Term
|
Definition
| tumor, not usually malignant with exception of lymphoma |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| malignant tumor of connective tissues, muscle |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| involving the lymphatic system |
|
|
Term
| Nine adverse effects of antineoplastic drugs |
|
Definition
1) Myelosuppression
2) Immunosupression
3) Anaphylactic reactions
4) Cardiomyopathy
5) Tissue damage from extravasation
6) Hair loss
7) Cystitis
8) Pain
9) Vomiting/Diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| What are antineoplastic drugs used for? |
|
Definition
| Cure or lessen the effects of neoplasms by reducing tumor size, relieving pain and destroying microscopic metasteses |
|
|
Term
| How do antineoplastic drugs act? |
|
Definition
| Interfere with DNA/RNA synthesis, mitotic spindle formation, or other processes in cell division |
|
|
Term
| Why should human handlers not be exposed to antineoplastic drugs? |
|
Definition
| Teratogenic and carcinogenic |
|
|
Term
| How are antineoplastic drugs dosed? |
|
Definition
| Body surface area in square meters |
|
|
Term
| How do alkylating agents act? |
|
Definition
| Cell-cycle specific cross-link DNA strands to keep cells from replicating stopping protein synthesis and cell division |
|
|
Term
| What are alkylating agents used to treat? |
|
Definition
| Neoplastic disorders including myeloproliferative neoplasms, osteosarcomas, hemangiosarcomas, squamous cell carcinoma as well as some immune-mediated diseases |
|
|
Term
| What are some dosage forms of alkylating agents? |
|
Definition
Cytoxan-cyclophosphamide injection (also an immunosuppressant)
Leukeran-chlorambucil tablets
Alkeran-melphalan tablets |
|
|
Term
| What are some adverse effects of alkylating agents? |
|
Definition
| Neutropenia, Nephrotoxicity, Thrombocytopenia, Vomiting, Hemorrhagic cystitis |
|
|
Term
| How do antimetabolites work? |
|
Definition
| Cell-cycle specific-work on S phase where DNA is synthesized; analogs of purines and pyrimidine incorporated into the DNA molecule |
|
|
Term
| What are antimetabolites used to treat? |
|
Definition
| Lymphoproliferative neoplasms, GI and hepatic neoplasms, CNS lymphoma |
|
|
Term
| What are four dosage forms of antimetabolites? |
|
Definition
Methotrexate: oral tablet or injection
Cystosar-U: cytosine arabinoside injection
Flurouracil injection
Hydroxyurea |
|
|
Term
| What are seven adverse effects of antimetabolites? |
|
Definition
1) Anorexia 2) Nausea
3) Vomiting 4) Diarrhea
5) Bone marrow suppression
6) Hepatotoxicity 7) Neurotoxicity |
|
|
Term
| How do plant alkaloids work? |
|
Definition
| Mitotic inhibitors that are cell-cycle specific for the M phase; thought to bind microtubular proteins and inhibit spindle formation |
|
|
Term
| What two plant alkaloids are derived from the periwinkle plant? |
|
Definition
| Vincristine and Vinblastine |
|
|
Term
| What are plant alkaloids used to treat? |
|
Definition
| Lymphoproliferative neoplasms, carcinomas, mast cell tumors, splenic tumors |
|
|
Term
| What are two dosage forms of plant alkaloids? |
|
Definition
Oncovin: vincristine sulfate injection
Alkaban-AQ: vinblastine sulfate injection |
|
|
Term
| What are seven adverse effects of plant alkaloids? |
|
Definition
1) gastroenteritis
2) Bone marrow suppression
3) Stomatitis
4) Alopecia
5) Peripheral Neuropathy
6) Tissue necrosis-extravasation
7) Skin irritation if contact with skin |
|
|
Term
| What are antibiotic antineoplastics derived from? |
|
Definition
| soil fungi of the Streptomyces genus |
|
|
Term
| How do antibiotic antineoplastics act? |
|
Definition
| Cell-cycle nonspecific: bind with DNA to inhibit mitotic activity |
|
|
Term
| What are antibiotic antineoplastics used to treat? |
|
Definition
| Myeloproliferative neoplasms, some carcinomas and sarcomas |
|
|
Term
| What should be given as a premed with antibiotic antineoplastics? |
|
Definition
| Antihistamines to suppress allergic reactions. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common dosage form of antibiotic antineoplastics? |
|
Definition
| Adriamycin: doxirubicin hydrochloride for injection |
|
|
Term
| What are five adverse effects of antibiotic antineoplastics? |
|
Definition
1) Bone marrow suppression
2) Cardiotoxicity (cardiomyopathy)
3) Gastroenteritis
4) Anaphylaxis
5) Strong vesicant |
|
|
Term
| How do platinum drugs act? |
|
Definition
| Interupt DNA in tumor cells |
|
|
Term
| What are platinum drugs used to treat? |
|
Definition
| Solid tumors like osteosarcomas and carcinomas |
|
|
Term
| What are two dosage forms of platinum drugs? |
|
Definition
Cisplatin (Platinol)
Carboplatin (Paraplatin) |
|
|
Term
| What are four adverse effects of platinum drugs? |
|
Definition
1) Renal toxicity (give fluids)
2) Nausea
3) Anorexia
4) Vomiting with cisplatinum |
|
|
Term
| How should platinum drugs be administered? |
|
Definition
| In conjunction with saline diuresis |
|
|
Term
| What three things make cisplatin contraindicated in cats? |
|
Definition
1) Dyspnea
2) Pulmonary edema
3) Death |
|
|
Term
| How does asparaginase act? |
|
Definition
| Cell-cycle specific for the G phase; acts as a catalyst to break down the amino acid asparagine required by cancer cells |
|
|
Term
| What is asparagine extracted from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is asparaginase used to treat? |
|
Definition
| Lymphoproliferative neoplasia in conjunction with other drugs |
|
|
Term
| What is the dosage form of asparaginase? |
|
Definition
| Elspar: asparaginase for injection |
|
|
Term
| What are two adverse effects of asparaginase? |
|
Definition
| Immediate hypersensitivity and GI problems |
|
|
Term
| What are the benefits of using glucocorticoids with antineoplastic drugs? |
|
Definition
Lympholytic action: good for lymphoproliferative neoplasia
Manage complications like hypercalcemia and immune-mediated thrombocytopenia
Increased appetite and feeling of well-being |
|
|
Term
| Why are biologic response modifiers used with chemotherapy agents? |
|
Definition
| Stimulate compromised immune system |
|
|
Term
| What are monoclonal antibodies and what produces them? |
|
Definition
| Immunoglobulin molecules formed through cloning plasma cells; produced by hybridoma |
|
|
Term
| How do monoclonal antibodies act and what do they treat? |
|
Definition
Direct cytotoxic effect on tumor cells
Canine lymphoma |
|
|
Term
| What are four adverse effects of monoclonal antibodies? |
|
Definition
1) Facial edema
2) Vomiting
3) Diarrhea
4) Anxious behavior |
|
|
Term
| How should monoclonal antibodies be given? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What produces interferon? |
|
Definition
| Leukocytes, fibroblasts, and epithelial cells |
|
|
Term
| What is Interferon used to treat? |
|
Definition
| FeLV and FIP related problems |
|
|
Term
| What are four dosage forms of Interferon? |
|
Definition
Roferon-A
Intron-A
Alferon-A
Actimmune |
|
|
Term
| How does azothioprine act? |
|
Definition
| Inhibits T and B lymphocytes to suppress immune system |
|
|
Term
| In what animal should azothioprine not be used? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is azothiprine used to treat? |
|
Definition
| Immune-mediated diseases in dogs |
|
|
Term
| What is the dosage form of Azothioprine? |
|
Definition
| Immuran tablets and injection |
|
|
Term
| What is an adverse effects of Azothioprine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is cyclosporine most commonly used to treat? |
|
Definition
| Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) in the form of a topical opthalmic such as Optimmune ointment |
|
|
Term
| What is another use for the anticoagulant EDTA? |
|
Definition
| given IV to treat lead toxicity |
|
|
Term
| What do fibrinolytics (thrombolytics) do? |
|
Definition
| Dissolve clots; example, streptokinase |
|
|
Term
| What is erythropoeitin most commonly used to treat? |
|
Definition
| Anemia associated with chronic renal failure |
|
|
Term
| What two animals do not normally vomit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are three potential side effects of vomiting? |
|
Definition
1) Dehydration
2) Electrolyte imbalances
3) Acid-base imbalances |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common emetic in dogs and how does it act? |
|
Definition
| Apomorphine; Morphine derivative that stimulates dopamine receptors in the CRTZ |
|
|
Term
| What emetic is contraindicated in cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug is used to treat an overdose of apomorphine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common emetic in cats? |
|
Definition
| Xylazine: works in 3-5 minutes |
|
|
Term
| What are two common household emetics? |
|
Definition
Syrup of ipecac
Hydrogen peroxide |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common phenothiazine antiemetic and what are two side effects? |
|
Definition
| Chlopromazine (thorazine: side effects of sedation and hypotension |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common procainamide derivative and what are three actions of it? |
|
Definition
| Metoclopramide (Reglan); increases gastic contraction, strengthens cardiac sphincter tone |
|
|
Term
| When is metaclopramide contraindicated? |
|
Definition
| If GI obstruction is suspected |
|
|
Term
| How do anticholinergics act as antiemetics? |
|
Definition
| Block acetylcholine at parasympathetic nerve endings |
|
|
Term
| What is the newest veterinary antiemetic? |
|
Definition
| Cerenia (maropitant citrate) |
|
|
Term
| How do most antiulcer medications act? |
|
Definition
| Decrease histamine effect on the parietal cell in the stomach that release HCl by acting as H2 receptor antagonists |
|
|
Term
| What concern is there in using Cimetidine (Tagamet)? |
|
Definition
| May inhibit microsomoal enzymes in the liver that alters the rate of metabolism of drug possibly prolonging the effects of drugs that are highly metabolized by the liver |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do proton pump inhibitors act? |
|
Definition
| Hydrogen ions are protons and are pumped against the concentration gradient |
|
|
Term
| What are proton pump inhibitors used to treat? |
|
Definition
| Gastric and duodenal ulcers, as well as esophagitis |
|
|
Term
| Give an example of a proton pump inhibitor? |
|
Definition
| Omeprazole (Prilosec, Prevacid, Gastrogard equine paste) |
|
|
Term
| What are antacids used for? |
|
Definition
| To decrease HCl levels and rumen acidosis and are used as laxatives |
|
|
Term
| What are two examples of antacids? |
|
Definition
Aluminum magnesium hydroxide (Maalox, Mylanta)
Magnesium hydroxide (Magnalax, Rulax II) |
|
|
Term
| When are magnesium antacids contraindicated? |
|
Definition
| In animals with renal failure; will also decrease the absorption of other drugs given orally |
|
|
Term
| What are three characteristics of GI protectants and give one example? |
|
Definition
1) Paste-like substance that coats ulcers
2) Binds better in an acid environment so should be given 30-60 minutes prior to giving H2 antagonists
3) Should be given a couple of hours before other drugs given orally so that absorption is not prevented
Example: Sucralfate (carafate) |
|
|
Term
| Prostaglandin E-1 analogs |
|
Definition
| bind to same receptors to decrease acid production to help prevent ulcers; use with NSAIDs; Misoprostol (Cytotec) |
|
|
Term
| Name four causes of diarrhea |
|
Definition
1) increased intestinal secretion due to bacterial endotoxins from organisms such as E. coli, Clostridial organisms, Campylobacter, and Heliobacter
2) epithelial damage from viruses
3) osmotic overload from poorly digestible diets or rapid change of diet
4) Hypermotility or hypomotility ( more likely) of GI tract |
|
|
Term
| How do narcotic analgesics control diarrhea? |
|
Definition
| By increasing segmental contractions, decreasing intestinal secretions, and increasing intestinal absorption |
|
|
Term
| Why are narcotic analgesics not often used in cats or horses? |
|
Definition
| Can cause CNS stimulation and mask abdominal pain |
|
|
Term
| What is added to diphenoxylate (Lomitil), CV, to discourage substance abuse? |
|
Definition
| Atropine to cause dry mouth |
|
|
Term
| What synthetic narcotic can be used in cats as an antidiarrheal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do anticholinergics work as an antidiarrheal? |
|
Definition
| Decrease hypermotility, but now hypomotility is thought to be more of a problem so could make diarrhea worse |
|
|
Term
| How do protectants/absorbents work? |
|
Definition
| coat inflamed GI mucosa to protect it from further insult and help to bind toxins |
|
|
Term
| How does bismuth subsalicylate work? |
|
Definition
| Coats and has an antibacterial effect and salicylate has an anti-inflammatory effect and reduces secretions due to inhibiting prostaglandins |
|
|
Term
| What three things should be considered when using Peptobismol? |
|
Definition
1) Must use salicylates with extreme caution in cats
2) Bismuth may appear radioopaque
3) can result in black stools |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Saline/hyperosmotic agents that contain magnesium or phosphate that are poorly absorbed from the GI tract and hold/attract water in the GI tract that softens feces and stimulates stretch receptors in the gut wall to increase peristalsis |
|
|
Term
| Four examples of saline/hyperosmotic agents |
|
Definition
1) Lactulose (also reduces blood ammonia levels in some liver disease)
2) Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia)
3) Magnesium sulfate (Epsom salts)
4) Sodium phosphate (Fleet enemas) |
|
|
Term
| How do bulk-producing agents act? |
|
Definition
| Absorb water to increase the bulk of intestinal contents, stretching the GI tract to stimulate peristalsis (Metamucil) |
|
|
Term
| How do surfactants/stool softeners act? |
|
Definition
| Reduce surface tension to allow water to penetrate GI contents (docusate sodium succinate or DSS) |
|
|
Term
| How do irritant laxatives act? |
|
Definition
| Irritate gut wall to stimulate peristalsis |
|
|
Term
| What are three examples of GI prokinetics/stimulants? |
|
Definition
1) Metoclopramide (Reglan)-also antiemetic
2) Domperidone (Motilium)
3) Cisapride-constipation in cats |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Contains pancreatic enzymes that are necessary for digestion of fats, proteins and carbohydates to treat pancreatic insufficiency |
|
|
Term
| What two things does insulin do? |
|
Definition
1) Facilitates uptake of glucose by cells
2) Promotes synthesis of proteins, fatty acids, and glycogen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| body's immune system destroys the beta cells so they cannot produce insulin-insulin dependent |
|
|
Term
| Type II Diabetes mellitus |
|
Definition
| Insulin resistance occurs, beta cells wear out from excessive insulin production and eventually lose the ability to produce insulin |
|
|
Term
| List five clinical signs of Diabetes mellitus. |
|
Definition
1) PU
2) PD
3) polyphagia
4) weight loss
5) ketoacidosis |
|
|
Term
| What are four things that will raise blood sugar. |
|
Definition
1) Corticosteroids
2) Growth hormone
3) Progesterone
4) Epinephrine |
|
|
Term
| Clinical signs of diabetic ketoacidosis. |
|
Definition
| PU/PD, vomiting, lethargy, loss of consciousness |
|
|
Term
| Why is insulin not effective when given orally? |
|
Definition
| Broken down in the digestive tract |
|
|
Term
| When are short-acting insulins most often used? |
|
Definition
| To treat diabetic ketoacidosis (Humalog, Humulin R) |
|
|
Term
| When are intermediate acting insulins most often used? |
|
Definition
| For control of uncomplicated diabetes, SQ BID 30 minutes after a meal (NPH, Lente, Humulin N) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common long-acting insulin? |
|
Definition
| PZI for maintenance in cats |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Veterinary U-40 pork insulin with added zinc, SID or BID currently off the market due to varied responses to drug and bacterial contamination |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Type II cats with oral medication (glipizide-Glucotrol) and diet |
|
|
Term
| What are progestins used for? |
|
Definition
| suppress estrus and maintain pregnancy in mares; control estrus in dogs and cats; treat false pregnancy and treat unacceptable male behaviors in cats |
|
|
Term
| Why are progestins not commonly used? |
|
Definition
| Increased incidence of mammary hyperplasia and adenocarcinoma |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibit ovulation, increase uterine tone, cause endometrial proliferation, induces estrus in horses, induces abortion and control urinary incontinence in dogs |
|
|
Term
| What are the negatives associated with using estrogens? |
|
Definition
| Severe anemia, DES banned in food animals because it may cause cervical cancer in women, pyometra in dogs |
|
|
Term
| What are the uses of prostaglandins? |
|
Definition
| Lysis of corpus luteum, contraction of uterine muscle, relaxation of the cervix, expel pus in pyometra, induce abortion in feedlot cattle, initiate parturition in swine or mares, induce/synchronize estrus |
|
|
Term
| Adverse effects of prostaglandins |
|
Definition
| Induce abortion in pregnant woman and asthma attacks; in animals-abdominal pain, sweating, tachycardia, panting |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| causes increase in intraocular pressure which eventually causes damage to the retina and the optic nerve |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a type of primary glaucoma where the anterior chamber is shallow and the drainage angle is narrow so there is an increase in intraocular pressure |
|
|
Term
| Normal intraocular pressure in dogs, cats and humans |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inflammation of the vascular layer of the eye (uvea) which includes the iris, the ciliary body, and the choroid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| constriction of the pupil |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| paralysis of the ciliary body which is important in changing the shape of the lens |
|
|
Term
| Two mydriatics used to dilate the eye for examination |
|
Definition
1) Phenylephrine
2) Tropicamide (Mydriacyl) |
|
|
Term
| What drug acts as a mydriatic and cycloplegic? |
|
Definition
| Atropine sulfate; contraindicated in glaucoma and KCS |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1) used to treat glaucoma
2) reduce intraocular pressure by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor
3) mostly cholinergic agents
4) Pilocarpine, carbachol |
|
|
Term
| What are two osmotic diuretics? |
|
Definition
1) Mannitol-reduce intracranial pressure that can also be given IV to reduce intraocular pressure
2) Glycerol-given orally to reduce intraocular pressure |
|
|
Term
| What are two examples of topical anesthetics? |
|
Definition
Proparacaine hydrochloride
Tetracaine hydrochloride |
|
|
