Term
| Name six things that contribute to dental disease. |
|
Definition
1) Proteins-excess or deficiency
2) Calcium/phosphorus-reduced calcium
3) Food texture-mechanical act of chewing cleans teeth
4) Breed
5) Age
6) Immunosuppressed |
|
|
Term
| List six roles that technician's play in dental medicine. |
|
Definition
1) Client education
2) Preventative care
3) Diagnostic (dental radiographs)
4) Prphylaxis
5) Oral examinations
6) specialize |
|
|
Term
| What does direct supervision mean? |
|
Definition
| Licensed tech can perform dental while veterinarian is on the premises where the animal is being treated and is quickly and easily available and the animal has been examined by a licensed vet |
|
|
Term
| What are the cells that produce the enamel of the tooth called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do feline permanent incisors erupt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do feline canines erupt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do feline premolars and molars erupt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do canine permanent incisors erupt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do canine permanent canines erupt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do canine premolars erupt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do canine molars erupt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define brachyodont teeth. |
|
Definition
| Short crown height and do not continue to grow once they have erupted (humans, carnivores, pigs) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Teeth that have long crown height and continue to erupt through most of the animal's life span (horses and cheek teeth of ruminants) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Have two sets of teeth, deciduous replaced by permanent (mammals). |
|
|
Term
| Four characteristics of enamel. |
|
Definition
1) outer covering of the crown, very slick and shiny
2) acts as an effective barrier to bacteria
3) no sensory ability
4) thickness of 0.1-0.6mm |
|
|
Term
| Seven properties of dentin. |
|
Definition
1) composes the bulk of the tooth
2) as hard as bone, softer than enamel
3) 72% mineral, 18% organic matter, 10% water
4) sensitive to heat, cold, touch, and osmotic pressure
5) capable of repair by producing tertiary dentin
6) Collagen component provides some flexibility to absorb force without fracture
7) protects the pulp from bacteria |
|
|
Term
| Four characteristics of pulp. |
|
Definition
1) Rich with blood vessels, nerves and lymphatics
2) Occupies the inner cavity, though in the root it is called the root canal
3) registers pain and quickly becomes contaminated, inflamed and necrotic if exposed
4) tooth with pulp necrosis will require either root canal or extraction |
|
|
Term
| Four characteristics of cementum. |
|
Definition
1) A type of bone that covers the root of the tooth
2) attached to the gingiva by the periodontal ligament fibers
3) loss of cementum will prevent gingival reattachment
4) Constantly undergoing resorption and repair |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cementoenamel junction: junction between the crown and the root |
|
|
Term
| Five characteristics of the periodontal ligament. |
|
Definition
1) Absorbs shock of impact
2) Holds the tooth by a network of fibrous connective tissue in the alveolus by attaching the tooth to the alveolus bone
3) Protects vessels and nerves in the periodontal space
4) Contains sensory nerve endings that registers pain
5) Supplies nutrients to the alveolar bone and cementum |
|
|
Term
| Three characteristics of the alveolar bone. |
|
Definition
1) Surrounds and supports the teeth
2) Constantly remodeling internally
3) Reabsorbtion and decomposes in late adult life. |
|
|
Term
| Two characteristics of gingiva. |
|
Definition
1) first line of defense for bacteria
2) soft tissue that provides epithelial attachment |
|
|
Term
| Two characteristics of gingiva. |
|
Definition
1) first line of defense for bacteria
2) soft tissue that provides epithelial attachment |
|
|
Term
| Two characteristics of gingiva. |
|
Definition
1) first line of defense for bacteria
2) soft tissue that provides epithelial attachment |
|
|
Term
| Two characteristics of gingiva. |
|
Definition
1) first line of defense for bacteria
2) soft tissue that provides epithelial attachment |
|
|
Term
| What are the three regions of the gingiva? |
|
Definition
1) marginal gingiva
2) attached gingiva
3) interdental gingiva |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Space between the gingiva and the tooth. Normal depth in dogs is 1-3mm and in cats 0.5-1mm. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Fluid secreted from the gingiva that flushes the sulcus that is rich in immunoglobulins and antimicrobial properties. First defense to inflammation. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The portion of enamel protruding from the crown adjacent to the gingival margin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the gingiva that lays against the crown-usually 1-3mm in depth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The portion of attached gingiva that adheres directly to the tooth surface at the level of the CEJ |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Portion of the oral tissue that firmly adheres to the bone adjacent to teeth. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Epithelial tissue that makes up the labial and buccal surfaces |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| area under a crown between the roots on a multi-rooted tooth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| surface towards the cheek |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| surface towards the tongue |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| surface towards the soft palate |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| surface towards the rostral end (front of mouth) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| surface towards the back of the tooth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| surface facing the nose of the animal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| refers to the apex of the tooth; towards the root |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| towards the crown of the tooth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| surface between two teeth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| used for cutting and nibbling |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cutting, shearing, holding |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What teeth are the carnassial teeth in both the dog and the cat? |
|
Definition
Dog: upper 4th premolar and lower first molars
Cat: upper 4th premolars and lower molars
Teeth with the most roots |
|
|
Term
| What is the feline dental formula for the permanent teeth? |
|
Definition
| 2 x (3I/3I, 1C/1C, 3P/2P, 1M/1M)=30 |
|
|
Term
| What is the canine dental formula for the permanent teeth? |
|
Definition
| 2 x (3I/3I, 1C/1C, 4P/4P, 2M/3M)=42 |
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of a carnassial tooth and is a common dental problem associated with it? |
|
Definition
| A large molar or premolar of a carnivore, specialized for shearing and tearing |
|
|
Term
| What does VOHC stand for and what does it do? |
|
Definition
| Veterinary Oral Health Council: recognizes products that meet pre-set standards of plaque and calculus retardation in dogs and cats |
|
|
Term
| What toy is the best option for canine chew toys? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal occlusion of dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define a class I malocclusion and give an example |
|
Definition
jaw-length is appropriate but the teeth are tipped or rotated out of the normal line of occlusion (neutrocclusion)
Example: Base-narrow canine |
|
|
Term
| Define a class II malocclusion |
|
Definition
| Brachygnathism: upper jaw is longer that the lower. Can be treated in young pets by extracting the lower incisors and canines to allow jaw growth and relieve pain. |
|
|
Term
| Define a class III malocclusion |
|
Definition
| Prognathism: lower jaw is longer than the upper. Normal for boxers, bulldogs and pekingese |
|
|
Term
| What is the condition called supernumerary teeth and how is it treated? |
|
Definition
| Too many teeth causing overcrowding and abnormal formation of calculus; extraction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Teeth that have not been shed when permanent teeth erupt; extraction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Too few teeth; cause abnormal wear |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| One segment of the jaw is disproportionate to the other |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Condition where the enamel is thin or absent. Usually caused by a febrile disease occurring before the animal is six months old; distemper, tetracycline use in pregnancy or the first 5 months of life |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pathological wearing away of the tooth caused by opposing teeth, rocks, fences, etc. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Carious lesion: crater-like lesion also called a cavity |
|
|
Term
| List and define the three classes of furcation exposure. |
|
Definition
F1-Class I: Incipient; when the tip of a probe can enter the furcation area
F2-Class II: Definite; exists when the probe tip extends more than one mm horizontally into the area where the roots converge
F3-Class III: Through and through; alveolar bone has eroded to a point that the explorer probe passes through the defect unobstructed |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Usually secondary to tooth crowding; most commonly affected teeth are the maxillary second and third premolars |
|
|
Term
| Three reason for charting. |
|
Definition
1) Quality care: charting of existing conditions provide basic information for an accurate, comprehensive treatment plan
2) Communication: with other veterinarians
3) Legal documentation of care delivered or declined |
|
|
Term
| Right upper jaw begins with what number in the Triadan system? |
|
Definition
| 1: canine 104, first molar 109 |
|
|
Term
| What are the three parts of a dental hand instrument? |
|
Definition
| Handle, shank, working end |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Single ended and used to remove tartar and plaque from the surfaces of teeth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Double ended; used for supragingival removal or plaque and tartar from the crown; has a sharp point tip with two sharp sides; used in pushing and pulling motions |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| U shaped tip with one sharp side and round toe that protects the gingiva from damage; pulling motion only |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| No sharp sides; used to measure the depth of the gingival sulcus in mm |
|
|
Term
| How is attachment level measured? |
|
Definition
| From the bottom of the pocket to a fixed point on the tooth, such as the CEJ |
|
|
Term
| Shepherds Hook or explorer |
|
Definition
| Sharp tip only; used to detect subgingival calculus and tooth mobility as well as cavities and broken teeth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| used to release the periodontal ligament attachment to the tooth root and the bone |
|
|
Term
| Extraction forceps/Rongeurs |
|
Definition
| used to extract or section teeth before extractions |
|
|
Term
| What number scalpel blades are used to cut epithelial attachment of the gingiva? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After using dental instruments... |
|
Definition
1) Sharpen
2) Clean with dilute chlorahexidine
3) Sterilize |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum length of time an ultrasonic scaler or polisher should remain on a tooth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is dental polish used? |
|
Definition
| It is mildly abrasive helping to smooth out the grooves left in the enamel after scaling |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An inflammation of the marginal gingival tissues induced by bacterial plaque and not affecting the periodontal ligament or alveolar bone; usually reversible with prophylaxis and home care |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Destructive inflammatory process of the peridontium driven by bacterial plaque containing specific bacterial species that cause destruction of the gingiva, periodontal ligament, alveolar bone and root cementum |
|
|
Term
| List and define the four stages of tooth mobility. |
|
Definition
Stage 0 (M0): physiologic mobility up to 0.2mm
Stage 1 (M1): mobility is increased in any direction other than axial over a distance of 0.2mm-0.5mm
Stage 2 (M2): The mobility is increased in any direction other than axial from 0.5-1mm
Stage 3 (M3): Mobility increased in any direction except axial exceeding 1.0 mm or any axial movement |
|
|
Term
| List and define the stages of dental disease. |
|
Definition
Normal (PD0): normal with no gingivitis, inflammation or periodontal disease
Grade 1 (PD1): reversible gingivitis with a dental cleaning and home care
Grade 2 (PD2): advanced gingivitis/early periodontitis; some attachment loss present 1-2mm
Grade 3 (PD3): moderate periodontitis; moderate attachment loss 3-6mm; teeth have fair to guarded prognosis; heavy calculus
Grade 4 (PD4): advanced periodontitis; advanced attachment loss greater than 6mm; poor prognosis |
|
|
Term
| What are six conditions in which antibiotic therapy is mandatory in the treatment of dental disease? |
|
Definition
1) Severe oral ulceration
2) Preserving teeth in severe periodontitis
3) In animals that have systemic disease, metabolic instability or compromised immune systems
4) When tooth scaling is combined with another surgical procedure
5) Osteomyelitis
6) When capping of the pulp chamber is required |
|
|
Term
| What are three benefits of fluoride treatment? |
|
Definition
1) antibacterial agent
2) desensitizes the teeth
3) strengthens the enamel |
|
|
Term
| What are five instances must dental x-rays be taken? |
|
Definition
1) Periodontal disease
2) FORL
3) draining tracts
4) Trauma
5) Oral masses |
|
|
Term
| What are the four layers in a dental film packet? |
|
Definition
1) Film
2) Protective black paper
3) Lead foil
4) Outer paper or plastic wrapping |
|
|
Term
| Five purposes of an enema. |
|
Definition
1) To relieve severe constipation
2) Prepare for abdominal radiograph
3) Prepare for colonoscopy
4) Administer contrast media
5) Irrigate colon in certain poisonings |
|
|
Term
| Why are Fleet enemas contraindicated for use in small animals? |
|
Definition
| Cause an electrolyte imbalance from absorption of sodium and phosphate |
|
|
Term
| What four things are needed to perform an enema? |
|
Definition
1) Enema container with attached tubing and nozzle
2) Enema solution
3) Exam gloves
4) Lubricating jelly |
|
|
Term
| What amount should be used for an enema? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two phases of normal breathing? |
|
Definition
Active (inhalation)
Passive (exhalation) |
|
|
Term
| What is the tidal volume in an awake patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the tidal volume in an anesthetized patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some cases in which assisted ventilation is called for? |
|
Definition
1) Pulmonary and pleural cavity disease
2) Abdominal distention
3) Diaphragmatic hernias
4) Obese animals
5) Restrictive thoracic wraps
6) Thoracotomy |
|
|
Term
| Define assisted ventilation |
|
Definition
| the anesthetist ensures that an increased volume of air is delivered to the patient, although the patient initiates inspiration |
|
|
Term
| Define controlled ventilation |
|
Definition
| The anesthetist forcefully delivers all of the air that is required by the patient and the patient does not make any respiratory efforts. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Peak Inspiratory Pressure: 20 cm of water on the manometer |
|
|
Term
| What is another name for mechanical ventilation? |
|
Definition
| Intermittent positive pressure ventilation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The time taken for one inspiration. Inspiratory/expiratory ratio should be 1:2 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Dogs: 8-14 breaths per minute
Cats: 6-12 breaths per minute |
|
|
Term
| How should a patient be taken off assisted ventilation? |
|
Definition
| Turning off anesthetic agent, then gradually begin reducing the rate of inspiration to 5 per minute watching for spontaneous respirations |
|
|
Term
| What are some risks of controlled ventilation? |
|
Definition
1) Can cause damage to the patient's lungs if done incorrectly
2) Over-ventilation could rupture aveoli
3) Cardiac output may be decreased
4) Constant positive pressure
5) Can force the patient into too deep of an anesthetic plane |
|
|
Term
| If the anesthetized animal is breathing room air, the... |
|
Definition
| Paco2 will rise and Pao2 will fall |
|
|
Term
| Eight reasons to bandage a wound. |
|
Definition
1) Promote wound healing
2) Prevents hematoma and seroma formation by reducing dead space
3) Immoblizing the wound
4) Minimize edema
5) Minimize excessive granulation tissue, especially in horses
6) Absorbs wound exudate and lift away foreign material
7) Promote an acid environment to decrease bacteria
8) Keeps the wound warm which improves healing |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of nonadherent primary layers and give an example of each. |
|
Definition
Occlusive: layer that is impermeable to moisture but allows some air transfer. Tegaderm dressing
Semiocclusive: allows air and moisture to move through dressing-Telfa pads |
|
|
Term
| Describe the primary layer and give an example. |
|
Definition
| Layer that has direct contact with the wound surface, either adherent or non-adherent--Telfa pads |
|
|
Term
| Describe the secondary layer and give an example. |
|
Definition
| Absorbent, padded, conforming layer of cast padding or rolled cotton that covers the primary layer and supports the wound or fracture--Rolled cotton |
|
|
Term
| Describe the tertiary layer and give an example. |
|
Definition
| The holding and protective layer, nonocclusive to allow air transfer, should never get wet--Kling, Vet Wrap |
|
|
Term
| List the seven steps in bandage placement. |
|
Definition
1) Stirrups
2) Primary layer
3) Padded secondary layer
4) Gauze tertiary layer
5) Splint
6) Reflection and twisting of the stirrups to adhere to the gauze layer
7) Protective tertiary layer |
|
|
Term
| Why should the middle two toes of a bandaged limb be exposed? |
|
Definition
| Assessment of color, warmth and swelling |
|
|
Term
| How do you ensure that bandages are not placed too tightly? |
|
Definition
| By slipping two fingers under the edge of the bandage and elastic tape should be pulled off the roll, then laid onto the animal without tension |
|
|
Term
| When making a cast, the casting material replaces which layer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe a Robert Jones bandage and when it should be used. |
|
Definition
| A large bulky bandage that provides rigid stabilization because of the extreme compression of the thick cotton secondary layer used to stabilize fractures distal to the elbow and stifle |
|
|
Term
| Describe a modified Robert Jones bandage and when it should be used. |
|
Definition
| A simple padded bandage that is less bulky used to reduce postoperative swelling of limbs in which cast padding is used in the secondary layer |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum length of time a compression bandage should be left in place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the use of an Ehmer sling? |
|
Definition
| Immobilizes hind limb after reduction of coxofemoral luxation and to prevent weight-bearing after surgery on the pelvis |
|
|
Term
| When should a 90-90 flexion sling be used? |
|
Definition
| To prevent stifle joint stiffness and hyperextension caused by quadriceps muscle contracture after distal femoral fractures or any surgical procedure on the hind limb |
|
|
Term
| How does a Velpeau sling work and when should it be used? |
|
Definition
| Holds forelimb against the chest and prevents movement of all joints and prevents weight bearing; immobilizes scapular fractures and scapulohumeral joint luxations |
|
|
Term
| What is a carpal flexion sling? |
|
Definition
| Non-weight bearing forelimb sling |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| After coxofemoral reduction, pelvis fractures, as well as to prevent injury or further trauma on lateral chest or abdomen wounds |
|
|
Term
| Describe a closed wound and give an example. |
|
Definition
| Non-penetrating wounds of the skin caused by the result of impact of blunt objects; contusions |
|
|
Term
| What are the five types of open wounds? |
|
Definition
1) Lacerations: inflicted by a relatively dull object sharp enough to tear tissue
2) Abrasions: rubbing off of the epidermis and a variable amount of dermis
3) Incision: made by a sharp object that creates smooth wound edges
4) Stab/puncture wounds: penetration of skin by sharp object; perforating wounds
5) Burns: thermal damage to different layers of the dermis |
|
|
Term
| What are the four degrees of contamination? |
|
Definition
1) Clean wound-uninfected operative wound made aseptically
2) Clean-contaminated wound: operative wound in which the respiratory, alimentary or genitourinary tract is enetered; wounds with minor breaks in aseptic technique
3) Contaminated wounds: include traumatic wounds, major breaks in aseptic techniques, incisions made in areas of acute non-purulent skin
4) Dirty/infected wound: old traumatic wounds and wounds involving infection or perforated viscera; exudate associated |
|
|
Term
| What are the three stages of healing and when do they occur? |
|
Definition
1) Inflammatory phase: 6-8 hours; golden hour
2) Debridement phase: 6 hours to 5 days
3) Repair phase: starts at 3-5 days, lasts 3-6 days |
|
|
Term
| What are five wound factors that delay wound healing? |
|
Definition
1) poor blood supply
2) edema
3) infection
4) foreign bodies
5) dead space with accumulation of fluid |
|
|
Term
| What are seven host factors that delay healing? |
|
Definition
1) Geriatric age
2) malnutrition-low protein
3) systemic disease
4) endocrinopathy
5) obesity
6) cancer and cancer treatments
7) self-trauma |
|
|
Term
| What three things do you use to evaluate a wound on a limb? |
|
Definition
1) Vascular integrity
2) Neural integrity
3) Orthopedic status |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of drains and give an example of each. |
|
Definition
Passive: Penrose
Active: Jackson-Pratt |
|
|
Term
| What are the four types of wound closure? |
|
Definition
1) Primary closure: first intention; sutured soon after the injury
2) Delayed primary closure: wound 1-3 days old after injury, before granulation tissue
3) Healing by contraction and epitheliialization: second intention healing
4) Secondary closure: Third intention healing; sutured 3-5 days after injury when granulation tissue is present |
|
|
Term
| What are eight factors affecting decision of how to let a wound heal? |
|
Definition
1) time elapsed from injury
2) contamination
3) amount of tissue damage
4) thoroughness of debridement
5) blood supply to wound
6) health of animal
7) location of wound
8) is closure possible without tension or dead space |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When tissue becomes black and leathery |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The wound repair breaks down and the wound becomes open again |
|
|
Term
| What are some common problems in wound healing? |
|
Definition
1) edema
2) dehiscence
3) exhuberant granulation tissue
4) infection
5) fluid accumulation
6) fistula
7) hypertrophic scar
8) contracture deformity |
|
|
Term
| When using hand instruments to clean teeth... |
|
Definition
| hold in a modified pen grasp using overlapping pull strokes that are directed away from the gingival margin |
|
|
Term
| Dental prophylaxis is followed by polishing... |
|
Definition
| to reduce the enamel surface area by removing etches and grooves |
|
|
Term
| Pocket depth is measure from the... |
|
Definition
| Current free gingival margin to the bottom of the gingival sulcus |
|
|
Term
| You have an instrument in your hand that has two sharp sides, a rounded back and a rounded point. You are holding a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When polishing teeth using an air driven unit, the speed of the hand piece should be |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Scale calculus from the tooth surface located in the gingival sulcus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Scale large amounts of calculus from the tooth's surface |
|
|
Term
| When scaling gross calculus from the teeth... |
|
Definition
| Hold the scaler using a modified pen grasp |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sprays the tooth with water to cool the tooth and prevent pulp damage |
|
|
Term
| The permanent canine and premolar teeth in dogs generally erupt at what age? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Using the triadan system the proper way of describing the cat's first lower right molar is... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Using the triadan system, the proper way of describing the dog's first uper left permanent premolar is... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Normal scissor occlusion is when the maxillary forth premolar occlude... |
|
Definition
| bucally to he mandibular fourth premolar |
|
|
Term
| An abnormally short mandible is generally considered what occlusion class? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Brachygnathism is a genetic defect best characterized as... |
|
Definition
| a maxilla that is longer than the mandible |
|
|
Term
| Prognathism is a normal condition in brachycephalic breeds but is considered a genetic defect in other breeds. It is best described as... |
|
Definition
| A mandible that is longer than the maxilla |
|
|
Term
| Malocclusions can lead to dental disease for a number of reasons including all but which of the following? |
|
Definition
| Presence of resorptive lesions leading to destruction of teeth |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following teeth are not normally present in the adult cat? |
|
Definition
| Upper PM1 and lower PM1 and PM2 |
|
|
Term
| A dog that is exposed to distemper perinatally may develop which of the following oral pathologic conditions? |
|
Definition
|
|
