Term
| Behavior, vision, emotion, learning, logic are all functions of what part of the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Coordination, balance, reflexes are all functions of what part of the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mental status and body function are all functions of what part of the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Endocrine function, connects cerebrum and brainstem are all functions of what part of the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| C1-T2 of the spinal cord are responsible for what reflexes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T3-L3 of the spinal cord are repsonsible for what reflexes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| L4-S3 of the spinal cord are repsonsible for what reflexes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| S1-S3 of the spinal cord are repsonsible for what reflexes? |
|
Definition
| Sciatic nerve and perineum |
|
|
Term
| The vestibular system (inner ear) is responsible for what? |
|
Definition
| Balance and Proprioception (awarness of body) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Optic- Vision, PLR, Balance-input |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Oculmotor- eye movement, PLR |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Facial- face muscles, taste |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Vestibulocochlear- hearing, balance |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Glossopharyngeal- Gag, swallowing |
|
|
Term
| What is cranial nerve 10? |
|
Definition
| Vagus- gag, swallowing, regurge |
|
|
Term
| What is cranial nerve 11? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is cranial nerve 12? |
|
Definition
| Hypoglossal- tongue movement |
|
|
Term
| Why is the history of a neurologic patient important? |
|
Definition
| To localize the lesion and identify and prognose disease |
|
|
Term
| Name some common diagnostic test: |
|
Definition
| Radiograph,Blood work, CSF tap, MRI, CT scan |
|
|
Term
| What are two types of seizures? |
|
Definition
Generealized-Grand Mal
Partial-Petit Mal |
|
|
Term
| What are the three stages of a seizure? |
|
Definition
- Pre-ictal
- Ictal
- Post-ictal
|
|
|
Term
True or False
Most seizures last less then 5 minutes and can occur continuously or in clusters. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This breed is the most common to be genetically predisposed to epilepsy? |
|
Definition
German Shepherds
Note: Collies and Border Collies are other breeds |
|
|
Term
| No cause is identified for these multiple seizures and commonly occur in animals 1-3 years of age. This may be induced by excitement or estrus cycle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False
Seizures are generally not an emergency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To treat a seizure what medication would you use? |
|
Definition
Phenobarbital or Potassium Bromide (KBR)
Remember: Phenobarbital is hepatotoxic |
|
|
Term
| This is the most common idiopathic disease diagnosed by rule out of tumor and has symptoms like balance problems that are gone within 48 hours. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Associated with panleukopenia in kittens when exposed to utero the disease has no treatment other than supportive care. |
|
Definition
| Cerebellar Hypoplasia (Congenital Disease) |
|
|
Term
| Rare disease of fluid acccumulation around the brain diagnosed by MRI seen in small brachycephalic dogs and has no treatment. |
|
Definition
| Hydrocephalus (Congenital Disease) |
|
|
Term
| A plug in a vessel that obstructs circulation and is very dependent on location and cause infarction. |
|
Definition
Embolus (Vascular Disease)
Note: Usually a thrombus (a fibrin clot) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common type of brain tumor in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cognitive dysfunction (Old dog dementia) can be treated with: |
|
Definition
- Anipryl
- Selegiline
- Monoamine oxidase B inhibitor
- Hills b/d diet (High doses of antioxidants)
|
|
|
Term
| Inflammation of the brain or the covering of the brain with central nervous system signs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A highly contagious viral disease becoming more uncommon due to vaccination. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Malformation or misarticulation that puts pressure on the spinal cord which causes ataxia treatment requires surgical alignment. This is common in large dogs (great dane and doberman) and horses. |
|
Definition
| Wobbler (Spinal Cord Disease) |
|
|
Term
| Infection in the vertebrae (bacterial or fungal) with a poor prognosis and is treated mainly with supportive care. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common spinal disease in small animals with two types acute (Dachshund) and chronic which is treatment dependent by grade and is said that rest is the most important for recovery. |
|
Definition
IVDD
Intervertebral Disk Disease |
|
|
Term
| Neurolgical patients require more of this than the average patient: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Peripheral Nerve dysfunction is usually cause by: |
|
Definition
Trauma
Note: Tumors are also common |
|
|
Term
| A zoonotic viral disease that affects all warm blooded animals world wide is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The incubation period for rabies is: |
|
Definition
| 3-8 weeks and can be as long as 6 months |
|
|
Term
| What is the main form of transmission for rabies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False
There is a treatment for rabies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Euthanasia is the most common option for rabies victims and they are determined positive with rabies by this: |
|
Definition
| Cutting off the head (for a fresh sample) and sending it to a lab for a direct flourescent antibody test |
|
|
Term
| Unvaccinated bittee must be quarantined for how long? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Between what ages does a bitch go through her first heat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Between what ages does a queen go through her first heat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often will bitches cycle approximately between each heat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A bitch is presented with a swollen vulva, bloody discharge, low progesterone(high estrogen), but will not stand for the male. A cytology reveals blood and non-cornified. What stage of the strus cycle is she in? |
|
Definition
Proestrus
"Preparation Phase" |
|
|
Term
| A bitch is presented with high progesterobe and estrogen peaks and will stand for the male. Lab findings are cornified or squamous. What stage of the estrous cycle is she in? |
|
Definition
Estrous
"Heat"
Remember: LH from pituitary cause ovulation at end |
|
|
Term
| This stage of estrus is not clinically recognizable and often left out in many textbooks: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Begins 6 days after ovulation lasting for 57 days if a bitch becomes pregnant: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lasts for 2-5 months this is estrus stage is known as the period of reproductive rest: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Queens are seasonally polyestrus how long does there entire cycle last before it reoccurs 2-6 weeks later until mating ot spaying |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A juvenile puppy is presented with vaginal inflammation and has vulvar discharge. A urinalysis is run and comes up normal. What can it be? |
|
Definition
Vaginitis
Tx: Resolves on own or Systemic antibiotic therapy |
|
|
Term
| A 6 year old female lab comes into the clinic with an enlarged abdomen and a history of pu/pd. With further examination you notice vulvar discharge and that it is 45 days after her last estrous cycle. What can she possible have wtong with her? |
|
Definition
Pyometra
Remember: You want to spay the bitch because this is known to reoccur |
|
|
Term
| A intake bitch is lactating and has weight gain but with an x-ray presents no puppies what is this called? |
|
Definition
| Pseudopregnancy or Pseudocyesis (False pregnancy) |
|
|
Term
| Prevention of mammary tumors is best prevented if spayed when? |
|
Definition
| Before the first estrous cycle |
|
|
Term
| This can be caused by a bad spay and is more common in cats then in dogs and is best removed during there so called "heat" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Zoonotic bacterial infection that affects female and males and is difficult to cure euthanasia is the bst option: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| These two reproductive female diseases are rare: |
|
Definition
- Ovarian Tumors
- Transmissible Veneral Tumors
|
|
|
Term
| What pregnancy diagnosis can be done the earliest at less than 28 days? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What occur during the first stage of whelping? |
|
Definition
- Drop in temperature
- Not eating, +/- vomiting
- Restlessness
- Nesting
- Contractions
- Lasts up to 36 hours, 6- 12 average
|
|
|
Term
| What stage is the placenta evacuated from the birth canal? |
|
Definition
Stage 3
Remember: Stage 2 the puppy is born |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum time that can elapse between each puppy being born? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Queening is similar to dogs and whelping how ever is it true or false that they my take from 4to 36 hours to deliver kittens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A green vaginal discharge develops parturition more than an hour has elapsed between births what should be done? |
|
Definition
| Emergency Cesarean Section |
|
|
Term
| What is not recommmended for neonatal resuscitation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many days should a neonate be before a declaw removal and tail docking? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Acending infection of the uterus of dogs and cats which occurs after parturition with symptoms of faul vulvar discharge and lack of maternal behavior. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Serious illness associated with low calcium levels 2 to4 weeks after whelping this is considered an emergency and treatment should be prompt |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment of antibiotics, warm compresses and NSAIDs all can help releave: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Placental attachment sites do not regress normally with brown discharge greater than 12 weeks |
|
Definition
SIPS
(Subinvolution of Placental Sites) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common reproductive problems in males? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What helps with Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy? |
|
Definition
| Neuter or Estrogen Therapy |
|
|
Term
| Swelling of the penis that is an emergency due to possible lack of circulation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This is a congenital problem more common in canines that occurs when the remnant fetal tissue is still intact |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inflammation of mucosal linign to prepuce and is considered a benign hygenial problem and is commonly treated with proper hygiene or a neuter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diseases of the musculoskeletal system are often caused by acute or chronic ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Serve as as support for the animals body, protection of delicate and vital organs, leverage and storage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Main function is to aid in movement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Connect bones of the joint to each other |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fibrous conecive tissue that connect skeletal muscles to bones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Main function is movement or to fix a bone in place because they can be immovable, slightly or freely moveable. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Occurs due to overuse or over stretching |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain (limping), +/- heat and swelling are symptoms of a strain or sprain and is commonly diagnosed by physcial examination. What treatment can be recommended? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hips are the most common affected and is caused by joint instability resulting in excess wear and can be treated with body management(slentrol(weight loss drug option)), NSAIDS, Nutraceuticals (Glucosamine),Tramadol and surgery: |
|
Definition
| Degenerative Joint Disease (arthritis) |
|
|
Term
| Name two types of surgery that can be used to treat arthritis in the hip. |
|
Definition
- Femoral Head Ostectomy
- Total Hip Replacement
|
|
|
Term
| Most common disease that is treatable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Caused by the laxity in the coxofemoral joint with an end result of DJD which can be prevented with responsible breeding, weight vontrol and pelvic osteotomy: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Certification done in animlas 2 years or older and only needs 1 view of the hip joints |
|
Definition
Orthopedic Foundation for Animals
(OFA) |
|
|
Term
| Certification that requires sedation and 3 views of the hip joints to acquire quantitative measurements of joint laxity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Seen in young 3-18 months large breed dogs and horses commonly seen in the shoulder which is due to failure of endochondral ossification resulting in cartilage thickening and flap formation "joint mouse". |
|
Definition
| Ostechondritis Dissecans (OCD) |
|
|
Term
| Form of OCD seen in German Shepherd dogs where the anconeal process fails to fuse to the ulna during growth |
|
Definition
Elbow-United Anconeal Process
Note: Hereditary |
|
|
Term
| This is rare in cats and can be acute or chronic and occurs during hyperextension and injury to this area is the most common of acute hind limb lameness in the lage breed dog |
|
Definition
| Cranial (Anterior) Cruciate Ligament Rupture-CCL/ACL injury |
|
|
Term
| The main goal in a CCL/ACL injur surgery is to: |
|
Definition
| Stabilize the joint and minimize DJD |
|
|
Term
| This can medial or lateral medial being more common and occurs more frequently in small breed dogs and nothing is usually done fore thes patiets as it resolves on its own |
|
Definition
| Stifle- Patellar Luxation |
|
|
Term
| This is the most common bone tumor in dogs and cats 85-90% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| "Growing Pain" in young medium to large breed dogs and the cause is unknwn and usually affects the long bones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Common condition in cats and is not clinically significant owners should make sure to trim nails regularly |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the more common types of myopathies |
|
Definition
- Inflammatory
- Immune-mediated
- Acquired
|
|
|
Term
| It is more common to see this myopathy in cats secondary to hypokalemia |
|
Definition
| Acquired- Feline Polymypathy |
|
|
Term
| Inflammation of multiple muscles in dogs and cats, polymyositis is an example of: |
|
Definition
| Immune-mediated myopathies |
|
|
Term
| Neuromuscular disorder that can occur in any age in dogs and is rare in cats the cause either congenital or acquired |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the main functions of the heart and lungs? |
|
Definition
- Deliver oxygen to the heart
- Remove CO2 from the body
|
|
|
Term
| What are the driving forces that controls heart and respiratory rates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are common symptoms for cardiac disease? |
|
Definition
- Exercise intolerance
- Cough
- Dyspnea
- Weakness
- Syncope
- Blue mucous membranes
|
|
|
Term
| What are some causes of cardiac disease? |
|
Definition
- Vascular (Blood clots or emboli)
- Idiopathic
- Trauma
- Auto-immune (rare)
- Metabolic diseases (Hyperthyroidism, hypertension (renal disease))
- Infectious disease
- Neoplasia (Hemangiosarcoma)
- Developmental (Congenital/enetic-most common)
- Diet (Taurine deficiency)
|
|
|
Term
| Which cardiac disease diagnosis is the most valued? |
|
Definition
| Ultrasound (echocardiogram) |
|
|
Term
| What are the normal heart rate for dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
Dogs: 60-180 bpm
Cats- 140-220 bpm |
|
|
Term
| What are the normal ranges for respiration in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
Dog: 10-30 rpm
Cats: 24-42 rpm |
|
|
Term
| When referring to the lung sound "wheezes" this commonly indicates: |
|
Definition
| Inflammation, narrowing of airways (athmatic) |
|
|
Term
| When referring to the lung sound "Crackles" this commonly indicates: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When hearing a muffled lung sound you presume: |
|
Definition
| Fluid or mass accumulation |
|
|
Term
| Murmur's a graded on a scale of: |
|
Definition
I-VI
(Softest to Loudest) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common location and timing for a murmur? |
|
Definition
| Left side; systolic(contraction) |
|
|
Term
| Seen in a grade 5 or 6 this is a vibration from the murmur: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which grade murmur is heard with a stethoscope off the chest and has a palpable thrill? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This form of monitoing records ECG continuously and is used as a diagnostic tool. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This form of cardiac disease is less common and s treated with nitroglycerin paste, furosemide and keeping the animal quiet. Remember, oxygen never hurts. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chronic cardiac disease treatment can include: |
|
Definition
- Diet- taurine as needed, low sodium diets
- Furosemide or spironolactone
- Enalapril
- Digoxin
- Pimobendin
- Antiarrhythmic drugs prn
- Surgery- ballons, stents, mesh
- Blood Pressure medication
- Rest
- Thoracocentesis or abdominocentesis
- Antibiotics
|
|
|
Term
| This drug slows the heart rate, increases contractility and has a narrow margin of safety which is why we want to check levels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A new drug that increases contractility, vasodilation and is safer than digoxin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An ACE inhibtor that is a vasodilator and is given daily or twice a day for chronic cardiac disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This drug decreases the afterload of the heart so it does not have to pump as hard. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This is the most common failure and signs relate to fluid build up in respiratory system. Examples: Pulmonary edema, cough, dyspnea. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This failure has signs related to fluid build up in the body like ascites or pitting edema. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tapered head with coiling motion and straight tail. Commonly confused with reconditum. |
|
Definition
Heartworm Disease
Aka: Dirofilaria immitis |
|
|
Term
| Adult heartworm reside mainly in these sights in the heart. |
|
Definition
| Right ventricle and pulmonary artery |
|
|
Term
| What are some things used for diagnosis of heart worm in dogs? |
|
Definition
- Antigen Test
- Smears
- Concentration techniques: Modified knots filters
- CBC, chemistry, radiograph,ultrasound
|
|
|
Term
| What drugs can be used for treament in dogs for heartworm disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What heartworm preventative is injectable and lasts for 6 months? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A mitral insufficiency or prolapse(most common) that is treated with lasix and enalapril. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diagnosed by ultrasound and treated with a balloon catheter this is aortic or pulmonic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Muscle streches-thin and weak- dilated chambers that cannot pump-decrease in cardicac output |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thickening of heart muscle-narrow chambers-lack of filling during diastole-decrease in cardiac output |
|
Definition
| Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy |
|
|
Term
| This drug increases cardiac output and is used in treatment of DCM. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diltiazem, asprin and lasix can be used to treat: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An example of RCM is harware disease which is: |
|
Definition
| a foreign body ingestion (metalic) in cattle |
|
|
Term
| This usually occurs in 10-20% of cats with HCM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Left to right shunt, right sided failure common in cats |
|
Definition
ASD
(Atrial Septal Defects) |
|
|
Term
| Common in large breed dogs diagnosed by a barium study and treated wiht surgery this is a congenital/genetic defect caused by the vascular arch constricting the esophagus |
|
Definition
PRAA
Persistant Right Aortic Arch |
|
|
Term
| The most common clincial sign of PRAA: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This causes a continuous murmur that is still present during systole and diastole and occurs because the shunt from the pulmpnary artery to the aorta never closed. |
|
Definition
PDA
(Patent Ductus Arteriosis) |
|
|
Term
True or False
ECG always reflect a heart beat. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some causes of arrhythmias: |
|
Definition
- Electrolyte imbalance
- Drugs and toxins
- Disruption of electrical system-ischemia, cardiomyopathy
- Changes in vaginal tone, metabloic disease, fear, anemia
|
|
|
Term
| When listening to the lungs you hear crakcles this can indicate: |
|
Definition
Edema, pneumonia
(Fluid in the lungs) |
|
|
Term
| When listening to the lungs you hear this wheezing this can indicate: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When listening to the lungs you hear muffled sounds this can indicate: |
|
Definition
| Fluid or mass around the heart or lungs |
|
|
Term
| What are some diagnostic test that can be done to determine what is worng with the lungs? |
|
Definition
- Radiograph
- Ultrasound
- Tracheal wash
- Bloodwork
- Bronchoscopy, biopsy
- Fecal exam
|
|
|
Term
| This drug is an opiod but can be used as an antitussive: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some common lower airway disease in dogs? |
|
Definition
- Collapsing trachea (common in yorkies)
- Infectious tracheobronchitis (kennel cough)
- Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary disease, neoplasia
|
|
|
Term
| WHat are common airwayd disease in cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Build of fluid in pleural space this is often secondary to right sided heart failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thoracocentesis is a diagnosis/ treatment for: |
|
Definition
|
|
