Term
| What does MIC stand for and what does it mean? |
|
Definition
| Minimum Inhibitory Concentration: the minimum amount of medicine that will inhibit growth of bacteria |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An enzyme produced by some bacteria that breaks down the beta-lactam ring in the antibiotic reducing the effectiveness |
|
|
Term
| What commonly used antibiotic has a beta-lactamase inhibitor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which penicillins can be given IV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What groups of antibiotics is commonly used against rickettsial organisms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two adverse effects of aminoglycosides? |
|
Definition
1) Ototoxicity
2) Nephrotoxicity |
|
|
Term
| Name two side effects associated with fluoroquinolones? |
|
Definition
1) formation of lesions in cartilage in young dogs in the rapid growth phase
2) CNS stimulation and precipitate seizures
3) retinal changes in cats resulting in blindness |
|
|
Term
| What antimicrobial is used to treat giardia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What symptoms are seen in diabetic ketoacidosis? |
|
Definition
| Vomiting, lethargy, loss of consciousness |
|
|
Term
| What is diabetic ketoacidosis? |
|
Definition
| When the body cannot effectively use glucose due to insufficient insulin the body begins breaking down fats which produces ketones causing the blood to become more acidic. |
|
|
Term
| How is diabetic ketoacidosis treated? |
|
Definition
| IV fluids, short-acting insulin, may need to correct electrolyte imbalance |
|
|
Term
| How should insulin be handled before giving? |
|
Definition
| Refrigeration is recommended to extend shelf life, but not required. Roll gently between hands, do not shake. Draw up amount to be given and allow it to warm to room temperature before giving. |
|
|
Term
| Where should insulin injections be given? |
|
Definition
| SQ; Injection site should be moved to avoid a build up of scar tissue that will prevent proper absorption. |
|
|
Term
| How often is insulin usually administered? |
|
Definition
| Twice a day; every twelve hours |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 40 units of insulin per 1 ml |
|
|
Term
| What differences are there in insulin syringes? |
|
Definition
| U-40 syringes are designed to dose U-40 insulin and therefore the unit markings provide a different insulin dose than a U-100 syringe's same unit markings |
|
|
Term
| What hormone is given to dogs to abort litters? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the possible consequences of giving estrogen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name two symptoms of hyperthyroidism in cats. |
|
Definition
1) Excessive appetite accompanied by weight loss
2) Tachycardia |
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the drug given orally to cats to drop high thyroid hormone levels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two side effects are seen in people handling prostaglandins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common use for cyclosporine? What is the veterinary trade name for this product? |
|
Definition
Ophthalmic ointment used to treat KCS
Optimmune ointment |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Constriction of the pupil |
|
|
Term
| In what GI condition is metoclopramide contraindicated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are Fleet enemas contraindicated in cats? |
|
Definition
| Can cause a severe electrolyte imbalance that can lead to death |
|
|
Term
| What is the action of ducosate sodium succinate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of Cox-1? |
|
Definition
| Maintains physiologic functions like renal blood flow and synthesis of gastric mucosa. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of Cox-2? |
|
Definition
| Promotes the formation of prostaglandin from cell membrane archidonic acid |
|
|
Term
| What is the benefit of NSAIDS which are selective Cox-2 inhibitors? |
|
Definition
| Less chance of nephrotoxicity or ulceration of the gastric mucosa |
|
|
Term
| What is the toxic effect seen in cats given acetaminophen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug is given to counteract acetaminophen toxicity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is meant by the term teratogenic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the only NSAID labeled for use in cats in the U.S? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All opioid agonists are which schedule controlled substances? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug s contraindicated in a patient that has a history of seizures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The behavioral drug group that is used not only to alleviate behavioral problems but also to stimulate appetite in several species of animals is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A progestin, often used in the past for the treatment of inappropriate elimination in cats, that is now fallen out of favor because of serious potential side-effects including mammary hyperplasia and adenocarcinoma is? |
|
Definition
| Megestrol acetate (Ovaban) |
|
|
Term
| Trigger, a 5 year-old English Spaniel, has been urinating, defecating and chewing the walls of his home when his owners are away. He was recently diagnosed as having separation anxiety. What drug was prescribed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The first drug of choice for a cat experiencing status epilepticus is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The anticonvulsant drug that may be given rectally is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which anticonvulsant is measured in grains? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Griseofulvin (Fulvicin) is used in cats, dogs and horses to treat what disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A recently reported side effect of fluroquinolone administration in cats given SID dosing at higher dosing schedule is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antimicrobial drugs like enrofloxacin (Baytril), marbofloxacin (Zeniquin) and orbofloxacin (Orbax) all belong to which group of antibiotics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Julia, a 1 year-old FS boxer, was diagnosed with meningitis. The veterinarian prescribed an antibiotic that will readily pass the blood brain barrier. Which antibiotic did she prescribe? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mrs. Westin brought in a kitten, recently adopted from the animal shelter, to your hospital. She noticed a patchy hair loss, which was subsequently diagnosed as ringworm infection. Which drug is most appropriate to treat this condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A very useful group of broad-spectrum drugs, whose popularity has more recently declined because of numerous potential side effects, including KCS, crystal formation, hematuria, photosensitivity and hives is the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mayzie is a 3 month old DSH who has just been diagnosed with Chlamydia psittaci. You know that Dr. Hansen will not be presribing tetracycline because? |
|
Definition
| It will affect the enamel on Mayzie's developing teeth |
|
|
Term
| The class of anti-infective drugs that should be avoided in all food producing animals is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common adverse effects of aminoglycoside antimicrobials are? |
|
Definition
| Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity |
|
|
Term
| Penicillins are primarily excreted by the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Because of the manner in which they are excreted, tetracycline are often effective against infections of the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Potentiated penicillins are? |
|
Definition
| Active against beta-lactamase producing bacteria |
|
|
Term
| The class of antibiotics most commonly prescribed to treat rickettsial infections is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You tell the client that she should wear gloves when handling this medication because it has been associated with a rare adverse reaction in humans, aplastic anemia. Based on this information, the drug that you most likely dispensed was? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which anti-infective compounds, when given to juvenile animals, can impair bone development? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What class of antibiotics can cause formation of lesions in articular cartilage in young dogs in the rapid growth phase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A cat is given methionine to alter the pH of his urine in an effort to dissolve his struvite stones. The drug has which intended effect? |
|
Definition
| Acidification of the urine |
|
|
Term
| What is added to amoxicillin to make it resistant to the penicillin destroying beta-lactamase enzymes produced by some bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Unlike other penicillins, penicillin G is not recommended for use by mouth because... |
|
Definition
| It is destroyed by gastric acid |
|
|
Term
| What anticonvulsant is now being used simultaneously with phenobarbital in dogs that are non-responsive to phenobarbital alone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug would be most effective against dermatophytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are trimethoprim and ormetoprim? |
|
Definition
| Agents that enhance the bacteriocidal activity of sulfa drugs |
|
|
Term
| What effect do procaine and benzathine have on pen G? |
|
Definition
| They prolong absorption of penicillin G from the injection site |
|
|
Term
| Antimicrobial drugs like neomycin, gentamicin and amikacin belong to what group of antibiotics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should tetracycline be avoided in pregnant bitches? |
|
Definition
| It may be deposited in dental enamel and give the pup's teeth a mottled yellow appearance |
|
|
Term
| What drug group is most likely to provoke an allergic reaction in treated animals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of drug is acyclovir? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug is used most commonly to treat Giardia in small animals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which antibiotic commonly used in cattle has been known to cause cardiac arrest in humans who have accidentally injected it into themselves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which specific antifungal drug should be administered IV in 5% dextrose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which sulphonamide is commonly given for its anti-inflammatory effect in treating colitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cephalosporin is commonly given intravenously in small animals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What class is the drug clindamycin (Antirobe)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should Lincosamides not be used in horses, some laboratory animals and some chickens? |
|
Definition
| It causes severe GI problems such as diarrhea to the point of death |
|
|
Term
| For what type of condition is ketaconazole administered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Naxcell is in what classification of antibiotic drugs? |
|
Definition
| 3rd generation cephalosporin |
|
|
Term
| Most antidepressant drugs have their effect through inhibition of reuptake of what neurotransmitter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What color do gram-positive organisms stain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What color do gram-negative organisms stain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacterium is known for its "fruity" smell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the trade name of the drug which can be used to treat Cushings disease and canine cognitive disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For what purpose if bethanecol administered? |
|
Definition
| It increases tone of the detruser muscle in urinary bladder to increase ability to empty the bladder. |
|
|
Term
| For what purpose is allopurinol administered? |
|
Definition
| It inhibits uric acid in the urine helping to stop formation of urate uroliths (most commonly a problem in Dalmations) |
|
|
Term
| What precautions should you take when applying DMSO to an animal's skin? |
|
Definition
| Wear gloves to avoid contact with the drug |
|
|
Term
| Flunixin meglamine (Banamine) is an NSAID most commonly used... |
|
Definition
| In horses for treatment of colic |
|
|
Term
| Glucocorticoids are often used in veterinary medicine for treatment of all of the following except... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Glucocorticoids are generally considered safer to use than NSAID drugs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What NSAID is used cautiously in cats with cardiomyopathy to prevent thromboembolism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An opioid analgesic often used in transdermal patches to control postsurgical pain is... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The H2 receptors are found in the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Short-term effects of corticosteroid therapy include all of the following, except? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Histamine is released from... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which opioid in an agonist/antagonist? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain receptors are called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Parenteral administration of phenylbutazone should only be via... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In dogs that have been receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy, what endocrinopathies can occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What clinical signs may indicate that an animal is experiencing lidocaine toxicity? |
|
Definition
| CNS signs: Drowsiness, ataxia, muscle tremors |
|
|
Term
| What drug provides analgesic relief to a patient undergoing a painful procedure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common side effect of NSAIDs are? |
|
Definition
| GI ulceration and hemorrhage |
|
|
Term
| What type of nerve fiber carries sharp pricking pain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chronic burning pain is carried by what type of nerve fibers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Two NSAIDs used frequently in dogs for the relief of pain and inflammation, especially that associated with osteoarthritis, are |
|
Definition
| Carprofen (Rimadyl) and etodolac (Etogesic) |
|
|
Term
| The species that best tolerates the side effects of NSAIDs is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The adrenal cortex is made up of the... |
|
Definition
Zona glomerulosa
Zona fasciculata
Zona reticularis |
|
|
Term
| What NSAID is administered to cats with a dosing interval of 2 days or more? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A common side effect of antihistamine drugs such as diphenhydramine is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chronic use of moderate to high doses of glucocorticoids may result in the development of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The species that generally clears NSAIDs most slowly is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In dogs that have been receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy, a sudden discontinuation of the drug may result in what medical problem? |
|
Definition
| Iatrogenic addisionian crisis |
|
|
Term
| The glucocorticoid drug commonly used orally to treat inflammatory conditions in dogs and cats is... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what species might glucocorticoid administration lead to abortion during the last few weeks of gestation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Predictable, short-term effects of glucocorticoid therapy of which every client should be aware are? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of glucocorticoid use on the CBC? |
|
Definition
Neutrophils increased
Eosinophils decreased
Lymphocytes decreased |
|
|
Term
| Dogs with heartworm disease are treated with aspirin because it... |
|
Definition
| Decreases the risk of clot formation and proliferation of the pulmonary arterial lining |
|
|
Term
| What topical anti-inflammatory should only be applied to a clean area because it readily penetrates the skin and can carry bacterial toxins or other chemicals with it into the body is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is iatrogenic Cushings? |
|
Definition
| Long-term use of steroids means increased cortisol in the body which leads to Cushings |
|
|
Term
| Give three clinical signs of the disease? |
|
Definition
1) Thin skin
2) Muscle wasting
3) Distended abdomen |
|
|
Term
| What was the original use of DMSO prior to its use in medicine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is DMSO typically used for now? |
|
Definition
| An anti-inflammatory agent and to carry drugs through the skin |
|
|
Term
| Why is epinephrine added to lidocaine when it is used as a local anesthetic? |
|
Definition
| It causes vasoconstriction which keeps the lidocaine in the desired area longer |
|
|
Term
| What class controlled substance is butorphanol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What class controlled substance is fentanyl? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| By what routes is Adequan administered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What side-effects are associated with opioid administration? |
|
Definition
| Respiratory depression, addiction, sedation |
|
|
Term
| What problems are specifically seen in cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are glucocorticoids considered better anti-inflammatory agents the NSAIDs? |
|
Definition
| They act earlier in the inflammatory cycle |
|
|
Term
| Which has more potential side-effects, glucocorticoids or NSAIDS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A cat suffering from megacolon, a condition which causes profound constipation, may have what prescribed in an effort to stimulate gastrointestinal motility? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Spike ingested his owner's cardiac medication about half an hour ago. The veterinarian instructs you to give him an emetic that may be administered into the conjunctival sac, then flushed as necessary. The name of that drug is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A coating agent that forms an ulcer-adherent complex at the ulcer site is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fleet (sodium phosphate) enemas are contraindicated in what species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The group of drugs that is the treatment of choice (at least the strongest) to treat diarrhea in dogs is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug is most likely to prevent motion sickness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The emetic of choice in cats is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The emetic of choice in dogs is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Kaolin and pectin (Kaopectate) and bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol) are examples of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Psyllium and Metamucil are examples of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Potential side-effects of the phenothiazine antiemetics include all of the following, except? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A stool softener often helpful in patients recovering from anal surgery is? |
|
Definition
| Docusate sodium succinate (DSS, Colace) |
|
|
Term
| By what route is insulin usually administered in cases of uncomplicated diabetes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most anti-ulcer medications are? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Common side-effects of chemotherapeutic drugs include all of the following except? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sterile hemorrhagic cystitis is associated with toxicity from what chemotherapeutic agents? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A chemotherapy drug known for its ability to cause irreversible dilated cardiomyopathy in canine patients is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| It is extremely important to prevent perivascular injection of which two chemotherapeutic agents? |
|
Definition
| Methotrexate and vincristine (Oncovin) |
|
|
Term
| T/F--Oxymorphone causes nephrotoxicity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F--Ivermectin has an immunosuppressive effect. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F--In multi-drug chemotherapeutic protocols, drugs are usually selected that work in different parts of the cell cycle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The classic side effected associated with cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) administration in animals undergoing chemotherapy is? |
|
Definition
| Sterile hemorrhagic cystitis |
|
|
Term
| A cat diagnosed with hyperthyroidism may be offered what three treatments? |
|
Definition
1) Radioactive iodine-131 treatment
2) Methimazole (Tapazole) medical management
3) Thyroidectomy surgery |
|
|
Term
| What insulin provides the longest duration of action? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A drug that causes tissue damage when given extravascularly |
|
|
Term
| Serious potential side-effects of estrogen administration include? |
|
Definition
| Bone marrow suppression and pyometra |
|
|
Term
| Regu-mate and Synchro-mate-B, used for estrus synchronization in femal animals, are both examples of synthetic... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Resuspension of NPH insulin is done by? |
|
Definition
| Gently rolling the bottle |
|
|
Term
| The primary function of insulins is to? |
|
Definition
| Facilitate the entry of glucose into cells |
|
|
Term
| Insulin concentration is measured in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What short-acting insulin would be chosen to treat an emergency case of diabetic ketoacidosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When diethylstilbestrol (DES), a synthetic estrogen, is used in higher doses it can have the potentially dangerous side effect of? |
|
Definition
| Bone marrow suppression/anemia |
|
|
Term
| Erythropoietin (Epogen) is primarily used in what case? |
|
Definition
| Cats with chronic renal failure |
|
|
Term
| What drug is used to decrease gastric acid production by blocking histamine receptors in the stomach? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug is considered to be a biologic response modifier? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug in contraindicated in the treatment of glaucoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What chemotherapeutic drug should always be administered in conjunction with saline diuresis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What would be prescribed to a cat that has suffered a thromboembolism secondary to hypertrophic cardiomyopathy for its fibinolytic action? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Oral hypoglycemic drugs, such as glipizide (Glucotrol) are used to treat? |
|
Definition
| Non-insulin dependent diabetes |
|
|
Term
| A veterinarian prescribes erythropoietin for use in a dog with terminal renal failure. Why? |
|
Definition
| For its ability to stimulate red blood cell production and release |
|
|
Term
| The most widely used antiemetics in veterinary medicine are the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What side effect is commonly seen with many chemotherapeutic agents? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| constriction of the pupil |
|
|
Term
| What does CRTZ stand for? |
|
Definition
| Chemoreceptor trigger zone |
|
|
Term
| What hormones are released by the adrenal cortex and what is their function? What areas do they come from? |
|
Definition
Zona fasciculata: Glucocorticoids (Cortisol); increases protein and fat breakdown; increased glucose production; inhibits immune response
Zona glomerulosa: Mineralocorticoids (Aldosterone); increased sodium ion reabsorption; potassium and hydrogen ion excretion
Zona reticularis: Androgens; minor importance in males; in females development of some secondary sexual characteristics |
|
|
Term
| What hormone released from the pituitary gland stimulates hormone production by the adrenal gland? |
|
Definition
| Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) |
|
|
Term
| What is Cushing's disease? |
|
Definition
| Characterized by the hyper-secretion of cortisol and androgens and possibly by excess aldosterone production |
|
|
Term
| What are the classic symptoms of Cushing's disease? |
|
Definition
| PU/PD; abdominal distention; muscle weakness; thin skin; symmetrical alopecia; reproductive problems |
|
|
Term
| What are the three possible causes of Cushing's disease? |
|
Definition
1) Pituitary tumor
2) Adrenal gland tumor
3) Iatrogenic caused by excessive use of steroids |
|
|
Term
| What is Addison's disease? |
|
Definition
| Characterized by abnormally low levels of aldosterone and cortisol. |
|
|
Term
| What symptons can be seen with Addison's? |
|
Definition
| Weakness, weight loss, fatigue, anorexia, increased skin pigment |
|
|
Term
| What changes in electrolytes may be seen in an animal with Addison's and why do these changes occur? |
|
Definition
| Decreased aldosterone inhibits sodium reabsorption causing low sodium and increased potassium also due to low aldosterone. |
|
|
Term
| What change may be seen on an ECG in Addison's disease? |
|
Definition
| T-waves will be big and spikey |
|
|
Term
| What are some things glucocorticoids can be used to treat? |
|
Definition
1) Allergic reactions/conditions
2) Inflammation of the musculoskeletal system
3) Shock/toxemia
4) Laminitis
5) Occular inflammation
6) Addison's disease
7) Autoimmune disease
8) Lymphocytic neoplasms |
|
|
Term
| How should glucocorticoids be dosed differently between dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is it best to wean animals off of glucocorticoids slowly? |
|
Definition
| By tapering off slowly it gives the body a chance to resume natural steroid production helping prevent Iatrogenic Addison's disease. |
|
|
Term
| How should glucocorticoids be administered to minimize side-effects? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Explain the basic mechanism by which NSAIDS work to decrease inflammation. |
|
Definition
| They inhibit an enzyme called cyclooxygenase prohibiting the formation of prostaglandins that cause inflammation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between the way opioids control pain and the function of NSAIDS? |
|
Definition
| NSAIDS control pain by controlling inflammation while opioids control pain by binding with specific receptor sites in the brain, spinal cord and peripheral tissue blocking or inhibiting pain impulses to higher CNS centers resposible for the perception of pain. |
|
|
Term
| Opioid agonists are what schedule of controlled drug? Give some examples. |
|
Definition
| CII; codeine, morphine, fentanyl, hydromorphone |
|
|
Term
| What is the most commonly used opioid agonist/antagonist? What schedule controlled drug is it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Purpose of periosteal elevator? |
|
Definition
| To lift up the periosteum or push soft tissue away from the bone. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| To remove or break up small chuncks of bone or cartilage; named differently based on the shape of the handles |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| To cut through or shape bone as it is hit by a bone mallet |
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Term
| If an osteotome has a curved blade then it is called a? |
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Definition
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Term
| Purpose of a bone mallet? |
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Definition
| To set intramedullary pins or strike an osteotome. |
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Term
| Describe a trephine. What is it used for? |
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Definition
| Small cutting blades to drill into the bone-stylet and hollow core (cross-shaped); to perform bone biopsies or to drill small holes into the skull or sinus |
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Term
| Purpose of Kern Bone holding forceps? |
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Definition
| To hold bone fragments together for fixation with pins, screws, or plates |
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Term
| Purpose of bone chuck? Also called? |
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Definition
| To place intramedullary pins; Intramedullary pin chuck |
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Term
| Kirschner-Ehmer apparatus does what? |
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Definition
| Provides external fixation for fractures |
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Term
| Purpose of a bone curette? |
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Definition
| To scrape out cancellous bone from the medullary cavity or cartilage in an OCD lesion |
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Term
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Definition
| Osteochondritis (osteochondrosis) Dessicans; an abnormality in cartilage development which occurs at an articular surface, such that a cartilage flap arises |
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Term
| What two places are most often affected by OCD? |
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Definition
1) Head of the humerus in the shoulder
2) Humeral condyle in the elbow |
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Term
| What are the three types of open fractures? |
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Definition
Grade I: small puncture through the skin; bone was exposed to the outside, but is no longer visible
Grade II: larger puncture or tear in the skin around the location of the fracture with more soft tissue damage associated with external trauma
Grade III: open fracture with large tears in the skin, with loss of skin. So much skin is lost that the bone is still exposed. Can be called "shearing injuries" |
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Term
| What are the five types of fracture classifications? |
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Definition
1)Bone fractured
2) Open or closed: open fractures penetrate the skin
3) Location of the fracture (midshaft, articular, etc.)
4) Type of fracture (oblique, transverse, spiral)
5) Reducible or non-reducible |
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