| Term 
 
        | how do kidneys selectively conserve/excrete fluids and electrolytes? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
ultrafiltration of plasma by glomerulusselective tubular reabsorption of water and solutesselective tubular secretion of solutes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the metabolic functions of the kidney? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Glycogen storageRenin productionAcid-Base balanceToxin and drug excretionErythropoietin productionactivation of vitamin D to calcitriol |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is azotemia? what is uremia? |  | Definition 
 
        | azotemia- the buildup of nitrogenous wastes such as BUN and/or creatinine.    uremia-the clinical signs associated with renal failure (loss of appetite, vomiting, oral ulceration, oral bleeding, uremic breath) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe pre-renal azotemia |  | Definition 
 
        | decreased renal perfusion (severe dehydration, hypotension, heart failure), or increased production of urea (GI bleeding, hi protein diet); kidneys may be normal |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | generalized kidney dysfunction; kidneys abnormal |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe post-renal azotemia |  | Definition 
 
        | interference with urine excretion (obstruction, urinary tract rupture); kidneys may be normal |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ________ is when the frequency of urination is increased, while _______is the increase in total volume of urine |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are five useful questions to ask a client? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 daily water consumption (general volume)volume of urine passedtime taken to urinatefrequency of urination (and when/where)force and color of urine stream   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | smaller animals tend to require ______water per unit body weight. Water consumption also depends on: |  | Definition 
 
        | smaller animal= more water per unit weight requirement   Water consumption depends on nature of diet (dry vs wet), salt intake, enviro humidity and temp, exercise, fecal characteristics |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | define the parameters of polydipsia in small animals |  | Definition 
 
        | water consumption>100ml/kg/day |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is normal urine output in small animals? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | define polyuria and its parameters in small animals |  | Definition 
 
        | polyuria-increased frequency AND volume of urine   if SG>1.025 in a dog or >1.035 in a cat, polyuria is UNlikely. nocturia can be a clue |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | define oliguria and its parameters in small animals |  | Definition 
 
        | oliguria-reduced urine production   <0.27-1.0mL/kg/hr or <6.5ml/kg/day     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | define anuria and its parameters in small animals |  | Definition 
 
        | lack of urine production  <0.1ml/kg/hour or <2ml/kg/day |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what should be assessed of the kidneys upon physical palpation? |  | Definition 
 
        | position, size, shape, symmetry, consistency, and surface characteristics (easier on cat) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what should be assessed of the bladder upon physical palpation? |  | Definition 
 
        | degree of distention, thickness of wall, contents of bladder, pain, sensation of crepitus, calculi |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what should be assessed of the prostate upon rectal palpation in the dog? |  | Definition 
 
        | size, shape, position, mobility, consistency, symmetry, presence of pain |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why should a rectal exam be performed on all female and male dogs? |  | Definition 
 
        | ability to palpate the urethra |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | wetness of the hind legs or abdominal hair in males or perivulval hair in females may suggest: |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which two reflexes should be tested during a PE? |  | Definition 
 
        | pudendal and perineal reflexes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are five GFR measurement tests? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
nuclear scintigraphyIohexol clearance testcreatinine clearance testinulin clearance testCystatin C |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | in order for a substance to be a marker of glomerular filtration, it must: |  | Definition 
 
        | 
be freely filtered across the glomerular capillarynot be reabsorbed or secreted into the tubular lumennot be stored, metabolized, or synthesized by the kidney |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which test is most commonly used to approximate GFR? describe it. what is its limitation? |  | Definition 
 
        | serum creatinine   from muscle, consistent from day to day because dependent on muscle mass, excreted by kidneys via glomerular filtration alone.   can be affected by tying up or crush injury "rhabdomyolysis", and cachectic animals may have decreased serum creatinine  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the limitations of using BUN to estimate GFR? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
urea synthesized in liver from dietary ammonia, amino acids, and catabolism of endogenous protein. dietary protein, body energy balance, and magnitude of fluid turnover can change daily. dogs with GI hemorrhage can have disproportionately increased BUN |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A significant increase in either creatinine or BUN generally does not occur until  ____% of functional renal mass is lost. A change in electrolytes will occur with ____% renal function loss |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | the plasma volume that must be cleared of a substance in order to provide the amount of this substance in urine per unit of time. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe how a creatinine clearance test is done. |  | Definition 
 
        | patient's urine is collected over 24 hours, and serum sample collected to measure serum creatinine. urine volume is recorded and urine creatinine measured. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the advantage of nuclear scintigraphy? |  | Definition 
 
        | the GFR of each kidney can separately be assessed |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what type of urine collection is initially adequate for UA's for hematuria? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | bacterial cultures should not be run on: |  | Definition 
 
        | mid-stream voided samples |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what type of bacterial culture can be performed on aseptic urethral catheterization samples? |  | Definition 
 
        | quantitative culture only |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what portions of the test strip are inaccurate? |  | Definition 
 
        | leukocytes, nitrites, urobilinogen, (also protein in alkaline urine) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | when should UA be performed on a sample? |  | Definition 
 
        | within 1 hour, or 4-6 hours if refrigerated and then brought back to room temperature and gently agitated |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | normal attitude, appetite, and pollkiuria are signs of ______, while back pain is a sign of ______ |  | Definition 
 
        | lower urinary tract disease upper urinary tract disease |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | the normal concentrated SG ranges for dogs and cats are: |  | Definition 
 
        | dog 1.030-1.045 cat 1.045-1.065 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | the SG of isosthenuric urine is_____ and the normal pH range of urine is ______ |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are Tamm-Horsfall proteins? does the dipstick test detect this? what can give false results and what can be used to avoid this? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
proteins added to urine in tubulesno, dipstick primarily detects albuminvery alkaline urine may give a false elevated proteinuriasulfosalicylic acid turbidometric (SSA) test |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe the UPC test, its indications, and normal values |  | Definition 
 
        | 
urine protein/creatinine ratiodone on single sample to estimate 24 hour protein excretion.should be <0.5 in the dog, <0.4 in the cat, not meaningful in the face of gross hematuria or pyuria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | proteinuria can indicate what? |  | Definition 
 
        | anything.  increased glomerular permeability, decreased tubular reabsorption, inflammation anywhere, bleeding into the urinary tract, DM, hypertension, hyperadrenocorticism, strenuous exercise, seizures, fever |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the differential diagnoses for glucosuria with hyperglycemia? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
DMhyperadrenocorticismfluid therapy (iatrogenic)epinephrine secretion/adminstressed catspheochromocytoma |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the differential diagnoses for glucosuria without hyperglycemia? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
impaired tubular reabsorptioncongenital tubular defectacute renal failure w/severe tubular damagefanconi syndromefalse positive (drugs) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which acid is detected in a ketone test usually? what is NOT detected? What are their typical percentages? |  | Definition 
 
        | acetoacetic acid. (20%) beta-hydroxybutyric acid NOT detected (78%) (acetone is remaining 2%) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | if urine is spun down and the supernatant remains red, but the serum is clear, then the likely pigment is: |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | if urine is spun down, and serum also spun down, and both supernatants are still pigmented red, the likely cause is: |  | Definition 
 
        | free hemoglobin due to hemolysis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | false positives for blood on a dipstick can be attributed to: |  | Definition 
 
        | free hemoglobin high vitamin C old strips |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where do the following originate and what are their significance?   a. caudate cells b. squamous cells c. renal tubular cells d. transitional cells |  | Definition 
 
        | a. renal pelvis (unknown) b. vagina, prepuce, distal urethra (no significance) c. renal tubules (tubular inflammation as in tubular necrosis, pyelonephritis, or glomerulonephritis) d. urethra, bladder, ureters (traumatic catheterization, inflammation, neoplasia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the differential diagnoses for bilirubinuria (3)? |  | Definition 
 
        | hemolysis hepatocellular disease bile duct obstruction |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what type of bilirubin is present in urine, and which species has a low threshold for clearance? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the differential diagnoses for pyuria (5)? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
bacterial infectionurolithiasisneoplasiaidiopathichemorrhage  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what 5 crystals are found in acid urine? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
uric acidammonium urateamorphous uratescystinecalcium oxalate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what 4 crystals are found in alkaline urine? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
struviteamorphous phosphatescalcium phosphatecalcium carbonate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | the presence of few (1-2) hyaline casts can be due to(3): |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | white blood cell casts indicate _______. red blood cell casts indicate _________. waxy casts indicate ________________. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
pyogenic process in kidneyglomerulonephritisnephrotic syndrome |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | in general, how should casts be interpreted? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
few- relatively unimportantcellular inclusions- active ongoing renal diseaseabsence-does not rule out possibility of active renal diseasecan be an early sign of aminoglycoside toxicity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | seen more in cats and dogs and are normal. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the possible parasites seen in small animal urine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Dioctophyma renale eggs Capillaria plica eggs |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where is GGT and NAG found? |  | Definition 
 
        | proximal tubules. increased activity can be a more sensitive indicator of acute kidney injury |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | renal size on VD radiographs should be:   and other things to evaluate include: |  | Definition 
 
        | 2.5-3.5x L2 in dogs 2.4-3.0x L2 in cats   size and position of bladder, prostate mineralization of prostate presence of uterus sublumbar lymph node enlargement lysis of ventral L6-L7 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the means of contrast studies of the urinary tract and what are their contraindications/drawbacks? |  | Definition 
 
        | intravenous urography-severe, primary renal failure will not take up contrast agent. PU/PD will dilute. dehydration can lead to acute renal failure negative contrast cystography- air can cause embolism in patients with hematuria. requires sedation positive contrast cystography (for bladder integrity)-requires sedation double contrast cystography-not used for rupture, requires sedation retrograde urethrogram-requires anesthesia (females), sedation (males) vaginourethrogram-requires anesthesia US guided pyelography     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are 5 virulence factors of uropathogens? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
motility for retrograde migrationadhesion moleculesbacterial capsular Ag to inhibit phagocytosis and complement-mediated lysisbacterial urease leading to ammonia formation to damage the uroepitheliumproduction of hemolysins and iron-chelating agents that enable bacteria to scavenge iron |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the host defense mechanisms in the urinary tract? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
normal micturitionnormal anatomic structures in the urethra and uretersmucosal defense barriersantimicrobial properties of urine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | normal micturition is dependent on: |  | Definition 
 
        | 
adequate urine flowfrequent voidingcompleteness of emptying |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | anatomic barriers in the urethra and ureters include: |  | Definition 
 
        | 
urethral lengthurethral high pressure zoneurethral peristalsisureterovesical flap valve and ureteral peristalsis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | the mucosal defense barrier is made up of: |  | Definition 
 
        | 
intact mucosaAb production (IgG and IgA)surface glycosaminoglycan layercell exfoliationcommensal bacteria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the antimicrobial properties of urine? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
hi or low pHconcentrationureadiet-derived organic acids |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T or F: leukocytosis is typical of cystitis |  | Definition 
 
        | False. only in severe cases. the majority of bacterial cystitis cases do not have a systemic peripheral WBC response |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is pyelonephritis diagnosed? |  | Definition 
 
        | excretory urography-small and irregular with pelvic dilatation.  diverticula have irregular borders   US-guided pyelocentesis with culture to prove bacterical pyelonephritis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is important to remember when getting a culture sensitivity report back? |  | Definition 
 
        | urine concentrates, so even antibiotics with a lower MIC may work. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the signs of lower urinary tract disease in patients with DM or Cushing's? |  | Definition 
 
        | NOTstranguria, pollakiuria, discolored urine as in normal patients.  maybe still: strong odor, pain upon palpation, thickened bladder (chronic)   you MUST culture and sensitivity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the signs of upper urinary tract disease? |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Variable and non-specific o   Anorexia, lethargy o   “Back pain” o   PU/PD (chronic) o   Depressed o   Fever o   Pain on palpation of T-L area |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the signs of lower urinary tract disease? |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Pollakiuria o   Stranguira o   Hematuria o   Strong odor o   Normal attitude, appetite unless prostate involved o   Pain on palpation of caudal abdomen o   Thickened bladder (chronic, small dogs and cats) o   Palpation may stim stranguria o   Remainder of exam normal (with uncomplicated infection) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how would asymptomatic bacteruria be treated? |  | Definition 
 
        | §  positive culture w/o signs§  Cushing’s and chemo patients
 §  Usually treated to prevent pyelonephritis
 §  Do not treat if resistant bacteria and antibiotics are toxic
 -not common because you're not looking for it.  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what constitutes a simple or uncomplicated urethrocystits? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 No predisposing factors/concurrent abnormalities  Typical lower UTI clinical signs Usually young female, otherwise normaldysuria, pollakiuria, urgency without fever or systemic signs   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what constitutes a complicated UTI? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Predisposing factors: ectopic ureters, neuro, neoplasia, foreign objects, urine retention, DM, Cushing's, chronic renal disease)Unlikely to cure w/o correcting underlying problemPyelonephritis is usually the result of a complicated UTI |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 4 possible treatment outcomes of UTI's? |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Cure §  Eradication of microorganisms §  Resolution of clinical signs §  Proven by negative culture o   Persistence §  Failure to eradicate §  Demonstrated by positive culture 3-5 days after initiation of Abx therapy §  R/O inappropriate drug, inadequate dose, frequency, owner/patient compliance o   Relapse §  Positive culture 7-14 days after discontinuation of Abx (same strain) §  Similar R/O as persistence §  Or deeper seeded infection, mixed infection, formation of drug resistance o   Reinfection §  May be difficult to distinguish from relapse or persistence §  Culture different organism §  Re-eval for predisposing cause                                 Base therapy on new culture and sensitivity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | staph, strep, and proteus can be treated with: E-coli and anything can be treated with: pseudomonas and anything can be treated with: |  | Definition 
 
        | penicillins TMS or amoxicillin treat the other, then also give tetracycline |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how long should antibiotic treatment last for a UTI and what are guidelines for choosing antibiotics? |  | Definition 
 
        | o   10-14 days for uncomplicated bacterial cystitis o   4-6 weeks for complicated UTI including pyelonephritis and prostatitis o   Mixed infection §  Treat with single Abx that both are sensitive to §  Treat with 2 different Abx based on C&S (owner compliance) §  Treat predominant pathogen. Culture during therapy and treat second pathogen if still present.  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | in non-castrated dogs, what is presumed in bacterial UTI's? what is often detrimental to treatment? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
the prostate gland is involved.Many drugs do not penetrate prostate-blood barrier without inflammation, so chronic cases may take up to or longer than 8 weeks treatmenttreatment for chronic prostatitis is similar to pyelonephritiseffective drugs include TMS, chloramphenicol, quinolones, erythromycin, clindamycin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | for animals with frequent reinfection, what can be used? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
MethenamineUrinary antiseptic (not antibiotic)Converted to formaldehydeRequires acidic urine pH<6 (dietary urinary acidifiers, may promote vomiting)  Every 6 hours for dogs, every 12 hours for catsneed to clear current infection first   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | if a client is resistant to a urine culture, it is ok (not ideal), to forego it and treat empirically IF: |  | Definition 
 
        | 
young to middle age neutered femalehas not had these signs previouslyhad dysuria/stranguria, pollakiuria, with/without hematuriadoes not have history of recent antibiotic use |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | empiric first-line antibiotics include: |  | Definition 
 
        | cephalexin, amoxicillin, clavamox 10-14 days |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | hematuria is defined as (diagnostic test-wise): |  | Definition 
 
        | presence of blood on dipstick and greater than 5 RBCs/HPF |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | the differential diagnoses for hemoglobinuria include: |  | Definition 
 
        | 
IMHADICtransfusion reactionheat strokesplenic torsioncaval syndrome of HWcoral snake envenomation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | the differential diagnoses of upper urinary tract macroscopic hematuria include:   |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | the differential diagnoses of lower urinary tract macroscopic hematuria include:   |  | Definition 
 
        | 
infectioninflammationcalculi in bladder or urethraneoplasiatraumabenign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatic cyst, paraprostatic cystpro-estrus, estrus, subinvolution of placental sites |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the physiologic cause of pollakiuria? |  | Definition 
 
        | bladder capacity is reduced or when pain is produced by minimal distension of diseased bladder |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what areas are affected in initial hematuria? |  | Definition 
 
        | trigone, urethra, prostate, vagina, penis, or prepuce |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what areas are affected in terminal hematuria? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what areas are affected in total hematuria? |  | Definition 
 
        | kidneys, ureters, bladder; also coagulopathy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | if there is blood not associated with urination, the likely cause is: |  | Definition 
 
        | prostate, urethra, prepuce, vagina, or uterus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what does mild prostatic enlargement in an intact 7 year old male dog indicate? |  | Definition 
 
        | likely benign normal prostatic hyperplasia  (>5 yrs) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | cystocentesis should be avoided if: |  | Definition 
 
        | an ultrasound is to be done later the same day |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | RBC lysis and cast dissolution occur rapidly in: |  | Definition 
 
        | hyposthenuric or alkaline urine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | prostatic fluid can be collected by: |  | Definition 
 
        | FNA, prostatic massage, ejaculation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | renal biopsy should be performed if ________ is suspected |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | an exploratory laparotomy evaluates |  | Definition 
 
        | the bladder mucosa and underlying prostatic disease |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the differential diagnoses for microscopic hematuria? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
glomerulonephritischronic bacterial pyelonephritiscystic renal diseasestrenuous exerciserenal neoplasia (macroscopic upper UT)trauma (macroscopic upper UT) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what does microscopic hematuria and proteinuria suggest, especially with hypoproteinemia and hypoalbuminemia?   what test is done to determine significance of protein loss? |  | Definition 
 
        | glomerulonephropathy UPC (not valid in gross hematuria due to leakage of albumin) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | glomerulonephropathy can be due to: |  | Definition 
 
        | 
as primary diseasecanine lupus erythematosuscanine pyometracanine adenovirus infectiondirofilaria immitisehrlichiosisborreliosisbrucellosisleishmaniasisrocky mountain spotted feverFIPvariety of canine/feline neoplasias   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | acute pyelonephritis is characterized by what? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
peripheral blood leukocytosisazotemiasystemic disease (fever, vomiting, inappetance, lethargy, back pain)not persistent hematuria, but occasionalactive urine sedimentpositive urine culture |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | nephrolilthiasis is characterized by: |  | Definition 
 
        | 
hematuriarenal/perirenal pain if obstructedhematuriaUTI signspossible hydronephrosis, hydronephrosis, hydroureter |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the signs of renal carcinoma? |  | Definition 
 
        | gross hematuria without stranguria blood red or coffee colored back pain polycythemia (inc. renal erythropoietin)   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is seen on radiographs of a cat with renal lymphoma? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where does transitional cell carcinoma occur? |  | Definition 
 
        | renal pelvis, ureter, urinary bladder |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the treatment for a benign prostatic hyperplasia that is causing symptoms? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | polycystic kidneys are common in: |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the signs of renal infarction? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
hematuriaother signs related to kidney not seenv/d, painmay have no signs in older patients, incidental finding during US |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe recurring macroscopic hematuria of Welsh corgi dogs |  | Definition 
 
        | 
due to renal hemangioectasiaearly middle ageno dysuria or pollakiuriabreed, hx, PE, UA, IVP, renal arteriography, renal biopsy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe idiopathic renal hematuria in SA |  | Definition 
 
        | 
similar to hematuria of Welsh corgisbleeding so severe that anemia producedfrank bleeding without inflammatory cells in UAbleeding from one or both kidneys |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the causes of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)? |  | Definition 
 
        | heat stroke, shock, lepto, heavy metal |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe feline idiopathic cystitis including diagnosis |  | Definition 
 
        | 
younger cats, with decreasing severity with ageextremely commonelement of obstructionacute onset of lower UT signs for 2-7 days, 50% will have recurrence of signsurine, UT, or UT response to urine problem OR systemic issue with bladder signsdiagnosis of exclusionhematuria  +/- pyuria with negative culturethick bladder on radiographcystoscopy- glomerulations (small hemorrhagic lesions) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe the therapy for FIC |  | Definition 
 
        | 
decrease risk of obstructionreduce severity of signsdecrease frequency of episodesdo nothing with self-limiting casesincrease water consumptiondecrease stress (Feliway)amitriptylineGAGsanalgesicsno antibiotics |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the definition of acute renal failure? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
sudden onset of hemodynamic, filtration, and excretory failure of kidneys with subsequent accumulation of metabolic toxins and dysregulation of fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balancerapid onset of primary renal azotemia over hours to dayspathologic oliguria of less than a day 
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the definition of acute kidney injury? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
sudden onset renal parenchymal injurymild changes in serum creatinine, urine output, other biomarkers |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
degeneration of renal tubular epithelium due to hypoxic/ischemic or toxic causes. hi blood flow, hi metab, and conc mech make kidneys susceptiblecan be iatrogenic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the toxic causes of AKI? |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Endogenous: calcium, myoglobin, uric acid, hemoglobin o   Exogenous: ethylene glycol, aminoglycosides, easter lily, monensin, radiographic contrast agents, chemo agents |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the ischemic or vascular causes of AKI? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
dehydrationhemorrhageshockhypotensionhypertensionsepsistraumaheart failure, cardiac arrest, arrhythmiavasculitisthromboembolismDICanesthesiaNSAIDSACE inhibitors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the inflammatory causes of AKI? |  | Definition 
 
        | pyelonephritis interstitial nephritis (lepto) glomerulonephritis (SLE, tick-borne dz) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe the induction phase of AKI |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Induction phase (hrs to days) §  Hard to test, must recognize potential sources of insult §  Best time to treat and prevent progression (e.g. known ethylene glycol ingestion, treat NOW) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe the maintenance phase of AKI |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Maintenance phase (days to weeks) §  Tubular lesions established §  Low BRF and GFR perpetuated by intra-renal mechanisms §  Mechanisms of perpetuation ·         Afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction ·          decreased glomerular capillary surface area and permeability ·         Efferent arteriolar vasodilation ·         Obstruction of tubular lumens ·         Backleak of filtrate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe the recovery phase of AKI |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Recovery phase (weeks to months) §  Compensatory hypertrophy (not really recovery) §  Nephron repair ·         Requires intact basement membrane and viable epithelial cells §  Improvement in renal function ·          increased GFR, decreased BUN/Creat §  Degree of recovery dependent on severity and extent of injury  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
Depressed, anorexic, vomiting, dehydration, anorexia, known/suspected toxic exposureDetection of azotemia with inappropriate USGIncreasing serum Creatinine (0.3 increase in 24 hours)Urine vol may be increased, decreased, or normal ********Assume azotemia is due to AKI until proven otherwiseIdentify life threatening complications, aka Hyperkalemia, acidosis, dehydration, sepsisLocalize pre, ren, postrenal (Hx, PE, UA, imaging)o   Determine urine production rate after rapid rehydration§  Oliguric <1mL/kg/hr, <2 with IV fluidso   Culture itDiscriminate between AKI and Chronic kidney disease§  Chronic unlikely has oliguria/anuria (only at the very end)§  Small kidneys and weight loss/poor BCS is usually chronic§  Nonregenerative anemia is chronic§  Hyperkalemia is acute§  Renal osteodystrophy is acute   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what labwork clues can point to AKI? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
inc P exceeds inc in creatmild to mod decrease in Cainc in K propotional to inc in creatdec in HCO3 roughly proportional to degree of renal failureinc in anion gap due to accumulation or organic acidsglucosuria in absense of inc in blood glucose = dysfunction of proximal tubuleproteinuria may be indicator of glomerular or tubular damagecasts indicate active renal tubular pathology |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the positive and negative prognostic indicators of AKI? |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Negative prognostic factors §  Oliguria §  Pre-existing renal or non-renal disease §  Systemic infection §  Older age o   Positive prognostic factors §  Local infection §  Toxins (OTHER than ethylene glycol and lilies) ·         More likely to have intact tubular basement membrane |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is dehydration corrected? |  | Definition 
 
        | BW*%dehydration. remember to correct for ongoing losses too (v/d, etc) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are two specific life-threatening metabolic disturbances you need to correct in AKI? |  | Definition 
 
        | §  Hyperkalemia >8mg/dl or EKG abnormalities·         IV fluids
 ·         Glucose and insulin
 ·         Calcium gluconate (cardio protective)
 ·         NaHCO3
 ·         Furosemide
 ·         Potassium binding agents (oral, rectal)
 §  Metabolic acidosis pH<7.1 or HCO3<12
 ·         IV fluids
 ·         NaHCO3
 o   Not a benign treatment!
 o   Slowly give ½ calculated deficit
 o   Reassess frequently!!!
 o   can -->decrease Ca, paradoxic CSF acidosis, cerebral edema, death
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is oliguria converted to nonoliguria? |  | Definition 
 
        | §  Additional fluid volume expansion §  Dextrose, mannitol §  Furosemide §  Dopamine, dobutamine §  Diltiazem fenoldopam (still controversial) §  ***these do not reverse the disease, only aide in excretion of metabolic waste/toxins §  If not converted or over-hydrated, then keep going. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how are diuretics used in AKI? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
§  Must be rehydrated§  Does not increase GFR, generally no decrease in azotemia§  Goal is to increase urine volume§  Furosemide-avoid when dealing with AG toxicity§  Dextrose-osmotic diuretic, little use.§  Mannitol-osmostic, avoid if over-hydrated |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the two options if a patient fails to convert to nonoliguria? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
conservative management of fluid, electrolytes, acid-base, uremic symptomsdialysis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are three GI issues that must be managed in AKI? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
control gastric-mediated gastritis (decreased GFR= serum levels increased, increased acid production and ulceration)histamine H2 blockers (famotidine)proton pump blocerks (omeprazole)cytoprotective agents (sucralfate)control vomiting with antiemeticsmetoclopramide (not concurrent with dopamine)chlorpromazineondansetroncontrol nitrogenous waste products by reducing amino acid content of parenteral/enteral feeding |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T or F: antibiotics are used in AKI treatment |  | Definition 
 
        | True. ampicillin or amoxicillin are good initial choices because of breadth and safety. avoid nephrotoxic drugs (e.g. gentamicin) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | the aim of AKI treatment overall is to: |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the common complaints in large animal UT disease? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
weight lossabnormal urinationdecreased performanceincontinenceabdominal distention and colicperipheral or ventral edema |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the normal water intake and urine output for a horse? |  | Definition 
 
        | 40-60ml/kg/day water intake (20-40L)  Urine output 5-20ml/kg/day (5-15L) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | in a transrectal, what is palpable in a horse vs a cow? how are small ruminants palpated? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Horse: kidneys (both only if pathologic), bladder, ureters (if path), urethraCow: dorsal midline lobulated left kidney, ureters(if path), bladder, urethrasheep/goats: digital, transabdominal, perineal urethra, inspect urethral process |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how are urine samples obtained from horses, cows/swine, and small ruminants? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
horse: will urinate in their stall if clean. catheterization-avoid xylazine (induce glucosuria), avoid furosemide (alters UA)cow/swine-stroke perineum or use wet brush on prepucesmall ruminants-hold nose |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what can be seen in large animal cbc's in bacterial infections or chronic inflammatory processes? |  | Definition 
 
        | neutrophilia and hyperfibrinogenemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | in a horse with chronic renal failure, what is seen on lab tests? what about acute renal failure? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
CRF-profound hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemiaARF- hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why is BUN sometimes an unreliable biomarker in LA? |  | Definition 
 
        | o   In LA, can be altered by many things. (including profuse sweating) o   Ruminant and hindgut fermenters can use urea, so levels can be falsely normal |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the exceptions to alkaline urine in herbivores? |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Exceptions: hi protein diet, anorexia, neonate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which large animals may have low or hyposthenuric urine? |  | Definition 
 
        | high producing dairy cattle will be low normal suckling neonates will be hyposthenuric |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is fractional clearance (FC) calculated and how is it useful? |  | Definition 
 
        | [U(x)/P(x)] x [P(Cr)/U(Cr)] x 100 low sodium FC is dehydration (distinguishes prerenal or renal) hi P or K FC indicates tubular damage, diet, acid-base       |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does glucosuria aide in localization of disease? |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Glucosuria and hyperglycemia=systemic disease o   Glucosuria and euglycemia=tubular disease |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | from where does GGT originate and what does it reflect? |  | Definition 
 
        | serum GGT- liver and pancreas  urine GGT- brush border enzyme of proximal tubule epithelial cells, only indicates active destruction |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where can protein originate? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
kidneys (glomerulonephritis, amyloidosis, acute interstitial nephritis, pyelonephritis) or from exudative processes affecting ureters, urinary bladder, or urethra |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | normal horse urine contains _______crystals and is ________colored |  | Definition 
 
        | CaCO3  straw colored, slightly turbid |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | when getting a catheterized sample form a horse, you should: |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | glucosuria with hyperglycemia in horses is seen in: |  | Definition 
 
        | 
equine metabolic syndromepituitary parts intermedia dysfunctioncorticosteroid therapyintense exercisepain shock   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the causes of pre-renal azotemia in the horse? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
severe hypotensionprolonged anesthesiaGI fluid lossesacute blood lossendotoxemiaexercise-associated sweat lossvolume redistribution (third spacing) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the causes of ATN (broad categories)? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
ischemia (vasomotor nephropathy) (ace in hypotensive)aminoglycoside antibioticsother antimicrobialsNSAIDS (phenylbutazone, flunixin)pigment nephropathy (Mb, Hb)heavy metals (arsenic, mercury, lead, cadmium)vitamin D (supplement or plant source)vitamin K3leptospirosis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | put the following in decreasing order of nephrotoxicity a. streptomycin b. kanamycin c. amikacin d. gentamicin e. neomycin   |  | Definition 
 
        | 
neomycinkanamycingentamicinamikacinstreptomycin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how do aminoglycosides affect the kidneys in ATN? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
bind to phospholipase on brush border of proximal tubulesaccumulate in renal cortex and interfere with lysosomal, mitochondrial, and Na/K/ATPase functionrenal vasoconstrictionsaturable binding, so prolonged exposure is worseserum creatinine should be monitored every 3-5 days, also GGT, proteinuria, glucosuria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how do NSAIDS affect the kidneys in ATN? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
COX inhibitors which inhibit prostaglandins which are needed for vasodilationespecially hypovolemic patientsrenal medullary crest or papillary necrosis is classic lesion due to lower blood flow |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does pigment nephropathy lead to ATN? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
pigments cause vasoconstriction leading to ischemiatubular obstruction by heme castsreduction of ferrous iron compounds forms increased hydroxyl radicals causing cellular damage |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how can acute interstitial nephritis be distinguished from ATN in a horse? what is it? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
hematuria, eosinophilia, eosinophiluria immune-mediated caused by delayed cell-mediated hypersensitivity or Ab against tubular basement membranesprognosis grave |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are two likely causes of acute glomerulonephritis in the horse? |  | Definition 
 
        | group C streptococcal Ag and equine infection anemia viral Ag-Ab complexes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is pre-renal azotemia ruled out in horses? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
get a urine sample. give fluid therapypre-renal will 50% or greater reduction in magnitude of azotemia within 24 hours. renal patients will respond slower |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is hyperkalemia treated in a horse wiht ARF? |  | Definition 
 
        | non-potassium containing fluid such as 0.9% NaCl |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is ARF treated in horses? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
discontinue nephrotoxics/ treat underlyingadmin fluids and correct electrolytes/acid-base (LRS, Normosol-R, Plasmalyte 148)observe for urination within 12-24 hours. edema in conjunctiva will develop in oliguric patientsif oliguric, admin furosemide, mannitol, or dopamineperitoneal and hemodialysis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | neonatal uroperitoneum is more common in _____ than _____. the four types are: |  | Definition 
 
        | more common in colts than fillies 
bladderurethral (perineal, preputial)urachal (SC edema around umbilicusureteral (retroperitoneal) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the signs and lab test results in uroperitoneum? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
lethargy, colic, abdominal distention, stranguria, pollakiuria, depression, anorexiapost-renal azotemia, hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hyperkalemiaperitoneal creatinine >2x serum creatinine   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the treatment for uroperitoneum? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
0.9%NaCl, 5% dextroseCa gluconate, bicarbdrainage |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the symptoms of CRF in the horse |  | Definition 
 
        | 
uremiachronic weight loss with anorexiarough hair coatpoor athletic performance/lethargy due to anemia due to decreased erythropoietinPU/PDventral edemanephrotic syndrometartar buildup and oral lesions and halitosis   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the lab results for CRF in a horse? |  | Definition 
 
        | persistent isosthenuria increased creatinine ration of BUN:Cr>10:1 mild nonregenerative normocytic normochromic anemia hypoalbuminemia hypercalcemia hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia kidney small firm and irregular   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is CRF treated in horses? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
IV fluids discontinue nephrotoxicsAntibiotics in pyelonephritisgive good grass hay and carbs instead of hi protein and Casalt supplementation if hyponatremic/chloremicomega-3 fatty acids as antioxidant |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what could be the cause of UTI's in horses? |  | Definition 
 
        | E coli, Proteus, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, strep, Staph, Pseudomonas, Corynebacterium renale, and candidiasis following longterm systemic antibiotics |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | uroliths in horses are most common in (location, age, etc.)________ and form by _______ |  | Definition 
 
        | lower urinary tract geldings and adults bladder, urethra, kidney, ureter (in that order) urine stasis and nidus like desquamated epithelial cells or necrotic debris   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug may be associated with uroliths in horses?   what dietary change can help prevent future uroliths? |  | Definition 
 
        | phenylbutazone   cut out alfalfa and other hi Ca foods |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how are uroliths treated in a horse? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
males-pararectal cystotomy, perineal urethrostomy, cystotomyflank-nephrectomy, ureterotomylithotripsymedical-bladder lavage, anti-inflam, antimicrobials, inc water consumption, eliminate alfalfa, urinary acidifiers unproven |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
at level of ischial arch at dorsocaudal aspecthemospermia, hematuria at end of urinationno pollakiuria or dysuriaaffects quarterhorse geldingsblowout of corpus spongiosum into urethracan diagnose via endoscopytx: nothing, subischial/perineal urethrotomy, buccal mucosal graft |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the signs of renal adenocarcinoma in horses? what is the treatment? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
hematuria, weight loss, colicunilateralazotemianephrectomy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is sabulous cystitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | accumulation of crystalloid urine sediment secondary to incomplete bladder emptying weight stretches detrusor muscle, further disrupting normal urination incontinence, hindlimb weakness, ataxia tx: bladder lavage, broad spec antibiotics, bethanechol   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the causes of pyelonephritis in the horse? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
ectopic ureter, bladder paralysis, bacteremia, nephrolithiasisActinobacillus, Strep equi, R equi, Salmonella   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe UMN and LMN bladder dysfunction |  | Definition 
 
        | 
UMN- increased urethral resistance     pollakiuria, sporadic dribbling     spinal cord lesionsLMN-relaxed bladder and sphincter     continuous dribbling, neuro deficits     cauda equina syndrome     EHV-1 myelitis     Sorghum/sudan grass toxicity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the two types of diabetes insipidus? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
neurogenic- dec vasopressin secretionnephrogenic- collecting duct insensitive to vasopressin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | in horses, why does pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction cause PU/PD? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
impingement of hypothalamus and posterior pituitarycortisol antagonism of vasopressinhyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the effect of the cantharidin toxin? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
blister beetle found in alfalfa hayirritates lower UT, causing hemorrhagic cystitisalso affects GI and CV systemssevere hypocalcemia, hypomagneaemia, azotemia, metabolic acidosis, hypoproteinemia   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | renal tubular acidosis in horses is what type? |  | Definition 
 
        | type 2 proximal other signs collectively known as Fanconi syndrome |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | a neonate foal has high creatinine and BUN. what does this indicate? |  | Definition 
 
        | probably placental function, not renal. may be azotemic if premature. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the causes of hemoglobin nephropathy and thus ATN in ruminants? |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Post-parturient hemoglobinuria §  Older dairy cows 5-8 y §  1-4 week post-partum §  Low intracellular P §  Tx: blood, fluid, P o   Copper toxicity in sheep o   Bacillary hemoglobinura (very fast) §  Clostridium novyi type D §  Hemolysis and liver failure o   Water intox o   Salt poisoning o   Selenium deficiency o   White muscle disease (vit E, Se def) §  Small ruminants susceptible §  Neonates can be affected in utero |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is a cause of myoglobin nephropathy and thus ATN in ruminants? |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Cassia occidentalis (wild coffee) §  Common in FL and TX §  Causes muscle degeneration §  Toxin contained within fruit |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what 4  plants can cause ATN in ruminants? why? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Cestrum diurnum-vitamin D toxicosisCassia occidentalis (wild coffee)-myoglobin nephropathyOak-tannins hydrolyzed in rumen to gallic acid   (NOT in sheep and goats bc they have tanninase)(melena, tenesmus, bloody diarrhea, weight loss, bitter milk)Pigweed (Amaranthus)-oxalates chelate calcium (weakness, ataxia, ascites, 5-7 days after turnout) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is an infectious cause of renal damage in ruminants? What is the treatment? |  | Definition 
 
        | ·         Leptospira interrogans o   Hardjo, Pomona, grippo o   Pathophys §  Renal vasc endo damage §  Hypoxia §  Hemoglobinuria §  Interstitial nephritis o   Young animals exposed to stagnant water o   Fever, abortion, mastitis, meningitis o   Diagnosis §  Paired titers §  Urine PCR, fluorescent Ab, dark field microscopy o   Tx: tetracycline (also nephrotoxic, use if Creatinine is normal), penicillin, ampicillin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe amyloidosis in ruminants |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Inflam dz-->serum amyloid A-->deposition in kidney, GI, liver, adrenal-->disrupt glomerulus-->PLN o   Diarrhea, wt loss, edema o   Severe proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia o   Renal or pulmonary thrombosis o   Biopsy, prognosis poor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the causes of acute and chronic glomerulonephritis in ruminants?   what are the signs? |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Acute §  Pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants o   Chronic §  BVD, hog cholera, African swine fever (latter two reportable) §  Inherited in finnish landrace lambs (higher number of lambs, higher risk) o   Poor productivity, diarrhea, edema o   Proteinuria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the various infectious causes of pyelonephritis in ruminants? what are their routes? |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Corynebacterium renale §  Contagious in cattle, host-adapted §  Transmission ·         Direct, venereal, iatrogenic §  Subclinical carriers possible o   E. coli §  Ascending o   C. pseudotuberculosis, A. pyogenes, Salmonella, S. aureus §  Hematogenous |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the signs, diagnostics, and treatment of pyelonephritis in ruminants? |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Signs §  Colic, arched back, treading, tail swishing §  Fever, depression, inappetance, decreased milk yield §  Blood, pus, crystals on vulva o   Diagnosis §  Enlarged, painful kidney, dilation of pelvis §  ↑white count, fibrinogen, globulin §  +/-azotemia §  Hematuria, proteinuria, bacteriuria, leukocyte casts §  Culture o   Treatment §  G+: penicillin §  G-: ceftiofur §  >3 weeks (more longterm for good penetration) §  Quarantine infected animals (coryne renale) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is Stephanurus dentatus? |  | Definition 
 
        | nematode inhabiting perirenal tissues signs: production lossis, ascites, skin nodules, paresis tx: fenbendazole or ivermectin at 4 month intervals |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the predisposing factors for urolithiasis in ruminants? |  | Definition 
 
        | §  Hi conc, pelleted diet ·         Feedlot, pet §  High silicate grass §  Decreased water consumption ·         Supersaturation §  Estrogenic substances ·         Nidus §  Vitamin A deficiency §  Males castrated early and urethra doesn't develop as much  §  legumes-->calcium carbonate §  fescue in cattle or apples, sweet potato, pigweed in sheep-->oxalate calculi §  grain diets-->struvite and calcium phosphate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the signs of urethral obstruction in ruminants? where do they block? |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Restlessness, treading, tail-swishing, teeth grinding o   Vocalization o   Stranguria o   Rectal prolapse o   Small ruminants block at urethral process o   Feedlot steer-sigmoid flexure o   Other: Neck of bladder, ischial arch o   Urethral rupture-“water belly” o   Bladder rupture §  Abdominal distension §  Anorexia §  colic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the clinical path signs of urethral obstruction in ruminants? |  | Definition 
 
        | §  Azotemia §  Hemoconcentration §  hypoNa, hypoCl §  hyperP, hyperK, hperMg §  abdominocentesis ·         peritoneal: serum Cr>2:1 §  PE: pulsing on abdominal palp (trying to urinate) §  US: measure bladder, look at kidneys |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the medical and surgical treatments for urethral obstruction? |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Medical tx: fluid/electrolyte therapy, Walpole’s solution pH 4.5, >30% recurrence, US-guided cystocentesis to relieve pressure §  amputate urethral process ·         Temporarily restores patency in 66% ·         Catheterize and flush retrograde o   Sx: §  Perineal/ischial urethrostomy ·         Stricture in <1yr ·         Good in feedlot steer §  Tube cystotomy ·         44% recurrence in 12-60 months §  Bladder marsupialization |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how can urolithiasis be prevented in ruminants? |  | Definition 
 
        | §  Determine composition of stone §  ensure dietary Ca:P >2:1 §  Mg <0.2% §  More forage, avoid legumes §  Acidify urine ·         Ammonium chloride ·         Decrease dietary cation:anoin difference ·         Variable effects ·         Systemic academia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is enzootic hematuria? |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Bracken fern §  Chronic ingestion (herd problem?) ·         Hematuria in several animals ·         Bladder neoplasms ·         Dysuria, pollakiuria, death §  Acute toxicity ·         Bone marrow suppression §  Pathology  ·         Irritant ·         Immunosuppression o   Recrudescence of BPV-2 ·         Mutagenic, carcinogenic §  Treatment=prevention |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | ·         Ulcerative posthitis and vulvitis   o   Caused by Corynebacterium renale §  Proliferates in hi urinary urea/excess protein in diet §  Hydrolyzes urea to ammonia causing ulceration §  Contagious §  Moist ulcers §  May progress to internal form ·         Adhesions, distorted vulvar conformation §  Dysuria, vocalization, weight loss §  Isolate affected §  Reduce protein §  Systemic and topical antimicrobials |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | infection of the umbilical vein in ruminants can lead to: |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is IRIS AKI Stage I? |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Patient with historical, clinical, lab kidney dz §  Biomarker §  Glucosuria §  Cylinduria §  Inflammatory sediment §  Microalbuminuria o   Patients with imaging evidence of AKI that are non azotemic o   Patients whose clinical presentation is readily fluid-therapy responsive o   Also includes animals with progressive (hourly or daily) increases in serum creatinine of 0.3 within the nonazotemic range during a 48 hour interval |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | o   Kidney damage for >3 months, defined by struc/func abnormalities of kidney with or without decreased GFR §  Path abnorm §  Markers of kidney damage including  comp of blood/urine/imaging §  GFR-not measured as much in vetmed |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | briefly describe mild, moderate, and severe renal insufficiency |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Mild renal insufficiency §  Up to 60% loss of function §  Minimal symptoms §  PU/PD, anorexia, vomiting §  Minimal treatment, mostly preventative o   Moderate renal insufficiency §  Azotemia §  Anorexia, wt loss, anemia, metabolic acidosis, hyperparathyroidism, +/-systemic hypertension §  Progressively more intensive treatment, tailored to indiv problems o   Severe renal insufficiency §  Past 80% func loss §  Severe azotemia §  Anorexia, vomiting, wt loss, anemia, metabolic acidosis, hyperparathyroidism, hyperphosphatemia, systemic hypertension §  Intensive treatment limits of conventional treatment |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what 4 organs are most susceptible to hypertension? |  | Definition 
 
        | kidneys, heart, brain, eyes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the two biomarkers used to subclassify chronic kidney disease? |  | Definition 
 
        | proteinuria, hypertension |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | briefly describe the three nerves involved in micturition |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Hypogastric nerve §  sympathetic efferent synapse on β receptors in bladder (detrusor muscle) §  also on α receptors on internal urethral sphincter o   Pelvic nerve §  Parasympathetic synapse on bladder wall (Ach) o   Pudendal nerve §  Carries somatic efferent to skeletal external sphincter muscle |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe the two phases of normal micturition and the nerves' roles in each. |  | Definition 
 
        | o   Storage phase §  Sympathetic dominance §  Hypogastric nerve- allows relaxation of bladder, inc tone of internal sphincter §  Pudendal nerve- maintains external urethral sphincter tone o   Voiding phase §  Sensory ·         Distensionàpelvic nerveà brain ·         Painà hypogastric nerveàbrain §  Motor ·         Voluntary voiding o   Ponsà reticulospinal tractà pelvic nerve ·         Voiding phase o   Bladder contraction §  Ach release from pelvic nerve o   Urethral relaxation §  Inhibition of hypogastric (internal) and pudendal nerve (external striated) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the substages of acute renal disease? |  | Definition 
 
        | oliguria, renal replacement therapy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the substages of hypertension? |  | Definition 
 
        | with/without organ complications also "not taken" as in fractious animals |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe the cerebral neurogenic disturbances of micturition |  | Definition 
 
        | §  Brain (rare) ·         Cerebrum o   Loss of voluntary control o   Nocturia/unconscious urination o   Mentation changes youth, dementia, tumor emptying complete   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the UMN disturbances of micturition? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Lesion cranial to S1, look around L5Voluntary bladder function lossSphincter intact, so difficult to express, no inhibitionInterneurons stimulated over time, can inhibit pudendal nerve to an extent, but not coordinated, and internal urethral sphincter not inhibited.·         Tetra or paraparesis/paralysis·         Hyperreflexia·         CP deficits·         Differentialso   IVDo   Traumao   neoplasia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe LMN disturbances in micturition |  | Definition 
 
        | 
·         Sacral lesiono   Pelvic/pudendal nerve·         Distended, flaccid bladder·         Paraparesis/paralysis·         dec anal tone and dec perineal reflex·         Differentialso   Traumao   Cauda equine syndromeo   Congenitalbladder easily expressed   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | describe cerebellar disturbances to micturition |  | Definition 
 
        | 
if detrusor is intact, then no signsas detrusor function is lost, more frequent urination and bladder emptying incomplete |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are some non-neurogenic causes of incontinence? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
voiding disorders (increased residual volume)detrusor atonyurolithiasisneoplasiastrictureprostatic diseasedyssynergiastorage disorders (normal residual volume)ectopic ureterchronic inflammationneoplasiahormone responsive urethral incompetence |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the surgical treatment of pelvic bladder? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the treatment for hypercontractile bladder? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Enhance relaxation (all have anticholinergic activity)o   Propantheline (anticholinergic)o   Amytryptyline (tricyclic antidepressant)o   oxybutynin (antimuscarinic)  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the treatment for detrusor atony? |  | Definition 
 
        | §  Keep bladder small §  Stim detrusor §  Bethanechol ·         Parasympathomimetic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the treatment for urethral dysfunctions (spasms)? |  | Definition 
 
        | §  smooth muscle relaxation-α antagonist    ·         prazosin ·         phenoxybenzamine ·         tamsulosin- NOT IN CATS §  striated muscle relaxation -anticholinergic ·         diazepam ·         acepromazine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the treatment for urethral incompetence? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
·         DES (diethylstilbesterol) or premarin NOT IN CATSo   Dogs only, after spayo   Low risk of blood dyscrasiaso   ↑sensitivity and density of α receptors in trigone and urethrao   Careful of aplastic anemia, dose low·         Phenylpropanolamineo   α adrenergico   most commonly used in dogso   dose is per/cat not per/kg |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the steps in urolith formation? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
supersaturated solutionnucleation initiates precipitationdirect growthaggregation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the steps in an emergency treatment for obstruction? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
treat hyperkalemia and acidosis via IV fluids sedation/anesthesiapass largest catheter possibleapply digital pressure rectally proximal to obstruction, then release once pressure has built up from flushingcan do decompressive cystocentesistube cystotomy or surgery if necessary |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how are struvites prevented in small animals? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
reduce protein, phosphorus, and magnesiuminhibits urease-producing bacteria from increasing ammonium levels and thereby phosphate ion availability, and supersaturation eventPt will have reduced urine SG, urine pH, and BUN |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how are calcium oxalate stones prevented in small animals? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
no specific supersaturation eventcauses: genetic risk or lack of alternative ions available for bindingnot amenable to dissolution therapyminimize calciuria and oxaluriakeep urinary SG low, avoid aciduriahydrochlorothiazide diuretics (dec calciuria)potassium citrate (urine pH mod and alternate binding for Ca)vitamin supplementation does not work and can exacerbate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how are urate stones prevented in small animals? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
common in dalmatians or patients with hepatic dysfunction (PSS)amenable to dissolutiondecrease urine urate and ammoniumreduce protein and nucleic acid in dietneutral or alkaline urine pH targetedRx: Allopurinol (not in hepatic disease patients) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the gender predisposition for struvites and calcium oxalates in small animals? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
  Struvite F>>MCalcium oxalate F=M  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the clinical signs of uremia in small animals? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
weight loss with reduced appetitevomiting, dark tarry stoolsinc water consumption and urine outputnocturiaskin dryeasily dehydratable esp when stressedsystemic hypertensionpallor due to anemiaoral ulcersimmature animals-bone disease due to secondary hyperparathyroidismthick maxilla, rubber-jaw, loose teethdepressioncoarse tremors, tonic-clonic seizures |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the three causes of anemia in CRF? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
reduced RBC production (reduced erythropoietin)reduced RBC lifespan (Na/K/ATPase pump affected)blood loss (GI ulceration, dec gastrin production) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why does CKD lead to bone lesions? |  | Definition 
 
        | secondary hyperparathyroidism inc P retention dec Vit D and dec Ca GI absorption and inc PTH renal osteodystrophy metastatic calcification |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is hypertension treated in dogs vs cats? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
dogs-start with ACE inhibitor like enalapril (efferent), double, then amlodipine (Ca channel blocker)cats-start with amlodipine (afferent), double, then try ACE inhibitor like enalapril or beta blocker like propranolol or atenolol   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | for management of CKD in small animals, the objectives are to: |  | Definition 
 
        | 
limit stresscontrol anorexia, vomiting, azotemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperparathyroidism, metabolic acidosis, anemia, and hypertensionfree access to fresh, clean waterdiet 70-110kcal/kg BW/day of metabolizable energylimit sodium intake to help with hypertensionmaintain serum bicarb >20mEq/Ltransfusion, EPO, or Darbepoietin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is stage 1 with proteinuria treated in dogs? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
treat underlyingconsider kidney biopsyACEI plus dietary plus dietary protein reductionlow-dose acetylsalicylic acid if serum albumin is <2.0 g/dlmonitor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | idiopathic renal hematuria in horses |  | Definition 
 
        | 
sudden onset, life threateningcan have multiple episodes no systemic illnessmore than 50% of Arabiansno age, sec predispositionblood clots from one or both kidneysusually not azotemic since only one kidney affectedtreat with supportive care (transfusion, hemostasis), unilateral nephrectomy, but will eventually affect other kidney   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how are stage 2 canine patients treated? |  | Definition 
 
        | same as stage 1, but lower intervention point for treatment of proteinuria and reduce phosphate intake (by restriction or binders (aluminum hydroxide, aluminum carbonate, calcium carbonate, calcium acetate)), correct metabolic acidosis once on stable diet. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the treatment for stage 3 and 4 canine patients? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
further reduce phosphate (3&4)dietary protein reduction (3&4)treat anemia if affecting quality of life (3&4)treat v/d/nausea with H2 blockers (3&4)fluids to treat hydration (3&4)dialysis (4) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the consequences of hyperparathyroidism? |  | Definition 
 
        | (i) Hyperparathyroidism 1. inc PTH a. Kidneys inc Ca dec  P b. Bones inc Ca resorp inc P resorp c. Calcitriol inc Ca absorp inc P absorp |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is prerenal, renal, and postrenal azotemia distinguished? |  | Definition 
 
        | pre-renal: elevated SG renal: reduced SG or isosthenuric, but not hyposthenuric usually post-renal: hyperK, hypoNa, poss hi BUN/hi Creat and low protein in abdominal fluid |  | 
        |  |