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Veterinary Immunology Final - 2011
Veterinary Immunology Final 2011 - Dr. Avery Loves Mike... a lot
381
Veterinary Medicine
Graduate
11/18/2011

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Cards

Term
Treg transcription factor
Definition
FoxP3
Term
Bacteria that causes Strangles
Definition
Streptococcus equi
Term
What are the clinical signs of Strangles?
Definition
Fever, Tachycardia (high heart rate), swelling under the jaw, upper respitory infection, and nasal discharge.
Term
How long until innate immune responses are mobilized?
Definition
0 hours to 2-5 days, depending on the pathogen.
Term
Is the innate immune response pathogen specific?
Definition
Fuck no.
Term
Is the adaptive immune response pathogen speficic?
Definition
Yes
Term
What is an antigen?
Definition
Any structure that can be recognized by adaptive immune system. 
Term
What can be an antigen?
Definition
Most commonly proteins and peptides, but can also include carbs, lipids, non-biological molecules, and even metals.
Term
What is the main mechanical barrier to infection?
Definition
Flow of fluid - mucus, tears, saliva, and perspiration
Term
What is a chemical barrier to infection produced by epithelial cells?
Definition
Production of defensins
Term
What are microbiological barriers to infection?
Definition
Normal flora - bacteria on the skin, gut, respitory tract, eyes, etc...
Term
Strep. equi binds to which proteins on host epithelial cells?
Definition
fibronectin and fibrinogen
Term
What are the humoral components of the innate immune response?
Definition
Complement, defensins and C-reactive proteins
Term
Complement activation accomplishes what four things?
Definition

1 - Opsonization of pathogens

2 - Killing of pathogens

3 - Recruitment of inflammatory cells

4 - Disposition of immune complexes

Term
Complement binding to pathogen cell surface is called what?
Definition
Fixation
Term
Which complement pathway is the first to act?
Definition
Alternative pathway
Term
Which organ produces C3?
Definition
Liver
Term
What is produced when C3 is cleaved?
Definition
C3a and C3b
Term
How is C3b convertase formed?
Definition
C3b convertase is formed by the initial C3b molecule, plus another complement molecule, Protein B
Term
How are human cells protected from C3b deposition?
Definition
The expression of DAF and MCP
Term
Complement receptors are found on Macrophages and Neutrophils, what are the receptors?
Definition
CR1, CR3 and CR4
Term
What does C3a and C5a cause mast cells to do? 
Definition
Degranulate, and release histamine
Term
What does C3a and C5a do when bound to endothelial cells?
Definition
Increases vascular permeability - allows for increased migration of neutrophils out of vessels into tissues
Term
Activation of C5, by C3b deposition on the pathogen surface, initiates the formation of what?
Definition
Membrane attack complex
Term
How do Defensins work?
Definition
Bind to the cell surface membrane, and disrupt its stucture forming a pore-like defect
Term
What circulating cells are a part of the innate immune system?
Definition
Neutrophils, NK Cells and Eosinophils
Term
Which tissue based cells are part of the innate immune system?
Definition
Macrophages and Mast Cells
Term
What do Mast Cells granules contain?
Definition
Histamine and TNFa
Term
Mast cells synthesize what, to increase mucus production, increased vascular permeability and smooth muscle contraction?
Definition
Leukotrienes and Prostaglandins
Term
Toll Like Receptors on macrophages recognize PAMPs. What are PAMPs?
Definition
Pathogen associated molecular patterns - Nucleic acids, lipoproteins, double stranded RNA, non-mammalian carbohydrates
Term
What two places can TLRs be found?
Definition
Inside macrophage cells in the endosome and on the cell surface
Term
TLR binding activates which transcription factor?
Definition
NFkB
Term
What molecule 'holds' NFkB in the cytoplasm?
Definition
IkB
Term
NFkB is a transcription factor for which pro-inflammatory cytokines?
Definition

IL-1, IL-6, IL-12 and TNFa

 

Also activates CXCL8 transcription

Term
If steroids increase production of IkB, what happens to NFkB?
Definition
NFkB will not translocate to the nucleus, and pro-inflammatory cytokines will not be produced
Term
What does TNFa do?
Definition
Activates vascular endothelium and increases vascular permeability, which leads to increased entry of complement and cells into tissue.
Term
What are the three adhesion molecules?
Definition
Selectins, Addressins and Integrins
Term
What are Selectins?
Definition
P-selectin, E-selectin, L-selectin - bind weakly to carbohydrates on addressins
Term
What are addressins?
Definition
Carbohydrate ligand for Selectins
Term
What are Integrins?
Definition

Receptors that mediate attachment between cell and the tissues surrounding it

 

Bind to Ig family of proteins, or extracellular matrix proteins

 

Strong interactions (CHO binding)

Term
What integrins are expressed on Leukocytes?
Definition
CD11a/b/c / CD18
Term
P-selectin can be upregulated by what?
Definition
TNFa and IL-1
Term
What is Leukocyte adhesion deficiency?
Definition
Failure of neutrophils to exit vessels at site of inflammation
Term
Azurophilic granules are found in Neutrophils, what do they contain?
Definition
Lysozyme, Defensins, Myeloperoxidase and Proteases
Term
Specific granules are found in Neutrophils, what do they contain?
Definition
NADPH Oxidase
Term
Viral nucleic acids are recognized by what intracellular receptors?
Definition
Intracellular TLR and RIG-like receptors
Term
Type 1 interferons bind to the IFN receptor in what fashion?
Definition
Paracrine and Autocrine
Term
Type 1 IFNs induce the production of proteins that resist further viral infection by...
Definition

- Interference with viral replication

- Interference with viral protein synthesis

- Production of more interferons

- Activation of NK cells

Term
What activates NK cells?
Definition
Type 1 interferons
Term
What two types of ligands do NK cells recognize?
Definition

Inhibiting ligands - MHC

 

Activating ligands - MIC

Term
What protein on NK cells recognize MIC?
Definition
NKG2D
Term
When NK cells interact with MIC ligands, they release what granule contents?
Definition
Perforin and Granzyme
Term
Why would a virus upregulate MIC expression?
Definition
To downregulate MHC Class 1, and stop T cell activation
Term
IL-12 activates which cells?
Definition
NK cells and TH1 cells
Term
IL-12 is released when...
Definition
Dendritic cells and Macrophages come in contact with a pathogen
Term
What are the final products of the adaptive immune system?
Definition
Antibodies produced by B cells, and specific T cells
Term
Antibody binding can initiate the complement cascade through which pathway?
Definition
Classical
Term
Which non-covalent interactions do antibodies use to bind to antigens?
Definition
Van der waals forces, Hyrophobic interactions, Hydrogen bonds, and electrostatic interactions
Term
Low temperature will increase or decrease the affinity of antigen-antibody interactions?
Definition
Increase, moeffer.
Term
Low pH and high ionic strength can decrease of increase the affinity of antigen-antibody interactions?
Definition
Decrease
Term
Define Avidity
Definition
Avidity is a term used to describe the combined strength of multiple bond interactions. It is commonly applied to antibody interactions in which multiple antigen binding sites simultaneously interact with a target.
Term
Define affinity
Definition
A term used to describe the strength of a single bond interaction
Term
What is Cold Agglutinin disease?
Definition
Individual makes antibody against their own RBC's, and only bind to RBC's at lower peripheral temperatures. RBCs become agglutinated by the antibodies.
Term
High pH or High salt concentration can decrease or increase antigen-antibody binding affinity
Definition
Decrease
Term
What are the three mechanisms that generate antibody diversity?
Definition

Somatic Recombination

 

Junctional diversity through N-linked addition of nucleotides

 

Somatic Hypermutation

Term
What does RAG stand for?
Definition
Recombination activating genes
Term
What do the RAG enzymes do?
Definition
These enzymes are part of a larger complex of enzynes which come together to recombine DNA by reorganizing specific DNA sequences that flank the V, D and J regions
Term
What is Junctional diversity (N-linked addition)?
Definition
Nucleotides are added to the junctions between V and D, and D and J.
Term
Which enzyme carries out junctional diversity?
Definition
TdT - Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase
Term
The region of the antibody encoded by the V D and J genes is the...
Definition
Antigen binding region
Term
What is the first gene downstream from the VDJ region?
Definition
IgM
Term
What are the first antibody isotopes made by a B cell?
Definition
IgM and IgD
Term
First antibody secreated in any primary immune response
Definition
IgM
Term
IgM can be secreted or...
Definition
Transmembrane
Term
What is the purpose of IgM binding on the surface of a B cell?
Definition
Binding of IgM by antigen sends a signal to the B cell to start dividing
Term
All of the progeny of dividing B cells have the same or different rearranged VDJ genes?
Definition
Same
Term
What does AID (Activation induced deaminase) do?
Definition
AID introduces nucleotide changes in the VDJ region, which results in amino acid changes in the antigen binding region
Term
Does Somatic Hypermutation recquire T cell help?
Definition
Yes, duh.
Term
IgM is low/high affinity and low/high avidity?
Definition
Low affinity and High Avidity
Term
Secreted IgM forms what structure?
Definition
Pentamer
Term
Where is IgA secreted?
Definition
Across Mucosal surfaces
Term
What cell type does IgE activate?
Definition
Mast Cells
Term
The same enzyme that mediates somatic hypermutation is also involved in what?
Definition
AID is also involved in Class switching (isotype switching) - removing the intervening C region genes to produce IgG/E/A and requires T cell help
Term
What are the two main Tcell subsets?
Definition
CD4 and CD8
Term
Which cells provide growth and activating factors for Bcells?
Definition
CD4 T cells
Term
Do Tcells need to be activated by antigen before activating Bcells?
Definition
Yes
Term
Do CD4 Tcells activate macrophages to allow them to kill intracellular organisms?
Definition
Yes
Term
Is the Tcell Receptor expressed in the cytoplasm?
Definition
No
Term
The Gamma/Delta TCR is the most common TCR...
Definition
Negative
Term
Does the TCR bind free antigen?
Definition
No
Term
Class 1 MHC is expressed on every cell type. Yes/No
Definition
No, not expressed on Red Blood Cells
Term
Class 1 MHC expresses peptides taken up from outside the cell - true/false
Definition
No, Class 2 MHC does
Term
Which cells primarily express Class 2 MHC?
Definition
Antigen presenting cells - Macrophages, B cells, Dendritic cells, Thymic epithelial cells
Term
How many amino acid residues are needed to stabilize the peptide groove on MHC molecule?
Definition
Two polar amino acids that can form hydrogen bonds anchor the peptide in the MHC
Term
Approximately how long do peptides need to be for Class 1 and Class 2 MHC?
Definition

Class 1, 8 - 10 amino acids longs

 

Class2, up to 20 amino acids

Term
Does Class 1 MHC present proteins found in the cytosol?
Definition
Yes
Term
What does the proteosome do?
Definition
Breaks up proteins into peptides
Term
Where is peptide "loaded" onto class 1 MHC?
Definition
Endoplasmic Reticulum
Term
Which proteins can be loaded onto class 1 MHC and presented on the cell surface?
Definition
All proteins in the cytosol, including self and viral proteins
Term
Which peptides can be loaded onto class 2 MHC?
Definition
ANY peptide in the endosome - Self proteins from the extracellular space, proteins found on the cell membrane that are brought into the endosome, and pathogen derived proteins. 
Term
CD4 T cells interact with which MHC molecule?
Definition
Class II
Term
CD8 T cells interact with which MHC molecule?
Definition
Class 1
Term
Binding of MHC ligand to the Tcell receptor leads to phosphorylation of _ _ _ _ by kinases
Definition
ITAM
Term
Tcell activation through the TCR results in what translocating to the nucleus?
Definition
NF-AT
Term
NF-AT is a transcription factor for what?
Definition
IL-2 and the IL-2 receptor alpha chain
Term
Is IL-2 or IL-12 a growth factor for T cells?
Definition
IL-2
Term
TCR binding of antigen sends an activating signal through...
Definition
CD3 molecule, which contains an ITAM  which is phosphorylated by a tyrosine kinase - results in a signal sending NF-AT to nucleus
Term
What transcription factor does Cyclosporin inhibit?
Definition
NF-AT
Term
What are two basic function of dendritic cells?
Definition

Pick up and carry antigen to lymphnode

 

Present antigen to T cells in lymphnode

Term
Can Macrophages carry antigen to lymphnodes?
Definition
No
Term
What is Macropinocytosis?
Definition
  • Ingestion of anything in the immediate vicinity
Term
Activation of Dendritic cells results in...
Definition
  • Increased expression of Class II MHC
  • Increased expression of ICAM
  • Increased expression of CCR7 
  • Production of various cytokines which affect T cell differentiation
Term
What is CCR7?
Definition
A Chemokine receptor for CCL21 which attract Dendritic cells to the lymph node.
Term
Dendritic cells in the lymph node can interact with Tcells through what interaction?
Definition
LFA/ICAM interactions
Term
Dendritic cells will only activate Naive T cells if the dendritic cell is expressing which molcule?
Definition
B7, bitch.
Term
If the T cells see peptide on MHC but does not receive a signal through CD28/CD80(B7) interaction, what happens?
Definition
It becomes anergized
Term
Do naive B cells endocytize antigen that is bound to surface IgM?
Definition
Yes
Term
Do B cells present peptide on Class II MHC?
Definition
Yes
Term
CD40 Ligand is expressed on the B cell surface?
Definition
No - CD40 Ligand expressed on T cell surface
Term
CD40/CD40L interaction is responsible for B cells class switching, and...
Definition
Somatic Hypermutation
Term
Do CD8 Tcells produce more or less IL-2 when compared to CD4 T cells?
Definition
Less - CD8 T cells need CD4 T cells to help stimulate proliferation through IL-2
Term
Can macrophages cross present antigen?
Definition
No - Only Dendritic Cells
Term
How do Dendritic cells present antigen to CD8 T cells if they are not directly infected with a pathogen?
Definition
Cross presentation
Term
Which Bacteria causes Johne's Disease?
Definition
Mycobacterium paratuberculosis
Term
Which cell does M.pTB infect?
Definition
Macrophages
Term
How does M.pTB enter the gut?
Definition
Through M cells
Term
What cytokines do TH1 T cells produce?
Definition
IL2, IFNy, TNFa
Term
What cytokines do TH2 T cells make?
Definition
IL4, IL5 and IL13
Term
What cytokines do Treg Cells make?
Definition
TGFb, IL10
Term
What cytokines do TH17 T cells make?
Definition
IL-17, IL-22, IL-21
Term
Which cytokine(s) and transcription factor(s) induce naive T cells to differentiate into TH2 T cells?
Definition

Cytokine: IL4, TSLP, IL33

 

Transcription Factor: Gata-3

Term

Which cytokine(s) and transcription factor(s) induce naive T cells to differentiate into TH1 T cells?

Definition

Cytokine: IL-12 and/or IFNy

 

Transcription Factor: T-bet

Term

Which cytokine(s) and transcription factor(s) induce naive T cells to differentiate into Treg T cells?

Definition

Cytokine: TGFb

 

Transcription Factor: FoxP3

Term

Which cytokine(s) and transcription factor(s) induce naive T cells to differentiate into TH17 T cells?

Definition

Cytokines: TGFb & IL-6

 

Transcription Factor: RORgt

Term
Which cells do TH1 cells interact with?
Definition
Macrophages presenting Class II MHC
Term
TH1 T cells produce IFNy, what does it do to macrophages?
Definition
Activates macrophages. Increases phagolysosome fusion, increase Class II, Increase production of ROI and TNFa
Term
Do TH1 T cells help CD8 T cells proliferate?
Definition
Yes. IL-2 production
Term
a4b7 binds to what?
Definition
MadCam
Term
MadCam is found on which cells?
Definition
Endothelium Cells - a4b7 expressed on T cells activated in the intestinal lymphoid tissue
Term
What increases in production in the presence of IL-17?
Definition
Defensins by epithelial cells
Term
IL-17 induces epithelial cells to make chemokines that attract what?
Definition
Neutrophils
Term
TH2 T cells produce Cytokines that induce...
Definition
IL4, IL5 and IL13 induce the expansion of eosinophils and basophils. They also induce B cells to isotype switch to IgE
Term
Which other cell type may produce IL-4?
Definition
Basophils
Term
Name one anti-nematode molecule
Definition
RELM - Anti nematode resistance molecule
Term
IgE binds to Mast cells and Eosinophiles through high affinity _ _ receptors
Definition
FC
Term
Before Mast cells and Eosinophils degranulate, antigen must do what?
Definition
Cross link the IgE antibody
Term
What do goblet cells produce?
Definition
Mucous
Term
Mast cells circulate in the blood. T/F
Definition
False. Tissue based 
Term
TGFb and IL10 supress what?
Definition
Proliferation of other T cells, inhibit macrophage activation, and antagonize the actions of all three T cell subsets
Term
Peyers patches in the small intestine are one form of...
Definition
MALT
Term
B cells in the MALT usually produce which antibody isotype?
Definition
IgA
Term
TGFb promotes B cells to isotype switch to what?
Definition
IgA
Term
IgA can be either monomeric or...
Definition
Dimeric
Term
How is IgA transported across epithelial surface?
Definition
Receptor mediated endocytosis
Term
T/F - CD8 T cells can be found between epithelial cells
Definition
True - intraepithelial lymphocytes
Term
How do CD8 T cells interact with target cells?
Definition
Through integrin on CD8 and CAM on target cell
Term
What do CD8 Tcells release to kill target cells?
Definition
Perforin, granzyme and granulolysin
Term
The common Lymphoid progenitor give way to which cell types?
Definition
B cells, T cells and NK cells
Term
What is the first checkpoint in B cell development?
Definition
Selecting for a functional heavy chain with 'fake' light chains in the cytoplasm
Term
what is the second checkpoint in B cell development?
Definition
Select for functional light chain - make sure the light chain has a structure that allows it to form a heterodimer with the heavy chain
Term
How many sets of heavy chain genes do B cells have?
Definition
Two
Term
If a B cell successfully puts IgM on its surface, and it does not recognize self antigen the B cell will do what?
Definition
Leave the bone marrow - Negative selection
Term
If a developing B cell does recognize self antigen in the bone marrow (the first time) what happens?
Definition

It gets signaled to undergo further light chain rearragement - receptor editing.

 

Only happens 2 - 3 times

Term
B cells leave the bone marrow and enter the Lymph node through the...
Definition
HEV - High endothelial venules
Term
When B cells arrive in the Lymphnode for the first time, what part of the lymphnode do that initially populate to undergo final maturation?
Definition
Primary lymphoid follicles
Term
When B cells undergo final maturation in the lymphnode, they interact with what?
Definition
Stromal elements
Term
If a B cell does not encounter its antigen, it exits the lymphnode via ____ and recirculates
Definition
Efferent lymphatics
Term
B cells activated in the lymph node have three possible fates...
Definition

1. Differentiate immediately into plasma cells producing IgM

 

2. Undergo isotype switching, somatic hypermutation and proliferation with the help of T cells and T cell cytokines

 

3. Differentiate into memory b cells (remain in lymphnode) or antibody producing plasma cells (exit node and go to tisses or bone marrow)

Term
Once CD34+ common lymphoid progenitors reach the thymus, they commit to what lineage?
Definition
T cell
Term
What transcription factor commits a cell to the T cell lineage?
Definition
Notch
Term
Where is the Notch Ligan found?
Definition
Thymic epithelium
Term
Is notch expressed on lymphoid precursors?
Definition
Yes
Term
What is a double negative T cell?
Definition

CD4- and CD8-

 

IL7 supports its proliferation

Term
First phase in T cell development
Definition
Commit to T cell lineage - Notch/Notch ligand interaction in the Thymus, creates double negative T cell
Term
Phase 2 of T cell development
Definition
Express a functional T cell receptor on the surface of the T cell
Term
Does the alpha/beta TCR gene rearrange first?
Definition
No, Gamma/Delta does
Term
Define a double positive T cell
Definition
CD4+ and CD8+
Term
A developing T cell expresses both CD4 and CD8 before or after TCR gene rearrangement?
Definition
After
Term
What is Phase 3 in T cell development?
Definition
Positive selection - making sure T cell can recognize MHC + peptide
Term
If the TCR does not successfully nteract with MHC + Peptide, what happens.
Definition
The alpha chain will undergo more receptor editing, if the T cell still does not interact with MHC + peptide, it will get a signal to die
Term
Define positive selection in T cell development
Definition
Checks to see if TCR can successfully bind to MHC + Peptide - phase 3
Term
Positive or Negative selection determines if the T cell will be CD4 or CD8?
Definition
Positive
Term
If the TCR recognizes class 1 MHC during positive selection, it becomes what kind of T cell?
Definition
CD8
Term

If the TCR recognizes class 2 MHC during positive selection, it becomes what kind of T cell?

Definition
CD4
Term
What part of the Thymus does positive selection occur?
Definition
Cortex
Term
What is phase 4 of T cell development?
Definition
Prevent T cells that bind strongly to self antigen from leaving the Thymus - Negative selection
Term
Do T cells that bind weakly to self antigen leave the Thymus?
Definition
No, they get neglected and die like assholes
Term
CD4 T cells that bind strongly to self antigen become...
Definition
Possibly become Treg T cells, but otherwise apoptosis
Term
What part of the Thymus does negative selection occur?
Definition
Medulla
Term
If a CD8 T cell binds strongly to self antigen what happens to it?
Definition
Apoptosis
Term

If a CD4 T cell binds strongly to self antigen what happens to it?

Definition
Apoptosis or becomes Treg T cell
Term
APECED
Definition

Autoimmune polyendocrinopathy-candidiasis ectodermal dystrophy 

 

disease which autoimmune responses develop against multiple organs

Term
What is the AIRE gene?
Definition
Expressed on thymic epithelium and dendritic cells - allows for promiscuous expression of genes not normally expressed in the Thymus
Term
HLA-DR, DQ and DP are the class1 or class2 genes involved in antigen presentation
Definition
Class 2
Term

A, B and C are the class1 or class2 genes involved in antigen presentation

Definition
Class 1
Term
How many possible Class 1 and Class2 genes are possible?
Definition
Six class 1 and six class 2
Term
Why are limited MHC polymorphisms bad for populations?
Definition
Likely to be homozygous at all loci, decreasing the number of T cells that can respond and the strength of the immune response.
Term
Three types of direct autoimmune disease
Definition

Direct destruction of peripheral blood elements by antibody

 

Direct destruction of skin by antibody

 

Direct destruction of tissue by T cells

Term
Two mechanisms that contribute to B cell tolerance (lack of self reactivity)
Definition

Deletion or anergy during development if receptor recognizes self antigen

 

Lack of T cell help in the lymph nodes and spleen if there are no self reactive T cells

Term
How might a B cell escape self tolerance?
Definition

Never encounter self antigen - no AIRE gene in bone marrow

 

Weakly reactive B cells are not negatively selected - may be stimulated by foreign antigen to divide and undergo somatic hypermutation with T cell help which will make it bind to self antigen more readily

Term
Where does CENTRAL T cell tolerance take place?
Definition
Thymus - Elimination of self reactive T cells
Term
How would a self reactive T cell be eliminated in the periphery?
Definition

Would be anergized. Can onl be actived if a dendritic cell is expressing B7 molecule.

 

Needs cd28/cd80 interaction with dendritic cell

Term
What is Antigen Sequestration?
Definition
Antigens that are never available to the immune system - ex: corneal proteins
Term
What happens when you lack the AIRE gene?
Definition
Transcripts from endocrine organs are not detected in the Thymus
Term
What bacteria (or name the disease) causes T cells to cross react with synovial antigens?
Definition
Borrelia Berdorferi - Lyme disease
Term
How does Herpes stromal keratitis cause autoimmune disease?
Definition

Causes neovascularization in the cornea mediated by inflammatory cytokines, antigen goes to draining lymph. 

 

Self reactive T cells in the Lymph become activated

Term
Type 1 hypersensitivity
Definition
IgE mediated - allergy, anaphylaxis, asthma
Term
Type 2 Hypersensitivity?
Definition
IgG or IgM - peripheral blood elements. RBC, Neutrophils, platelets 
Term

Type 3 Hypersensitivity?

Definition
Immune complex formation
Term

Type 4 Hypersensitivity?

Definition
T cell mediated damage - granulomas
Term

Type 5 Hypersensitivity?

Definition

Massive cytokine production, systemic response

 

TLR binding induces sepsis

 

Stimulation of t CELLS by superantigen

Term
Components of Type 1 hypersensitivity
Definition
Mast cells, IgE, Basophils and Eosinophils
Term
Do you see Type 1 hypersnsitivity clinical signs during the first exposure to antigen?
Definition
No - 2nd exposure
Term
Type 1 hypersensitivity is mediated by pathogen associated antigens? T/F
Definition
False - not associated with infectious pathogens.
Term
In Type 1 hypersensitivity, the 2nd encounter with antigen causes what to happen?
Definition
IgE bound to Mast cells gets cross linked by the antigen. This causes Mast cells and eosinophils to degranulate
Term
Eosinophils or Mast cells are mostly responsible for the immediate clinical signs in Type 1 hypersensitivity
Definition

Mast cells. 

 

Eosinophils play a role in the long term inflammation following Type 1 hypersensitivity

Term
Pruritis is caused by what
Definition
Mast cell Tryptase
Term
Mast cell degranulation in the GI tract causes...
Definition
Increased fluid secretion - vomiting and diarrhea
Term
Names ways to treat Type 1 hypersensitivity 
Definition

Steroids - stabilize mast cells, down regulate FC receptors

 

Anti histamines

 

Antigen specific approaches - hyposensitization, stimulating IgG rather than IgE antibodies

Term
What is the main allergan in vaccines?
Definition
Fetal calf serum
Term
How do you prevent allergic responses to vaccines?
Definition
Pre-treat with steroids or anti histamines
Term
Targets of anti erythrocyte responses
Definition

1 - ab against hapten or drug modified self antigen 

 

2 - ab against blood group

 

3 - ab against self

 

4 - ab against pathogen (infection of erythrocyte wth pathogen)

Term
Drug induced erythrocyte destruction - give examples
Definition

Penicillin covalently binds to RBC surface proteins by opening the b lactam ring

 

Macrophages/DC take up coated RBC through C' receptor and lyse it, like a bitch.

Term
Two ways a patient can develop an antibody transfusion reaction
Definition

Transfusion of RBC from one patient to another

 

Antibodies to environmental antigens develop over time - antigens found on bacteria cross react with carbohydrate groups on RBCs

Term
If a cat is likely to be Type B blood group, does it need to be crossmatched for the first transfusion?
Definition
Yes
Term
Neonatal isoerythrolysis
Definition

First pregnancy by an A negative dam to an A+ sire is safe

 

2nd pregnancy to A+ is safe until foal nurses - maternal antibody against paternal A blood group antigen is absorbed across the gut. Antibody bind to foal RBC and cause lysis

Term
Clinical signs of Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions - name several
Definition

- Erythrocytes - anemia, fever, hypotension, hyperbilirubinemia, hypercoagualability, spherocytosis

 

- platelets - thrombocytopenia, hemorrhage

 

- neutrophils - neutropenia, fever, 2ndary infection

Term
Intravascular hemolysis
Definition

Direct lysis by IgG and/or IgM antibody mediated complement fixaction

 

release of free hemoglobin

Term
Extravascular hemolysis
Definition

Opsonization by IgG and/or IgM antibodies and complement

 

Intracellular digestion of erythrocytes

Term
Type 2 reactions against erythrocytes - Two ways Red cells get destroyed and cause anemia
Definition

- Antibody plus complement leading to lysis

 

- Opsonization leading to phagocytosis

Term
Type 2 reactions against erythrocytes - what causes Icterus (Jaundice, yellow skin)
Definition

- Mechanisms for metabolizing hemoglobin are overwhelmed

 

- Increased Bilirubin (Bilirubin (formerly referred to as hematoidin) is the yellow breakdown product of normal heme catabolism. Heme is found in hemoglobin)

Term
Type 2 reactions against erythrocytes - what causes Hypotension
Definition

- Activation of the complement cascade leading to release of anaphylotoxins

 

- Mast cell defranulation and histamine release

Term
Type 2 reactions against erythrocytes - what causes Fever
Definition
- TNF release from Machrophage activation, mast cell degranulation
Term
Type 2 reactions against erythrocytes - what causes Hypercoagulability
Definition
Possibly from an excess amount of RBC membrane
Term
Cold agglutinin disease is mediated by which antibody
Definition
Low affinity IgM, which binds to RBC with greater affinity at lower temps - the extremities
Term
Type IV hypersensitivity is also known as Delayed Type Hypersensitivity because...
Definition
T cell response takes hours to days
Term
CD4 mediated Type IV hypersensitivity
Definition

TH1 Responses

 

- caused by intracellular pathogen, indigestable material

 

- Granuloma formation

Term
CD8 mediated Type IV hypersensitivity
Definition

Epidermal Destruction

 

- Poison oak/ivy

 

- Toxic epidermal necrolysis(characterized by the detachment of the top layer of skin (the epidermis) from the lower layers of the skin (the dermis) all over the body.)

Term
CD4 and CD8 T cell mediated Type IV hypersensitivity
Definition

- Allograft destruction

 

- Organ specific autoimmune disease

Term
First exposure to poison ivy or oak will or will not result in a T cell reaction?
Definition
Will not - results in the development of CD4 and CD8 T memory cells that reside in the dermis
Term
Clinical signs of Cytokine storm syndrome
Definition

Hypotension

Fever

Vascular leakage

Activation of the clotting system

Organ failure

Term
Pathogenesis of Cytokine storm syndrome
Definition
NFkB translocation and pro inflammatory cytokines
Term
What are superantigens?
Definition
Molecules made by Staph and Strep that bind to the Vb chain of the TCR and to Class II MHC
Term
What is the effect of superantigen binding?
Definition
Binding to the TCR conserved region (Vb) activates many more T cells - results in massive T cell cytokine (Like TNFa) release followed by Macrophage activation
Term
Regular antigen activates 1:10,000 T cells, superantigen activates...
Definition
1:10 T cells
Term
What is the cause of cytokine prodiction in a Cytokine storm syndrome?
Definition

TLR ligands bind to TLR

 

Superantigen binf to TCR Vb

Term
In Lupus, immune complexes form from antibody binding to what
Definition
DNA
Term
In rheumatoid arthritis, immune complexes form when...
Definition
Anti-IgM binds to IgM (mind, blown.)
Term
How are immune complexes normally cleared?
Definition

Complement binds to Immune complex

 

Complement/immune complex binds to RBC or platelet CR1 receptor

 

In Liver/Spleen Factor 1 cleaves CR1/Complement/Immune complex

 

Uptake and digestion by tissue macrophage in liver and spleen

Term
Two reasons immune complexes fail to get digested
Definition

1. Lack of CR1 receptor on RBC/platelet

 

2. Deficiency of complement

Term
Pathogenesis of immune complex disease
Definition

Immune complexes actvate Fc receptor on Macrophages and neutrophils, and initiate cytokine response and release tissue destructive enzymes

 

Complement activation leads to the production of C5a(mast cell degranulation)

 

C3a attracts neutrophils which produce destructive enzymes

Term
First most common site for immune complexes to deposit
Definition
Kidney - glomerulonephritis
Term

Second most common site for immune complexes to deposit

Definition
Joints - Arthritis
Term
What factors lead to immune complex disease?
Definition

Chronic infection

 

Introduction of high doses of antigen

 

Complement deficiency

Term
What is Glomerulonephritis
Definition
Inflammation in the glomerulus damages the membrane that filters the blood 
Term
Laboratory signs of Glomerulonephritis
Definition

Azotemia (High BUN, Creatine)

 

Hypoalbuminemia (a medical condition where levels of albumin in blood serum are abnormally low.)

 

Proteinuria ( excess of serum proteinsin the urine. )

Term
Type of Non infectious vaccines
Definition

Killed Vaccines 

 

Toxoids - vaccination against secreted products

 

Recombinant proteins, subunit vaccines - Protective antigen cloned into bacteria which produce large quantities of the protein

Term
Types of infectious vaccines
Definition

Modified live vaccines - non virulent bacteria or virus

 

Recombinant organisms - protective antigen introduced into harmless infectious agent

 

These vaccines replicate in host

Term
Non live vaccines mainly stimulate which T cell response?
Definition
CD4, low levels of CD8
Term
Live vaccines stimulate an antibody response and which type of T cell response
Definition
CD4 & CD8
Term
Live vaccines can or cannot replicate in appropriate tissues
Definition
Can replicate and stimulate appropriate immunity
Term
Can Non live vaccines be transmitted?
Definition
No - only Live vaccines can
Term
Can a live vaccine cause disease in immunocompromised patients?
Definition
Yes - Non-live vaccines cannot
Term
What is an adjuvant?
Definition
Component of vaccine added to increase its efficacy
Term
What is one main adjuvant
Definition
Alum
Term
What are NLRs
Definition

Part of a complex of proteins called the inflammasome

 

In the cytosol

 

Recognize crystalline substances - Like Alum

Term
NLR activation results in what
Definition
Activation of enzymes (caspase) that cleaves IL-1 from its pro to its active form
Term
What is IL-1
Definition
Pro inflammatory cytokine that stimulates IL-6 and TNFa
Term
Does IL-33 stimulate Th2 responses?
Definition
YES, dick.
Term
Do NLRs reside in the extracellular space?
Definition
No, cytosol
Term
After the bacteria penetrates the bodys mechanical defenses, the first component of the innate immune system it encounters is the complement system. Activation of the alternative pathway results in what
Definition

- Formation of the membrane attack complex

 

- Degranulation of mast cells because of the formation of C3a and C5a

Term
What does DAF do?
Definition
Decay accelerating factor is expressed on host cells to inhibit the deposition of complement on their surface
Term
Name Two pro inflammatory cytokines made by macrophages when they interact with these extracellular bacteria
Definition
Possible: TNFa, IL-6, IL-12, IL-1
Term
Macrophages secrete ____ that attracts neutrophils to the site of infection
Definition
Chemokines like CXCL8
Term
Whats transcription factor is responsible for the production of pro inflammatory cytokines
Definition
NFkB
Term
Pro inflammatory cytokines increase the recruitment of neutrophils to the site of infection by...
Definition
Upregulating ICAM on the surface of the vascular endothelium
Term
Molecules associate with strep equi induce transcription of pro inflammatory cytokines by:
Definition
binding TLR on the surface of macrophages
Term
Two enzymes neutrophils use to kill ingested bacteria
Definition
Lysozyme and Myeloperoxidase
Term
Steps that occur after a B cell binds to its antigen
Definition

1. Antibody on the surface of the B cell binds antigen

 

2. Peptides appear on the surface of the B cell bound to class II MHC

 

3. Somatic Hypermutation

 

4. B cell matures to plasma cell where it secretes IgG

Term
First antibody to appear in the blood during an infection
Definition
IgM
Term
You have a sick horse.  You take serum to detect antibodies to Strep equi.  You carry out the binding test at room temperature and detect antibody binding, but when you do the binding test at 37o (core body temperature) you do not detect binding.  What can you conclude about the antibody? 
Definition

The antibody is low affinity

 

The antibody is more likely to be IgM than IgG

Term
NK cells and CD8 T cells both recognize and kill virally infected cells.  NK cells are part of the early innate immune response, and CD8 T cells are part of the later adaptive immune response.  The two cell types recognize virally infected cells in very different ways.  How are they different? 
Definition

NK cells are not antigen specific - CD8 are

 

NK cells can recognize and kill cells infected with a variety of pathogens - CD8 only recognize cells that display Class I MHC that binds to TCR

Term
In addition to recognizing peptide plus MHC on a dendritic cell, there are several other events that are necessary before a T cell can actually start to divide.  These include... 
Definition

The T cell needs to receive a signal from the dendritic cell through CD80/CD28 interaction

 

NF AT must translocate to the nucleus to initiate IL-2 gene transcription

Term
The complex of proteins associated with the alpha/beta T cell receptor, and which transmit the activation signal, is called 
Definition
CD3
Term
CD3 is only expressed on...
Definition
All T cells, moeffer.
Term

A number of human derived recombinant proteins are used in veterinary medicine.  Human erythropoietin is used to treat anemic cats, and is usually given as a subcutaneous injection using a small gauge needle.  Feline erythropoietin usually does not generate an immune response.  Sometimes, however, it does. 

  

What circumstances would likely result in generating an immune response to erythropoietin? 

Definition

The erythropoietin preparation was produced in bacteria, and is contaminated with bacterial molecules such as LPS (lipopolysaccharide)

 

The erythropoietin was given in an area of skin that is infected with the extracellular bacteria Staph intermdius

Term
Steroids inhibit...
Definition
NFkB translocation to the nucleus and production of pro-inflammatory cytokines
Term
Anti-histamines inhibit
Definition
The effects of Mast cell degranulation
Term
Cyclosporine inhibits...
Definition
Expression of IL-2 and IL-2 receptor
Term
How many unique T cell receptors can be created in an animal that has 10 V, 5 D and 2 J genes that can be used to create the beta chain, and 5 V genes and 5 J genes that can be used to create the alpha chain? 
Definition

10V x 5D x 2J x 5V x 5J

 

2500

Term

You are presented with an 8 month old dog who has had a lifelong history of bacterial infections – pneumonia, skin infections, and urinary tract infections.  A variety of extracellular bacteria have been identified.  At presentation, the dog has several infected skin lesions, and a cough.  You suspect the dog has an immunodeficiency, most likely a genetic one.

You take a swab of what looks like pus from one of the skin lesions and look at it under the microscope – almost all the cells are neutrophils, and many of them have bacteria inside the cells.  Without doing any other diagnostics, what can you conclude about this dog? 

Definition
He probably does not have a deficiency in the adhesion molecules ICAM or CD18, since these are necessary for migration out of vessels and pus formation
Term
Human immunodeficiency virus infection and feline immunodeficiency virus infection both reduce the number of CD4 T cells, and their function, in untreated patients.  Which function or process would you expect to be substantially inhibited in a patient with untreated HIV or FIV? 
Definition
production of high affinity IgG antibodies
Term
Mycobacterium paratuberculosis causes Johne’s disease.  This organism lives inside endosomes in macrophages and dendritic cells which are found throughout the intestine of cattle, including the Peyer’s patches.  What is the name of the specialized epithelial cell that transports M paratb (and other antigens) across the epithelial surface to the Peyer’s patches?
Definition
M cells
Term
MparaTb has molecules that bind to toll like receptors, which then leads to dendritic cell activation.  Activation of dendritic cells leads to increased expression of what two cell surface proteins? 
Definition
Possible: Class II MHC, B7/CD80, ICAM, CD40...
Term
Dendritic cells activate helper T cells, which in turn can activate macrophages to make them better able to kill intracellular organisms.  How do T cells migrate from the Peyer’s patches, where they are first activated, to an infected macrophage in the lamina propria?
Definition
They migrate out of the lymphoid follicle via the efferent lymphatics, enter the blood stream through the thoracic duct, and enter the intestinal mucosal tissue via interactions with MadCAM which is expressed on intestinal endothelium
Term
T cell subset most important in defense of intracellular pathogen
Definition
TH1
Term
The MOST important cytokine produced by TH1 activates macrophages to become more efficient at killing intracellular bacteria and increases the inflammatory response.
Definition
IFNg
Term
Two effects IFNg has on macrophages
Definition

Increase phagolysosome fusion, upregulation of MHC, secretion of cytokines, secretion of chemokines

 

Increase production of ROS

Term
Epithelial cells respond to cytokines produced by which T cell subset?
Definition
Th17
Term
In response to TH17 cytokines, epithelial cells produce what two things
Definition
Defensins and chemokines
Term
Antibodies are an important component of defense against extracellular bacterial infections.  How do they participate in defense and/or prevention of infection with extracellular bacteria?
Definition

Antibodies can be secreted across mucosal surfaces where they can bind to pathogens to prevent their adhesion to mucosal epithelium

 

Antibodies can opsonize bacteria for uptake by neutrophils and macrophages through Fc receptors.

Term
Th1 T cells participate in the immune response to viral infections such as parvovirus by:
Definition

Producing IL-2 which is needed by CD8 T cells to divide.

 

 Inducing isotype switch and somatic hypermutation by B cells to produce a higher affinity antibody, which can then neutralize virus before it infects the next cell.

Term

Killed parvoviral vaccines cannot infect epithelial cells of the small intestine.  These vaccines elicit immune responses in the peripheral node that drains the site of subcutaneous administration of the vaccine. 


What would NOT be efficiently induced by a killed vaccine? 

Definition

Parvovirus specific CD8 T cells in the lamina propria

 

            Parvovirus specific B cells in the lamina propria

 

            Parvovirus specific CD4 T cells in the lamina propria

Term
The T cell subset that is most important in defense against nematodes 
Definition
TH2
Term
Smooth muscle contraction and increased mucous production are two mechanisms that help to expel intestinal nematodes.  These two responses are caused by:
Definition

Th2 cytokines acting on epithelial cells

 

            Mast cell degranulation and histamine release

 

Eosinophil degranulation

Term
B cell development proceeds in a set of sequential steps, name them 
Definition

1  Common lymphoid precursor

 

2  Heavy chain VDJ rearrangement

 

3  Light chain V-J rearrangement

 

4  Expression of IgM on the surface of B cells

 

5  Encounter with self antigen to test for self reactivity 

Term
T cell development proceeds in a set of sequential steps, name them 
Definition

1  Common lymphoid progenitor

 

2  Commitment to the T cell lineage through Notch expression

 

3  Rearrangement of the beta chain

 

4  Signal to survive after T cell receptor interacts successfully with self MHC+peptide

 

5  Down-regulation of either CD4 or CD8 depending on which MHC+ peptide is recognized

 

6  Signal to die after T cell receptor interacts strongly with self MHC plus peptide

 

 


Term
If you find somatic hypermutation in the immunoglobulin gene of a B cell leukemia/lymphoma, what can you conclude about the B cell that gave rise to that tumor?
Definition

It was once activated by antigen 

 

            It expressed CD40

 

            It processed and presented antigen to CD4 T cells

 

It could have been in a lymph node or spleen

Term
If an animal has a genetic defect resulting in failure to express the AIRE gene in the thymus, what would be the result?
Definition
The patient would have increased numbers of CD4 T helper cells that recognize self antigens.
Term
Cats and people have antibodies blood group antigens which can be found in the blood even if the individuals have never been transfused. What can be an explanation for this observation
Definition
Environmental bacteria have antigens that are cross reactive with antigens on the surface of cat and human red blood cells – individuals make antibodies to these if they do not carry the blood group antigen, and therefore recognize that antigen as foreign when it’s a part of a transfusion.
Term
Some drugs, such as penicillin, can cause hemolytic anemia. This is because:
Definition

The drugs enhance complement deposition on the surface of red blood cells.


The drugs bind covalently to molecules on the surface of the red blood cells, creating a new, foreign antigen.

Term
what genetic mutations might predispose an individual to making Th2 response when they encounter antigen?
Definition

A mutation that results in permanent activation of the IL-4 receptor


Deficiency in interferon gamma

Term
CD4 or CD8 T cells with a T cell receptor that has high affinity for self antigen might escape central tolerance if:
Definition

The individual has a genetic mutation in the AIRE gene, so it is not expressed.


The AIRE gene is functional, but does not initiate transcription of proteins from that particular peripheral tissue in the thymus.

Term
There are only two globally immunosuppressive cytokines. what are they?
Definition
TGFb and IL-10
Term
A family who raises backyard horses decided they wanted to experience the joy of foaling, and breed their new Arabian mare to a local Arabian stallion. One morning the family finds a healthy foal in the stall, but they weren’t sure when he was born because they had been away the entire previous day (they had gotten the due date wrong). You are called out to the farm the next day (24 hours later) to check the foal. He is healthy and you watch him nurse, which he appears to do well. Because of his breed you do a SNAP test which estimates the amount of IgG in the foal’s serum. To your surprise, it is less than 400 mg/dl. You submit serum to the Diagnostic Laboratory for a more quantitative assay and to measure immunoglobulin isotypes, and find that the IgG is 75 mg/dl, and IgM is 8 mg/dl. You also do a CBC and find that the foal has 1350 lymphocytes/ul. What could explain this clinical picture?
Definition

The foal did not nurse well when he was first born

 

The mare had been leaking colostrum during the previous few days

Term
B cells are made throughout life, but most T cells are made in the pre- and immediately post natal period (after that, the thymus starts to involute). What would happen if an animal was infected in utero (i.e. before it was born, and at the same time the virus was developing) with a virus that persitently infects thymic dendritic cells and epithelial cells?
Definition

CD4 T cells with high specificity for the virus will be deleted during the negative selection stage thymic development, and the animal will have no helper T cells that recognize the virus.


CD8 T cells with high specificity for the virus will be deleted during the negative selection stage thymic development, and the animal will have no cytotoxic that efficiently recognize the virus.


Antibody responses to the virus will be weak or undetectable, because of the lack of T helper cells specific for the virus.

Term
Receptor editing is:
Definition
Rearrangement of immunoglobulin light chain genes if the IgM expressed on a developing B cell RECOGNIZES SELF antigen in the bone marrow
Term
Double positive T cells are housed in which part of the Thymus?
Definition
Cortex
Term
You are presented with a patient that has leukemia. The cells in the patient's blood do not express IgM on their surface, but you can detect immunoglobulin heavy chain protein in the cytoplasm. What can you conclude about the cell which gave rise to this leukemia?
Definition

The cell would be found in the bone marrow

 

The VDJ genes of the heavy chain will not show evidence of somatic hypermutation

Term
What cytokine causes proliferation of both B and T cell precursors?
Definition
IL-7
Term
Epithelial cells participate in defense against pathogens by forming a mechanical barrier to infection. In addition, epithelial cells can make and secrete Molecules like:
Definition

RELM - anti nematode

 

Chemokines - Attract neutrophils

 

Defensins - Anti bacterial

Term
What is used by Th1 T cells to activate macrophages so they are better able to kill intracellular pathogens?
Definition

CD40 ligation on macrophages by CD40 ligand on Th1 T cells

 

Interferon gamma production

Term

A peptide consisting entirely of non-polar amino acids would not bind well to the peptide binding groove


True/False

Definition
TRUE
Term

Class I and Class II MHC molecules cannot distinguish between self peptides and peptides derived from pathogens. They will bind either.


True/False

Definition
TRUE
Term

MHC molecules on dendritic cells undergo mutation in their peptide binding site creating multiple different peptide binding sequences on a single cell


True/False

Definition
FALSE
Term

The MHC peptide binding groove contacts peptides at only two sites


True/False

Definition
TRUE
Term
Canine patients with diabetes are given human insulin. Human insulin is a foreign protein because it has a different amino acid sequence than canine insulin. Dogs have T cells that can recognize peptides from human insulin. Most of the time, though, human insulin does not activate T cells in canine patients. Why do you think this is the case?
Definition
Human insulin has no way to stimulate toll like receptors, and therefore no way to upregulate expression of CD80 on the surface of dendritic cells. Therefore canine T cells will be anergized, not activated, when they recognize human insulin.
Term
If a puppy is given a killed parvovirus vaccine which is unable to infect and replicate in a cell, we would expect that virus to be primarily presented by
Definition
Class II MHC
Term
T cells from a patient who has been treated with cyclosporine would:
Definition

Be unable to bind to IL-2 with high affinity, and therefore will be inhibited in their ability to divide and expand in response to antigen

 

Be unable to produce IL-2 after activation through the T cell receptor

Term
You are presented with a cat who has clinical signs consistent with asthma. You hear wheezes when you auscult his chest, which are indicative of bronchoconstriction. He is coughing. You decide to do a BAL (bronchioalveolar lavage) to look at the cell types found in the lung. You also do a CBC. You find in both the BAL and the blood there is an increase in what cell type that supports your diagnosis of asthma?
Definition

Eosinophils



Term
A tuberculin skin test is the injection of proteins from mycobacterium tuberculosis under the skin of a patient, and looking for swelling 48 hours later. This result could be negative (no swelling) if:
Definition

The patient's CD4 T cells are not functional (such as in an AIDS patient)


The patient has never been exposed to tuberculosis

Term

NLRs are in the cytoplasm, whereas TLRs are on the surface of cells or in endosomes


True/False

Definition
TRUE
Term

NLRs recognize crystalline structures which are not directly pathogen derived, whereas TLRs recognize pathogen derived molecules


True/False

Definition
TRUE
Term

Under normal circumstances, mechanisms which prevent animals from making IgG that recognizes their own red blood cells include:    

Definition

B cells are deleted in the bone marrow during development if they recognize self antigen.


T cells recognizing red cell antigens peptides in the thymus are deleted (assume that red cell peptides are presented in the thymus), so cannot provide help for B cells.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Term
In one sentence, explain what the AIRE gene does.
Definition

The AIRE gene is a transcription factor which transcribes genes normally only expressed in peripheral tissue, resulting in deletion of T cells reactive with antigens expressed on peripheral tissues. 

Term
Are Treg T cells CD4 or CD8 T cells?
Definition
CD4
Term

Which of the following therapies might be able to inhibit the activation of autoimmune CD4 T cells (assuming you could predict when such a response would begin).

   

a.Give the patient an antibody to class I MHC, which inhibits the ability of the T cell receptor to recognize peptide presented by class I. 

 

            b. Give the patient a drug that inhibits IL-2 production, such as cyclosporine.

  

            c.Give the patient a drug that inhibits IL-10 production.

 

           d. Give the patient a drug that inhibits the expression of B7/CD80

 

 

Definition

Give the patient a drug that inhibits IL-2 production, such as cyclosporine.


Give the patient a drug that inhibits the expression of B7/CD80

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Term

A cow carries the class II MHC alleles BoLA A1, B2 and C3 on one chromosome and A1, B2 and C4 on the other chromosome.  She is bred to a bull with exactly the same MHC alleles (they are full siblings, and she is a particularly valuable cow.  What is the maximum and minimum number of different class II proteins a calf from this mating could express? 

Definition

Maximum - 4

A1 B2 C3/A1 B2 C3

A1 B2 C3/A1 B2 C4

A1 B2 C4/A1 B2 C3

A1 B2 C3/A1 B2 C3

 

Minimum - 3

Term
Name some of the effects of Mast Cell degranulation
Definition

- vasodilation

 

- Itching

 

- Increased ICAM expression on vascular endothelium

Term

What T helper subset inhibits the development of type I hypersensitivity responses? 

Definition
TH1 (Treg is acceptable, but TH1 is the correct answer)
Term

The reason(s) that the acute clinical signs (i.e. the ones you see within seconds to minutes after the the antigen is injected/inhaled/ingested) associated with an allergy are not seen until the second exposure is/are:

Definition

It takes days to weeks to make enough IgE to cause clinical signs.    

Term

Type II hypersensitivity refers to the destruction of tissue (primarily peripheral blood elements) by antibodies.  There are multiple ways that antibodies to red blood cells can be generated, but in the end, the mechanisms of destruction are the same.  List two ways that antibodies mediate the destruction or removal of red blood cells.

Definition

Intravascular Hemolysis - Ab bind to RBC and activate complement, causing lysis

 

Extravascular Hemolysis - Ab opsonize RBC for uptake in the liver or spleen

Term

“Transfusion reaction” is the name given to the clinical signs seen in patients who are being transfused with red blood cells, and the clinician suspects they already have antibody to those red blood cells.  The clinical signs include hypotension, which is treated with anti-histamines.   The cause of the histamine release in this case is:    

Definition

The complement cascade is activated when antibodies bind to the transfused red blood cells, and C3a and C5a are produced which cause mast cell degranulation.

Term

You are called to a farm to examine an Arabian foal who is ill.  He was born the previous week although the owners were not sure exactly how old he was when they first found him (he was born in the pasture).  They reported that he appeared healthy and vigorous the first day and was nursing when they finally found him, but after two or three days became lethargic and developed a fever.  The mare is healthy but the owners know nothing about her past history.  You’re limited in your ability to do laboratory work in the field, so you can’t determine if the foal is anemic, or if he has evidence of an infectious disease on his CBC.  He is, however, icteric (yellow mucus membranes).  When you draw blood to bring back to the clinic, you note that the foal’s cells agglutinate in the tube, indicating he has antibodies in his serum to his own red blood cells.  In addition, when you add the mare’s serum to these cells, the agglutination is even more pronounced, suggesting that she also has antibodies to the foal’s red blood cells.  What can you conclude?    

Definition

- The foal probably has Hemolytic disease of newborns

 

- The foal nursed within 8 hours

 

- The mare has bred previously

Term

First, immune complexes bind to ______ via CR1.  These cells carry the immune complex to the liver and spleen where an enzyme called ________ cleaves the complex from the red blood cell.  The complex is then phagocytized by macrophages.

Definition

Red Blood Cells

 

Factor 1

Term

Which of the following situations would predispose a patient to type III hypersensitivity response?


a. Treatment of a dog with 11 grams (note: 11 grams is a lot) of equine antibody to rattlesnake venom, intravenously.

 

            b. Feline infectious peritonitis, a chronic viral disease in which very high levels of virus is found in the blood.

 

            c. A third vaccine in a dog who had facial swelling after the second vaccine.

 

            d. A healthy foal who was given oral colostrum by mistake, even though he had nursed successfully and had >800 mg/dl of IgG in his serum.

 

            e. A patient genetically deficient in complement. 

Definition

A - Treatment of a dog with 11 grams (note: 11 grams is a lot) of equine antibody to rattlesnake venom, intravenously.


B - Feline infectious peritonitis, a chronic viral disease in which very high levels of virus is found in the blood.


E - A patient genetically deficient in complement.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Term

Although live vaccines are generally considered more efficacious than their killed or inactivated counterparts, there are certain situations where you would choose a killed vaccine.  In which of the choices below would a killed vaccine be preferrable?

 

            a. A pregnant heifer 

 

b. A healthy 8 week old puppy

 

            c. A cat who is immunodeficient because she has FIV infection (feline immunodeficiency virus)

 

            d. An adult breeding stallion

 

            e. A trip to Botswana to vaccinate African Wild Dogs, which will involve 300 miles of driving in a non-air conditioned vehicle, and no means of refrigeration

Definition

a. A pregnant heifer


c. A cat who is immunodeficient because she has FIV infection (feline immunodeficiency virus)


e. A trip to Botswana to vaccinate African Wild Dogs, which will involve 300 miles of driving in a non-air conditioned vehicle, and no means of refrigeration 

Term

What kind of vaccine would allow the rabies glycoprotein to be efficiently presented by class I MHC, and therefore stimulate a better CD8 T cell response?

Definition

Must be a Live Vaccine that can replicate

 

A rabies virus grown in tissue culture and passaged to make it non-virulent (modified live viral vaccine)


A benign, live vaccinia virus which has incorporated the rabies glycoprotein (recombinant vaccine)

 

 

 

 

 


 

 

 

 

 

Term

Name the most common adjuvant in veterinary vaccines _______.  

 

The adjuvant is recognized by a receptor in the cytosol called_______.   

 

Activation of this receptor results in the production of what cytokine? 

Definition

- Alum

 

- NLR, Nod Like Receptor

 

- IL-1 & IL-33

Term

If you suspect an animal is exhibiting a Type IV hypersensitivity response after an SQ vaccination (lump formation after several days), what two cell types would you expect to find if the lump were biopsied? 

 

I wrote this question and I feel like a boss.

Definition

- Macrophages

 

- Leukocytes (Probably T cells)

Term
What factors should be considered when choosing a vaccine and a dose schedule?
Definition

The patient - age, health, risk of disease

 

The Vaccine - manufacturer, active vs inactive, delivery method

 

The disease - Is patient at risk? Is disease seasonal?

Term
What are some adverse consequencs of Vaccines?
Definition

- Prevents disease surveillance by serology

 

- Local irritation

 

- Local and systemic allergic response

 

- Live virus in pregnant or immune compromised people

 

- Contamination of vaccine

 

- Tumors (its nawt a tumah)

Term
Common ways to detect antibody of a pathogen in vitro
Definition

ELISA

 

Western Blot

 

Immunofluorescence on cell cultures

 

Agar gel Immunodiffusion

Term
Do cats clear FIV infection on their own?
Definition

Rarely, so basically fucking No

 

Detection of antibody to FIV in cats serum means that the animal is infected

Term
A positive SNAP test to FIV means:
Definition
•The cat is infected with FIV
 
•The cat is one of the very small number of cats that will be infected and then clear the virus (extremely rare)
 
•The cat still has maternal antibody but was not infected
 
•Vaccination with FIV (Fel-O-Vax)
 
•Serum from the cat binds to other antigens in the preparation used to make the viral antigen – false positive (use Western blot to determine this)
Term
A negative SNAP test to FIV could mean:
Definition

- Cat not infected

 

- Cat is infected, but too early to detect FIV antibody

Term
Define titer
Definition
•The titer is generally the dilution at which the optical density (OD) is some number over background (cut-off determined by laboratory, 4x background is common)
 
•A titer of 1:128 means there is more antibody than a titer of 1:16.  A titer of 1:128 is a higher titer than a titer of 1:16.
Term
Why would you perform a titer?
Definition

- Determine the amount of antibody present

 

- Compare amounts of antibody on two seperate occasions

 

- Can quantify IgM to determine if the animal has been recently infected

Term
Does the detection of antigen in a patient indicate that there is an active infection occuring?
Definition
Yes 
Term
How many doses of a modified live virus vaccine does a patient need for sufficient immunity?
Definition
One
Term

True / False

 

Killed Vaccines require Boosters

Definition
True
Term
Name several adverse effects of Vaccines
Definition
•1. Prevents disease surveillance by serology
 
•2. Local irritation
 
•3. Local and systemic allergic responses
 
•4. Replication of modified live vaccines in pregnant or immunocompromised people and animals
 
•5. Contamination of the vaccine with virulent viruses
 
•6. Tumors
 
•7. Autoimmunity?
Term
Are women immunocompromised when pregnant?
Definition
Yes
Term
What is AIHA
Definition
Autoimmune Hemolytic anemia
Term
What is the receptor for Alum?
Definition
NLR - Nod like receptor
Term
How many papers show a relationship between autoimmune disease and a vaccine in small animals?
Definition

disease: AIHA

 

Papers: 1

Term
Are anecdotal reports sufficient for making decisions? Like what Theresa and Turley do
Definition
Fuck no
Term
What is the reason young animals are given over doses of vaccines?
Definition
To overcome maternal immunity inteference
Term
What does ELISA stand for?
Definition
Enzyme Linked Immunosorbant Assay
Term
Does the presence of antibody indicate ongoing infection?
Definition
No. Means exposure. May also mean current infection
Term
Can a mother transmit FIV to offspring?
Definition
Yes
Term
High Titer means there are more or less antibody?
Definition
More
Term
Does Western blot show molecular weight?
Definition
Yes
Term
[image]
Definition

TH17 Cytokine: TGFb & IL-6

Transcription Factor: RORgt

Cytokines Produced: IL-17, IL-21, IL-22

 

Treg Cytokine: TGFb

Transcription Factor: Foxp3

Cytokines Produced: IL-17, IL-21, IL-22 

 

TH1 Cytokine: IL-12 and/or IFNy

Transcription Factor: Tbet

Cytokines Produced: IL-2, IFNy, TNFa

 

TH2 Cytokine: IL-4 + IL-33/TSLP

Transcription Factor: GATA3

Cytokines Produced: IL-4, IL-5, IL-13

Term
What is the desired IgG concentration in a foal after 24 hours?
Definition
>400mg/dL
Term
A foal with IgG levels of <200 mg/dL after 24 hours means what?
Definition
Failure of passive transfer
Term
A foal with IgG levels of 200 - 400mg/dL after 24 hours means what?
Definition
Partial failure of passive transfer
Term
What is the effective time window when giving a foal colostrum?
Definition

Absorption of colostral Ig is time-dependent.  It is highly efficient in the first six hours, but declines sharply beginning at 8 hours of age to reach negligible levels by 24 hours of age. 

Term

Case study:

 

Foal is presuckle

 

WBC: 5000

Lymphocytes: 250

IgM: <5mg/dL

IgG: <50mg/dL

Definition
SCID suspect - very low lymphocyte count (should be >1000)
Term

Case study:

 

Foal is 3 days old

 

WBC: 7000

Lymphocytes: 1750

IgM: 15mg/dL

IgG: 135mg/dL

Definition
Failure Passive Transfer
Term

Case study:

 

Foal is 2 days old

 

WBC: 7000

Lymphocytes: 500

IgM: 6mg/dL

IgG: 950mg/dL

Definition

SCID suspect

 

Remember: IgM half life is 4 days. Foal is only 2 days old. Repeat test after 4 days.

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