Term
| List three properties of Vancomycin. |
|
Definition
1) Not commonly used in veterinary medicine (Used to treat MRSA in human medicine)
2) Good against gram-positives
3) Given orally only for a specific Clostridium, otherwise given IV |
|
|
Term
List four side effects of Vancomycin.
|
|
Definition
1) Thrombophlebitis
2) Febrile reactions
3) Ototoxicity
4) Nephrotoxicity |
|
|
Term
| In what animals, for what diseases in Spectinomycin most commonly used? |
|
Definition
1) Chicks and turkey poulets for susceptible organisms
2) Baby pigs under 4 wks and under 15 lbs. for E. coli scours
3) Cattle for respiratory disease from Haemophilus and Pasteurella (not for veal calves or dairy cows) |
|
|
Term
| Give two trade names and one side effect for Spectinomycin. |
|
Definition
1) Spectam and Adspec
2) swelling at injection site |
|
|
Term
| In what forms are polymyxin B and bacitracin most commonly used? |
|
Definition
| Topicals and opthalmics, often in combination with neomycin |
|
|
Term
| T/F--Suphonamides kill bacteria. |
|
Definition
| False-They are bacteriostatic |
|
|
Term
| What are two side effects of Polymyxin B and under what circumstances do they occur? |
|
Definition
1) Neurotoxicity
2) Nephrotoxicity
if given parenterally |
|
|
Term
| What is a side effect of Bacitracin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What three things can be added to sulphas to make them bacteriocidal and what are the names of the three products of these combinations? |
|
Definition
1) Trimethoprim
2) Pyrimethamine
3) Ormetoprim
create sulfadiazine, sulfaisoxazole, and sulfadimethoxine |
|
|
Term
| What are three dosage forms of sulphonamides? |
|
Definition
1) Tribrissen
2) Primor
3) Albon |
|
|
Term
| What are some side effects of sulphonamides? |
|
Definition
1) urticaria
2) vomiting and diarrhea
3) anorexia
4) fever
5) kidney damage due to crystal formation in carnivores
6) thrombocytopenia
7) leukopenia
8) anemia
9) photosensitivity
10) KCS |
|
|
Term
| What sulphonamide is used primarily for colitis for its anti-inflammatory effect? |
|
Definition
| Sulfasalazine-related to aspirin so must be used with extreme caution in cats |
|
|
Term
| Why are nitrofurans a good antibiotic for urinary tract infections? |
|
Definition
| It is broad spectrum and filtered quickly through the glomerulus. |
|
|
Term
| List five uses for Nitrofurans other than for urinary tract infections. |
|
Definition
1) Topical wound treatment
2) Enteritis in pigs
3) Coccidiosis in chickens
4) Pink eye in cattle, sheep, goats
5) Eye and ear infections in dogs and cats |
|
|
Term
| What are the two catagories of treatment with antifungals? |
|
Definition
1) treatment of superficial fungal infections of the skin and mucous membranes diagnosed by culture, identification or hyphae
2) treatment of systemic fungal infections-blood, lungs, CNS diagnosed through serology |
|
|
Term
| What are the four classes of antifungals? |
|
Definition
1) polyene
2) imidazole
3) antimetabolic
4) superficial |
|
|
Term
| What are the two most common polyene antifungals? |
|
Definition
1) Amphoteracin B
2) Nystatin |
|
|
Term
| What are five adverse effects of Amphoteracin B? |
|
Definition
1) nephrotoxicity (most common)
2) anorexia
3) anemia
4) fever
5) vomiting
6) seizures
7) cardiac arrest |
|
|
Term
How is Amphoteracin B most commonly administered?
|
|
Definition
IV by diluting it in 5% dextrose
also available in a SQ formulation |
|
|
Term
| Nystatin is most commonly used to treat what? |
|
Definition
| Candida infections of the skin, mucous membranes and GI tract |
|
|
Term
| List three common imidazoles and how they are most commonly used. |
|
Definition
1) Ketaconazole-oral and topical
2) Miconazole-parenteral and topical
3) Clotrimazole-topical |
|
|
Term
| What is the main adverse effect of ketaconazole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are five adverse effects of of imidazoles? |
|
Definition
1) tachycardia
2) arrhythmia
3) fever
4) nausea
5) thrombophelbitis after IV administration |
|
|
Term
| What is the newest drug in the imidazole class? |
|
Definition
| Intraconazole-used to treat systemic fungal infections |
|
|
Term
| Fluocystine is what type of antifungal? |
|
Definition
Antimetabolic-fungistatic
used in combination with others to treat yeasts |
|
|
Term
| Fluocystine should not be used in animals with what condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are four adverse effects of fluocystine? |
|
Definition
1) Bone marrow depression
2) Anemia
3) Leukopenia
4) Thrombocytopenia |
|
|
Term
| What is griseofulvin used to treat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Griseofulvin has what side effect in cats and which animals should it not be used on? |
|
Definition
1) Hepatotoxicity
2) Pregnant or breeding animals-produces congenital defects |
|
|
Term
| What two species is Acyclovir used in? |
|
Definition
1) birds
2) cats with confirmed ocular herpes that is untreatable with other medication |
|
|
Term
| What are the adverse effects of Acyclovir? |
|
Definition
Cats-leukopenia and anemia
Birds-tissue necrosis at injection site |
|
|
Term
| What is Interferon Alfa-2A used to treat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cholinergic agent that helps empty the urinary bladder by increasing the tone of the detruser muscle in the bladder |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| xanthine oxidase inhibitor that reduces production of uric acid, which can help control urate uroliths |
|
|
Term
| Methionine and ammonium chloride are both? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe Phenylpropanolamine |
|
Definition
| alpha-adrenergic agonist used to increase urethral tone to prevent leaking of urine |
|
|
Term
| What does DES stand for and what does it treat? |
|
Definition
| Diethylstilbestrol-estrogen-control urine leaking in hormone responsive incontinence common in spayed female dogs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| loop diuretic that inhibits tubular reabsorption of sodium and increases the excretion of potassium, chloride and water. |
|
|
Term
| What makes Spirolactone different from other diuretics? |
|
Definition
| it is a potassium-sparing diuretic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Periods of altered brain function characterized by loss of consciousness, increased muscle tone or movement, altered sensations and other neurologic changes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Convulsions are seizures that manifest themselves as spastic muscle movement caused by stimulation of motor nerves in the brain or spinal cord. |
|
|
Term
| List and define the three phases of a seizure. |
|
Definition
1) Preictal phase (aura): prior to actual seizure; anxiety; panting; pacing that can last minutes to hours
2) Ictal phase: generalized seizure (grand mal) or partial seizure (petit mal).
3) Postictal phase: after the seizure has subsided when the animal appears to be tired, confused, and maybe even blind. Lasts seconds to hours. |
|
|
Term
| What is the drug of choice for long-term seizure control? |
|
Definition
| Phenobarbital (measured in grains) given SID or BID |
|
|
Term
| What are the adverse effects of Phenobarbital? |
|
Definition
Short-term: sedation or ataxia
Long-term: inhibits ADH so PU/PD; hepatotoxicity
will always see some elevation of liver enzymes with use |
|
|
Term
| T/F-Diazepam works better in dogs than in cats for seizure control. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a danger with potassium bromide? |
|
Definition
| Narrow therapeutic index so effective dose is close to dose that is toxic. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| anticonvulsant that produces phenobarbital as it is metabolized but is more likely to cause hepatotoxicity. |
|
|
Term
| Why are benzodiazepines not a good choice for long-term seizure control? |
|
Definition
| They have to be given several times a day and animals develop a tolerance |
|
|
Term
| What category of drugs are the most common tranquilizers in veterinary medicine? |
|
Definition
| Phenothiazines such as acepromazine and chlorpromazine espcially for fear responses to thunderstorms, firecrackers, trips to the vet, etc. |
|
|
Term
| How do tricyclic antidepressants work? |
|
Definition
| Affect the uptake of serotonin from the synaptic cleft so activity is prolonged but also have an effect of norepinephrine reuptake. |
|
|
Term
| What is the veterinary labeled tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the common side effects of TCAs? |
|
Definition
| Tachycardia, heart block, mydriasis, dry mouth, constipation, urine retention, reduced tear production, sedation |
|
|
Term
| What are four clinical uses of TCAs? |
|
Definition
1) general anxiety
2) separation anxiety
3) obsessive-compulsive disorders
4) marking behavior in cats |
|
|
Term
| How do serotonin reuptake inhibitors work? |
|
Definition
| Antidepressant that selectively affects serotonin uptake for fewer side effects. |
|
|
Term
| What are four clinical uses for SSRIs? |
|
Definition
1) anxiety
2) aggression
3) obsessive-compulsive behaviors
4) urine marking |
|
|
Term
| What is the veterinary form of a monamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)? |
|
Definition
| Selegiline with brand name of Anipryl to treat Cushing's and canine cognitive disorder. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do benzodiazepines work? |
|
Definition
| Increase stimulation of neuroreceptors for GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter that depresses the CNS |
|
|
Term
| What is the most commonly used azapirone? |
|
Definition
| Buspirone (BuSpar) used for fear/anxiety and for urine spraying/marking |
|
|
Term
| What was a commonly used progestin and why is it not used anymore? |
|
Definition
Megestrol acetate (Ovaban) used for aggression, inappropriate elimination and skin problems
Not used anymore because causes hyperglycemia leading to diabetes, adrenal suppresion, endometrial hyperplasia and most significantly mammary tumors and hyperplasia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
An enzyme that reduces the effectvieness of certain antibiotics by breaking down the beta-lactate ring
beta-lactamase I-penicillinase
beta-lactamase II-cephalosporinase |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common culture test used to determine sensitivity of bacteria to antibiotics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the antibiotic that works best in vitro may not be the one that works best in vivo? |
|
Definition
| The antibiotic may not be able to reach the infection depending on where it is located in the body |
|
|
Term
| What is the MIC of an antibiotic? |
|
Definition
| Minimum Inhibitory Concentration: the lowest concentration of the antibiotic that inhibits growth of the bacterium |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| They bind with enzymes called penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) outside the bacterial cell membrane that are involved in cell wall sysnthesis and cell division-ruptures cell |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria is especially likely to produce beta-lactamase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F-Penicillins are typically effective against gram-positives but not against gram negatives. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which penicillins must be given IM? |
|
Definition
1) procaine pen. G
2) benzathine penicillins |
|
|
Term
| Which penicillin cannot be given orally? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which two penicillins may be given IV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List three problems with using penicillin. |
|
Definition
1) Don't cross the blood-brain barrier easily
2) cause more allergic reactions than other antibiotics
3) Cause GI problems because normal, good intestinal flora are destroyed allowing overgrowth of some undesirable microbes |
|
|
Term
| How do cephalosporins work? |
|
Definition
| Interfere with cell wall synthesis and bid with proteins in the cell wall |
|
|
Term
| Which generations of cephalosporins have less sensitivity to beta-lactamase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F-Animals that react to penicillins are less likely to react to cephalosporins than animals that do not react to penicillins. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cephalosporin is given by injection to large animals, even dairy cows, as well as chicks and turkeys to control E. coli? |
|
Definition
Ceftiofur sodium-Naxcell
3rd generation |
|
|
Term
| What is the third generation cephalosporin that can be given orally? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are tetracyclines bacteriocidal or bacteriostatic? |
|
Definition
| Bacteriostatic, though can be bacteriocidal at high doses |
|
|
Term
| What are three adverse effects of tetracyclines? |
|
Definition
1) Affect bone and teeth formation in young animals causing yellow staining of the teeth
2) May cause "drug fever" in cats
3) Hepatotoxic in high doses |
|
|
Term
| Aminoglycosides should be used to treat gram-positive or gram-negative bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are three side effects of aminoglycosides? |
|
Definition
Main: nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
also neuromuscular synaptic dysfunction |
|
|
Term
| How should aminoglycosides be administered? |
|
Definition
| Parenterally, although neomycin can be absorbed orally |
|
|
Term
| What are aminoglycosides most commonly used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of bacteria are aminoglycosides effective against? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What three things should you NOT do with aminoglycosides? |
|
Definition
1) Do not use with neuromuscular blocking agents
2) Do not use if animal has any renal problems or is on furosemide
3) Do not mix in a syringe with other medications |
|
|
Term
| Name four dosage forms of aminoglycosides. |
|
Definition
1) Gentamicin: Gentocin
2) Amikacin: Amiglyde-V
3) Kanamycin-Kantrim
4) Neomycin-Biosol |
|
|
Term
| Fluoroquinolones are approved for what five species? |
|
Definition
1) Dogs
2) Cats
3) Turkeys
4) Chickens
5) Cattle |
|
|
Term
| Fluoroquinolones are often used off-label in what type of animals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are fluoroquinolones especially effective against? |
|
Definition
| Staph and Pseudomonas (bacterium with fruity odor) |
|
|
Term
| What are three adverse effects of fluoroquinolones? |
|
Definition
1) formation of lesions in articular cartilage in young dogs in the rapid growth phase
2) CNS stimulation and precipitate seizures
3) retinal changes in cats resulting in blindness |
|
|
Term
| Fluoroquinolones are contraindicated in what animals? |
|
Definition
| Large breeds up to 12 months of age and in small and medium dogs up to 8 months of age |
|
|
Term
| What dosage of fluoroquinolones should be used in cats to reduce chance of retinal changes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List four common dosage forms of fluoroquinolones. |
|
Definition
1) Ciprofloxacin-Cipro
2) Enrofloxacin-Baytril
3) Marbofloxacin-Zeniquin
4) Orbifloxacin-Orbax |
|
|
Term
| What is the main benefit of chloramphenicol? |
|
Definition
| Can cross blood-brain barrier |
|
|
Term
| Why should chloramphenicol not be used in food animals? |
|
Definition
| It can cause aplastic anemia in people |
|
|
Term
| What is the main side effect of chloramphenicol in animals? |
|
Definition
| Blood dyscrasias, especially in cats due to myelosuppression |
|
|
Term
| Florfenicol is most often used to treat? |
|
Definition
| Bovine respiratory disease such as Pastuerella and Haemophilus |
|
|
Term
| What is the dosage form of florfenicol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What dosage protocol is approved for florfenicol? |
|
Definition
| Two IM injections given 48 hours apart with a 28 day withdrawal time |
|
|
Term
| Florfenicol is not approved for what animals? |
|
Definition
| Dairy cows over 20 months of age or veal calves |
|
|
Term
| Macrolides are good against what type of bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the macrolide that can cause cardiac arrest in humans if accidentally injected? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are four clinical uses for lincosamides? |
|
Definition
1) Dental infections
2) Osteomyelitis
3) Abcesses
4) Deep pyodermas |
|
|
Term
| What animals should not be given lincosamides? |
|
Definition
| Egg layers, breeders, rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, horses-can cause serious GI problems and death |
|
|
Term
| What is the most commonly used lincosamide? |
|
Definition
Clindamycin: Antirobe
good against anerobic bacteria |
|
|
Term
| What antimicrobial is used to treat giardia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are three clinical uses of Rifampin? |
|
Definition
1) Treat Corynebacterium equi in foals
2) Treat some Streps
3) Used with amphotericin B to treat histo, blasto and aspergillus |
|
|
Term
| What is the main side effect of Rifampin? |
|
Definition
| Turns tears, urine, saliva and sweat reddish-orange. |
|
|