC

Up to how many User IDs can the ELC profile manager by profile id program load to a single master profile?

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

What program can you use to display green screen authorizations?

A. delta table report

B. device maintenance

C. master profile report

D. master profile manager

What are the two modes of operation for SIMAN?

A. Batch and Tip

B. screen and demand

C. demand and batch

D. screen and batch

What command in SIMAN is used to update screens in screen mode?

A. OMIT

B. APPLY

C. COMMIT

D. REFRESH

What type of IMDS database errors cannot be created by TIP users?

A. data

B. pointer

C. logical

D. structural

Which rollback error code normally indicates an aborted save from the night before?

A. 99

B. 02

C. 14

D. 03

Which database verify checks for proper placement of random records throughout a database?

A. IPF

B. SET

C. AREA

D. CALC

Which input is required to obtain a record printout of a random access locator record when using the program random access locator (LAF)?

A. transaction identification code key

B. database key

C. control key

D. CALC key

Which of the following items is the FIQ program not able to list?

A. WUC

B. used event sequence numbers

C. unused event sequence numbers

D. RCS dates

How many methods of search are available through DBLOOK?

A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1 

The UDSMON provides for an integrated software environment for control and maintenance of

A. the DMU processor

B. executive system software

C. AF data systems

D. user databases

What option of the UDSMON provides the current record, DBK, and command being performed?

A. DMR file usage

B. DMR status of individual run

C. file usage information

D. status of all runs

what kind of problems does the IMDS/REMIS RIS program identify and correct?

A. CAM and REMIS interface

B. all IMDS and REMIS issues

C. C-E status and inventory

D. IMDS maintenance

The QLP statement ESH-ENG-FLY-HRS= 010000 represents

A. a boolean expression

B. an operand expression

C. a relational expression

D. a conditional qualifying expression

Which words in QLP syntax skeleton are mandatory if they are underlined?

A. proper

B. generic

C. uppercase

D. lowercase

What character do you use at the end of QLP statement when you want to continue the command to the next line?

A. ,

B. ...

C. *

D. ;

QLP can be initialized online only in the

A. EDIT mode

B. ECHO mode

C. DEMAND mode

D. TIP mode

Which QLP sign-off procedure purges all reports that were not saved by use of the SAVE command?

A. $$CLOSE

B. @@TERM

C. @FIN

D. EXIT

Which QLP clause allows you to specify only portions of a data item as the selection criteria?

A. LIST

B. SORT

C. MASK

D. LIST IN COLUMN

With what clause does the QLP MACRO definition syntax terminate?

A. MACRO-END

B. END-MACRO

C. MACRO-EXIT

D. EXIT-MACRO

QLP procedures are invoked by the command

A. RUN

B. CALL

C. BEGIN

D. GENERATE

when printing a QLP output, what command do you use to activate a side-by printer?

A. PRNT

B. PRINT

C. @PRNT

D. @@PRNT

The entry required to print a QLP output to an enterprise output manager printer with a device ID of DP0069 is the command OUTPUT TO

A. PRINT DP0069

B. DEVICE DP0069

C. SIDE-BY DP0069

D. ORIGINATOR DP0069

The QLP clause that defines the explicit attributes of a derived name is

A. DEFAULT PICTURE

B. CONTROLS

C. DECLARE

D. REPORT

The QLP command that allows the user to specify an output destination is

A. PAGE

B. LINE

C. DENSITY

D. GENERATE

An edited QLP reporot is copied into the temporary savefile if

A. the user does not specify DETAIL or SUMMARY

B. it was stored in the user or permanent savefile

C. the copy clause is present

D. it is stored in an external file

Which QLP savefile command is used to list all or specific entities?

A. SAVE

B. COPY

C. PRINT

D. PURGE

In SQL, what clause completes the SELECT statement?

A. ALL

B. FROM

C. WHERE

D. GROUP BY

In SQL, what do you normally enter in the select list of a SELECT statement?

A. row names

B. table names

C. column names

D. boolean expressions

In SQL, what special operator allows you to use wild card characters in your condition criteria?

A. in

B. like

C. where

D. between

If used on a QLP report, on what line do you enter the clause FOR TRANSFER?

A. DETAIL

B. INVOKE

C. SELECT

D. REPORT

When entering SELECT statements in IPF, what must precede the SELECT statement?

A. an asterisk

B. WHERE

C. SQL

D. SRD

What command is used to disconnect from the RDMS-2200 and end the IPF SQL session?

A. SQL FIN

B. SQL QUIT

C. End IPF SQL

D. SQL END THREAD

Which FOCUS command is used to create a "logical link" between two databases?

A. BY command

B. JOIN command

C. TABLE FILE command

D. DEFINE LINK command

Which G081 program is used to access, move, update, and change FOCUS reports?

A. F9058

B. F9050

C. F9038

D. F9029

What option is entered in the ACT field of program F9029 to create a new FOCUS report?

A. A, ADD

B. S, SAVE

C. M, MOVE

D. U, UPDATE